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  • Navigation and Tab Bar both are in app, which model to follow?

    - by iPhoneDev
    Which model should I use, if my First view in Login view (NO Tab required) and then all other views are under Tab Bar. So as a rule should I create Navigation based template coz First view uses only Navigation not Tab Bar or is there any other way around? Please suggest First Screen with Nav bar in Top (MUST Needed) Second Screen Tab Bar view:

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  • Strings in array are no longer strings after jQuery.each()

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm pretty confused with the behaviour of arrays of strings when I loop them through the jQuery.each() method. Apparently, the strings become jQuery objects inside the callback function. However, I cannot use the this.get() method to obtain the original string; doing so triggers a this.get is not a function error message. I suppose the reason is that it's not a DOM node. I can do $(this).get() but it makes my string become an array (from "foo" to ["f", "o", "o"]). How can I cast it back to string? I need to get a variable of String type because I pass it to other functions that compare the values among them. I enclose a self-contained test case (requires Firebug's console): <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head><title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"><!-- $(function(){ var foo = []; var $foo = $(foo); foo.push("987"); $foo.push("987"); foo.push("654"); $foo.push("654"); $.each(foo, function(i){ console.log("foo[%d]: object=%o; value=%s; string=%o", i, this, this, $(this).get()); // this.get() does not exist }); $foo.each(function(i){ console.log("$foo[%d]: object=%o; value=%s; string=%o", i, this, this, $(this).get()); // this.get() does not exist }); }); //--></script> </head> <body> </body> </html>

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  • Unit testing Monorail's RenderText method

    - by MikeWyatt
    I'm doing some maintenance on an older web application written in Monorail v1.0.3. I want to unit test an action that uses RenderText(). How do I extract the content in my test? Reading from controller.Response.OutputStream doesn't work, since the response stream is either not setup properly in PrepareController(), or is closed in RenderText(). Example Action public DeleteFoo( int id ) { var success= false; var foo = Service.Get<Foo>( id ); if( foo != null && CurrentUser.IsInRole( "CanDeleteFoo" ) ) { Service.Delete<Foo>( id ); success = true; } CancelView(); RenderText( "{ success: " + success + " }" ); } Example Test (using Moq) [Test] public void DeleteFoo() { var controller = new FooController (); PrepareController ( controller ); var foo = new Foo { Id = 123 }; var mockService = new Mock < Service > (); mockService.Setup ( s => s.Get<Foo> ( foo.Id ) ).Returns ( foo ); controller.Service = mockService.Object; controller.DeleteTicket ( foo.Id ); mockService.Verify ( s => s.Delete<Foo> ( foo.Id ) ); Assert.AreEqual ( "{success:true}", GetResponse ( Response ) ); } // response.OutputStream.Seek throws an "System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a closed Stream." exception private static string GetResponse( IResponse response ) { response.OutputStream.Seek ( 0, SeekOrigin.Begin ); var buffer = new byte[response.OutputStream.Length]; response.OutputStream.Read ( buffer, 0, buffer.Length ); return Encoding.ASCII.GetString ( buffer ); }

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  • Ruby on Rails: Using XML Builder Partials

    - by randombits
    Partials in XML builder are proving to be non-trivial. After some initial Google searching, I found the following to work, although it's not 100% xml.foo do xml.id(foo.id) xml.created_at(foo.created_at) xml.last_updated(foo.updated_at) foo.bars.each do |bar| xml << render(:partial => 'bar/_bar', :locals => { :bar => bar }) end end this will do the trick, except the XML output is not properly indented. the output looks something similar to: <foo> <id>1</id> <created_at>sometime</created_at> <last_updated>sometime</last_updated> <bar> ... </bar> <bar> ... </bar> </foo> The <bar> element should align underneath the <last_updated> element, it is a child of <foo> like this: <foo> <id>1</id> <created_at>sometime</created_at> <last_updated>sometime</last_updated> <bar> ... </bar> <bar> ... </bar> </foo> Works great if I copy the content from bar/_bar.xml.builder into the template, but then things just aren't DRY.

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  • How to use references, avoid header bloat, and delay initialization?

    - by Kyle
    I was browsing for an alternative to using so many shared_ptrs, and found an excellent reply in a comment section: Do you really need shared ownership? If you stop and think for a few minutes, I'm sure you can pinpoint one owner of the object, and a number of users of it, that will only ever use it during the owner's lifetime. So simply make it a local/member object of the owners, and pass references to those who need to use it. I would love to do this, but the problem becomes that the definition of the owning object now needs the owned object to be fully defined first. For example, say I have the following in FooManager.h: class Foo; class FooManager { shared_ptr<Foo> foo; shared_ptr<Foo> getFoo() { return foo; } }; Now, taking the advice above, FooManager.h becomes: #include "Foo.h" class FooManager { Foo foo; Foo& getFoo() { return foo; } }; I have two issues with this. First, FooManager.h is no longer lightweight. Every cpp file that includes it now needs to compile Foo.h as well. Second, I no longer get to choose when foo is initialized. It must be initialized simultaneously with FooManager. How do I get around these issues?

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  • Is it bad practice to have state in a static class?

    - by Matthew
    I would like to do something like this: public class Foo { // Probably really a Guid, but I'm using a string here for simplicity's sake. string Id { get; set; } int Data { get; set; } public Foo (int data) { ... } ... } public static class FooManager { Dictionary<string, Foo> foos = new Dictionary<string, Foo> (); public static Foo Get (string id) { return foos [id]; } public static Foo Add (int data) { Foo foo = new Foo (data); foos.Add (foo.Id, foo); return foo; } public static bool Remove (string id) { return foos.Remove (id); } ... // Other members, perhaps events for when Foos are added or removed, etc. } This would allow me to manage the global collection of Foos from anywhere. However, I've been told that static classes should always be stateless--you shouldn't use them to store global data. Global data in general seems to be frowned upon. If I shouldn't use a static class, what is the right way to approach this problem? Note: I did find a similar question, but the answer given doesn't really apply in my case.

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  • Hibernate Query for a List of Objects that matches a List of Objects' ids

    - by sal
    Given a classes Foo, Bar which have hibernate mappings to tables Foo, A, B and C public class Foo { Integer aid; Integer bid; Integer cid; ...; } public class Bar { A a; B b; C c; ...; } I build a List fooList of an arbitrary size and I would like to use hibernate to fetch List where the resulting list will look something like this: Bar[1] = [X1,Y2,ZA,...] Bar[2] = [X1,Y2,ZB,...] Bar[3] = [X1,Y2,ZC,...] Bar[4] = [X1,Y3,ZD,...] Bar[5] = [X2,Y4,ZE,...] Bar[6] = [X2,Y4,ZF,...] Bar[7] = [X2,Y5,ZG,...] Bar[8] = ... Where each Xi, Yi and Zi represents a unique object. I know I can iterate fooList and fetch each List and call barList.addAll(...) to build the result list with something like this: List<bar> barList.addAll(s.createQuery("from Bar bar where bar.aid = :aid and ... ") .setEntity("aid", foo.getAid()) .setEntity("bid", foo.getBid()) .setEntity("cid", foo.getCid()) .list(); ); Is there any easier way, ideally one that makes better use of hibernate and make a minimal number of database calls? Am I missing something? Is hibernate not the right tool for this?

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  • Liskov Substition and Composition

    - by FlySwat
    Let say I have a class like this: public sealed class Foo { public void Bar { // Do Bar Stuff } } And I want to extend it to add something beyond what an extension method could do....My only option is composition: public class SuperFoo { private Foo _internalFoo; public SuperFoo() { _internalFoo = new Foo(); } public void Bar() { _internalFoo.Bar(); } public void Baz() { // Do Baz Stuff } } While this works, it is a lot of work...however I still run into a problem: public void AcceptsAFoo(Foo a) I can pass in a Foo here, but not a super Foo, because C# has no idea that SuperFoo truly does qualify in the Liskov Substitution sense...This means that my extended class via composition is of very limited use. So, the only way to fix it is to hope that the original API designers left an interface laying around: public interface IFoo { public Bar(); } public sealed class Foo : IFoo { // etc } Now, I can implement IFoo on SuperFoo (Which since SuperFoo already implements Foo, is just a matter of changing the signature). public class SuperFoo : IFoo And in the perfect world, the methods that consume Foo would consume IFoo's: public void AcceptsAFoo(IFoo a) Now, C# understands the relationship between SuperFoo and Foo due to the common interface and all is well. The big problem is that .NET seals lots of classes that would occasionally be nice to extend, and they don't usually implement a common interface, so API methods that take a Foo would not accept a SuperFoo and you can't add an overload. So, for all the composition fans out there....How do you get around this limitation? The only thing I can think of is to expose the internal Foo publicly, so that you can pass it on occasion, but that seems messy.

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  • Is it okay for multiple objects to retain the same object in Objective-C/Cocoa?

    - by Andrew Arrow
    Say I have a tableview class that lists 100 Foo objects. It has: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray* fooList; and I fill it up with Foos like: self.fooList = [NSMutableArray array]; while (something) { Foo* foo = [[Foo alloc] init]; [fooList addObject:foo]; [foo release]; } First question: because the NSMutableArray is marked as retain, that means all the objects inside it are retained too? Am I correctly adding the foo and releasing the local copy after it's been added to the array? Or am I missing a retain call? Then if the user selects one specific row in the table and I want to display a detail Foo view I call: FooView* localView = [[FooView alloc] initWithFoo:[self.fooList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:localView animated:YES]; [localView release]; Now the FooView class has: @property (nonatomic, retain) Foo* theFoo; so now BOTH the array is holding on to that Foo as well as the FooView. But that seems okay right? When the user hits the back button dealloc will be called on FooView and [theFoo release] will be called. Then another back button is hit and dealloc is called on the tableview class and [fooList release] is called. You might argue that the FooView class should have: @property (nonatomic, assign) Foo* theFoo; vs. retain. But sometimes the FooView class is called with a Foo that's not also in an array. So I wanted to make sure it was okay to have two objects holding on to the same other object.

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  • Problem updating collection using JPA

    - by FarmBoy
    I have an entity class Foo foo that contains Collection<Bar> bars. I've tried a variety of ways, but I'm unable to successfully update my collection. One attempt: foo = em.find(key); foo.getBars().clear(); foo.setBars(bars); em.flush; \\ commit, etc. This appends the new collection to the old one. Another attempt: foo = em.find(key); bars = foo.getBars(); for (Bar bar : bars) { em.remove(bar); } em.flush; At this point, I thought I could add the new collection, but I find that the entity foo has been wiped out. Here are some annotations. In Foo: @OneToMany(cascade = { CascadeType.ALL }, mappedBy = "foo") private List<Bar> bars; In Bar: @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = { CascadeType.ALL }) @JoinColumn(name = "FOO_ID") private Foo foo; Has anyone else had trouble with this? Any ideas?

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  • which is better: a lying copy constructor or a non-standard one?

    - by PaulH
    I have a C++ class that contains a non-copyable handle. The class, however, must have a copy constructor. So, I've implemented one that transfers ownership of the handle to the new object (as below) class Foo { public: Foo() : h_( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE ) { }; // transfer the handle to the new instance Foo( const Foo& other ) : h_( other.Detach() ) { }; ~Foo() { if( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE != h_ ) CloseHandle( h_ ); }; // other interesting functions... private: /// disallow assignment const Foo& operator=( const Foo& ); HANDLE Detach() const { HANDLE h = h_; h_ = INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE; return h; }; /// a non-copyable handle mutable HANDLE h_; }; // class Foo My problem is that the standard copy constructor takes a const-reference and I'm modifying that reference. So, I'd like to know which is better (and why): a non-standard copy constructor: Foo( Foo& other ); a copy-constructor that 'lies': Foo( const Foo& other ); Thanks, PaulH

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  • iphone dictionary autocorrect [closed]

    - by Raj More
    I have the iPhone 3G with OS 3.1 3.0.1 on it. Every time I type a text message that includes the word "me", it gets auto corrected to "mr". So my friends get a text that says "call mr when you get done" or "jack told mr about it yesterday" how do i change this autocorrect so it stops changing my "me" to a "mr"?

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  • How to Remove Extensions From, and Force the Trailing Slash at the End of URLs?

    - by Kronbernkzion
    Example of current file structure: example.com/foo.php example.com/bar.html example.com/directory/ example.com/directory/foo.php example.com/directory/bar.html example.com/cgi-bin/directory/foo.cgi I would like to remove HTML, PHP and CGI extensions from, and then force the trailing slash at the end of URLs. So, it could look like this: example.com/foo/ example.com/bar/ example.com/directory/ example.com/directory/foo/ example.com/directory/bar/ example.com/cgi-bin/directory/foo/ I am very frustrated because I've searched for 17 hours straight for solution and visited more than a few hundred pages on various blogs and forums. I'm not joking. So I think I've done my research. Here is the code that sits in my .htaccess file right now: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.html -f RewriteRule ^(([^/]+/)*[^./]+)/$ $1.html RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !(\.[a-zA-Z0-9]|/)$ RewriteRule (.*)$ /$1/ [R=301,L] As you can see, this code only removes .html (and I'm not very happy with it because I think it could be done a lot simpler). I can remove the extension from PHP files when I rename them to .html through .htaccess, but that's not what I want. I want to remove it straight. This is the first thing I don't know how to do. The second thing is actually very annoying. My .htaccess file with code above, adds .html/ to every string entered after example.com/directory/foo/. So if I enter example.com/directory/foo/bar (obviously /bar doesn't exist since foo is a file), instead of just displaying message that page is not found, it converts it to example.com/directory/foo/bar.html/, then searches for a file for a few seconds and then displays the not found message. This, of course, is bad behavior. So, once again, I need the code in .htaccess to do the following things: Remove .html extension Remove .php extension Remove .cgi extension Force the trailing slash at the end of URLs Requests should behave correctly (no adding trailing slashes or extensions to strings if file or directory doesn't exist on server) Code should be as simple as possible I would very much appreciate any help. And to first person that gives me the solution, I'll send two $50 iTunes Store gift cards for US store. If this offends anyone, I am truly sorry and I apologize. Thanks in advance.

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  • Should we persist with an employee still writing bad code after many years?

    - by user94986
    I've been assigned the task of managing developers for a well-established company. They have a single developer who specialises in all their C++ coding (since forever), but the quality of the work is abysmal. Code reviews and testing have revealed many problems, one of the worst being memory leaks. The developer has never tested his code for leaks, and I discovered that the applications could leak many MBs with only a minute of use. User's were reporting huge slowdowns, and his take was, "it's nothing to do with me - if they quit and restart, it's all good again." I've given him tools to detect and trace the leaks, and sat down with him for many hours to demonstrate how the tools are used, where the problems occur, and what to do to fix them. We're 6 months down the track, and I assigned him to write a new module. I reviewed it before it was integrated into our larger code base, and was dismayed to discover the same bad coding as before. The part that I find incomprehensible is that some of the coding is worse than amateurish. For example, he wanted a class (Foo) that could populate an object of another class (Bar). He decided that Foo would hold a reference to Bar, e.g.: class Foo { public: Foo(Bar& bar) : m_bar(bar) {} private: Bar& m_bar; }; But (for other reasons) he also needed a default constructor for Foo and, rather than question his initial design, he wrote this gem: Foo::Foo() : m_bar(*(new Bar)) {} So every time the default constructor is called, a Bar is leaked. To make matters worse, Foo allocates memory from the heap for 2 other objects, but he didn't write a destructor or copy constructor. So every allocation of Foo actually leaks 3 different objects, and you can imagine what happened when a Foo was copied. And - it only gets better - he repeated the same pattern on three other classes, so it isn't a one-off slip. The whole concept is wrong on so many levels. I would feel more understanding if this came from a total novice. But this guy has been doing this for many years and has had very focussed training and advice over the past few months. I realise he has been working without mentoring or peer reviews most of that time, but I'm beginning to feel he can't change. So my question is, would you persist with someone who is writing such obviously bad code?

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  • Disable Windows 8 edge gestures/hot corners for multi-touch applications while running in full screen

    - by Bondye
    I have a full screen AS3 game maby with Adobe AIR that runs in Windows 7. In this game it may not be easy to exit (think about kiosk mode, only exit by pressing esc and enter a password). Now I want this game to run in Windows 8. The game is working like expected but the anoying things are these edge gestures/hot corners (left, top, right, bottom) and the shortcuts. I've read articles but none helped me. People talk about registery edits, but I dont get this working + the user needs to restart his/hers computer. I want to open my game, turn off gestures/hot corners and when the game closes the gestures/hot corners need to come back available again. I have seen some applications doing the same what I want to accomplish. I found this so I am able to detect the gestures. But how to ignore they're actions? I also read ASUS Smart Gestures but this is for the touch-pad. And I have tried Classic Shell but I need to disable the edge gestures/hot corners without such programs, just on-the-fly. I also found this but I don't know how to implement this. HRESULT SetTouchDisableProperty(HWND hwnd, BOOL fDisableTouch) { IPropertyStore* pPropStore; HRESULT hrReturnValue = SHGetPropertyStoreForWindow(hwnd, IID_PPV_ARGS(&pPropStore)); if (SUCCEEDED(hrReturnValue)) { PROPVARIANT var; var.vt = VT_BOOL; var.boolVal = fDisableTouch ? VARIANT_TRUE : VARIANT_FALSE; hrReturnValue = pPropStore->SetValue(PKEY_EdgeGesture_DisableTouchWhenFullscreen, var); pPropStore->Release(); } return hrReturnValue; } Does anyone know how I can do this? Or point me into the right direction? I have tried some in C# and C++, but I aint a skilled C#/C++ developer. Also the game is made in AS3 so it will be hard to implement this in C#/C++. I work on the Lenovo aio (All in one) with Windows 8.

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  • Adding BarButtons to a UINavigationBar after presenting a modal view controller.

    - by yujean
    I'm using the template for a "Utility Application". In the "FlipSideViewController", I added an IBOutlet for a UINavigationController, navController. In the code, I added the navController just fine. The rootViewController loads perfectly: navController.viewControllers = [[NSArray arrayWithObject:rootViewController] retain]; [self.view addSubview:navController.view]; I changed the color of the navController just fine: navController.navigationBar.tintColor = [UIColor colorWithRed:0.6 green:0.75 blue:0.6 alpha:1.0]; navController.navigationBar.translucent = NO; I make a button (note: "done" refers to a IBAction that dismisses the modalviewcontroller): UIBarButtonItem *backButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"TEST" style:UIBarButtonItemStyleDone target:self action:@selector(done:)]; I make a navItem using that button: UINavigationItem *backNavItem = [[UINavigationItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"TESTTEST"]; [backNavItem setRightBarButtonItem:backButton animated:YES]; I try to add that button: [navController.navigationBar pushNavigationItem:backNavItem animated:YES]; This above code fails miserably. I apparently can't add buttons to the navController because: * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Cannot call pushNavigationItem:animated: directly on a UINavigationBar managed by a controller.' Do I have to make a separate UINavigationBar that's somehow connected to my navController? I tried going that route but with no avail.

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  • how to show jquery notify bar on submit using php or zend?

    - by user1400
    hi guys in my application on zend framework i use of 'jQuery Notify Bar' plugin for display messages, i'd like to show message when my form submit ,the other page is opened and notify bar be open until the other page is completely load and even some second more but the problem is that notify bar show for short Moment and when the other page begin to load , notify bar is closed, and the delay property is not effect to that $('#myForm').submit(function(){ $.notifyBar({ html: "Thank you, your settings were updated!", **delay: 20000,** animationSpeed: "normal" }); how to show notify bar in the other page too? thanks

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  • ProgressBar isn't updating

    - by Nuru Salihu
    I have a progressbar that that is show progress returned by the backgroundworker do_dowork event like below . if (ftpSourceFilePath.Scheme == Uri.UriSchemeFtp) { FtpWebRequest objRequest = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(ftpSourceFilePath); NetworkCredential objCredential = new NetworkCredential(userName, password); objRequest.Credentials = objCredential; objRequest.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.DownloadFile; FtpWebResponse objResponse = (FtpWebResponse)objRequest.GetResponse(); StreamReader objReader = new StreamReader(objResponse.GetResponseStream()); int len = 0; int iProgressPercentage = 0; FileStream objFS = new FileStream((cd+"\\VolareUpdate.rar"), FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.Read); while ((len = objReader.BaseStream.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length)) > 0) { objFS.Write(buffer, 0, len); iRunningByteTotal += len; double dIndex = (double)(iRunningByteTotal); double dTotal = (double)buffer.Length; double dProgressPercentage = (dIndex / dTotal); iProgressPercentage = (int)(dProgressPercentage); if (iProgressPercentage > 100) { iProgressPercentage = 100; } bw.ReportProgress(iProgressPercentage); } } However, my progressbar does not update. While searching , i was told the UI thread is being blocked and then i thought may be passing the progress outside the loop will do the trick. then i change to this if (ftpSourceFilePath.Scheme == Uri.UriSchemeFtp) { FtpWebRequest objRequest = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(ftpSourceFilePath); NetworkCredential objCredential = new NetworkCredential(userName, password); objRequest.Credentials = objCredential; objRequest.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.DownloadFile; FtpWebResponse objResponse = (FtpWebResponse)objRequest.GetResponse(); StreamReader objReader = new StreamReader(objResponse.GetResponseStream()); int len = 0; int iProgressPercentage = 0; FileStream objFS = new FileStream((cd+"\\VolareUpdate.rar"), FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.Read); while ((len = objReader.BaseStream.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length)) > 0) { objFS.Write(buffer, 0, len); iRunningByteTotal += len; double dIndex = (double)(iRunningByteTotal); double dTotal = (double)buffer.Length; double dProgressPercentage = (dIndex / dTotal); iProgressPercentage = (int)(dProgressPercentage); if (iProgressPercentage > 100) { iProgressPercentage = 100; } // System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2000); iProgressPercentage++; // SetText("F", true); } bw.ReportProgress(iProgressPercentage); progressBar.Refresh(); } However still didn't help. When i put break point in my workerprogresschanged event, it show the progressbar.value however does not update. I tried progressbar.update(0, i also tried sleeping the thread for a while in the loop still didn't help. Please any suggestion/help would be appreciated .

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  • Disable/Enable applicationbar Button in runtime with event textchanged (Windows Phone)

    - by user3621634
    In this part of the code is the event TextChanged to enable the button in te applicationbar Code in C# private void Textbox_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { ApplicationBarIconButton btn_guardar = ApplicationBar.Buttons[0] as applicationBarIconButton; if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(txt_nom_usuario.Text) && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(txt_edad_usuario.Text) && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(txt_peso_usuario.Text)) { btn_guardar.IsEnabled = true; } else btn_guardar.IsEnabled = false; } Code XAML <phone:PhoneApplicationPage.ApplicationBar> <shell:ApplicationBar Mode="Default" IsVisible="True"> <shell:ApplicationBarIconButton x:Name="btn_guardar" IconUri="/icons/appbar.save.rest.png" Text="Guardar" Click="btn_guardar_Click" IsEnabled="False" /> <shell:ApplicationBarIconButton x:Name="btn_atras" IconUri="/icons/appbar.back.rest.png" Text="Atrás" Click="btn_atras_Click" /> </shell:ApplicationBar> </phone:PhoneApplicationPage.ApplicationBar> <TextBlock x:Name="lbl_ingresanombre" Height="39" Margin="60,28,0,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="248" FontSize="29.333" FontFamily="{StaticResource Helvetica}"><Run Text="Ingresa "/><Run Text="tu nombre"/></TextBlock> <TextBox x:Name="txt_nom_usuario" Height="63" Margin="47,58,69,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="&#xa;" FontSize="21.333" VerticalAlignment="Top" IsEnabled="True" /> <TextBlock x:Name="lbl_edad" Height="38" Margin="60,117,0,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="Ingresa tu edad" VerticalAlignment="Top" FontSize="29.333" HorizontalAlignment="Left" FontFamily="{StaticResource Helvetica}"/> <TextBox x:Name="txt_edad_usuario" InputScope="TelephoneLocalNumber" Height="63" TextWrapping="Wrap" Text="&#xa;" FontSize="21.333" Margin="47,147,69,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" MaxLength="3" />

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  • Python and object/class attrs - what's going on?

    - by digitala
    Can someone explain why Python does the following? >>> class Foo(object): ... bar = [] ... >>> a = Foo() >>> b = Foo() >>> a.bar.append(1) >>> b.bar [1] >>> a.bar = 1 >>> a.bar 1 >>> b.bar [1] >>> a.bar = [] >>> a.bar [] >>> b.bar [1] >>> del a.bar >>> a.bar [1] It's rather confusing!

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  • Linux: Send mail to external mail box from a server with that user's hostname

    - by dtbarne
    I've got sendmail running on a linux box. Let's say the hostname of the box is bar.com. If I run the following command, I don't receive the email (which is hosted with a third party), presumably due to the hostname pointing to the local machine. echo "Test Body" | mail -s "Test Subject" [email protected] Is there any way to get this to work so that I can receive emails at my third party email address even though it has the same hostname? Do I have to change the hostname of this server (not preferred)? It may be worth noting that I created a user "foo" on my machine and noticed that the mailbox for that account is empty. I noticed these log entries, which may or may not be relevant: Jun 28 01:09:48 bar sendmail[14338]: p5S59min014338: from=apache, size=80, class=0, nrcpts=1, msgid=<[email protected]>, relay=apache@localhost Jun 28 01:09:48 bar sendmail[14339]: p5S59mIA014339: from=<[email protected]>, size=293, class=0, nrcpts=1, msgid=<[email protected]>, proto=ESMTP, daemon=MTA, relay=localhost.localdomain [127.0.$ Jun 28 01:09:48 bar sendmail[14338]: p5S59min014338: [email protected], ctladdr=apache (48/48), delay=00:00:00, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=relay, pri=30080, relay=[127.0.0.1] [127.0.0.1], dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent (p5S59mIA$ Jun 28 01:09:48 bar sendmail[14340]: p5S59mIA014339: to=<[email protected]>, ctladdr=<[email protected]> (48/48), delay=00:00:00, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=local, pri=30495, dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent

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  • Linux: Send mail to external mail box from a server with that user's hostname

    - by dtbarne
    I've got sendmail running on a linux box. Let's say the hostname of the box is bar.com. If I run the following command, I don't receive the email (which is hosted with a third party), presumably due to the hostname pointing to the local machine. echo "Test Body" | mail -s "Test Subject" [email protected] Is there any way to get this to work so that I can receive emails at my third party email address even though it has the same hostname? Do I have to change the hostname of this server (not preferred)? It may be worth noting that I created a user "foo" on my machine and noticed that the mailbox for that account is empty. I noticed these log entries, which may or may not be relevant: Jun 28 01:09:48 bar sendmail[14338]: p5S59min014338: from=apache, size=80, class=0, nrcpts=1, msgid=<[email protected]>, relay=apache@localhost Jun 28 01:09:48 bar sendmail[14339]: p5S59mIA014339: from=<[email protected]>, size=293, class=0, nrcpts=1, msgid=<[email protected]>, proto=ESMTP, daemon=MTA, relay=localhost.localdomain [127.0.$ Jun 28 01:09:48 bar sendmail[14338]: p5S59min014338: [email protected], ctladdr=apache (48/48), delay=00:00:00, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=relay, pri=30080, relay=[127.0.0.1] [127.0.0.1], dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent (p5S59mIA$ Jun 28 01:09:48 bar sendmail[14340]: p5S59mIA014339: to=<[email protected]>, ctladdr=<[email protected]> (48/48), delay=00:00:00, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=local, pri=30495, dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent

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  • How do I ADD an Attribute to the Root Element in XML using XSLT?

    - by kunjaan
    I want to match a root Element “FOO” and perform the transformation (add a version attribute) to it leaving the rest as it is. The Transformation I have so far looks like this: <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace"> <xsl:template match="//FOO"> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="@version"> <xsl:apply-templates select="node()|@*" /> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <FOO> <xsl:attribute name="version">1</xsl:attribute> <xsl:apply-templates select="node()|@*" /> </FOO> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> However this does not perform any transformation. It doesn't even detect the element. So I need to do add the namespace in order to make it work: <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:fd="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace"> <xsl:template match="//fd:FOO"> … But this attaches a namespace attribute to the FOO element as well as other elements: <FOO xmlns:fd="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace" version="1" id="fooid"> <BAR xmlns="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> Is there a way to say that the element is using the default namespace? Can we match and add elements in the default name space? Here is the original XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <FOO xmlns="http://schemas.foo.com/fooNameSpace" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <BAR> <Attribute name="HEIGHT">2067</Attribute> </BAR> </FOO>

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