Search Results

Search found 39290 results on 1572 pages for 'even numbers'.

Page 409/1572 | < Previous Page | 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416  | Next Page >

  • VS2010 + IE8 Debugging woes - Element not found

    - by Chin
    I am having great difficulty trying to debug with vs2010 and IE8, though I think the problem is more IE8 specific. When starting a debug session 9 times out of 10 I will have the following problem. IE tab says connecting.. - then after a 5 second wait I will get an error in VS saying element not found. Even when I click ok to dismiss the error, the IE window still shows connecting... I will then have to kill the IE process to be able to close IE to try again. Sometimes however I am lucky and it starts. But the whole thing is so random I have no clue where to start. One thing I have noticed is that I always have 2 IE processes started even though there is only one window open. One has a small footprint of 100k, I presume it is some kind of helper. I am using a static port with the built in WebDev server. If anyone has had similar problems please let me know how you resolved it. Its driving me nuts! thanks

    Read the article

  • Is False == 0 and True == 1 in Python an implementation detail or guaranteed by the language?

    - by EOL
    Is it guaranteed that False == 0 and True == 1, in Python? For instance, is it in any way guaranteed that the following code will always produce the same results, whatever the version of Python (existing and in the foreseeable future)? 0 == False # True 1 == True # True ['zero', 'one'][False] # is 'zero' Any reference to the official documentation would be much appreciated! Other comments would be appreciated too… :) Edit: As noted in many answers, bool inherits from int. The question can therefore be recast as: "Is this an implementation detail that might change in the future, or does the documentation officially say that programmers can rely on booleans inheriting from integers?". This question is relevant for writing robust code that won't fail because of implementation details! Edit 2: The original question is still open, I believe (even though I accepted what I thought was the closest answer): even though Python 3 officially recognizes booleans as integers, I have not yet seen any official integer values for False and True… It therefore looks to me like it is best to stay clear from the assumption that False==0 and True==1.

    Read the article

  • [PHP] MySql Proccesslist filled with "Sleep" Entries leading to "To many Connections" ?

    - by edorian
    Hi, i'd like to ask your help on a longstanding issue with php/mysql connections. Every time i execute a "SHOW PROCESSLIST" command it shows me about 400 idle (Status: Sleep) connections to the database Server emerging from our 5 Webservers. That never was much of a problem (and i didn't find a quick solution) until recently traffic numbers increased and since then MySql reports the "to many connections" Problems repeatedly, even so 350+ of those connections are in "sleep" state. Also a server can't get a mysql connection even if there are sleeping connection to that same server. All those connections vanish when a apache server is restated. The PHP Code used to create the Database connections uses the normal "mysql" Module, the "mysqli" Module, PEAR::DB and Zend Framework Db Adapter. (Different projects). NONE of the projects uses persistent connections. Raising the connection-limit is possible but doesn't seem like a good solution since it's 450 now and there are only 20-100 "real" connections at a time anyways. My question: Why are there so many connections in sleep state and how can i prevent that. Thank you for your time, if theres anything unclear or missing please let me know

    Read the article

  • Get Username from a Cookie

    - by craphunter
    Hi, I use the backend solution from django. I just want to get a username from the cookie or the session_key to get to know the user. How I can do it? from django.contrib.auth.models import User from django.contrib.sessions.models import Session def start(request, template_name="registration/my_account.html"): user_id = request.session.get('session_key') if user_id: name = request.user.username return render_to_response(template_name, locals()) else: return render_to_response('account/noauth.html') Only else is coming up. What am I doing wrong? Am I right then that authenticated means he is logged in? -- Okay this I got! Firstly, if you have some clarification to a question, update the question, don't post an answer or (even worse) another question, as you have done. Secondly, if the user is logged out, by definition he doesn't have a username. I mean the advantage of Cookies is to identify a user again. I just want to place his name on the webpage. Even if he is logged out. Or isnt't it possible?

    Read the article

  • How do I form a Rails link_to with custom field value as parameter

    - by rwheadon
    I have an invoice form where I'm giving the user opportunity to apply coupons to the invoice total. These coupons are held in another Model and I am going to do a lookup on the Coupon code (something like "20OFFONFRIDAY") which I will use to find what the restrictions and benefits of the coupon. (and to see if it even exists at all) The invoice does not have "coupon_code" on it so I hand forged the field onto my form with html: <% if (@invoice.status == 'new') %> <input id="coupon_code" name="coupon_code" type="text"/> <% end %> and I am calling a controller method with link_to and would like something like the following jquery enhanced link_to to work: <%= link_to "Apply Coupon", { :controller=>"invoices", :id=>@invoice.id, :coupon_code=>$('.coupon_code').val(), :action=>"apply_coupon_code" }, :method=>"post" %> ^formatted for easier reading Then inside my "apply_coupon_code" method I will go off to a couple other models and perform business logic before returning the updated invoice page. ...but maybe it's a pipe dream. I guess if push came to shove I could add the "coupon_code" field to my invoice model (even though it's persisted elsewhere.) so it's part of the entity and thus easily available on my form to send back into a controller, but I just hate adding a column to make a coupon validation easier. I figured I'd ping stackoverflow before taking that path.

    Read the article

  • How do I slow down a flash game?

    - by dsaccount1
    Basically the objective is to click on certain targets, which upon doing so would destroy the target and garner you points. I've written a macro to help me until the point where its impossible to even see the target more than a mere flicker, (maybe even less than that, i cant see it with my eyes). But its possible because i believe others have done so. (Maybe on slower comps?) Anyway the question is, how would it be possible to slow down the flash game? I've thought of a couple of ways that could work but i'm not sure how to implement them. 1. Slow down the cpu speed? (smth like that? how?) 2. As the game progress the time the targets appear and stay up is reduced. Maybe theres a variable controlling all of this, isit possible to modify the address of this variable? freeze it or smth? Any ideas, suggestions and especially advice would really be appreciated, thanks!

    Read the article

  • Google Doclist API : bug in revision history?

    - by Jerbome
    I'm trying to manage revisions of files (not documents) stored in google docs programatically using gdata document list java library v3. I can create files and revisions using this tool : I can see them in the web UI. The thing is : the content of my revisions seems wrong. Here is my test protocol : I create a plain text file with "Hello World" in it. I upload it to gdocs without converting it. I create a revision of this file, its content changing to "Content of the second version" I create another revision, its content is now "Content of the third version" At each step, I check the content of each revision, using my app AND using the web UI. Here is what I get : First step : no problem i see one version containing the "Hello world" text Second step : no problem either, i see 2 versions, containing Hello World for the first one and Content of the second version for the second. Third step : here the problems comes. I see my 3 versions, but only the third and last seems to be correct. when i download the second version, the content is "Content of the second versio" (not a typo, it misses the 'n'). And i cannot even download the initial version, it seems to timeout. Important thing : I did not have this problem three weeks ago, my revision management worked well. I have no idea of what happens there, except it seems to be server-related, as the problem is seen either with my app or the google native webapp. Last thing : I tried using the google drive API as gdocs had been merged with drive. When i request revisions of my file, the API returns me an error saying that revisions are not supported for files, even if i can see them in the UI. I tried on converted documents, it worked. I'm looking for a workaround for this problem. Has anyone ever encountered such a problem ? Thanks in advance, Jérôme

    Read the article

  • Jquery conditionals, window locations, and viewdata. Oh my!

    - by John Stuart
    I have one last thing left on a project and its a doozy. Not only is this my first web application, but its the first app i used Jquery, CSS and MVC. I have no idea on how to proceed with this. What i am trying to do is: In my controller, a waste item is validated, and based on the results one of these things can happen. The validation is completed, nothing bad happens, which sets ViewData["FailedWasteId"] to -9999. Its a new waste item and the validation did not pass, which sets ViewData["FailedWasteId"] to 0. Its an existing waste item and the validation did not pass, which sets ViewData["FailedWasteId"] to the id of the waste item. This ViewData["FailedWasteId"] is set on page load using <%=Html.Hidden("wFailId", int.Parse(ViewData["WasteFailID"].ToString()))%> When the validations do not pass, then the page zooms (by window.location) to an invisible div, opens the invisible div etc. Hopefully my intentions are clear with this poor attempt at jquery. The new waste div is and the existing item divs are dynamically generated (this i know works) " So my question here is... Help? I cant even get the data to parse correctly, nor can i even get the conditionals to work. And since this happens after post, i cant get firebug to help my step through the debugger, as the script isnt loaded yet. $(document).ready(function () { var wasteId = parseInt($('#wFailId').text()); if (wasteId == -9999) { //No Issue } else if (wasteId < 0) { //Waste not saved to database } else if (wasteId == 0) { //New Waste window.location = '#0'; $('.editPanel').hide(); $('#GeneratedWasteGrid:first').before(newRow); $('.editPanel').appendTo('#edit-panel-row').slideDown('slow'); } else if (wasteId > 0) { //Waste saved to database } });

    Read the article

  • Creating independent process!

    - by Neha
    I am trying to create a process from a service in C++. This new process is creating as a child process. I want to create an independent process and not a child process... I am using CreateProcess function for the same. Since the new process i create is a child process when i try to kill process tree at the service level it is killing the child process too... I dont want this to happen. I want the new process created to run independent of the service. Please advice on the same.. Thanks.. Code STARTUPINFO si; PROCESS_INFORMATION pi; ZeroMemory( &si, sizeof(si) ); si.cb = sizeof(si); // Start the child process. ZeroMemory( &pi, sizeof(pi) ); si.dwFlags = STARTF_USESHOWWINDOW; if(bRunOnWinLogonDesktop) { if(csDesktopName.empty()) si.lpDesktop = _T("winsta0\\default"); else _tcscpy(si.lpDesktop, csDesktopName.c_str()); } if(bHide) si.wShowWindow = SW_HIDE; /* maybe even SW_HIDE */ else si.wShowWindow = SW_SHOW; /* maybe even SW_HIDE */ TCHAR szCmdLine[512]; _tcscpy(szCmdLine, csCmdLine.c_str()); if( !CreateProcess( NULL, szCmdLine, NULL, NULL, FALSE, CREATE_NEW_PROCESS_GROUP, NULL, NULL, &si, &pi ) )

    Read the article

  • Using Gem Dependencies if a server is 2.0 instead of 2.1

    - by user548744
    At work for internal Rails applications, the server is running Rails 2.0.4 and Ruby 1.86. As far as I know, that's not going to change anytime soon and I have no control over it. I was going to try and test this out between a couple of computers and was curious if anyone knew what would happen. Being the server is on 2.0.4, I'd like to build Rails 2.3.5 applications for that server if at all possible. From what I understand so far, it won't be a problem if I freeze gems and upack dependancies. Does that sound right? Also, the internal work server has no gems beyond what Rails installs. What I'm wondering is, if I can successfully run a 2.3.5 application on the 2.0.4 server, can I also use extra gems and unpack those to use even though the server doesn't have them? I know that it was version 2.1 that introduced Gem Dependencies so would a 2.3.5 Rails app running on a 2.0.4 server be able to use required gems that are unpacked into an application? One of the worst things with this situation is even if the above stuff works, the server being on 1.86 would exclude me from using a lot of really cool gems that require Ruby 1.87 (like Formtastic). Thanks

    Read the article

  • How does git fetches commits associated to a file ?

    - by liadan
    I'm writing a simple parser of .git/* files. I covered almost everything, like objects, refs, pack files etc. But I have a problem. Let's say I have a big 300M repository (in a pack file) and I want to find out all the commits which changed /some/deep/inside/file file. What I'm doing now is: fetching last commit finding a file in it by: fetching parent tree finding out a tree inside recursively repeat until I get into the file additionally I'm checking hashes of each subfolders on my way to file. If one of them is the same as in commit before, I assume that file was not changed (because it's parent dir didn't change) then I store the hash of a file and fetch parent commit finding file again and check if hash change occurs if yes then original commit (i.e. one before parent) was changing a file And I repeat it over and over until I reach very first commit. This solution works, but it sucks. In worse case scenario, first search can take even 3 minutes (for 300M pack). Is there any way to speed it up ? I tried to avoid putting so large objects in memory, but right now I don't see any other way. And even that, initial memory load will take forever :( Greets and thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • Parallel programming, are we not learning from history again?

    - by mezmo
    I started programming because I was a hardware guy that got bored, I thought the problems being solved in the software side of things were much more interesting than those in hardware. At that time, most of the electrical buses I dealt with were serial, some moving data as fast as 1.5 megabit!! ;) Over the years these evolved into parallel buses in order to speed communication up, after all, transferring 8/16/32/64, whatever bits at a time incredibly speeds up the transfer. Well, our ability to create and detect state changes got faster and faster, to the point where we could push data so fast that interference between parallel traces or cable wires made cleaning the signal too expensive to continue, and we still got reasonable performance from serial interfaces, heck some graphics interfaces are even happening over USB for a while now. I think I'm seeing a like trend in software now, our processors were getting faster and faster, so we got good at building "serial" software. Now we've hit a speed bump in raw processor speed, so we're adding cores, or "traces" to the mix, and spending a lot of time and effort on learning how to properly use those. But I'm also seeing what I feel are advances in things like optical switching and even quantum computing that could take us far more quickly that I was expecting back to the point where "serial programming" again makes the most sense. What are your thoughts?

    Read the article

  • How to select a single object using Linq in vb.net

    - by Hucker
    I have done a lot of searching to what appears to be a simple LINQ problem but I can't figure out how to do grab an object out of a collection that has a specified minimum (or max value) without resorting to a sort like this: > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Order By c.age Ascending).ToList.First This (untested code) structure works fine with the exception that the entire customer array must be sorted and placed into a list for the only purpose of extracting the first value. That can't be the best way to get the minimum! Note that I want the whole c record in this case, not the minumum age of a customer that can be done like this (a typical example): > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c.age).Min Or even > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c).Min(Function(x) x.age) I can't for the life of me figure out how to get the whole object (or even the index) without resorting to the sort...

    Read the article

  • Optimizing landing pages

    - by Oleg Shaldybin
    In my current project (Rails 2.3) we have a collection of 1.2 million keywords, and each of them is associated with a landing page, which is effectively a search results page for a given keywords. Each of those pages is pretty complicated, so it can take a long time to generate (up to 2 seconds with a moderate load, even longer during traffic spikes, with current hardware). The problem is that 99.9% of visits to those pages are new visits (via search engines), so it doesn't help a lot to cache it on the first visit: it will still be slow for that visit, and the next visit could be in several weeks. I'd really like to make those pages faster, but I don't have too many ideas on how to do it. A couple of things that come to mind: build a cache for all keywords beforehand (with a very long TTL, a month or so). However, building and maintaing this cache can be a real pain, and the search results on the page might be outdated, or even no longer accessible; given the volatile nature of this data, don't try to cache anything at all, and just try to scale out to keep up with traffic. I'd really appreciate any feedback on this problem.

    Read the article

  • iPhone settings not honoured

    - by winsmith
    My iPhone app has the following problem: Freshly installed, when I read out my "Play Sound" preference with the following code: defaults = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; NSLog(@"Play Sounds? %d", [defaults boolForKey:@"play_sounds_preference"]); The setting always reads out as false, even though the default setting is set to true. Any ideas? Here is my Root.plist: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE plist PUBLIC "-//Apple//DTD PLIST 1.0//EN" "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"> <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>StringsTable</key> <string>Root</string> <key>PreferenceSpecifiers</key> <array> <dict> <key>Type</key> <string>PSGroupSpecifier</string> <key>Title</key> <string>General Settings</string> </dict> <dict> <key>Type</key> <string>PSToggleSwitchSpecifier</string> <key>Title</key> <string>Sounds</string> <key>Key</key> <string>play_sounds_preference</string> <key>DefaultValue</key> <true/> </dict> </array> </dict> </plist> When the user opens the Settings.app and navigates to my app's name, THEN the setting reads out as true, even if the user doesn't change anything.

    Read the article

  • When calling a static method on parent class, can the parent class deduce the type on the child (C#)

    - by Matt
    Suppose we have 2 classes, Child, and the class from which it inherits, Parent. class Parent { public static void MyFunction(){} } class Child : Parent { } Is it possible to determine in the parent class how the method was called? Because we can call it two ways: Parent.MyFunction(); Child.MyFunction(); My current approach was trying to use: MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod().ReflectedType; // and MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType; But both appear to return the Parent type. If you are wondering what, exactly I am trying to accomplish (and why I am violating the basic OOP rule that the parent shouldn't have to know anything about the child), the short of it is this (let me know if you want the long version): I have a Model structure representing some of our data that persists to the database. All of these models inherit from an abstract Parent. This parent implements a couple of events, such as SaveEvent, DeleteEvent, etc. We want to be able to subscribe to events specific to the type. So, even though the event is in the parent, I want to be able to do: Child.SaveEvent += new EventHandler((sender, args) => {}); I have everything in place, where the event is actually backed by a dictionary of event handlers, hashed by type. The last thing I need to get working is correctly detecting the Child type, when doing Child.SaveEvent. I know I can implement the event in each child class (even forcing it through use of abstract), but it would be nice to keep it all in the parent, which is the class actually firing the events (since it implements the common save/delete/change functionality).

    Read the article

  • What's the point of indicating AllowMultiple=false on an abstract Attribute class?

    - by tvanfosson
    On a recent question about MVC attributes, someone asked whether using HttpPost and HttpDelete attributes on an action method would result in either request type being allowed or no requests being allowed (since it can't be both a Post and a Delete at the same time). I noticed that ActionMethodSelectorAttribute, from which HttpPostAttribute and HttpDeleteAttribute both derive is decorated with [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] I had expected it to not allow both HttpPost and HttpDelete on the same method because of this, but the compiler doesn't complain. My limited testing tells me that the attribute usage on the base class is simply ignored. AllowMultiple seemingly only disallows two of the same attribute from being applied to a method/class and doesn't seem to consider whether those attributes derive from the same class which is configured to not allow multiples. Moreover, the attribute usage on the base class doesn't even preclude your from changing the attribute usage on a derived class. That being the case, what's the point of even setting the values on the base attribute class? Is it just advisory or am I missing something fundamental in how they work? FYI - it turns out that using both basically precludes that method from ever being considered. The attributes are evaluated independently and one of them will always indicate that the method is not valid for the request since it can't simultaneously be both a Post and a Delete.

    Read the article

  • Javascript ( jQuery ) Error: SyntaxError: missing ) after argument list

    - by Obmerk Kronen
    I have the simplest function : jQuery(document).ajaxSuccess(function(e, xhr, settings) { var widget_id_base = '099_cf_samurai_widget'; if(settings.data.search('action=save-widget') != -1 && settings.data.search('id_base=' + widget_id_base) != -1) { // alert(\'yay!'\); my_function_chosen_099(); } }); function my_function_chosen_099(){ jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(); } which works just fine , but When I add the width Parameter like so : function my_function_chosen_k99(){ jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:'95%'); } it gives me an error of: Error: SyntaxError: missing ) after argument list Source File: http://localhost/my-path/js/o99.chosen.init.js?ver=k99 Line: 20, Column: 41 Source Code: jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:"95%"); .............................................| I have tried escaping: jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:\"95%"\); and even double jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:\\"95%"\\); and in my desperation, even jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen( width:"95%" ); I checked and rechecked the closing of brackets , and also tried with single quotes ' - but nothing . There appear to be a lot of similar questions here , but all I saw was escaping problems, ANd I have tried all that I know .. What is wrong here ?? I assume it is not a simple syntax error - or is it ? ( one which I can not find .. )

    Read the article

  • Best practices to deal with "slightly different" branches of source code

    - by jedi_coder
    This question is rather agnostic than related to a certain version control program. Assume there is a source code tree under certain distributed version control. Let's call it A. At some point somebody else clones it and gets its own copy. Let's call it B. I'll call A and B branches, even if some version control tools have different definitions for branches (some might call A and B repositories). Let's assume that branch A is the "main" branch. In the context of distributed version control this only means that branch A is modified much more actively and the owner of branch B periodically syncs (pulls) new updates from branch A. Let's consider that a certain source file in branch B contains a class (again, it's also language agnostic). The owner of branch B considers that some class methods are more appropriate and groups them together by moving them inside the class body. Functionally nothing has changed - this is a very trivial refactoring of the code. But the change gets reflected in diffs. Now, assuming that this change from branch B will never get merged into branch A, the owner of branch B will always get this difference when pulling from branch A and merging into his own workspace. Even if there's only one such trivial change, the owner of branch B needs to resolve conflicts every time when pulling from branch A. As long as branches A and B are modified independently, more and more conflicts like this appear. What is the workaround for this situation? Which workflow should the owner of branch B follow to minimize the effort for periodically syncing with branch A?

    Read the article

  • EXE stops working if containing folder is renamed. MSVCP90.dll

    - by John
    This popup comes up as soon as the app is started: The program can't start because MSVCP90.dll is missing from your computer. Before anyone says "install the VC++ runtimes", wait! If I rename the folder containing my .EXE then the app runs. If I rename it back, it breaks. The app has been running for weeks without any changes to my system/VS installation (2008 SP1), we suddenly spotted this error a few days ago. Lost as to why the name of the dir is causing issues... again this has not changed in months and all our resource paths are relative anyway, e.g "../someOtherDir/...." It doesn't just do this on my PC, we have the /bin dir (the one containing EXE) in SVN and suddenly everyone started seeing the same issue, even though the binaries themselves seem just fine. Is it possible some additional data got put into SVN and that's the cause? Since it's not just one PC, there must be something either in SVN or the EXE itself... Note this popup comes before our code even gets to run.

    Read the article

  • Should I re-use UI elements across view controllers?

    - by Endemic
    In the iPhone app I'm currently working on, I'd like two navigation controllers (I'll call them A and B) to have toolbars that are identical in appearance and function. The toolbar in question will look like this: [(button) (flexible-space) (label)] For posterity's sake, the label is actually a UIBarButtonItem with a custom view. My design requires that A always appear directly before B on the navigation stack, so B will never be loaded without A having been loaded. Given this layout, I started wondering, "Is it worth it to re-use A's toolbar items in B's toolbar?" As I see it, my options are: 1. Don't worry about re-use, create the toolbar items twice 2. Create the toolbar items in A and pass them to B in a custom initializer 3. Use some more obscure method that I haven't thought of to hold the toolbar constant when pushing a view controller As far as I can see, option 1 may violate DRY, but guarantees that there won't be any confusion on the off chance that (for example) the button may be required to perform two different (no matter how similar) functions for either view controller in future versions of the app. Were that to happen, options 2 or 3 would require the target-action of the button to change when B is loaded and unloaded. Even if the button were never required to perform different functions, I'm not sure what its proper target would be under option 2. All in all, it's not a huge problem, even if I have to go with option 1. I'm probably overthinking this anyway, trying to apply the dependency injection pattern where it's not appropriate. I just want to know the best practice should this situation arise in a more extreme form, like if a long chain of view controllers need to use identical (in appearance and function) UI elements.

    Read the article

  • "javascript: void(0)" links sometimes break event handlers in internet explorer

    - by internet man
    A while back I ran in to a problem where after clicking an anchor with "javascript: void(0)" events just stopped firing. I read that following a link puts the page in a different state and in that different state events don't fire. Even though the link is not real, it sometimes confuses IE. Anyway, I removed the "javascript: void(0)"'s and the problem has not been seen again. Now, in a different application I am seeing the same thing... kinda. Clicking the "javascript: void(0)" sometimes has no ill effect. But then for some reason or another after clicking the bad link the page will stop working. Once this happens it will continue to happen consistently until the client machine is rebooted. After reboot, you are back to it sometimes happening. Crazy right? Reboot fixing a web page!?!?! So, my question is has anyone seen this before? Can anyone give an explanation for this issue? Any documentation on this issue? I can't seem to find anything on it again. Does this even make sense? I already know "javascript: void(0)" is bad practice... I am just looking to understand the issue. Specifically, this is IE7. Thanks for reading!

    Read the article

  • Using enum values to represent binary operators (or functions)

    - by Bears will eat you
    I'm looking for an elegant way to use values in a Java enum to represent operations or functions. My guess is, since this is Java, there just isn't going to be a nice way to do it, but here goes anyway. My enum looks something like this: public enum Operator { LT, LTEQ, EQEQ, GT, GTEQ, NEQ; ... } where LT means < (less than), LTEQ means <= (less than or equal to), etc - you get the idea. Now I want to actually use these enum values to apply an operator. I know I could do this just using a whole bunch of if-statements, but that's the ugly, OO way, e.g.: int a = ..., b = ...; Operator foo = ...; // one of the enum values if (foo == Operator.LT) { return a < b; } else if (foo == Operator.LTEQ) { return a <= b; } else if ... // etc What I'd like to be able to do is cut out this structure and use some sort of first-class function or even polymorphism, but I'm not really sure how. Something like: int a = ..., b = ...; Operator foo = ...; return foo.apply(a, b); or even int a = ..., b = ...; Operator foo = ...; return a foo.convertToOperator() b; But as far as I've seen, I don't think it's possible to return an operator or function (at least, not without using some 3rd-party library). Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Mobile site not rendering mobile within iframe

    - by user2788371
    I'm launching a mobile version of an existing corporate web application that currently loads in an iframe for corporate authentication purposes. When accessing the web app's direct link from a mobile device, it displays beautifully. The problem is that when accessing through the iframe, the site doesn't seem to scale correctly and it looks more like I'm accessing the desktop version of the site. Any suggestions on how make the site within the iframe recognize the mobile device's width and adjust appropriately? I've tried setting the viewport within the HTML and CSS of the site being loaded and even then I'm not getting the change I expect on my iPhone. I haven't had the opportunity to test an Android yet but within our company, iOS is the most important. Some of snippets of code I have tried are listed below. I've also tried 480px and device-width (which I believe I can't access because the iframe is a different domain). Unfortunately, modifying the iframe page and settings are not an option. Also, Javascript cannot be used as a solution for other reasons. Within HTML of web app site: <meta name="viewport" content="width=320px, initial-scale=1.0, user-scalable=no" /> Within CSS of web app site: @viewport { width: 320px; } The above CSS does not seem to render even when not used in device specific @media code.

    Read the article

  • C++ Multi Monitor - Find All Visible/Open Windows

    - by Paul
    I'm trying to find all the windows of ANY kind that are open (and have a taskbar 'button'). I have no problems finding the list processes/hWnd's, and then cycling through those, but how do I determine if a process/hwnd has a window open? (even if minimized). I've tried doing different combinations of the window parameters (such as WS_POPUP etc) but none of the parameters (or combinations of parameters) that I could find would give me all the open windows without some sort of false positives. As an example of a false positive was the fact that it gives me two 'windows' for google talk (even though one was open). Another false positive is considering the start menu as an open window. Any ideas? Solutions? I've been working on this for a while and its been driving me a bit insane. Note: I'm doing this for windows 7 (at this point). I'm not sure if there's any difference between how you would do this between XP and 7, but I thought it might be relevant.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416  | Next Page >