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  • Type casting in C++ by detecting the current 'this' object type

    - by Elroy
    My question is related to RTTI in C++ where I'm trying to check if an object belongs to the type hierarchy of another object. The BelongsTo() method checks this. I tried using typeid, but it throws an error and I'm not sure about any other way how I can find the target type to convert to at runtime. #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> class X { public: // Checks if the input type belongs to the type heirarchy of input object type bool BelongsTo(X* p_a) { // I'm trying to check if the current (this) type belongs to the same type // hierarchy as the input type return dynamic_cast<typeid(*p_a)*>(this) != NULL; // error C2059: syntax error 'typeid' } }; class A : public X { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { }; int main() { X* a = new A(); X* b = new B(); X* c = new C(); bool test1 = b->BelongsTo(a); // should return true bool test2 = b->BelongsTo(c); // should return false bool test3 = c->BelongsTo(a); // should return true } Making the method virtual and letting derived classes do it seems like a bad idea as I have a lot of classes in the same type hierarchy. Or does anybody know of any other/better way to the do the same thing? Please suggest.

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  • Hibernate mapping Problem

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

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  • reshaping a data frame into long format in R

    - by user1773115
    I'm struggling with a reshape in R. I have 2 types of error (err and rel_err) that have been calculated for 3 different models. This gives me a total of 6 error variables (i.e. err_1, err_2, err_3, rel_err_1, rel_err_2, and rel_err_3). For each of these types of error I have 3 different types of predivtive validity tests (ie random holdouts, backcast, forecast). I would like to make my data set long so I keep the 4 types of test long while also making the two error measurements long. So in the end I will have one variable called err and one called rel_err as well as an id variable for what model the error corresponds to (1,2,or 3) Here is my data right now: iter err_1 rel_err_1 err_2 rel_err_2 err_3 rel_err_3 test_type 1 -0.09385732 -0.2235443 -0.1216982 -0.2898543 -0.1058366 -0.2520759 random 1 0.16141630 0.8575728 0.1418732 0.7537442 0.1584816 0.8419816 back 1 0.16376930 0.8700738 0.1431505 0.7605302 0.1596502 0.8481901 front 1 0.14345986 0.6765194 0.1213689 0.5723444 0.1374676 0.6482615 random 1 0.15890059 0.7435382 0.1589823 0.7439204 0.1608709 0.7527580 back 1 0.14412360 0.6743928 0.1442039 0.6747684 0.1463520 0.6848202 front and here is what I would like it to look like: iter model err rel_err test_type 1 1 -0.09385732 (#'s) random 1 2 -0.1216982 (#'s) random 1 3 -0.1216982 (#'s) random and on... I've tried playing around with the syntax but can't quite figure out what to put for the time.varying argument Thanks very much for any help you can offer.

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  • How to create a platform ontop of CSLA? <-- if in case it make sense

    - by Peejay
    Hi all! here is the senario, i'm developing an application using csla 3.8 / c#.net, the application will have different modules. its like an ERP, it will have accounting, daily time record, recruitment etc as modules. Now the requirement is to check for common entities per module and build a "platform" (<- the boss calls it that way) from it. for example, DTR will have an entity "employee", Recruitment will have "Applicant" so one common entity that you can derive from both that can be put in the platform is "Person". "Person" will contain typical info like name, address, contact info etc. I know it sounds like OOP 101. the thing is, i dont know how i am to go about it. how i wish it was just a simple inheritance but the requirement is like to create an API of some sort to be used by the modules using CSLA. in csla you create smart objects right, inheriting from the base classes of csla like businessListbase, readonlylistbase etc. right? what if for example i created a businessbase Applicant class, it will have properties like salary demand, availability date etc. now for the personal info i will need the "Person" from the "platform" and implement it to the applicant class. so in summary i have several questions: how to create such platform? if such platform is possible, how will it be implemented on each module's entities? (im already inheriting from base clases of csla) if incase 1 and 2 are possible, does it have advantages on development and maintenace of the app? the reason why i'm asking #3 is because the way i see it, even if i am able to create a platform for that, i will be needing to define properties of the platform entity on my module entities so to have validation and all. im sorry if i'm typing nonesense i'm really confused. hope someone could enlighten me. thank you all!

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  • Special Characters in JS, how to use "/" character

    - by user1461222
    I've vbulletin 4.2.0 i added an special button to it's editor with this article; http://www.vbulletinguru.com/2012/add-a-new-toolbar-button-to-ckeditor-tutorial/ The thing i want to do is add an syntax highlighter code with this button. When i use below code it's working fine; CKEDITOR.plugins.add( 'YourPluginName', { init: function( editor ) { editor.addCommand( 'SayHello', { exec : function( editor ) { editor.insertHtml( "Hello from my plugin" ); } }); editor.ui.addButton( 'YourPluginName', { label: 'My Button Tooltip', command: 'SayHello', icon: this.path + 'YourPluginImage.png' } ); } } ); so i changed this code to this, because i wannt to add specific text like below; CKEDITOR.plugins.add( 'DKODU', { init: function( editor ) { editor.addCommand( 'SayHello', { exec : function( editor ) { editor.insertHtml( '[kod=delphi][/kod]' ); } }); editor.ui.addButton( 'DKODU', { label: 'My Button Tooltip', command: 'SayHello', icon: this.path + 'star.png' } ); } } ); after update the code when i press the button nothings happen, i checked with google and this site but i couldn't figure it out i think i made mistake with some special characters but i couldn't find what's the problem. If i made some mistakes when i publish this question forgive me and also forgive me for my bad english, thanks.

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  • Do all the HTML5 storage systems work together ?

    - by azera
    While there are a lot of good stuff about html5, one thing I don't get is the redondant storage mechanism, first there is localstorage and sessionstorage, which are key value stores, one is for one instance of the app ("one tab"), and the other works for all the instances of that application so they can share data. Both are saved when you close your browser and have a limited size (usually 5MB), that's great and everything would be nice if we stopped there. But then there is the "Web SQL Database", which has the same security system as the localstorage, the same size limit, the same everything except it works like/is sqlite, with tables and sql syntax and all of that. And the bummer is, they don't work on the same data at all ! This is not two way to access your data, this is really two storage for every html 5 app out there (not created by default yes, but still you see my point). What I would like to know is, is there a reason for both of this mechanisms to exist at the same time ? Or did they just look at sql and nosql movement to pick the best then went "screw it let's add both !" ? Why not implement local/session storage as a table inside web sql db ?

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  • Sencha : how to pass parameter to php using Ext.data.HttpProxy?

    - by Lauraire Jérémy
    I have successfully completed this great tutorial : http://www.sencha.com/learn/ext-js-grids-with-php-and-sql/ I just can't use the baseParams field specified with the proxy... Here is my code that follows tutorial description : __ My Store : Communes.js ____ Ext.define('app.store.Communes', { extend: 'Ext.data.Store', id: 'communesstore', requires: ['app.model.Commune'], config: { model: 'app.model.Commune', departement:'var', // the proxy with POST method proxy: new Ext.data.HttpProxy({ url: 'app/php/communes.php', // File to connect to method: 'POST' }), // the parameter passed to the proxy baseParams:{ departement: "VAR" }, // the JSON parser reader: new Ext.data.JsonReader({ // we tell the datastore where to get his data from rootProperty: 'results' }, [ { name: 'IdCommune', type: 'integer' }, { name: 'NomCommune', type: 'string' } ]), autoLoad: true, sortInfo:{ field: 'IdCommune', direction: "ASC" } } }); _____ The php file : communes.php _____ <?php /** * CREATE THE CONNECTION */ mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "pwd") or die("Could not connect: " . mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("databasename"); /** * INITIATE THE POST */ $departement = 'null'; if ( isset($_POST['departement'])){ $departement = $_POST['departement']; // Get this from Ext } getListCommunes($departement); /** * */ function getListCommunes($departement) { [CODE HERE WORK FINE : just a connection and query but $departement is NULL] } ?> There is no parameter passed as POST method... Any idea?

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  • Formatting associative array declaration

    - by Drew Stephens
    When declaring an associative array, how do you handle the indentation of the elements of the array? I've seen a number of different styles (PHP syntax, since that's what I've been in lately). This is a pretty picky and trivial thing, so move along if you're interested in more serious pursuits. 1) Indent elements one more level: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 2) Indent elements two levels: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 3) Indent elements beyond the array constructor, with closing brace aligned with the start of the constructor: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 4) Indent elements beyond the array construct, with closing brace aligned with opening brace: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); Personally, I like #3—the broad indentation makes it clear that we're at a break point in the code (constructing the array), and having the closing brace floating a bit to the left of all of the array's data makes it clear that this declaration is done.

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  • Conditional row count in linq to nhibernate doesn't work

    - by Lucasus
    I want to translate following simple sql query into Linq to NHibernate: SELECT NewsId ,sum(n.UserHits) as 'HitsNumber' ,sum(CASE WHEN n.UserHits > 0 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END) as 'VisitorsNumber' FROM UserNews n GROUP BY n.NewsId My simplified UserNews class: public class AktualnosciUzytkownik { public virtual int UserNewsId { get; set; } public virtual int UserHits { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } // UserId key in db table public virtual News News { get; set; } // NewsId key in db table } I've written following linq query: var hitsPerNews = (from n in Session.Query<UserNews>() group n by n.News.NewsId into g select new { NewsId = g.Key, HitsNumber = g.Sum(x => x.UserHits), VisitorsNumber = g.Count(x => x.UserHits > 0) }).ToList(); But generated sql just ignores my x => x.UserHits > 0 statement and makes unnecessary 'left outer join': SELECT news1_.NewsId AS col_0_0_, CAST(SUM(news0_.UserHits) AS INT) AS col_1_0_, CAST(COUNT(*) AS INT) AS col_2_0_ FROM UserNews news0_ LEFT OUTER JOIN News news1_ ON news0_.NewsId=news1_.NewsId GROUP BY news1_.NewsId How Can I fix or workaround this issue? Maybe this can be done better with QueryOver syntax?

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  • How to make an AJAX call immediately on document loading

    - by Ankur
    I want to execute an ajax call as soon as a document is loaded. What I am doing is loading a string that contains data that I will use for an autocomplete feature. This is what I have done, but it is not calling the servlet. I have removed the calls to the various JS scripts to make it clearer. I have done several similar AJAX calls in my code but usually triggered by a click event, I am not sure what the syntax for doing it as soon as the document loads, but I thought this would be it (but it's not): <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "AutoComplete", dataType: 'json', data: queryString, success: function(data) { var dataArray = data; alert(dataArray); } }); $("#example").autocomplete(dataArray); }); </script> <title></title> </head> <body> API Reference: <form><input id="example"> (try "C" or "E")</form> </body> </html>

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  • jquery autocomplete: works for first value, how to enable it for next?

    - by Toni Michel Caubet
    hello there! I'm using autocomplete so user can easly enter data on inputs, like this: <? $a = new etiqueta(0, ''); $b = $a->autocomplete_etiquetas(); ?> <script type="text/javascript"> function cargar_autocomplete_etiquetas(){ $("#tags").autocomplete({ source: [<? echo $b; ?>] }); } </script> $a = $b its an array with a result like: 'help','please',i','need','to,'be able to', 'select next item',' with autocomplete'; and i checked the ui documentation, but it doesn't fith with my source method.. any idea? I'm trying like this (edited with Bugai13 aportation): <? $a = new etiqueta(0, ''); $b = $a->autocomplete_etiquetas(); ?> <script type="text/javascript"> function cargar_autocomplete_etiquetas(){ $("#tags").autocomplete({ source: [<? echo $b; ?>], multiple: true, multipleSeparator: ", ", matchContains: true }); } </script> but i don't know how to do it.. any idea? are .push and .pop functions from the autocomplete? or shall i define, them? thanks again! PS: i'm getting adicted to this site! PS: come on dudes, i think the answer will be very usefull for many people PS: is it allowed to offer paypal reward?

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  • LDAP/AD Integrated Group/Membership Management Package suitable for embedding in an application

    - by Ernest
    In several web applications, it is often necessary to define groups of users for purposes of membership as well as role management. For example, in one of our applications we would like to user a group of "Network Engineers" and another group that consists of "Managers" of such Network Engineers. The information we need is contact details of members of each group. So far, we have written our own tools to allow the administrator of the application to add/delete/move groups and their memberships and either store them in a XML file or a database. Increasingly, companies already have the groups we want defined in LDAP/AD, so it would be best to create a pointer in our application to the correspoding group in LDAP. Although there are a number of LDAP libraries and LDAP browsers available and we could code this and provide a web front end to get a list of available groups and their members, we are wondering if there is already a "component framework" available that would readily provide this LDAP browsing functionality that we could just embed this into our application. Something between a library and a full LDAP browser product ? (To clarify, the use case is for an admin of our web application to create a locally relevant group name and then map it to an exiting LDAP group. To enable this in the UI, we would like to present a way for the admin to browse available groups in the company LDAP server, view their membership, and select the LDAP group they would like to map to the locally relevant group name. In a second step, we would then synchronize the members of that LDAP group and their contact details to a store in our application ) Appreciate any pointers.

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  • "Subforms" associated with tree view in VB

    - by knomdeguerre
    I am using VB Express 2008 to demonstrate my ideas for an improved UI for an existing product for my colleagues at work. The current UI has a certain page with ten tabs, allowing the user to define up to ten "things". The available choices for each of the ten "things" are all the same. On each of the ten tabs, there is a checkbox to enable that definition. Generally, a user will never use more than 5 or 6 unique definitions, the rest will remain disabled. So far, my prototype has a tree view control with one branch to contain this list of definitions, Add and Delete buttons. My idea is: there is one sub-branch to start with (corresponding to the first tab in the current UI); if the user wants addtional definitions, they click Add and other branches are added to the tree view, up to maximum of ten. I think I should be able to create a "class" that has a sub-UI (like a sub-form in Access) along with behavior code, that can be instantiated with each press of the Add button; each instantiation's settings can be set independently and is displayed in the main UI form )in a panel or frame) when selected in the tree view. For example, suppose the user Adds to make a total of three definitions: the tree view now has three sub-branches, each of which presents the same sub-UI with settings that can be set specific to the selected sub-branch. I'm sure it's possible but not sure how to do it. I know a comprehensive "answer" might be complicated and long, but I may just need some quick hints to get underway - don't be shy! Thanks in advance!

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  • Preprocessor "macro function" vs. function pointer - best practice?

    - by Dustin
    I recently started a small personal project (RGB value to BGR value conversion program) in C, and I realised that a function that converts from RGB to BGR can not only perform the conversion but also the inversion. Obviously that means I don't really need two functions rgb2bgr and bgr2rgb. However, does it matter whether I use a function pointer instead of a macro? For example: int rgb2bgr (const int rgb); /* * Should I do this because it allows the compiler to issue * appropriate error messages using the proper function name, * not to mention possible debugging benefits? */ int (*bgr2rgb) (const int bgr) = rgb2bgr; /* * Or should I do this since it is merely a convenience * and they're really the same function anyway? */ #define bgr2rgb(bgr) (rgb2bgr (bgr)) I'm not necessarily looking for a change in execution efficiency as it's more of a subjective question out of curiosity. I am well aware of the fact that type safety is neither lost nor gained using either method. Would the function pointer merely be a convenience or are there more practical benefits to be gained of which I am unaware?

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  • What's the use of writing tests matching configuration-like code line by line?

    - by Pascal Van Hecke
    Hi, I have been wondering about the usefulness of writing tests that match code one-by-one. Just an example: in Rails, you can define 7 restful routes in one line in routes.rb using: resources :products BDD/TDD proscribes you test first and then write code. In order to test the full effect of this line, devs come up with macros e.g. for shoulda: http://kconrails.com/2010/01/27/route-testing-with-shoulda-in-ruby-on-rails/ class RoutingTest < ActionController::TestCase # simple should_map_resources :products end I'm not trying to pick on the guy that wrote the macros, this is just an example of a pattern that I see all over Rails. I'm just wondering what the use of it is... in the end you're just duplicating code and the only thing you test is that Rails works. You could as well write a tool that transforms your test macros into actual code... When I ask around, people answer me that: "the tests should document your code, so yes it makes sense to write them, even if it's just one line corresponding to one line" What are your thoughts?

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  • Run a command as cron would but from the command line.

    - by BCS
    I have a script that I'm trying to run from cron. When I run it from bash, it work just fine. However when I let cron do it's thing, I get a: myscript.sh: line 122: syntax error: unexpected end of file What I want is a way to run a command as if it was a cron job, but do it in my shell. As a side note: does anyone know what would be differnt under cron? (the script already has a #!/bin/sh line) To answer my own question: I added this to my crontab: * * * * * bcs for ((i=1; i <= 55; i++)) ; do find ~/.crontemp/ -name '*.run' -exec "{}" ";" ; sleep 1; done` and created this script: #!/bin/sh tmp=$(mktemp ~/.crontemp/cron.XXXXX) mknod $tmp.pipe p mv $tmp $tmp.pre echo $* '>' $tmp.pipe '1>&2' >> $tmp.pre echo rm $tmp.run >> $tmp.pre chmod 700 $tmp.pre mv $tmp.pre $tmp.run cat $tmp.pipe rm $tmp.pipe With that, I can run an arbitrary command with a delay of not more than one second. (And yes, I know there are all kinds of security issue involved in that)

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  • C++ Header file questions

    - by Karl
    So I'm trying to learn C++ and I've gotten as far as using header files. They really make no sense to me. I've tried many combinations of this but nothing so far has worked: Main.cpp: #include "test.h" int main() { testClass Player1; return 0; } test.h: #ifndef TEST_H_INCLUDED #define TEST_H_INCLUDED class testClass { private: int health; public: testClass(); ~testClass(); int getHealth(); void setHealth(int inH); }; #endif // TEST_H_INCLUDED test.cpp: #include "test.h" testClass::testClass() { health = 100; } testClass::~testClass() {} int testClass::getHealth() { return(health); } void testClass::setHealth(int inH) { health = inH; } What I'm trying to do is pretty simple, but the way the header files work just makes no sense to me at all. Code blocks returns the following on build: obj\Debug\main.o(.text+0x131)||In function main':| *voip*\test\main.cpp |6|undefined reference totestClass::testClass()'| obj\Debug\main.o(.text+0x13c):voip\test\main.cpp|7|undefined reference to `testClass::~testClass()'| ||=== Build finished: 2 errors, 0 warnings ===| I'd appreciate any help. Or if you have a decent tutorial for it, that would be fine too (most of the tutorials I've googled haven't helped)

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  • [PHP] Weird problem with dynamic method invocation

    - by Rolf
    Hi everyone, this time, I'm facing a really weird problem. I've the following code: $xml = simplexml_load_file($this->interception_file); foreach($xml->children() as $class) { $path = str_replace('__CLASS_DIR__',CLASS_DIR,$class['path']); if(!is_file($path)) { throw new Exception('Bad configuration: file '.$path.' not found'); } $className = pathinfo($path,PATHINFO_FILENAME); foreach($class as $method) { $method_name = $method['name']; $obj = new $className(); var_dump(in_array($method_name,get_class_methods($className)));exit; echo $obj->$method_name();### not a method ??? } } As you can see, I get the class name and method name from an XML file. I can create an instance of the class without any problem. The var_dump at the end returns true, that means $method_name (which has 2 optional parameters) is a method of $className. BUT, and I am pretty sure the syntax is correct, when I try: $obj-$method_name() I get: Fatal error: Method name must be a string If you have any ideas, pleaaaaase tell me :) Thanks in advance, Rolf

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  • How can I use a custom configured RememberMeAuthenticationFilter in spring security?

    - by Sebastian
    I want to use a slightly customized rememberme functionality with spring security (3.1.0). I declare the rememberme tag like this: <security:remember-me key="JNJRMBM" user-service-ref="gymUserDetailService" /> As I have my own rememberme service I need to inject that into the RememberMeAuthenticationFilter which I define like this: <bean id="rememberMeFilter" class="org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.RememberMeAuthenticationFilter"> <property name="rememberMeServices" ref="gymRememberMeService"/> <property name="authenticationManager" ref="authenticationManager" /> </bean> I have spring security integrated in a standard way in my web.xml: <filter-name>springSecurityFilterChain</filter-name> <filter-class>org.springframework.web.filter.DelegatingFilterProxy</filter-class> Everything works fine, except that the RememberMeAuthenticationFilter uses the standard RememberMeService, so I think that my defined RememberMeAuthenticationFilter is not being used. How can I make sure that my definition of the filter is being used? Do I need to create a custom filterchain? And if so, how can I see my current "implicit" filterchain and make sure I use the same one except my RememberMeAuthenticationFilter instead of the default one? Thanks for any advice and/or pointers!

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  • Create a model that switches between two different states using Temporal Logic?

    - by NLed
    Im trying to design a model that can manage different requests for different water sources. Platform : MAC OSX, using latest Python with TuLip module installed. For example, Definitions : Two water sources : w1 and w2 3 different requests : r1,r2,and r3 - Specifications : Water 1 (w1) is preferred, but w2 will be used if w1 unavailable. Water 2 is only used if w1 is depleted. r1 has the maximum priority. If all entities request simultaneously, r1's supply must not fall below 50%. - The water sources are not discrete but rather continuous, this will increase the difficulty of creating the model. I can do a crude discretization for the water levels but I prefer finding a model for the continuous state first. So how do I start doing that ? Some of my thoughts : Create a matrix W where w1,w2 ? W Create a matrix R where r1,r2,r3 ? R or leave all variables singular without putting them in a matrix I'm not an expert in coding so that's why I need help. Not sure what is the best way to start tackling this problem. I am only interested in the model, or a code sample of how can this be put together. edit Now imagine I do a crude discretization of the water sources to have w1=[0...4] and w2=[0...4] for 0, 25, 50, 75,100 percent respectively. == means implies Usage of water sources : if w1[0]==w2[4] -- meaning if water source 1 has 0%, then use 100% of water source 2 etc if w1[1]==w2[3] if w1[2]==w2[2] if w1[3]==w2[1] if w1[4]==w2[0] r1=r2=r3=[0,1] -- 0 means request OFF and 1 means request ON Now what model can be designed that will give each request 100% water depending on the values of w1 and w2 (w1 and w2 values are uncontrollable so cannot define specific value, but 0...4 is used for simplicity )

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  • Core Data Predicates with Subclassed NSManagedObjects

    - by coneybeare
    I have an AUDIO class. This audio has a SOUND_A subclass and a SOUND_B subclass. This is all done correctly and is working fine. I have another model, lets call it PLAYLIST_JOIN, and this can contain (in the real world) SOUND_A's and SOUND_B's, so we give it a relationship of AUDIO and PLAYLIST. This all works in the app. The problem I am having now is querying the PLAYLIST_JOIN table with an NSPredicate. What I want to do is find an exact PLAYLIST_JOIN item by giving it 2 keys in the predicate sound_a._sound_a_id = %@ && playlist.playlist_id = %@ and sound_b.sound_b_id = %@ && playlist.playlist_id = %@ The main problem is that because the table does not store sound_a and sound_b, but stored audio, I cannot use this syntax. I do not have the option of reorganizing the sound_a and sound_b to use the same _id attribute name, so how do I do this? Can I pass a method to the predicate? something like this: [audio getID] = %@ && playlist_id = %@

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  • Manifesto for Integrated Development Environments

    - by Hugo S Ferreira
    Have you recently take a peek at Coda, or Espresso, or Textmate? Or even Google Chrome's Developer Tools? They are well designed, intuitive, interface rich, and extensible. But Coda, Espresso or Textmate, among several, are text editors, not IDEs. On the other side, VIM and Emacs live in the last century, and Eclipse is an overbloated platform. This is more like an outcry for a decent, common infrastructure for REAL IDEs. But there's some questions attached: (i) what features are needed for such a product and (ii) what products are out there that could fullfil this need, and what are they missing. So here's my draft for a manifesto: Manifesto for Integrated Development Environments: We favor interactivity and productivity over syntax and tools. We favor inline, contextual documentation over man and html files. We favor high-definition, graphic-capable color screens over 80x25 character terminals. We favor the use of advanced input schemas over unintuitive keyboard shortcuts. We favor a common, extensible and customizable infrastructure over unmaintained chaintools. We know the difference between search&replace and refactoring. We know the difference between integrated debugging support over a terminal window. We know the difference between semantic-aware code-completion over dumb textual templates. We favor the usage of standards like (E)BNF.

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  • Calling jQuery method from onClick attribute in HTML

    - by Russell
    I am relatively new to implementing JQuery throughout an entire system, and I am enjoying the opportunity. I have come across one issue I would love to find the correct resolve for. Here is a simple case example of what I want to do: I have a button on a page, and on the click event I want to call a jquery function I have defined. Here is the code I have used to define my method (Page.js): (function($) { $.fn.MessageBox = function(msg) { alert(msg); }; }); And here is my HTML page: <HTML> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="C:\Sandpit\jQueryTest\jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script language="javascript" src="Page.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="Title">Welcome!</div> <input type="button" value="ahaha" onclick="$().MessageBox('msg');" /> </body> </HTML> (The above code displays the button, but clicking does nothing.) I am aware I could add the click event in the document ready event, however it seems more maintainable to put events in the HTML element instead. However I have not found a way to do this. Is there a way to call a jquery function on a button element (or any input element)? Or is there a better way to do this? Thanks

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  • Compiling GWT 2.6.1 at Java 7 source level

    - by Neeko
    I've recently updated my GWT project to 2.6.1, and started to make use of Java 7 syntax since 2.6 now supports Java 7. However, when I attempt to compile, I'm receiving compiler errors such as [ERROR] Line 42: '<>' operator is not allowed for source level below 1.7 How do I specify the GWT compiler to target 1.7? I was under the impression that it would do that by default, but I guess not. I've attempted cleaning the project, including deleting the gwt-unitCache directory but to no avail. Here is my Ant compile target. <target name="compile" depends="prepare"> <javac includeantruntime="false" debug="on" debuglevel="lines,vars,source" srcdir="${src.dir}" destdir="${build.dir}"> <classpath refid="project.classpath"/> </javac> </target> <target name="gwt-compile" depends="compile"> <java failonerror="true" fork="true" classname="com.google.gwt.dev.Compiler"> <classpath> <!-- src dir is added to ensure the module.xml file(s) are on the classpath --> <pathelement location="${src.dir}"/> <pathelement location="${build.dir}"/> <path refid="project.classpath"/> </classpath> <jvmarg value="-Xmx256M"/> <arg value="${gwt.module.name}"/> </java> </target>

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  • How to use boost::fusion::transform on heterogeneous containers?

    - by Kyle
    Boost.org's example given for fusion::transform is as follows: struct triple { typedef int result_type; int operator()(int t) const { return t * 3; }; }; // ... assert(transform(make_vector(1,2,3), triple()) == make_vector(3,6,9)); Yet I'm not "getting it." The vector in their example contains elements all of the same type, but a major point of using fusion is containers of heterogeneous types. What if they had used make_vector(1, 'a', "howdy") instead? int operator()(int t) would need to become template<typename T> T& operator()(T& const t) But how would I write the result_type? template<typename T> typedef T& result_type certainly isn't valid syntax, and it wouldn't make sense even if it was, because it's not tied to the function.

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