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• How do you keep all your languages straight?

  - by Chris Blackwell

  I think I'm going a little crazy. Right now, I'm working with the following languages (I was just doing a mental inventory): C++ - our game engine Assembler - low level debugging and a few co-processor specific routines Lua - our game engine scripting language HLSL - for shaders Python - our build system and utility tools Objective C/C++ - game engine platform code for Mac and iPhone C# - A few tools developed in our overseas office ExtendScript - Photoshop exporting tools ActionScript - UI scripting VBScript - some spreadsheet related stuff PHP - some web related stuff SQL - some web and tool related stuff On top of this are the plethora of API's that often have many different ways of doing the same thing: std library, boost, .NET, wxWidgets, Cocoa, Carbon, native script libraries for Python, Lua, etc, OpenGL, Direct3d, GDI, Aqua, augh! I find myself inadvertently conflating languages and api's, not realizing what I'm doing until I get syntax errors. I feel like I can't possibly keep up with it, and I can't possibly be proficient in all of these areas. Especially outside the realm of C++ and Python, I find myself programming more by looking at manuals that from memory. Do you have a similar problem? Ideas for compartmentalizing so you're more efficient? Deciding where you want to stay proficient? Organizational tips? Good ways to remember when you switch from Lua to C++ you need to start using semi-colons again? Rants on how complicated we programmers have made things for ourselves? Any ideas welcome!

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• Newbie, deciding Python or Erlang

  - by Joe

  Hi Guys, I'm a Administrator (unix, Linux and some windows apps such as Exchange) by experience and have never worked on any programming language besides C# and scripting on Bash and lately on powershell. I'm starting out as a service provider and using multiple network/server monitoring tools based on open source (nagios, opennms etc) in order to monitor them. At this moment, being inspired by a design that I came up with, to do more than what is available with the open source at this time, I would like to start programming and test some of these ideas. The requirement is that a server software that captures a stream of data and store them in a database(CouchDB or MongoDB preferably) and the client side (agent installed on a server) would be sending this stream of data on a schedule of every 10 minutes or so. For these two core ideas, I have been reading about Python and Erlang besides ruby. I do plan to use either Amazon or Rackspace where the server platform would run. This gives me the scalability needed when we have more customers with many servers. For that reason alone, I thought Erlang was a better fit(I could be totally wrong, new to this game) and I understand that Erlang has limited support in some ways compared to Ruby or Python. But also I'm totally new to the programming realm of things and any advise would be appreciated grately. Jo

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• WPF - Dynamic tooltip

  - by Al Mackenzie

  I have a class ToolTipProvider which has a method string GetToolTip(UIElement element) which will return a specific tooltip for the UIElement specified, based on various factors including properties of the UIElement itself and also looking up into documentation which can be changed dynamically. It will also probably run in a thread so when the form first fires up the tooltips will be something like the visual studio 'Document cache is still being constructed', then populated in the background. I want to allow this to be used in any wpf form with the minimum effort for the developer. Essentially I want to insert an ObjectDataProvider resource into the Window.Resources to wrap my ToolTipProvider object, then I think I need to create a tooltip (called e.g. MyToolTipProvider) in the resources which references that ObjectDataProvider, then on any element which requires this tooltip functionality it would just be a case of ToolTip="{StaticResource MyToolTipProvider}" however I can't work out a) how to bind the actual elemnt itself to the MethodParameters of the objectdataprovider, or b) how to force it to call the method each time the tooltip is opened. Any ideas/pointers on the general pattern I need? Not looking for complete solution, just any ideas from those more experienced

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• Why is my app delegate's didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method all of sudden being called AFTER my Ro

  - by BeachRunnerJoe

  Hi. I've been playing with the iPad's SplitView template in Xcode. Here are two of the many important methods that are auto-generated for you by the Split View-based Application template... AppNameAppDelegate.m #pragma mark - #pragma mark Application lifecycle - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // Override point for customization after app launch rootViewController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; // Add the split view controller's view to the window and display. [window addSubview:splitViewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } RootViewController.m #pragma mark - #pragma mark View lifecycle - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.clearsSelectionOnViewWillAppear = NO; self.contentSizeForViewInPopover = CGSizeMake(320.0, 600.0); NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } } When you build and run the project before making any changes at all, the application:didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method is called before the RootViewController:viewDidLoad method is called. I'm new to iPhone development, but I'm assuming this is the correct and typical sequence. However, as soon as I changed the RootViewController code and set it as a subclass of UIViewController (instead of UITableViewController by default), and made the respective adjustments in Interface Builder, suddenly the RootViewController:viewDidLoad is being called before the application:didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method. I need to get it back to the way it was working before because, as you can see in the code, the viewDidLoad method depends on didFinishLauchingWithOptions method to execute so it can set the rootViewController's managedObjectContext that it uses to perform the fetch request. Any ideas what caused this? Any ideas how I can fix this? Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm gonna keep researching and playing with the code.

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• Kill a node in dojo.dnd.source ?

  - by Soulhuntre

  Related to my SO issue at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3010996/dojo-extending-dojo-dnd-source-move-not-happening-ideas/3012518#3012518 I am now almost done. I have a dnd.Source derived class - we can consider it a dnd.Source for now, that has within it a node that has a specific class. function declare_mockupSmartDndUl(){ dojo.require("dojo.dnd.Source"); dojo.provide("mockup.SmartDndUl"); dojo.declare("mockup.SmartDndUl", dojo.dnd.Source, { markupFactory: function(params, node){ //params._skipStartup = true; return new mockup.SmartDndUl(node, params); }, onDropExternal: function(source, nodes, copy){ console.debug('onDropExternal called...'); // dojo.destroy(this.getAllNodes().query(".dndInstructions")); this.inherited(arguments); var x = source.getAllNodes().length; if( x == 0 ){ newnode = document.createElement('li'); newnode.innerHTML = "Hello!"; dojo.addClass(newnode,"dndInstructions"); source.node.appendChild(newnode); } return true; // return dojo.dnd.Source.prototype.onDropExternal.call(this, source, nodes, copy); } }); } You can see the place I mean from the dojo.destroy that is commented out because it was totally n00b :) If I do this var y = this.getAllNodes().query(".dndInstructions") the nodelist in y absolutely does contain the node. Now I need t kill it, nuke it - get it out of there. Out of the dnd.Source, out of the DOM... gone. Any ideas how to do it safely? It will be the ONLY node in the list at the time we do whatever it is we are goign to do to kill the thing. Thanks!

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• Windows-mobile app won't run after being closed by Task Manager

  - by pithyless

  I've inherited some windows-mobile code that I've been bringing up-to-date. I've come across a weird bug, and I was hoping that even though a bit vague, maybe it will spark someone's memory: Running the app (which is basically a glorified Forms app with P/Invoke gps code), I switch to the task manager, and close the app via End Task. Seems to exit fine (no errors and disappears from Task Manager). Unfortunately, the app refuses to start a second time until I reboot the phone or reinstall the CAB. What's worse: this bug is reproducible on a HTC Diamond, but works fine (ie. can run again after EndTask) on an HTC HD2. The only thing I can think of is some kind of timing race between a Dispose() and the Task Manager. Any ideas? I'm also thinking of a workaround - I do have a working "Exit Application" routine that correctly cleans up the app; can I catch the EndTask event in the c# code in order to complete a proper cleanup? Maybe I'm just missing the pain point... all ideas welcome :)

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• VB.net Debug sqldatareader - immediate window

  - by ScaryJones

  Scenario is this; I've a sqldatareader query that seems to be returning nothing when I try to convert the sqldatareader to a datatable using datatable.load. So I debug into it, I grab the verbose SQL query before it goes into the sqldatareader, just to make sure it's formatted correctly. I copy and paste this into SQL server to run it and see if it returns anything. It does, one row. I go back to visual studio and let the program continue, I create a datatable and try to load the sqldatareader but it just returns an empty reader. I'm baffled as to what's going on. I'll copy a version of the code (not the exact SQL query I'm using but close) here: Dim cn As New SqlConnection cn.ConnectionString = <connection string details here> cn.Open() Dim sqlQuery As String = "select * from Products where productid = 5" Dim cm As New SqlCommand(sqlQuery, cn) Dim dr As SqlDataReader = cm.ExecuteReader() Dim dt as new DataTable dt.load(dr) dt should have contents but it's empty. If I copy that SQL query into sql server and run it I get a row of results. Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? ######### UPDATE ############ I've now noticed that it seems to be returning one less row than I get with each SQL query. So, if I run the SQL myself and get 1 row then the datatable seems to have 0 rows. If the query returns 4 rows, the datatable has 3!! Very strange, any ideas anyone?

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• Django: Using 2 different AdminSite instances with different models registered

  - by omat

  Apart from the usual admin, I want to create a limited admin for non-staff users. This admin site will have different registered ModelAdmins. I created a folder /useradmin/ in my project directory and similar to contrib/admin/_init_.py I added an autodiscover() which will register models defined in useradmin.py modules instead of admin.py: # useradmin/__init__.py def autodiscover(): # Same as admin.autodiscover() but registers useradmin.py modules ... for app in settings.INSTALLED_APPS: mod = import_module(app) try: before_import_registry = copy.copy(site._registry) import_module('%s.useradmin' % app) except: site._registry = before_import_registry if module_has_submodule(mod, 'useradmin'): raise I also cretated sites.py under useradmin/ to override AdminSite similar to contrib/admin/sites: # useradmin/sites.py class UserAdminSite(AdminSite): def has_permission(self, request): # Don't care if the user is staff return request.user.is_active def login(self, request): # Do the login stuff but don't care if the user is staff if request.user.is_authenticated(): ... else: ... site = UserAdminSite(name='useradmin') In the project's URLs: # urls.py from django.contrib import admin import useradmin admin.autodiscover() useradmin.autodiscover() urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), (r'^useradmin/', include(useradmin.site.urls)), ) And I try to register different models in admin.py and useradmin.py modules under app directories: # products/useradmin.py import useradmin class ProductAdmin(useradmin.ModelAdmin): pass useradmin.site.register(Product, ProductAdmin) But when registering models in useradmin.py like useradmin.site.register(Product, ProductAdmin), I get 'module' object has no attribute 'ModelAdmin' exception. Though when I try this via shell; import useradmin from useradmin import ModelAdmin does not raise any exception. Any ideas what might be wrong? Edit: I tried going the @Luke way and arranged the code as follows as minimal as possible: (file paths are relative to the project root) # admin.py from django.contrib.admin import autodiscover from django.contrib.admin.sites import AdminSite user_site = AdminSite(name='useradmin') # urls.py (does not even have url patterns; just calls autodiscover()) import admin admin.autodiscover() # products/admin.py import admin from products.models import Product admin.user_site.register(Product) As a result I get an AttributeError: 'module' object has no attribute 'user_site' when admin.user_site.register(Product) in products/admin.py is called. Any ideas? Solution: I don't know if there are better ways but, renaming the admin.py in the project root to useradmin.py and updating the imports accordingly resolved the last case, which was a naming and import conflict.

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• Sharing session state between 2 ASP.NET applications using SQL Server

  - by Dave

  Hi I'm working on a site that has a requirement to share session between a cms application and an online store application on the same domain eg. mydomain.com and store.mydomain.com I've made some progress with it and it works on my local build between localhost/cms and localhost/store Basically I have done what is suggested in this article http://blogs.msdn.com/toddca/archive/2007/01/25/sharing-asp-net-session-state-across-applications.aspx and hacked the TempGetAppID Stored Procedure to return the same application id (1). This appears to work as it creates sessions with ids like 'abv5d2urx1asscfwuzw3wp4500000001', which is what I'd expect. My issue is that when I deploy it to our testing environment, it creates a new session when I navigate between the 2 sites. So when I start a session on the cms site, if I navigate to the store, it creates a new session. These are set up as 2 different websites in IIS7. In the web.config files for both sites, the and elements are both the same and are as follows (minus sensitive information) Has anyone got an ideas why this might not be working? I am sharing Forms Authentication across the 2 sites and that works fine. Any help or ideas would be greatly appreciated! Many thanks Dave

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• Ruby - Immutable Objects

  - by Chris Bunch

  I've got a highly multithreaded app written in Ruby that shares a few instance variables. Writes to these variables are rare (1%) while reads are very common (99%). What is the best way (either in your opinion or in the idiomatic Ruby fashion) to ensure that these threads always see the most up-to-date values involved? Here's some ideas so far that I had (although I'd like your input before I overhaul this): Have a lock that most be used before reading or writing any of these variables (from Java Concurrency in Practice). The downside of this is that it puts a lot of synchronize blocks in my code and I don't see an easy way to avoid it. Use Ruby's freeze method (see here), although it looks equally cumbersome and doesn't give me any of the synchronization benefits that the first option gives. These options both seem pretty similar but hopefully anyone out there will have a better idea (or can argue well for one of these ideas). I'd also be fine with making the objects immutable so they aren't corrupted or altered in the middle of an operation, but I don't know Ruby well enough to make the call on my own and this question seems to argue that objects are highly mutable.

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• Creating a timetable using PHP

  - by Big Sal

  I am going to create a little app using PHP that acts as a timetable. I am going to have it going from 9.00am to 5.00pm and through monday to friday. I am still deciding how i want the timetable to function but have this idea though, the user mouses over a section of the timetable, when the user clicks that point, a new event booking window opens up and the user selects the event type and event duration and then saves. Now, I was going to create a 1440 pixel wide table and then have have each hour have 180pixels and each minute of that hour taking up 3 pixels. How would you go about implementing such a thing, and by that i mean, how would you go about making the app so that it knows what time it is when a user clicks a certain portion of the timetable? Im not asking for code or anything like that, I'm just wondering how more experienced developers would go about creating such a timetable because there are a few other ways i have thought about going about this problem but its always nice to hear other peoples ideas about how they would go about solving a problem. Any ideas are welcomed, Thanks.

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• HTTP requests and Apache modules: Creative attack vectors

  - by pinkgothic

  Slightly unorthodox question here: I'm currently trying to break an Apache with a handful of custom modules. What spawned the testing is that Apache internally forwards requests that it considers too large (e.g. 1 MB trash) to modules hooked in appropriately, forcing them to deal with the garbage data - and lack of handling in the custom modules caused Apache in its entirety to go up in flames. Ouch, ouch, ouch. That particular issue was fortunately fixed, but the question's arisen whether or not there may be other similar vulnerabilities. Right now I have a tool at my disposal that lets me send a raw HTTP request to the server (or rather, raw data through an established TCP connection that could be interpreted as an HTTP request if it followed the form of one, e.g. "GET ...") and I'm trying to come up with other ideas. (TCP-level attacks like Slowloris and Nkiller2 are not my focus at the moment.) Does anyone have a few nice ideas how to confuse the server and/or its modules to the point of self-immolation? Broken UTF-8? (Though I doubt Apache cares about encoding - I imagine it just juggles raw bytes.) Stuff that is only barely too long, followed by a 0-byte, followed by junk? et cetera I don't consider myself a very good tester (I'm doing this by necessity and lack of manpower; I unfortunately don't even have a more than basic grasp of Apache internals that would help me along), which is why I'm hoping for an insightful response or two or three. Maybe some of you have done some similar testing for your own projects? (If stackoverflow is not the right place for this question, I apologise. Not sure where else to put it.)

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• RESTful idempotence

  - by DutrowLLC

  I'm designing a RESTful web service utilizing ROA(Resource oriented architecture). I'm trying to work out an efficient way to guarantee idempotence for PUT requests that create new resources in cases that the server designates the resource key. From my understanding, the traditional approach is to create a type of transaction resource such as /CREATE_PERSON. The the client-server interaction for creating a new person resource would be in two parts: Step 1: Get unique transaction id for creating the new PERSON resource::: **Client request:** GET /CREATE_PERSON **Server response:** 200 OK transaction-id:"as8yfasiob" Step 2: Create the new person resource in a request guaranteed to be unique by using the transaction id::: **Client request** PUT /CREATE_PERSON/{transaction_id} first_name="Big bubba" **Server response** 201 Created // (If the request is a duplicate, it would send this PersonKey="398u4nsdf" // same response without creating a new resource. It // would perhaps send an error response if the was used // on a transaction id non-duplicate request, but I have // control over the client, so I can guarantee that this // won't happen) The problem that I see with this approach is that it requires sending two requests to the server in order to do to single operation of creating a new PERSON resource. This creates a performance issues increasing the chance that the user will be waiting around for the client to complete their request. I've been trying to hash out ideas for eliminating the first step such as pre-sending transaction-id's with each request, but most of my ideas have other issues or involve sacrificing the statelessness of the application. Is there a way to do this?

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• Custom ASPNetMembership FailureInformation always null, OnValidatingPassword issue

  - by bigb

  As stated here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.web.security.membershipprovider.onvalidatingpassword.aspx "When the ValidatingPassword event has completed, the properties of the ValidatePasswordEventArgs object supplied as the e parameter can be examined to determine whether the current action should be canceled and if a particular Exception, stored in the FailureInformation property, should be thrown." Here is some details/code which really shows why FailureInformation shouldn't be always null http://forums.asp.net/t/991002.aspx if any password security conditions not matched. According with my Membership settings i should get an exception that password does not match password security conditions, but it is not happened. Then i did try to debug System.Web.ApplicationServices.dll(in .NET 4.0 System.Web.Security located here) Framework Code to see whats really happens there, but i cant step into this assembly, may be because of this [TypeForwardedFrom("System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=Neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a")] public abstract class MembershipProvider : ProviderBase Easily i may step into any another .NET 4.0 assembly, but in this one not. I did check, symbols for System.Web.ApplicationServices.dll loaded. Now i have only one idea how ti fix it - to override method OnValidatingPassword(ValidatePasswordEventArgs e). Thats my story. May be some one may help: 1) Any ideas why OnValidatingPassword not working? 2) Any ideas how to step into it?

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• Encoding / Error Correction Challenge

  - by emi1faber

  Is it mathematically feasible to encode and initial 4 byte message into 8 bytes and if one of the 8 bytes is completely dropped and another is wrong to reconstruct the initial 4 byte message? There would be no way to retransmit nor would the location of the dropped byte be known. If one uses Reed Solomon error correction with 4 "parity" bytes tacked on to the end of the 4 "data" bytes, such as DDDDPPPP, and you end up with DDDEPPP (where E is an error) and a parity byte has been dropped, I don't believe there's a way to reconstruct the initial message (although correct me if I am wrong)... What about multiplying (or performing another mathematical operation) the initial 4 byte message by a constant, then utilizing properties of an inverse mathematical operation to determine what byte was dropped. Or, impose some constraints on the structure of the message so every other byte needs to be odd and the others need to be even. Alternatively, instead of bytes, it could also be 4 decimal digits encoded in some fashion into 8 decimal digits where errors could be detected & corrected under the same circumstances mentioned above - no retransmission and the location of the dropped byte is not known. I'm looking for any crazy ideas anyone might have... Any ideas out there?

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• condition in recursion - best practise

  - by mo

  hi there! what's the best practise to break a loop? my ideas were: Child Find(Parent parent, object criteria) { Child child = null; foreach(Child wannabe in parent.Childs) { if (wannabe.Match(criteria)) { child = wannabe; break; } else { child = Find(wannabe, criteria); } } return child; } or Child Find(Parent parent, object criteria) { Child child = null; var conditionator = from c parent.Childs where child != null select c; foreach(Child wannabe in conditionator) { if (wannabe.Match(criteria)) { child = wannabe; } else { child = Find(wannabe, criteria); } } return child; } or Child Find(Parent parent, object criteria) { Child child = null; var enumerator = parent.Childs.GetEnumerator(); while(child != null && enumerator.MoveNext()) { if (enumerator.Current.Match(criteria)) { child = wannabe; } else { child = Find(wannabe, criteria); } } return child; } what do u think, any better ideas? i'm looking for the niciest solution :D mo

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• NSTableView binding problem

  - by Niklas Ottosson

  I have only just started with XCode (v3.2.2) and Interface Builder and have run into a problem. Here is what I have done: I have made a class to be the datasource of a NSTableView: @interface TimeObjectsDS : NSControl { IBOutlet NSTableView * idTableView; NSMutableArray * timeObjects; } @property (assign) NSMutableArray * timeObjects; @property (assign) NSTableView * idTableView; - (id) init; - (void) dealloc; - (void) addTimeObject: (TimeObj *)timeObject; - (int) count; // NSTableViewDataSource Protocol functions - (int)numberOfRowsInTableView:(NSTableView *)tableView; - (id)tableView:(NSTableView *)tableView objectValueForTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn row: (int)row; I have then bound my NSTableView in the View to this datasource like so: I have also bound the View NSTableView to the Model idTableView variable in Interface Builder seen above In the init function I add a element to the mutable array. This is displayed correctly in the NSTableView when I run the application. However when I add another element to the array (of same type as in init) and try to call [idTableView reloadData] on the View nothing happens. In fact the Model idTableView is null. When printing the variable with NSLog(@"idTableView: %@", idTableView) I get "idTableView: (null)" Im runing out of ideas how to fix this. Any ideas to what I could do to fix the binding?

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• FIlling a Java Bean tree structure from a csv flat file

  - by Clem

  Hi, I'm currently trying to construct a list of bean classes in Java from a flat description file formatted in csv. Concretely : Here is the structure of the csv file : MES_ID;GRP_PARENT_ID;GRP_ID;ATTR_ID M1 ; ;G1 ;A1 M1 ; ;G1 ;A2 M1 ;G1 ;G2 ;A3 M1 ;G1 ;G2 ;A4 M1 ;G2 ;G3 ;A5 M1 ; ;G4 ;A6 M1 ; ;G4 ;A7 M1 ; ;G4 ;A8 M2 ; ;G1 ;A1 M2 ; ;G1 ;A2 M2 ; ;G2 ;A3 M2 ; ;G2 ;A4 It corresponds to the hierarchical data structure : M1 ---G1 ------A1 ------A2 ------G2 ---------A3 ---------A4 ---------G3 ------------A5 ------G4 ---------A7 ---------A8 M2 ---G1 ------A1 ------A2 ---G2 ------A3 ------A4 Remarks : A message M can have an infinite number of groups G and attributes A A group G can have an infinite number of attributes and an infinite number of under-groups each of them having under-groups too That beeing said, I'm trying to read this flat csv decription to store it in this structure of beans : Map<String, MBean> messages = new HashMap<String, Mbean>(); == public class MBean { private String mes_id; private Map<String, GBean> groups; } public class GBean { private String grp_id; private Map<String, ABean> attributes; private Map<String, GBean> underGroups; } public class ABean { private String attr_id; } Reading the csv file sequentially is ok and I've been investigating how to use recursion to store the description data, but couldn't find a way. Thanks in advance for any of your algorithmic ideas. I hope it will put you in the mood of thinking about this ... I've to admit that I'm out of ideas :s

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• How do I expose the columns collection of GridView control that is inside a user control

  - by Christopher Edwards

  See edit. I want to be able to do this in the aspx that consumes the user control. <uc:MyControl ID="MyGrid" runat="server"> <asp:BoundField DataField="FirstColumn" HeaderText="FirstColumn" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="SecondColumn" HeaderText="SecondColumn" /> </uc> I have this code (which doesn't work). Any ideas what I am doing wrong? VB Partial Public Class MyControl Inherits UserControl <System.Web.UI.IDReferenceProperty(GetType(DataControlFieldCollection))> _ Public Property Columns() As DataControlFieldCollection Get Return MyGridView.Columns End Get Set(ByVal value As DataControlFieldCollection) ' The Columns collection of the GridView is ReadOnly, so I rebuild it MyGridView.Columns.Clear() For Each c As DataControlField In value MyGridView.Columns.Add(c) Next End Set End Property ... End Class C# public partial class MyControl : UserControl {         [System.Web.UI.IDReferenceProperty(typeof(DataControlFieldCollection))]     public DataControlFieldCollection Columns {         get { return MyGridView.Columns; }         set {             MyGridView.Columns.Clear();             foreach (DataControlField c in value) {                 MyGridView.Columns.Add(c);             }         }     } ... } EDIT: Actually it does work, but auto complete does not work between the uc:MyControl opening and closing tags and I get compiler warnings:- Content is not allowed between the opening and closing tags for element 'MyControl'. Validation (XHTML 1.0 Transitional): Element 'columns' is not supported. Element 'BoundField' is not a known element. This can occur if there is a compilation error in the Web site, or the web.config file is missing. So I guess I need to use some sort of directive to tell the complier to expect content between the tags. Any ideas?

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• How to search inbox using zend mail

  - by Bob Cavezza

  The following is a function from zend_mail_protocol_imap. i read that to search emails, I would want to override it using zend_mail_storage_imap (which is what I'm using now to grab email from gmail). I copy and pasted the following function into zend_mail_storage_imap, but I'm having issues with the params. I can't find documentation on what to use for the array $params. I initially thought it was the search term before reading it more thoroughly. I'm out of ideas. Here's the function... /** * do a search request * * This method is currently marked as internal as the API might change and is not * safe if you don't take precautions. * * @internal * @return array message ids */ public function search(array $params) { $response = $this->requestAndResponse('SEARCH', $params); if (!$response) { return $response; } foreach ($response as $ids) { if ($ids[0] == 'SEARCH') { array_shift($ids); return $ids; } } return array(); } Initially I thought this would do the trick... $storage = new Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap($imap); $searchresults = $storage->search('search term'); But nope, I need to send the info in an array. Any ideas?

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• mysql-python stopped working

  - by MAC

  This is a rather dumb question but i'am looking at a bizarre situation. I am running fedora and have python 2.6.5 installed. The other day i installed MySQL-python using yum (because i do not have the setuptools module so i cannot build it from source). Anyway yesterday i wrote my entire data access layer in python and it was running fine, i did test it. Today however it gives me an ImportError: No module named MySQLdb The only thing i ever changed was i installed eclipse and pyDev. Any ideas on what went wrong and how i fix it. I tried removing and re-installing MySql-python but that did not help. I did the following import sys print sys.path And it shows me all the paths which are basically pertaining to /usr/local/lib/python2.6 However i was trying to find where the MySQLdb module is installed and it seems that its installed in /usr/lib/python2.5/sitepackages Now i have no idea why it got installed there and why it was working earlier and why it stopped working now. Any ideas on how i should fix it. I did try copying the site-packages folder over to the python2.6 folder but that did not work Help!!

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• Facebook Connect - Using both FBML and PHP Client

  - by Ryan

  I am doing my second Facebook connect site. On my first site, I used the facebook coonect FBML to sign a user in, then I could access other information via the PHP Client. With this site, using the same exact code, it doesn't seem to be working. I'd like someone to be able to sign in using the Facebook button: <fb:login-button length="long" size="medium" onlogin="facebook_onlogin();"></fb:login-button> After they have logged in, the facebook_onlogin() function makes some AJAX requests to a PHP page which attempts to use the Facebook PHP Client. Here's the code from that page: $facebook = new Facebook('xxxxx API KEY xxxxx', 'xxxxx SECRET KEY xxxxx'); //$facebook->require_login(); ** I DONT WANT THIS LINE!! $userID = $facebook->api_client->users_getLoggedInUser(); if($userID) { $user_details = $facebook->api_client->users_getInfo($userID, 'last_name, first_name'); $firstName = $user_details[0]['first_name']; $lastName = $user_details[0]['last_name']; $this->view->userID = $userID; $this->view->firstName = $firstName; $this->view->lastName = $lastName; } The problem is that the PHP Client thinks I don't have a session key, so the $userID never get set. If I override the $userID with my facebook ID (which I am logged in with) I get this error: exception 'FacebookRestClientException' with message 'A session key is required for calling this method' in C:\wamp\www\mab\application\Facebook\facebookapi_php5_restlib.php:3003 If I uncomment the require_login(), it will get a session ID, but it redirects pages around a lot and breaks my AJAX calls. I am using the same code I successfully did this with on another site. Anyone have any ideas why the PHP client don't know about the session ID after a user has logged in with the connect button? Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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• Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

  - by Andrew White

  In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

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• How do I begin reading source code?

  - by anonnoir

  I understand the value of reading source code, and I am trying my best to read as much as I can. However, every time I try getting into a 'large' (i.e. complete) project of sorts, I am overwhelmed. For example, I use Anki a lot when revising languages. Also, I'm interested in getting to know how an audio player works (because I have some project ideas), hence quodlibet on Google Code. But whenever I open the source code folders for the above programs, there are just so many files that I don't know where or what to begin with. I think that I should start with files marked init.py but I can't see the logical structure of the programs, or what reasoning was applied when the original writer divided his modules the way he did. Hence, my questions: How/where should I begin reading source? Any general tips or ideas? How does a programmer keep in mind the overall structure and logic of the program, especially for large projects, and is it common not to document that structure? As an open source reader, must I look through all of the code and get a bird's eye view of the code and libraries, before even being able to proceed? Would an IDE like Eclipse SDK (with PyDev) help with code-reading? Thanks for the help; I really appreciate your helping me.

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• Redirection loop problem at facebook iframe application

  - by Sniff

  I do IFrame application for facebook. Problem is: any link inside it causes redirect loop Link is: http://mydomain/mypage?fb_sig=[what I got from $_GET['fb_sig']] (to test I link to the same page as my loaded canvas is loaded from) when I click on it, my server returns: <script type="text/javascript"> top.location.href = "http://www.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=5dc632fcef992470341178f492f79b93&v=1.0&next=http%3A%2F%2Fthiismydomain%2Ffacebook%2F%3Ffb_sig%3D96a5c47f133eadcfbba4abf82e5311e0%26page%3D1"; </script> then it goes to corresponding page, and facebook returns Location: http://thisismydomain/facebook/?fb_sig=96a5c47f133eadcfbba4abf82e5311e0&page=1&auth_token=ce4cf4968f91cace5b3e915f5b658984 then, my server replies with <script type="text/javascript"> top.location.href = "http://www.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=5dc632fcef992470341178f492f79b93&v=1.0&next=http%3A%2F%2Fthisismydomain%2Ffacebook%2F%3Ffb_sig%3D96a5c47f133eadcfbba4abf82e5311e0%26page%3D1%26auth_token%3Dce4cf4968f91cace5b3e915f5b658984"; </script> and back, facebook replies: Location: http://thisismydomain/facebook/?fb_sig=96a5c47f133eadcfbba4abf82e5311e0&page=1&auth_token=ce4cf4968f91cace5b3e915f5b658984&auth_token=77df653b7949ca39c1a226c82cce8add and it goes on and one without end. Should I say that this redirect responce from my server is generated automately (most probaby my facebook php lib) I have no more ideas why this happends. Any ideas?

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