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• Linking Apache to Tomcat with multiple domains.

  - by Royce Thigpen

  Okay, so I've been working for a while on this, and have been searching, but so far I have not found any answers that actually answer what I want to know. I'm a little bit at the end of my rope with this one, but I'm hoping I can figure this out sometime soon. So I have Apache 2 installed and serving up standard webpages, but I also have that linked to a Tomcat instance for one of my domains currently supported. However, I want to add another domain to the server via Apache that points to a separate code base from the one I already have. I have been coming at this from several different angles, and I have determined that I just don't know enough about setting up these servers to really do what I want to do. Little information on my server: Currently running a single Tomcat5.5 instance with Apache 2, using mod_jk to connect them together. I have a worker in workers.properties that points it's "host" field to "localhost" with the correct port my Tomcat instance, so that all works. In my Tomcat server.xml file, I have a host defined as "localhost" that points at my webapp that I am currently serving up, with that host set as the defaultHost as well. One thought I had was that I could add a new worker with a different host than "localhost" (i.e. host2) and then define a new host in my server.xml file called "host2" to match it, but after reading around some on the internet, It seems the "host" of the worker must point to a server, and not a hostname in the Tomcat instance, is this correct? Again, a simple rundown of what I want: Setup in apache/tomcat combo such that www.domain1.com points at "webapp1" and www.domain2.com points at "webapp2".

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• pulling a value from NSMutableDictionary

  - by Jared Gross

  I have a dictionary array with a key:@"titleLabel". I am trying to load a pickerView with ONE instance of each @"titleLabel" key so that if there are multiple objects with the same @"titleLabel" only one title will be displayed. I've done some research on this forum and looked at apples docs but haven't been able to put the puzzle together. Below is my code but I am having trouble pulling the values. Right now when I run this code it throws an error Incompatible pointer types sending 'PFObject *' to parameter of type 'NSString' which i understand but am just not sure how to remedy. Cheers! else { // found messages! self.objectsArray = objects; NSMutableDictionary *dict = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; for(id obj in self.objectsArray){ PFObject *key = [self.objectsArray valueForKey:@"titleLabel"]; if(![dict objectForKey:@"titleLabel"]){ [dict setValue:obj forKey:key]; } } for (id key in dict) { NSLog(@"Objects array is %d", [self.objectsArray count]); NSLog(@"key: %@, value: %@ \n", key, [dict objectForKey:key]); } [self.pickerView reloadComponent:0]; } }];` Here is where I define the PFObject and keys: PFObject *image = [PFObject objectWithClassName:@"Images"]; [image setObject:file forKey:@"file"]; [image setObject:fileType forKey:@"fileType"]; [image setObject:title forKey:@"titleLabel"]; [image setObject:self.recipients forKey:@"recipientIds"]; [image setObject:[[PFUser currentUser] objectId] forKey:@"senderId"]; [image setObject:[[PFUser currentUser] username] forKey:@"senderName"]; [image saveInBackground];

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• reshaping a data frame into long format in R

  - by user1773115

  I'm struggling with a reshape in R. I have 2 types of error (err and rel_err) that have been calculated for 3 different models. This gives me a total of 6 error variables (i.e. err_1, err_2, err_3, rel_err_1, rel_err_2, and rel_err_3). For each of these types of error I have 3 different types of predivtive validity tests (ie random holdouts, backcast, forecast). I would like to make my data set long so I keep the 4 types of test long while also making the two error measurements long. So in the end I will have one variable called err and one called rel_err as well as an id variable for what model the error corresponds to (1,2,or 3) Here is my data right now: iter err_1 rel_err_1 err_2 rel_err_2 err_3 rel_err_3 test_type 1 -0.09385732 -0.2235443 -0.1216982 -0.2898543 -0.1058366 -0.2520759 random 1 0.16141630 0.8575728 0.1418732 0.7537442 0.1584816 0.8419816 back 1 0.16376930 0.8700738 0.1431505 0.7605302 0.1596502 0.8481901 front 1 0.14345986 0.6765194 0.1213689 0.5723444 0.1374676 0.6482615 random 1 0.15890059 0.7435382 0.1589823 0.7439204 0.1608709 0.7527580 back 1 0.14412360 0.6743928 0.1442039 0.6747684 0.1463520 0.6848202 front and here is what I would like it to look like: iter model err rel_err test_type 1 1 -0.09385732 (#'s) random 1 2 -0.1216982 (#'s) random 1 3 -0.1216982 (#'s) random and on... I've tried playing around with the syntax but can't quite figure out what to put for the time.varying argument Thanks very much for any help you can offer.

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• memcmp,strcmp,strncmp in C

  - by el10780

  I wrote this small piece of code in C to test memcmp() strncmp() strcmp() functions in C. Here is the code that I wrote: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> int main(int argc, char** argv) { char *word1="apple",*word2="atoms"; if (strncmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("strncmp result.\n"); if (memcmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("memcmp result.\n"); if (strcmp(word1,word2)==0) printf("strcmp result.\n"); } Can somebody explain me the differences because I am confused with these three functions?My main problem is that I have a file in which I tokenize its line of it,the problem is that when I tokenize the word "atoms" in the file I have to stop the process of tokenizing.I first tried strcmp() but unfortunately when it reached to the point where the word "atoms" were placed in the file it didn't stop and it continued,but when I used either the memcmp() or the strncmp() it stopped and I was happy.But then I thought,what if there will be a case in which there is one string in which the first 5 letters are a,t,o,m,s and these are being followed by other letters.Unfortunately,my thoughts were right as I tested it using the above code by initializing word1 to "atomsaaaaa" and word2 to atoms and memcmp() and strncmp() in the if statements returned 0.On the other hand strcmp() it didn't.It seems that I must use strcmp(). I have done google searches but I got more confused as I have seen sites and other forums to define these three differently.If it is possible for someone to give me correct explanations/definitions so I can use them correctly in my source code,I would be really grateful.

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• C# Multiple constraints

  - by John

  I have an application with lots of generics and IoC. I have an interface like this: public interface IRepository<TType, TKeyType> : IRepo Then I have a bunch of tests for my different implementations of IRepository. Many of the objects have dependencies on other objects so for the purpose of testing I want to just grab one that is valid. I can define a separate method for each of them: public static EmailType GetEmailType() { return ContainerManager.Container.Resolve<IEmailTypeRepository>().GetList().FirstOrDefault(); } But I want to make this generic so it can by used to get any object from the repository it works with. I defined this: public static R GetItem<T, R>() where T : IRepository<R, int> { return ContainerManager.Container.Resolve<T>().GetList().FirstOrDefault(); } This works fine for the implementations that use an integer for the key. But I also have repositories that use string. So, I do this now: public static R GetItem<T, R, W>() where T : IRepository<R, W> This works fine. But I'd like to restrict 'W' to either int or string. Is there a way to do that? The shortest question is, can I constrain a generic parameter to one of multiple types?

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• Conditional row count in linq to nhibernate doesn't work

  - by Lucasus

  I want to translate following simple sql query into Linq to NHibernate: SELECT NewsId ,sum(n.UserHits) as 'HitsNumber' ,sum(CASE WHEN n.UserHits > 0 THEN 1 ELSE 0 END) as 'VisitorsNumber' FROM UserNews n GROUP BY n.NewsId My simplified UserNews class: public class AktualnosciUzytkownik { public virtual int UserNewsId { get; set; } public virtual int UserHits { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } // UserId key in db table public virtual News News { get; set; } // NewsId key in db table } I've written following linq query: var hitsPerNews = (from n in Session.Query<UserNews>() group n by n.News.NewsId into g select new { NewsId = g.Key, HitsNumber = g.Sum(x => x.UserHits), VisitorsNumber = g.Count(x => x.UserHits > 0) }).ToList(); But generated sql just ignores my x => x.UserHits > 0 statement and makes unnecessary 'left outer join': SELECT news1_.NewsId AS col_0_0_, CAST(SUM(news0_.UserHits) AS INT) AS col_1_0_, CAST(COUNT(*) AS INT) AS col_2_0_ FROM UserNews news0_ LEFT OUTER JOIN News news1_ ON news0_.NewsId=news1_.NewsId GROUP BY news1_.NewsId How Can I fix or workaround this issue? Maybe this can be done better with QueryOver syntax?

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• Flash compiler error 1061: Call to a possibly undefined method run... but run exists!

  - by Zane Geiger

  So I've been working on making a game in Processing but I think Flash would be a better way to get more people playing it, so I've decided to learn Flash. The problem is that I keep getting really stupid errors on incredibly simple things. For instance, I want to make a 'Block' object to use in a platform game. So I make a new .as file, name it Block.as, and define the Block class within it like so: package { public class Block { public function Block() { // constructor code } public function run() { } } } I don't want to add the code yet, I just want to ensure that this works. So in my main timeline code, I try to create an instance of the Block object and execute its run method: var block1:Block = new Block(); block1.run(); Every time it gives me this inane error: Scene 1, Layer 'Layer 1', Frame 1, Line 2 1061: Call to a possibly undefined method run through a reference with static type Block. What undefined method!? It's defined RIGHT THERE in Block.as. The class file is even in the same folder and everything. I'm getting REALLY annoyed at how poorly Flash handles such a ridiculously simple project. Does anyone know why Flash hates me?

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• Serialization of Entity Framework Models with .NET WCF Rest Service

  - by Chris Phillips

  I'm trying to put together a very simple REST-style interface for communicating with our partners. An example object in the API is a partner, which we'd like to have serialized like this: <partner> <id>ID</id> <name>NAME</name> </partner> This is fairly simply to achieve using the .NET 4.0 WCF REST template if we simply declare a partner class as: public class Partner { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } But when I use the Entity Framework to define and store Partner objects, the resulting serialization looks something like this: <Partner p1:Id="NCNameString" p1:Ref="NCNameString" xmlns:p1="http://schemas.microsoft.com/2003/10/Serialization/" xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/TheTradeDesk.AdPlatform.Provisioning"> <EntityKey p1:Id="NCNameString" p1:Ref="NCNameString" xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data.Objects.DataClasses"> <EntityContainerName xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data">String content</EntityContainerName> <EntityKeyValues xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data"> ... This XML is obviously unacceptable for use as an external API. What are suggested mechanisms for using EF for the data store but maintaining a simple XML serialization interface?

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• C++ arrays as parameters, subscript vs. pointer

  - by awshepard

  Alright, I'm guessing this is an easy question, so I'll take the knocks, but I'm not finding what I need on google or SO. I'd like to create an array in one place, and populate it inside a different function. I define a function: void someFunction(double results[]) { for (int i = 0; i<100; ++i) { for (int n = 0; n<16; ++n) //note this iteration limit { results[n] += i * n; } } } That's an approximation to what my code is doing, but regardless, shouldn't be running into any overflow or out of bounds issues or anything. I generate an array: double result[16]; for(int i = 0; i<16; i++) { result[i] = -1; } then I want to pass it to someFunction someFunction(result); When I set breakpoints and step through the code, upon entering someFunction, results is set to the same address as result, and the value there is -1.000000 as expected. However, when I start iterating through the loop, results[n] doesn't seem to resolve to *(results+n) or *(results+n*sizeof(double)), it just seems to resolve to *(results). What I end up with is that instead of populating my result array, I just get one value. What am I doing wrong?

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• Delphi SQLite Update causing errors to appear.

  - by NeoNMD

  I have used Inserts, selects, updates, deleted without problem all over the program but for some reason this specific section causes it to except and not run the SQL I send it. I am trying to "UPDATE SectionTable(AreaID) VALUES ('+IntToStr(ActClient.AreaID)+') WHERE SectionID='+IntToStr(iCount)" The section with the ID "iCount" exists deffinately. The ActClient.AreaID is "2" and its overwriting null data in the "SectionTable" table. What is the problem here? OpenDatabase(slDb); sltb:=sldb.GetTable('SELECT * FROM SectionTable WHERE SectionID='+IntToStr(iCount)); OutputDebugString(PAnsiChar(sltb.FieldAsString(sltb.FieldIndex['SectionID'])+sltb.FieldAsString(sltb.FieldIndex['Gender'])+sltb.FieldAsString(sltb.FieldIndex['CompetitionID']))); sSQL := 'UPDATE SectionTable(AreaID) VALUES ('+IntToStr(ActClient.AreaID)+') WHERE SectionID='+IntToStr(iCount); sldb.ExecSQL(sSQL); CloseDatabase(slDb); I get this error message appear when this is ran. --------------------------- Debugger Exception Notification --------------------------- Project CompetitionServer.exe raised exception class ESQLiteException with message 'Error executing SQL. Error [1]: SQL error or missing database. "UPDATE SectionTable(AreaID) VALUES (2) WHERE SectionID=2": near "(": syntax error'. Process stopped. Use Step or Run to continue. --------------------------- OK Help ---------------------------

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• Use MySQL trigger to update another table when duplicate key found

  - by Jason

  Been scratching my head on this one, hoping one of you kind people and direct me towards solving this problem. I have a mysql table of customers, it contains a lot of data, but for the purpose of this question, we only need to worry about 4 columns 'ID', 'Firstname', 'Lastname', 'Postcode' Problem is, the table contains a lot of duplicated customers. A new table is being created where each customer is unique and for us, we decide a unique customer is based on 'Firstname', 'Lastname' and 'Postcode' However, (this is the important bit) we need to ensure each new "unique" customer record also can be matched to the original multiple entries of that customer in the original table. I believe the best way to do this is to have a third table, that has 'NewUniqueID', 'OldCustomerID'. So we can search this table for 'NewUniqueID' = '123' and it would return multiple 'OldCustomerID' values where appropriate. I am hoping to make this work using a trigger and the on duplicate key syntax. So what would happen is as follows: An query is run taking the old customer table and inserting it in to the new unique table. (A standard Insert Select query) On duplicate key continue adding records, but add one entry in to the third table noting the 'NewUniqueID' that duped along with the 'OldCustomerID' of the record we were trying to insert. Hope this makes sense, my apologies if it isn't clear. I welcome and appreciate any thoughts on this one! Many thanks Jason

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• VB.NET class inherits a base class and implements an interface issue (works in C#)

  - by 300 baud

  I am trying to create a class in VB.NET which inherits a base abstract class and also implements an interface. The interface declares a string property called Description. The base class contains a string property called Description. The main class inherits the base class and implements the interface. The existence of the Description property in the base class fulfills the interface requirements. This works fine in C# but causes issues in VB.NET. First, here is an example of the C# code which works: public interface IFoo { string Description { get; set; } } public abstract class FooBase { public string Description { get; set; } } public class MyFoo : FooBase, IFoo { } Now here is the VB.NET version which gives a compiler error: Public Interface IFoo Property Description() As String End Interface Public MustInherit Class FooBase Private _Description As String Public Property Description() As String Get Return _Description End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _Description = value End Set End Property End Class Public Class MyFoo Inherits FooBase Implements IFoo End Class If I make the base class (FooBase) implement the interface and add the Implements IFoo.Description to the property all is good, but I do not want the base class to implement the interface. The compiler error is: Class 'MyFoo' must implement 'Property Description() As String' for interface 'IFoo'. Implementing property must have matching 'ReadOnly' or 'WriteOnly' specifiers. Can VB.NET not handle this, or do I need to change my syntax somewhere to get this to work?

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• What are the best tricks for learning how to -think- in Objective-C?

  - by Braintapper

  Before I get flamed out for not checking previous questions, I have read most of the tutorials, and have Hillegass' book, as well as O'Reilly's book on it. I'm not asking for tips on Cocoa or what IDE to use. Where my issue lies - my 'mental muscle memory' is making it hard for me to read Objective-C code. I have no problems at all reading Java and C code and understanding what's going on. Maybe I'm getting to old to learn a new syntax, but it's a struggle shifting mental gears and looking at Objective-C code and just "getting it" (I thought it might be an isolated case, but I have other friends who are seasoned devs who have said the same thing). Are there any tricks that any non-Objective-C programmers who now know Objective-C used to help process the syntactical differences when learning it? For some reason, I get dyslexic when reading Objective-C code. Maybe I'm not meant to be able to learn it (and that's ok too). I was hoping/wondering if there might be others who have had the same experience.

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• Entity Framework LINQ Query using Custom C# Class Method - Once yes, once no - because executing on the client or in SQL?

  - by BrooklynDev

  I have two Entity Framework 4 Linq queries I wrote that make use of a custom class method, one works and one does not: The custom method is: public static DateTime GetLastReadToDate(string fbaUsername, Discussion discussion) { return (discussion.DiscussionUserReads.Where(dur => dur.User.aspnet_User.UserName == fbaUsername).FirstOrDefault() ?? new DiscussionUserRead { ReadToDate = DateTime.Now.AddYears(-99) }).ReadToDate; } The linq query that works calls a from after a from, the equivalent of SelectMany(): from g in oc.Users.Where(u => u.aspnet_User.UserName == fbaUsername).First().Groups from d in g.Discussions select new { UnReadPostCount = d.Posts.Where(p => p.CreatedDate > DiscussionRepository.GetLastReadToDate(fbaUsername, p.Discussion)).Count() }; The query that does not work is more like a regular select: from d in oc.Discussions where d.Group.Name == "Student" select new { UnReadPostCount = d.Posts.Where(p => p.CreatedDate > DiscussionRepository.GetLastReadToDate(fbaUsername, p.Discussion)).Count(), }; The error I get is: LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.DateTime GetLastReadToDate(System.String, Discussion)' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. My question is, why am I able to use my custom GetLastReadToDate() method in the first query and not the second? I suppose this has something to do with what gets executed on the db server and what gets executed on the client? These queries seem to use the GetLastReadToDate() method so similarly though, I'm wondering why would work for the first and not the second, and most importantly if there's a way to factor common query syntax like what's in the GetLastReadToDate() method into a separate location to be reused in several different places LINQ queries. Please note all these queries are sharing the same object context.

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• Change a finder method w/ parameters to an association

  - by Sai Emrys

  How do I turn this into a has_one association? (Possibly has_one + a named scope for size.) class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id' def avatar_asset size = :thumb # The LIKE is because it might be a .jpg, .png, or .gif. # More efficient methods that can handle that are OK. ;) self.assets.find :first, :conditions => ["thumbnail = '#{size}' and filename LIKE ?", self.login + "_#{size}.%"] end end EDIT: Cuing from AnalogHole on Freenode #rubyonrails, we can do this: has_many :assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id' do def avatar size = :thumb find :first, :conditions => ["thumbnail = ? and filename LIKE ?", size.to_s, proxy_owner.login + "_#{size}.%"] end end ... which is fairly cool, and makes syntax a bit better at least. However, this still doesn't behave as well as I would like. Particularly, it doesn't allow for further nice find chaining (such that it doesn't execute this find until it's gotten all its conditions). More importantly, it doesn't allow for use in an :include. Ideally I want to do something like this: PostsController def show post = Post.get_cache(params[:id]) { Post.find(params[:id], :include => {:comments => {:users => {:avatar_asset => :thumb}} } ... end ... so that I can cache the assets together with the post. Or cache them at all, really - e.g. get_cache(user_id){User.find(user_id, :include => :avatar_assets)} would be a good first pass. This doesn't actually work (self == User), but is correct in spirit: has_many :avatar_assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id', :class_name => 'Asset', :conditions => ["filename LIKE ?", self.login + "_%"] (Also posted on Refactor My Code.)

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• Codeigniter Inserting Multidimensional Array as rows in MySQL

  - by RisingSun

  Please Refer to this question I asked Codeigniter Insert Multiple Rows in SQL To restate <tr> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][name]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][address]" value=""><br></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][age]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][email]" value=""></td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][name]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][address]" value=""><br></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][age]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][email]" value=""></td> </tr> .......... Can Be Inserted into MySQL as this foreach($_POST['user'] as $user) { $this->db->insert('mytable', $user); } This results in multiple MySQL queries. Is it possible to optimise it further, so that the insert occurs in one query Something like this insert multiple rows via a php array into mysql but taking advantage of codeigniters simpler syntax. Thanks

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• Automatically creating DynaActionForms in Mockrunner via struts-config.xml

  - by T Reddy

  I'm switching from MockStrutsTestCase to Mockrunner and I'm finding that having to manually re-create all of my DynaActionForms in Mockrunner is a pain...there has to be an easier way?! Can somebody offer a tip to simplify this process? For instance, this form bean definition in struts-config.xml: <form-bean name="myForm" type="org.apache.struts.action.DynaActionForm"> <form-property name="property" type="java.lang.String"/> </form-bean> results in this code in Mockrunner: //define form config FormBeanConfig config = new FormBeanConfig(); config.setName("myForm"); config.setType(DynaActionForm.class.getName()); FormPropertyConfig property = new FormPropertyConfig(); property.setName("property"); property.setType("java.lang.String"); config.addFormPropertyConfig(property); //create mockrunner objects ActionMockObjectFactory factory = new ActionMockObjectFactory(); ActionTestModule module = new ActionTestModule(factory); DynaActionForm form = module.createDynaActionForm(config); Now imagine that I have dozens of DynaActionForms with dozens of attributes...that stinks!

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• How to handle array element between int and Integer

  - by masato-san

  First, it is long post so if you need clarification please let me know. I'm new to Java and having difficulty deciding whether I should use int[] or Integer[]. I wrote a function that find odd_number from int[] array. public int[] find_odd(int[] arr) { int[] result = new int[arr.length]; for(int i=0; i<arr.length; i++) { if(arr[i] % 2 != 0) { //System.out.println(arr[i]); result[i] = arr[i]; } } return result; } Then, when I pass the int[] array consisting of some integer like below: int[] myArray = {-1, 0, 1, 2, 3}; int[] result = find_odd(myArray); The array "result" contains: 0, -1, 0, 1, 0, 3 Because in Java you have to define the size of array first, and empty int[] array element is 0 not null. So when I want to test the find_odd() function and expect the array to have odd numbers (which it does) only, it throws the error because the array also includes 0s representing "empty cell" as shown above. My test code: public void testFindOddPassValidIntArray() { int[] arr = {-2, -1, 0, 1, 3}; int[] result = findOddObj.find_odd(arr); //check if return array only contain odd number for(int i=0; i<result.length; i++) { if(result[i] != null) { assert is_odd(result[i]) : result[i]; } } } So, my question is should I use int[] array and add check for 0 element in my test like: if(result[i] != 0) { assert is_odd(result[i] : result[i] } But in this case, if find_odd() function is broken and returning 0 by miscalculation, I can't catch it because my test code would only assume that 0 is empty cell. OR should I use Integer[] array whose default is null? How do people deal with this kind of situation?

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• How can I automatically highlight a specific character in link text using JQuery + CSS?

  - by Chris McCall

  I'm adding hotkeys to a web application in order to enable keyboard shortcuts for our CSRs to use, to reduce injury and increase calls-per-hour. I'm using an ASP.net UserControl to inject javascript into the page and it's working great. I want the control to "just work", so that when hotkeys are assigned, using a declarative syntax, if the hotkeyed letter exists in the link text, it will be highlighted automatically, so the developer doesn't have to do anything, and also to maintain consistency in visual cues. Here's the code to assign hotkeys, if it matters: <uc:HotKeysControl ID="theHotkeys" runat="server" Visible="true"> <uc:HotKey ControlName="AccStatus$btnInvoiceEverBill" KeyCode="ctrl+v" /> <uc:HotKey ControlName="AccStatus$btnRefund" KeyCode="ctrl+u" /> <uc:HotKey ControlName="thirdControl" KeyCode="ctrl+p" /> </uc:HotKeysControl> I want something like: <a href="whatever" name="thirdControl">Make a <span class=hotkey">P</span>ayment</a> ...but I'm not married to the idea of injecting a <span/> in there if there's a better way. How can I do this in CSS or JQuery? Is there a way to pass in a letter to a CSS style and have it change the color of the text displayed? Should I generate javascript to highlight the text when the page loads? What would/did you do in this situation?

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• C++ Initialize array in constructor EXC_BAD_ACCESS

  - by user890395

  I'm creating a simple constructor and initializing an array: // Construtor Cinema::Cinema(){ // Initalize reservations for(int i = 0; i < 18; i++){ for(int j = 0; j < 12; j++){ setReservation(i, j, 0); } } // Set default name setMovieName("N/A"); // Set default price setPrice(8); } The setReservation function: void Cinema::setReservation(int row, int column, int reservation){ this->reservations[row][column] = reservation; } The setMovieName function: void Cinema::setMovieName(std::string movieName){ this->movieName = movieName; } For some odd reason when I run the program, the setMovieName function gives the following error: "Program Received Signal: EXC_BAD_ACCESS" If I take out the for-loop that initializes the array of reservations, the problem goes away and the movie name is set without any problems. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? This is the Cinema.h file: #ifndef Cinema_h #define Cinema_h class Cinema{ private: int reservations[17][11]; std::string movieName; float price; public: // Construtor Cinema(); // getters/setters int getReservation(int row, int column); int getNumReservations(); std::string getMovieName(); float getPrice(); void setReservation(int row, int column, int reservation); void setMovieName(std::string movieName); void setPrice(float price); }; #endif

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• Compiling GWT 2.6.1 at Java 7 source level

  - by Neeko

  I've recently updated my GWT project to 2.6.1, and started to make use of Java 7 syntax since 2.6 now supports Java 7. However, when I attempt to compile, I'm receiving compiler errors such as [ERROR] Line 42: '<>' operator is not allowed for source level below 1.7 How do I specify the GWT compiler to target 1.7? I was under the impression that it would do that by default, but I guess not. I've attempted cleaning the project, including deleting the gwt-unitCache directory but to no avail. Here is my Ant compile target. <target name="compile" depends="prepare"> <javac includeantruntime="false" debug="on" debuglevel="lines,vars,source" srcdir="${src.dir}" destdir="${build.dir}"> <classpath refid="project.classpath"/> </javac> </target> <target name="gwt-compile" depends="compile"> <java failonerror="true" fork="true" classname="com.google.gwt.dev.Compiler"> <classpath> <!-- src dir is added to ensure the module.xml file(s) are on the classpath --> <pathelement location="${src.dir}"/> <pathelement location="${build.dir}"/> <path refid="project.classpath"/> </classpath> <jvmarg value="-Xmx256M"/> <arg value="${gwt.module.name}"/> </java> </target>

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• Prolog singleton variables in Python

  - by Rubens

  I'm working on a little set of scripts in python, and I came to this: line = "a b c d e f g" a, b, c, d, e, f, g = line.split() I'm quite aware of the fact that these are decisions taken during implementation, but shouldn't (or does) python offer something like: _, _, var_needed, _, _, another_var_needed, _ = line.split() as well as Prolog does offer, in order to exclude the famous singleton variables. I'm not sure, but wouldn't it avoid unnecessary allocation? Or creating references to the result of the split call does not count up as overhead? EDIT: Sorry, my point here is: in Prolog, as far as I'm concerned, in an expression like: test(L, N) :- test(L, 0, N). test([], N, N). test([_|T], M, N) :- V is M + 1, test(T, V, N). The variable represented by _ is not accessible, for what I suppose the reference to the value that does exist in the list [_|T] is not even created. But, in Python, if I use _, I can use the last value assigned to _, and also, I do suppose the assignment occurs for each of the variables _ -- which may be considered an overhead. My question here is if shouldn't there be (or if there is) a syntax to avoid such unnecessary attributions.

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• How do I overload () operator with two parameters; like (3,5)?

  - by hkBattousai

  I have a mathematical matrix class. It contains a member function which is used to access any element of the class. template >class T> class Matrix { public: // ... void SetElement(T dbElement, uint64_t unRow, uint64_t unCol); // ... }; template <class T> void Matrix<T>::SetElement(T Element, uint64_t unRow, uint64_t unCol) { try { // "TheMatrix" is define as "std::vector<T> TheMatrix" TheMatrix.at(m_unColSize * unRow + unCol) = Element; } catch(std::out_of_range & e) { // Do error handling here } } I'm using this method in my code like this: // create a matrix with 2 rows and 3 columns whose elements are double Matrix<double> matrix(2, 3); // change the value of the element at 1st row and 2nd column to 6.78 matrix.SetElement(6.78, 1, 2); This works well, but I want to use operator overloading to simplify things, like below: Matrix<double> matrix(2, 3); matrix(1, 2) = 6.78; // HOW DO I DO THIS?

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• Enumeration trouble: redeclared as different kind of symbol

  - by Matt

  Hello all. I am writing a program that is supposed to help me learn about enumeration data types in C++. The current trouble is that the compiler doesn't like my enum usage when trying to use the new data type as I would other data types. I am getting the error "redeclared as different kind of symbol" when compiling my trangleShape function. Take a look at the relevant code. Any insight is appreciated! Thanks! (All functions are their own .cpp files.) header file #ifndef HEADER_H_INCLUDED #define HEADER_H_INCLUDED #include <iostream> #include <iomanip> using namespace std; enum triangleType {noTriangle, scalene, isoceles, equilateral}; //prototypes void extern input(float&, float&, float&); triangleType extern triangleShape(float, float, float); /*void extern output (float, float, float);*/ void extern myLabel(const char *, const char *); #endif // HEADER_H_INCLUDED main function //8.1 main // this progam... #include "header.h" int main() { float sideLength1, sideLength2, sideLength3; char response; do //main loop { input (sideLength1, sideLength2, sideLength3); triangleShape (sideLength1, sideLength2, sideLength3); //output (sideLength1, sideLength2, sideLength3); cout << "\nAny more triangles to analyze? (y,n) "; cin >> response; } while (response == 'Y' || response == 'y'); myLabel ("8.1", "2/11/2011"); return 0; } triangleShape shape # include "header.h" triangleType triangleShape(sideLenght1, sideLength2, sideLength3) { triangleType triangle; return triangle; }

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• Can Haskell's monads be thought of as using and returning a hidden state parameter?

  - by AJM

  I don't understand the exact algebra and theory behind Haskell's monads. However, when I think about functional programming in general I get the impression that state would be modelled by taking an initial state and generating a copy of it to represent the next state. This is like when one list is appended to another; neither list gets modified, but a third list is created and returned. Is it therefore valid to think of monadic operations as implicitly taking an initial state object as a parameter and implicitly returning a final state object? These state objects would be hidden so that the programmer doesn't have to worry about them and to control how they gets accessed. So, the programmer would not try to copy the object representing the IO stream as it was ten minutes ago. In other words, if we have this code: main = do putStrLn "Enter your name:" name <- getLine putStrLn ( "Hello " ++ name ) ...is it OK to think of the IO monad and the "do" syntax as representing this style of code? putStrLn :: IOState -> String -> IOState getLine :: IOState -> (IOState, String) main :: IOState -> IOState -- main returns an IOState we can call "state3" main state0 = putStrLn state2 ("Hello " ++ name) where (state2, name) = getLine state1 state1 = putStrLn state0 "Enter your name:"

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