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  • jQuery selector for option tag value attribute returns null

    - by Ben
    Hello, I am trying to change the selected option in a select dropdown box with jQuery. I have it set so that it finds the hash tag at the end of the URL and based on that hash tag it changes the selected option in the select box. Most of my code is functional, it successfully finds the hash tag and executes the if statement that corresponds with it. However, when it goes to execute the "then" section of the statement when it goes to the selector for the option (which uses an attribute selector based on the value attribute of the option tag) it returns null. If figured this out with firebug, in the console it says that the selector is null. Here is my code: $(document).ready(function() { var $hash = window.location.hash if($hash == "#htmlcss") { $('option[value="HTML/CSS Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#php") { $('option[value="PHP Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#jscript") { $('option[value="Javascript and jQuery Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#improv") { $('option[value="General Website Improvements"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#towp") { $('option[value="Website Conversion to Wordpress"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#wptheme") { $('option[value="Wordpress Theme Design"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#complete") { $('option[value="Complete Website Creation"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#server") { $('option[value="Web Server Configuration"]').attr("selected","selected") } }); So to clarify, when I enter in a url that ends in the #php hash tag, for example, the desired action does not occur which would change the "PHP Coding" option to the selected one by using the "selected" html attribute however the selector for the particular option tag returns null. Is there a problem with my syntax or is my code not functioning in the way that I think it should? Thanks very much.

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  • Formatting associative array declaration

    - by Drew Stephens
    When declaring an associative array, how do you handle the indentation of the elements of the array? I've seen a number of different styles (PHP syntax, since that's what I've been in lately). This is a pretty picky and trivial thing, so move along if you're interested in more serious pursuits. 1) Indent elements one more level: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 2) Indent elements two levels: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 3) Indent elements beyond the array constructor, with closing brace aligned with the start of the constructor: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); 4) Indent elements beyond the array construct, with closing brace aligned with opening brace: $array = array( 'Foo' => 'Bar', 'Baz' => 'Qux' ); Personally, I like #3—the broad indentation makes it clear that we're at a break point in the code (constructing the array), and having the closing brace floating a bit to the left of all of the array's data makes it clear that this declaration is done.

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  • C++ Declarative Parsing Serialization

    - by Martin York
    Looking at Java and C# they manage to do some wicked processing based on special languaged based anotation (forgive me if that is the incorrect name). In C++ we have two problems with this: 1) There is no way to annotate a class with type information that is accessable at runtime. 2) Parsing the source to generate stuff is way to complex. But I was thinking that this could be done with some template meta-programming to achieve the same basic affect as anotations (still just thinking about it). Like char_traits that are specialised for the different types an xml_traits template could be used in a declaritive way. This traits class could be used to define how a class is serialised/deserialized by specializing the traits for the class you are trying to serialize. Example Thoughs: template<typename T> struct XML_traits { typedef XML_Empty Children; }; template<> struct XML_traits<Car> { typedef boost::mpl::vector<Body,Wheels,Engine> Children; }; template<typename T> std::ostream& Serialize(T const&) { // my template foo is not that strong. // but somthing like this. boost::mpl::for_each<typename XML_Traits<T>::Children,Serialize>(data); } template<> std::ostream& Serialize<XML_Empty>(T const&) { /* Do Nothing */ } My question is: Has anybody seen any projects/decumentation (not just XML) out there that uses techniques like this (template meta-programming) to emulate the concept of annotation used in languges like Java and C# that can then be used in code generation (to effectively automate the task by using a declaritive style). At this point in my research I am looking for more reading material and examples.

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  • How to store and remove dynamically and automatic variable of generic data type in custum list data

    - by Vineel Kumar Reddy
    Hi I have created a List data structure implementation for generic data type with each node declared as following. struct Node { void *data; .... .... } So each node in my list will have pointer to the actual data(generic could be anything) item that should be stored in the list. I have following signature for adding a node to the list AddNode(struct List *list, void* eledata); the problem is when i want to remove a node i want to free even the data block pointed by *data pointer inside the node structure that is going to be freed. at first freeing of datablock seems to be straight forward free(data) // forget about the syntax..... But if data is pointing to a block created by malloc then the above call is fine....and we can free that block using free function int *x = (int*) malloc(sizeof(int)); *x = 10; AddNode(list,(void*)x); // x can be freed as it was created using malloc what if a node is created as following int x = 10; AddNode(list,(void*)&x); // x cannot be freed as it was not created using malloc Here we cannot call free on variable x!!!! How do i know or implement the functionality for both dynamically allocated variables and static ones....that are passed to my list.... Thanks in advance...

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  • A quick question on data returned by jquery.ajax() call (EDITED)

    - by recipriversexclusion
    EDIT: The original problem was due a stupid syntax mistake somewhere else, whicj I fixed. I have a new problem though, as described below I have the following jquery.ajax call: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: servicesUrl + "/" + ID + "/tasks", dataType: "xml", success : createTaskListTable }); The createTaskListTable function is defined as function createTaskListTable(taskListXml) { $(taskListXml).find("Task").each(function(){ alert("Found task") }); // each task } Problem is: this doesn't work, I get an error saying taskListXml is not defined. JQuery documentation states that the success functions gets passed three arguments, the first of which is the data. How can I pass the data returned by .ajax() to my function with a variable name of my own choosing. My problem now is that I'm getting the XML from a previous ajax call! How is this even possible? That previous function is defined as function convertServiceXmlDataToTable(xml), so they don't use the same variable name. Utterly confused. Is this some caching issue? If so, how can I clear the browser cache to get rid of the earlier XML? Thanks!

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  • django dynamically deduce SITE_ID according to the domain

    - by dcrodjer
    I am trying to develop a site which will render multiple customized sites according to the domain name (subdomain to be more precise). My all the domain names are redirected to the So for each site there will be a corresponding model which defines how the site should look (SITE - SITE_SETTINGS) What will be the best way to utilize the django sites framework to get the SITE_ID of the current site from the domain name instead of hard-coding it in the settings files (django sites documentation) and run database queries, render the views accordingly? If using multiple settings file is my only option can this (wsgi script handle domain name) be done? Update So finally, following lukes answer, what I will do is define a custom middleware which makes the views available with the important vars required according to the domain. And as far as sitemaps and comments is concerned, I will have to customize sitemaps app and a custom sites model on which the other models of sites will be based. And since the comments system is based on the hard-coded sitemap ID I can use it just as is on the models (models will already be filtered according to the site based on my sites framework) though the permalink feature will have to be customized. So a lot of customization. Please suggest if I am going wrong anywhere in this because I have to ensure that the features of the project are optimized. Thanks!

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  • how to switch views according to command

    - by Veer
    I've a main view and many usercontrols. The main view contains a two column grid, with the first column filled with a listbox whose datatemplate consists of a usercontrol and the second column filled with another usercontrol. These two usercontrols have the same datacontext. MainView: <Grid> //Column defs ... <ListView Grid.Column="0" ItemSource="{Binding Foo}"> ... <DataTemplate> <Views: FooView1 /> </DataTemplate> </ListView> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Count}" /> <StackPanel Grid.Column="1"> <Views: FooView2 /> </StackPanel> <Grid> FooView1: <UserControl> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Title}"> </UserControl> FooView2: <UserControl> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Detail1}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Detail2}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Detail3}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Foo.Detail4}"> </UserControl> I've no IDE here. Excuse me if there is any syntax error When the user clicks on a button. These two usercontrols have to be replaced by another two usercontrols, so the datacontext changes, the main ui remaining the same. ie, FooView1 by BarView1 and FooView2 by BarView2 In short i want to bind this view changes in mainview to my command (command from Button) How can i do this? Also tell me if i could merge the usercontrol pairs, so that only one view exists for each viewmodel ie, FooView1 and FooView2 into FooView and so on...

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  • Durandal Google Maps not showing properly

    - by user1891037
    Trying to show Google Maps using the Durandal. I'm now simply working with Durandal HTML Starter Kit so the other modules and all engine works properly. The thing is when I added the Google Map it doesn't fit the div size (the big part of div is just grey). As I understand, the problem is causing because Google Maps added before page is completely loaded. But I can't figure out how can I hook on page load event. Here is the module code: define(['knockout', 'gmaps'], function (ko, gmaps) { return { displayName: 'Google Maps', myMap: ko.observable({ lat: ko.observable(32), lng: ko.observable(10)}), activate: function () { console.log('activate'); ko.bindingHandlers.map = { init: function (element, valueAccessor, allBindingsAccessor, viewModel) { console.log('init'); var mapObj = ko.utils.unwrapObservable(valueAccessor()); var latLng = new gmaps.LatLng( ko.utils.unwrapObservable(mapObj.lat), ko.utils.unwrapObservable(mapObj.lng)); var mapOptions = { center: latLng, zoom: 5, mapTypeId: gmaps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP}; mapObj.googleMap = new gmaps.Map(element, mapOptions); } } }, attached: function() { console.log('attached'); }, compositionComplete: function() { console.log('compositionComplete'); } }; }); And a very simple HTML code: <section> <div id="gmap-canvas" data-bind="map:myMap"></div> </section> I'm loading Google Maps with async plug-in in my shell.js. It works fine. Screenshot with trouble here - http://clip2net.com/s/ibswAa P.S. div size is defined in .CSS file. P.S. I tried to use getElementById approach provided here and it's work great if placed in compositionComplete block. But when I tried to move my bindings to this block nothing happens at all. Thanks!

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  • C callback functions defined in an unnamed namespace?

    - by Johannes Schaub - litb
    Hi all. I have a C++ project that uses a C bison parser. The C parser uses a struct of function pointers to call functions that create proper AST nodes when productions are reduced by bison: typedef void Node; struct Actions { Node *(*newIntLit)(int val); Node *(*newAsgnExpr)(Node *left, Node *right); /* ... */ }; Now, in the C++ part of the project, i fill those pointers class AstNode { /* ... */ }; class IntLit : public AstNode { /* ... */ }; extern "C" { Node *newIntLit(int val) { return (Node*)new IntLit(val); } /* ... */ } Actions createActions() { Actions a; a.newIntLit = &newIntLit; /* ... */ return a; } Now the only reason i put them within extern "C" is because i want them to have C calling conventions. But optimally, i would like their names still be mangled. They are never called by-name from C code, so name mangling isn't an issue. Having them mangled will avoid name conflicts, since some actions are called like error, and the C++ callback function has ugly names like the following just to avoid name clashes with other modules. extern "C" { void uglyNameError(char const *str) { /* ... */ } /* ... */ } a.error = &uglyNameError; I wondered whether it could be possible by merely giving the function type C linkage extern "C" void fty(char const *str); namespace { fty error; /* Declared! But i can i define it with that type!? */ } Any ideas? I'm looking for Standard-C++ solutions.

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  • Spring Form: Submitting extra parameter on submit buttons

    - by theringostarrs
    Hi, I am working on a form with a bunch of selection criteria that will generate a report when the form is submitted. I also have a number of different reports that can be generated form this same criteria, and want the type of report to be selectable by using a tab system where each tab clicked on submits the form and generates the correct report. I was to do this by passing an extra parameter into the form to switch onto the right form type I am new to Spring, and from the guidance of an elder was told to use an input button for each tab with the following approximate syntax: <input type="submit" name="${form.selectionValues.tabSelection}" value="1" /> tabSelection form property of the SelectionValues object is not being set. I wasn't surprised ;) DIdn't think this would work. So I am wondering how can I can submit a post back from a button in Spring containing the form values plus an extra tabSelection parameter and value? How should I mark up this mechanism? Will I have to do anything to the form controller to register this extra parameter? The original markup I was using to build this page, was using HTML anchor tags instead of buttons for the tab links, which would be much better for the CSS, is there any way to trigger a full form submit using an anchor href? I know this will be a GET request instead of a POST, and not associated with the form.. so I dont expect this to work.. just trying to think of solutions! I would prefer to use the priginal markup, as the styles are there. Any help would be appreciated

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  • Query about running a program through valgrind and getting false results comparing to other systems.

    - by FILIaS
    Yesterday i posted this: What's the problem with this code? [hashtable in C] and paxdiablo offered to help me. He posted a sample of code and asked me to run it through valgrind on my machine. This code normally generates: 12,4 But on my machine, i get 24,8. The doubled! I'm just curious why is that happening. Hope sb has a good explaination. I post also paxdiablo's code (for anyone who cant find it.) #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> typedef struct HashTable { int size ; struct List *head; struct List *tail; } HashTable; typedef struct List { char *number; char *name; int time; struct List *next; } List; #define size_of_table 211 HashTable *createHashTable(void) { HashTable *new_table = malloc(sizeof(*new_table)*size_of_table); //line 606 printf ("%d\n", sizeof(*new_table)); printf ("%d\n", sizeof(new_table)); if (new_table == NULL) { return NULL; } int i=0; for(i; i<size_of_table; i++) { new_table[i].size=0; new_table[i].head=NULL; new_table[i].tail=NULL; } return new_table; } int main(void) { HashTable *x = createHashTable(); free (x); return 0; }

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  • Hibernate mapping Problem

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

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  • LDAP/AD Integrated Group/Membership Management Package suitable for embedding in an application

    - by Ernest
    In several web applications, it is often necessary to define groups of users for purposes of membership as well as role management. For example, in one of our applications we would like to user a group of "Network Engineers" and another group that consists of "Managers" of such Network Engineers. The information we need is contact details of members of each group. So far, we have written our own tools to allow the administrator of the application to add/delete/move groups and their memberships and either store them in a XML file or a database. Increasingly, companies already have the groups we want defined in LDAP/AD, so it would be best to create a pointer in our application to the correspoding group in LDAP. Although there are a number of LDAP libraries and LDAP browsers available and we could code this and provide a web front end to get a list of available groups and their members, we are wondering if there is already a "component framework" available that would readily provide this LDAP browsing functionality that we could just embed this into our application. Something between a library and a full LDAP browser product ? (To clarify, the use case is for an admin of our web application to create a locally relevant group name and then map it to an exiting LDAP group. To enable this in the UI, we would like to present a way for the admin to browse available groups in the company LDAP server, view their membership, and select the LDAP group they would like to map to the locally relevant group name. In a second step, we would then synchronize the members of that LDAP group and their contact details to a store in our application ) Appreciate any pointers.

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  • send email to list of users with different timezones?

    - by ylazez
    i use the following method to send email to list of users i want the (To) in each email to be for just the user only not all users i.e appears to the users that the email is sent to only him my guess is to loop on: message.addRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, address); then send the message right? , but this is a heavy process sending an email many times any ideas ? suppose that i have the timezone for each user and i want to send each user the message in his timzone, the same issue i guess setting sent date for each user in his timezone then sending the message, right ? the method is: try { Properties props = System.getProperties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "localhost"); // Get a mail session Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, null); // Define a new mail message Message message = new MimeMessage(session); InternetAddress ia = new InternetAddress(); ia.setPersonal("MySite"); ia.setAddress(from); message.setFrom(ia); Address[] address = new Address[recievers.size()]; for (int i = 0; i < recievers.size(); i++) { address[i] = new InternetAddress(recievers.get(i)); } message.addRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, address); message.setSubject(subject); // Create a message part to represent the body text BodyPart messageBodyPart = new MimeBodyPart(); messageBodyPart.setContent(body, "text/html"); // use a MimeMultipart as we need to handle the file attachments Multipart multipart = new MimeMultipart(); // add the message body to the mime message multipart.addBodyPart(messageBodyPart); // Put all message parts in the message message.setContent(multipart); message.setSentDate(getCurrentDate()); // Send the message Transport.send(message); } catch (Exception ex) {}

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  • What to pass parameters to start an workflow through WCF

    - by Rubens Farias
    It's possible to define some start values to an workflow using WorkflowInstance.CreateWorkflow, like this: using(WorkflowRuntime runtime = new WorkflowRuntime()) { Dictionary<string, object> parameters = new Dictionary<string, object>(); parameters.Add("First", "something"); parameters.Add("Second", 42); WorkflowInstance instance = runtime.CreateWorkflow(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow), parameters); instance.Start(); waitHandle.WaitOne(); } This way, a MyStateMachineWorkflow instance is created and First and Second public properties gets that dictionary values. But I'm using WCF; so far, I managed to create a Start method which accepts that two arguments and I set that required fields by using bind on my ReceiveActivity: using (WorkflowServiceHost host = new WorkflowServiceHost(typeof(MyStateMachineWorkflow))) { host.Open(); ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow> factory = new ChannelFactory<IMyStateMachineWorkflow>("MyStateMachineWorkflow"); IMyStateMachineWorkflow proxy = factory.CreateChannel(); // set this values through binding on my ReceiveActivity proxy.Start("something", 42); } While this works, that create an anomaly: that method should be called only and exactly once. How can I start an workflow instance through WCF passing those arguments? On my tests, I just actually interact with my workflow through wire after I call that proxy method. Is there other way?

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  • Trouble mocking on cucumber + rails

    - by Lucas d. Prim
    I'm having a lot of trouble trying to define a mock for a rails models on cucumber. It seems like the method is creating a bunch of message expectations and i keep getting errors like these: Given I have only a product named "Sushi de Pato" # features/step_definitions/product_ steps.rb:19 unexpected invocation: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.__mock_proxy() unsatisfied expectations: - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.errors(any_pa rameters) - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.id(any_parame ters) - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.to_param(any_ parameters) - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.new_record?(a ny_parameters) - expected exactly once, not yet invoked: #<Mock:ProductCategory_1001>.destroyed?(an y_parameters) satisfied expectations: - allowed any number of times, not yet invoked: #<Mock:errors>.count(any_parameters) (Mocha::ExpectationError) I haven't yet implemented the ProductCategory class and I just want it to return an ID and a 'name' attribute. This is my step definition: Given /^I have only a product named "([^\"]*)"$/ do |name| @product = Product.create!(:name => name, :description => 'Foo', :price => 100, :points => 100, :category => mock_model(ProductCategory)) end And this is my env.rb file: $: << File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__),"..") require 'spec\spec_helper I am using RSPec 1.3.0, cucumber 0.6.3 and webrat 0.7.0 I've tried to use stubs as well but got some other errors instead...

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  • C++ Initialize array in constructor EXC_BAD_ACCESS

    - by user890395
    I'm creating a simple constructor and initializing an array: // Construtor Cinema::Cinema(){ // Initalize reservations for(int i = 0; i < 18; i++){ for(int j = 0; j < 12; j++){ setReservation(i, j, 0); } } // Set default name setMovieName("N/A"); // Set default price setPrice(8); } The setReservation function: void Cinema::setReservation(int row, int column, int reservation){ this->reservations[row][column] = reservation; } The setMovieName function: void Cinema::setMovieName(std::string movieName){ this->movieName = movieName; } For some odd reason when I run the program, the setMovieName function gives the following error: "Program Received Signal: EXC_BAD_ACCESS" If I take out the for-loop that initializes the array of reservations, the problem goes away and the movie name is set without any problems. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? This is the Cinema.h file: #ifndef Cinema_h #define Cinema_h class Cinema{ private: int reservations[17][11]; std::string movieName; float price; public: // Construtor Cinema(); // getters/setters int getReservation(int row, int column); int getNumReservations(); std::string getMovieName(); float getPrice(); void setReservation(int row, int column, int reservation); void setMovieName(std::string movieName); void setPrice(float price); }; #endif

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  • Linking Apache to Tomcat with multiple domains.

    - by Royce Thigpen
    Okay, so I've been working for a while on this, and have been searching, but so far I have not found any answers that actually answer what I want to know. I'm a little bit at the end of my rope with this one, but I'm hoping I can figure this out sometime soon. So I have Apache 2 installed and serving up standard webpages, but I also have that linked to a Tomcat instance for one of my domains currently supported. However, I want to add another domain to the server via Apache that points to a separate code base from the one I already have. I have been coming at this from several different angles, and I have determined that I just don't know enough about setting up these servers to really do what I want to do. Little information on my server: Currently running a single Tomcat5.5 instance with Apache 2, using mod_jk to connect them together. I have a worker in workers.properties that points it's "host" field to "localhost" with the correct port my Tomcat instance, so that all works. In my Tomcat server.xml file, I have a host defined as "localhost" that points at my webapp that I am currently serving up, with that host set as the defaultHost as well. One thought I had was that I could add a new worker with a different host than "localhost" (i.e. host2) and then define a new host in my server.xml file called "host2" to match it, but after reading around some on the internet, It seems the "host" of the worker must point to a server, and not a hostname in the Tomcat instance, is this correct? Again, a simple rundown of what I want: Setup in apache/tomcat combo such that www.domain1.com points at "webapp1" and www.domain2.com points at "webapp2".

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  • Use MySQL trigger to update another table when duplicate key found

    - by Jason
    Been scratching my head on this one, hoping one of you kind people and direct me towards solving this problem. I have a mysql table of customers, it contains a lot of data, but for the purpose of this question, we only need to worry about 4 columns 'ID', 'Firstname', 'Lastname', 'Postcode' Problem is, the table contains a lot of duplicated customers. A new table is being created where each customer is unique and for us, we decide a unique customer is based on 'Firstname', 'Lastname' and 'Postcode' However, (this is the important bit) we need to ensure each new "unique" customer record also can be matched to the original multiple entries of that customer in the original table. I believe the best way to do this is to have a third table, that has 'NewUniqueID', 'OldCustomerID'. So we can search this table for 'NewUniqueID' = '123' and it would return multiple 'OldCustomerID' values where appropriate. I am hoping to make this work using a trigger and the on duplicate key syntax. So what would happen is as follows: An query is run taking the old customer table and inserting it in to the new unique table. (A standard Insert Select query) On duplicate key continue adding records, but add one entry in to the third table noting the 'NewUniqueID' that duped along with the 'OldCustomerID' of the record we were trying to insert. Hope this makes sense, my apologies if it isn't clear. I welcome and appreciate any thoughts on this one! Many thanks Jason

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  • Dynamic evaluation of a table column within an insert before trigger

    - by Tim Garver
    HI All, I have 3 tables, main, types and linked. main has an id column and 32 type columns. types has id, type linked has id, main_id, type_id I want to create an insert before trigger on the main table. It needs to compare its 32 type columns to the values in the types table if the main table column has an 'X' for its value and insert the main_id and types_id into the linked table. i have done a lot of searching, and it looks like a prepared statement would be the way to go, but i wanted to ask the experts. The issue, is i dont want to write 32 IF statements, and even if i did, i need to query the types table to get the ID for that type, seems like a huge waist of resources. Ideally i want to do this inside of my trigger: BEGIN DECLARE @types results_set -- (not sure if this is a valid type); -- (iam sure my loop syntax is all wrong here)... SET @types = (select * from types) for i=0;i<types.records;i++ { IF NEW.[i.type] = 'X' THEN insert into linked (main_id,type_id) values (new.ID, i.id); END IF; } END; Anyway, This is what i was hoping to do, maybe there is a way to dynamically set the field name inside of a results loop, but i cant find a good example of this. Thanks in advance Tim

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  • can I add properties to a typo3 extbase domain model object?

    - by The Newbie Qs
    I want to store a username in a coupon object, each coupon object already has the uid of the user who created it. I can loop over the coupon objects and read the associated usernames from fe_users but how then will I save those usernames into the coupons so when they are passed to the template the usernames can be read like so coupon.username, or in some other easy way so each username will appear on the page with the right coupon as they are all printed out in a table? If I was doing basic php instead of typo3 i would just define a query but what is the typo3 v4.5 way? My code so far - which dies on the line where I try to assign the new property --creatorname -- to the $coup object. public function listAction() { $coupons = $this->couponRepository->findAll(); // @var Tx_Extbase_Domain_Repository_FrontendUserRepository $userRepository */ $userRepository = $this->objectManager->get("Tx_Extbase_Domain_Repository_FrontendUserRepository"); foreach ($coupons as $coup) { echo '<br />test '.$coup->getCreator(); echo '<br />count = '.$userRepository->countAll().'<br />'; $newObject = $userRepository->findByUid( intval($coup->getCreator())); //var_dump($newObject); var_dump($coup); echo '<br />getUsername '.$newObject->getUsername() ; $coup['creatorname'] = $newObject->getUsername(); echo '<br />creatorname '.$coup['creatorname'] ; } $this->view->assign('coupons', $coupons); }

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  • [C++][OpenMP] Proper use of "atomic directive" to lock STL container

    - by conradlee
    I have a large number of sets of integers, which I have, in turn, put into a vector of pointers. I need to be able to update these sets of integers in parallel without causing a race condition. More specifically. I am using OpenMP's "parallel for" construct. For dealing with shared resources, OpenMP offers a handy "atomic directive," which allows one to avoid a race condition on a specific piece of memory without using locks. It would be convenient if I could use the "atomic directive" to prevent simultaneous updating to my integer sets, however, I'm not sure whether this is possible. Basically, I want to know whether the following code could lead to a race condition vector< set<int>* > membershipDirectory(numSets, new set<int>); #pragma omp for schedule(guided,expandChunksize) for(int i=0; i<100; i++) { set<int>* sp = membershipDirectory[5]; #pragma omp atomic sp->insert(45); } (Apologies for any syntax errors in the code---I hope you get the point) I have seen a similar example of this for incrementing an integer, but I'm not sure whether it works when working with a pointer to a container as in my case.

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  • [PHP] Weird problem with dynamic method invocation

    - by Rolf
    Hi everyone, this time, I'm facing a really weird problem. I've the following code: $xml = simplexml_load_file($this->interception_file); foreach($xml->children() as $class) { $path = str_replace('__CLASS_DIR__',CLASS_DIR,$class['path']); if(!is_file($path)) { throw new Exception('Bad configuration: file '.$path.' not found'); } $className = pathinfo($path,PATHINFO_FILENAME); foreach($class as $method) { $method_name = $method['name']; $obj = new $className(); var_dump(in_array($method_name,get_class_methods($className)));exit; echo $obj->$method_name();### not a method ??? } } As you can see, I get the class name and method name from an XML file. I can create an instance of the class without any problem. The var_dump at the end returns true, that means $method_name (which has 2 optional parameters) is a method of $className. BUT, and I am pretty sure the syntax is correct, when I try: $obj-$method_name() I get: Fatal error: Method name must be a string If you have any ideas, pleaaaaase tell me :) Thanks in advance, Rolf

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  • Sending one record from cursor to another function Postgres

    - by PylonsN00b
    FYI: I am completely new to using cursors... So I have one function that is a cursor: CREATE FUNCTION get_all_product_promos(refcursor, cursor_object_id integer) RETURNS refcursor AS ' BEGIN OPEN $1 FOR SELECT * FROM promos prom1 JOIN promo_objects ON (prom1.promo_id = promo_objects.promotion_id) WHERE prom1.active = true AND now() BETWEEN prom1.start_date AND prom1.end_date AND promo_objects.object_id = cursor_object_id UNION SELECT prom2.promo_id FROM promos prom2 JOIN promo_buy_objects ON (prom2.promo_id = promo_buy_objects.promo_id) LEFT JOIN promo_get_objects ON prom2.promo_id = promo_get_objects.promo_id WHERE (prom2.buy_quantity IS NOT NULL OR prom2.buy_quantity > 0) AND prom2.active = true AND now() BETWEEN prom2.start_date AND prom2.end_date AND promo_buy_objects.object_id = cursor_object_id; RETURN $1; END; ' LANGUAGE plpgsql; SO then in another function I call it and need to process it: ... --Get the promotions from the cursor SELECT get_all_product_promos('promo_cursor', this_object_id) updated := FALSE; IF FOUND THEN --Then loop through your results LOOP FETCH promo_cursor into this_promotion --Preform comparison logic -this is necessary as this logic is used in other contexts from other functions SELECT * INTO best_promo_results FROM get_best_product_promos(this_promotion, this_object_id, get_free_promotion, get_free_promotion_value, current_promotion_value, current_promotion); ... SO the idea here is to select from the cursor, loop using fetch (next is assumed correct?) and put the record fetched into this_promotion. Then send the record in this_promotion to another function. I can't figure out what to declare the type of this_promotion in get_best_product_promos. Here is what I have: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_best_product_promos(this_promotion record, this_object_id integer, get_free_promotion integer, get_free_promotion_value numeric(10,2), current_promotion_value numeric(10,2), current_promotion integer) RETURNS... It tells me: ERROR: plpgsql functions cannot take type record OK first I tried: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_best_product_promos(this_promotion get_all_product_promos, this_object_id integer, get_free_promotion integer, get_free_promotion_value numeric(10,2), current_promotion_value numeric(10,2), current_promotion integer) RETURNS... Because I saw some syntax in the Postgres docs showed a function being created w/ a input parameter that had a type 'tablename' this works, but it has to be a tablename not a function :( I know I am so close, I was told to use cursors to pass records around. So I studied up. Please help.

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  • What's the best way to get a bunch of rows from MySQL if you have an array of integer primary keys?

    - by Evan P.
    I have a MySQL table with an auto-incremented integer primary key. I want to get a bunch of rows from the table based on an array of integers I have in memory in my program. The array ranges from a handful to about 1000 items. What's the most efficient query syntax to get the rows? I can think of a few: "SELECT * FROM thetable WHERE id IN (1, 2, 3, 4, 5)" (this is what I do now) "SELECT * FROM thetable where id = 1 OR id = 2 OR id = 3" Multiple queries of the form "SELECT * FROM thetable WHERE id = 1". Probably the most friendly to the query cache, but expensive due to having lots of query parsing. A union, like "SELECT * FROM thetable WHERE id = 1 UNION SELECT * FROM thetable WHERE id = 2 ..." I'm not sure if MySQL caches the results of each query; it's also the most verbose format. I think using the NoSQL interface in MySQL 5.6+ would be the most efficient way to do this, but I'm not yet up to MySQL 5.6.

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