Search Results

Search found 4882 results on 196 pages for 'odd behaviour'.

Page 41/196 | < Previous Page | 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48  | Next Page >

• Visual Studio hangs when deploying a cube

  - by Richie

  Hello All, I'm having an issue with an Analysis Services project in Visual Studio 2005. My project always builds but only occasionally deploys. No errors are reported and VS just hangs. This is my first Analysis Services project so I am hoping that there is something obvious that I am just missing. Here is the situation I have a cube that I have successfully deployed. I then make some change, e.g., adding a hierarchy to a dimension. When I try to deploy again VS hangs. I have to restart Analysis Services to regain control of VS so I can shut it down. I restart everything sometimes once, sometimes twice or more before the project will eventually deploy. This happens with any change I make there seems to be no pattern to this behaviour. Sometimes I have to delete the cube from Analysis Services before restarting everything to get a successful deploy. Also I have successfully deployed the cube, and then subsequently successfully reprocessed a dimension then when I open a query window in SQL Server Management Studio it says that it can find any cubes. As a test I have deployed a cube successfully. I have then deleted it in Analysis Services and attempted to redeploy it, without making any changes to the cube, only to have the same behaviour mentioned above. VS just hangs with no reason so I have no idea where to start hunting down the problem. It is taking 15-20 minutes to make a change as simple as setting the NameColumn of a dimension attribute. As you can imagine this is taking hours of my time so I would greatly appreciate any assistance anyone can give me.

  Read the article

• How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

  - by BenA

  I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

  Read the article

• jQuery pagination without all the rows of data before hand

  - by Aaron Mc Adam

  Hi guys, I'm trying to find a solution for paginating my search results. I have a built the links and everything works without jQuery. I've also got AJAX working for the links, but I just need a way of tidying up the list of links, as some search results return up to 60 pages and the links spread to two rows in my template. I am searching the Amazon API, and can only return 10 results at a time. Upon clicking the pagination links, the next 10 results are returned. I have access to the total results number from the XML, but not all the data at once, so I can't put all the data into a "hiddenResults" div that the jQuery Pagination plugin needs. Here is the jQuery I have for the pagination: var $pagination = $("#pagination ul"); $pagination.delegate('.pagenumbers', 'click', function() { var $$this = $(this); $$this.closest('li').addClass('cached'); $pagination.find("#currentPage").removeAttr('id').wrapInner($('<a>', {'class':'pagenumbers', 'href':'book_data.php?keywords='+keywords})); $$this.closest('li').attr('id','currentPage').html( $$this.text() ); $.ajax({ type : "GET", cache : false, url : "book_data.php", data : { keywords : keywords, page : $$this.text() }, success : show_results }); return false; }); function show_results(res) { $("#searchResults").replaceWith($(res).find('#searchResults')).find('table.sortable tbody tr:odd').addClass('odd'); detailPage(); selectForm(); if ( ! ( $pagination.find('li').hasClass('cached') ) ) { $.get("book_data.php", { keywords : keywords, page : ( $pagination.find("#currentPage").text() + 1 ) } ); } }

  Read the article

• Opening URL in New Tab doesn't work in existing, programmatically-opened New Window (Firefox)

  - by seth

  I am building a web app, for myself, to control some servers on my home network, and discovered what I think is very odd behavior in Firefox. If you open a pop-up, via javascript, in Firefox, is it then impossible to open a new tab, via javascript in that pop-up? If not impossible, how do you do it? Given a clean, default Firefox 3.6.3 installation... If I open a page in Firefox and then call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); A brand new "pop-up" window opens. However, if instead I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); A get a new tab. HOWEVER... If I call the first version var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com','_blank','top=10'); And then in the new "pop-up" that opens, I call var my_window = window.open('http://www.google.com'); It opens a new tab in the original window, not a new tab in the pop-up. This seems very odd, and not intuitive at all. Why would the call in the pop-up open a tab in the "parent" window?

  Read the article

• Safari Web Inspector is not updating when I update an element with ajax

  - by Ashley

  I have a checkout page http://www.oipolloi.com/oipolloi/shop/viewbasket.php with multiple ajax calls after certain items update (EG look up postage cost when country is changed, then update discount boxes etc). I've asked for help in the past about the best method of making sure ALL calls have returned before allowing the form to be submitted for payment processing: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2290372/how-do-i-prevent-form-submission-until-multiple-ajax-calls-have-finished-jquery I was fairly happy that the logic in the finished solution was correct, but I have still been receiving reports that people using Safari are able to submit the form without the ajax calls returning properly. I have tried using the Safari Web Inspector to debug but it seems that when you Inspect Element, then update an element with an ajax call, the Inspector doesn't seem to update. I am updating hidden fields, so it's hard to be able to know whether the problem lies with the DOM not being updated properly, or the Inspector itself. I'm using Safari 4.0.5 on PC and you can reproduce the problem above by looking for a div id="countryFieldsBilling" with Web Inspector. It should contain three hidden fields that are initially empty. You can try to make it update (or not) by choosing a country from the select menu at the bottom of 'Shipping Address' box, and then clicking the 'click to use Shipping Address' link at the top of the 'Billing Address' just below. The behaviour I am seeing is that the country chosen in the shipping select gets copied correctly to the country in the billing select, but the hidden inputs in the Web Inspector do not get updated. When these hidden inputs do not get updated, this causes the problem that Mac Safari users report. If you can let me know either how to get Web Inspector to work properly, or something else I may have missed in the behaviour of Mac Safari that may cause these problems, that would be great. Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• Releasing Autoreleasepool crashes on iOS 4.0 (and only on 4.0)

  - by samsam

  Hi there. I'm wondering what could cause this. I have several methods in my code that i call using performSelectorInBackground. Within each of these methods i have an Autoreleasepool that is being alloced/initialized at the beginning and released at the end of the method. this perfectly works on iOS 3.1.3 / 3.2 / 4.2 / 4.2.1 but it fataly crashes on iOS 4.0 with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS Exception that happens after calling [myPool release]. After I noticed this strange behaviour I was thinking about rewriting portions of my code and to make my app "less parallel" in case that the client os is 4.0. After I did that, the next point where the app crashed was within the ReachabilityCallback-Method from Apples Reachability "Framework". well, now I'm not quite sure what to do. The things i do within my threaded methods is pretty simple xml parsing (no cocoa calls or stuff that would affect the UI). After each method finishes it posts a notification which the coordinating-thread listens to and once all the parallelized methods have finished, the coordinating thread calls viewcontrollers etc... I have absolutely no clue what could cause this weird behaviour. Especially because Apples Code fails as well. any help is greatly appreciated! thanks, sam

  Read the article

• Stage shifts when using addChild?

  - by josh

  I'm having a very odd bug with ActionScript 3 in Flash CS4. I am adding movie clips to a stage in a for loop and then moving them out of view so that I can pull them in and remove them when I need them. I've narrowed down the issue to a point that I know that every time one of the movie clips are added to the stage using addChild(), the stage shifts to the right by one pixel. I know that sounds odd, but it's literally true... the 0 line on the y axis is shifted to the right one pixel every time the movie clip is added. I have no idea how this could be happening. Here's the code that is doing the work: private function setupSlides():void { for(x = 0; x < TOTAL_SLIDES; x++) { var ClassReference:Class = getDefinitionByName("Slide" + (x+1)) as Class; var s:MovieClip = new ClassReference() as MovieClip; s.x = 9999; s.y = 9999; addChild(s); slides[x] = s; } } Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• ctrl+click or shift+click not always firing the onclick event

  - by Erik

  Hi, I recently discovered that different browsers handle the onclick event differently when the control of shift key is pressed. Same thing for following links with the middle mouse button. <a href="http://www.example.com/" onclick="alert('onclick');">go to example.com</a> Onclick browser support table Mouse Keyboard Chrome Firefox Safari Opera IE5.5 IE6 IE7 IE8 IE9 Left None yes yes yes yes yes yes yes yes yes Left Ctrl yes yes yes yes ? yes no no ? Left Shift yes yes yes yes ? yes yes yes ? Middle None yes no yes no ? N/A no no ? Can someone please fill in the question marks for me? Also; I'm wondering if the behaviour differs for each version of Chrome, Firefox, Safari and Opera. Finding a logical pattern in this behaviour would be even nicer, but I don't think there is :). Thanks a lot.

  Read the article

• How to handle array element between int and Integer

  - by masato-san

  First, it is long post so if you need clarification please let me know. I'm new to Java and having difficulty deciding whether I should use int[] or Integer[]. I wrote a function that find odd_number from int[] array. public int[] find_odd(int[] arr) { int[] result = new int[arr.length]; for(int i=0; i<arr.length; i++) { if(arr[i] % 2 != 0) { //System.out.println(arr[i]); result[i] = arr[i]; } } return result; } Then, when I pass the int[] array consisting of some integer like below: int[] myArray = {-1, 0, 1, 2, 3}; int[] result = find_odd(myArray); The array "result" contains: 0, -1, 0, 1, 0, 3 Because in Java you have to define the size of array first, and empty int[] array element is 0 not null. So when I want to test the find_odd() function and expect the array to have odd numbers (which it does) only, it throws the error because the array also includes 0s representing "empty cell" as shown above. My test code: public void testFindOddPassValidIntArray() { int[] arr = {-2, -1, 0, 1, 3}; int[] result = findOddObj.find_odd(arr); //check if return array only contain odd number for(int i=0; i<result.length; i++) { if(result[i] != null) { assert is_odd(result[i]) : result[i]; } } } So, my question is should I use int[] array and add check for 0 element in my test like: if(result[i] != 0) { assert is_odd(result[i] : result[i] } But in this case, if find_odd() function is broken and returning 0 by miscalculation, I can't catch it because my test code would only assume that 0 is empty cell. OR should I use Integer[] array whose default is null? How do people deal with this kind of situation?

  Read the article

• NHibernate will not insert a record

  - by Brian Beckham

  I have an application that is now 4+ years old that is exhibiting some odd behavior on our latest deployment. The application uses nHibernate for all inserts / updates / selects, etc. We are currently using .NET 2.0, and nHibernate 1.2 (I know, we need to upgrade) This deployment is on Windows 2008 Server x64, IIS 7.5 - what I have seen so far is that the application runs, but is unable to insert or update records in the DB - reads seem fine so far, but writes are a problem. SOME writes actually work, inserts into some small tables, but most never even make it to the DB. Using SQL Profiler, the insert / updates never make it to the server, and turning log4net up to DEBUG, and show_sql true - the select statements appear, but the insert / update statements never make it into the log at all, and never show up at the server. What's even more odd is that the application seems to be oblivious to this - the commandandclose runs without exception (open session in view with an httpmodule), the domain objects come back with uuid's generated, etc. but never get persisted. Certainly an upgrade is due, but I would hate to try it during a deployment, and without time to accurately test the app. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Can redirection of screen output to file change the result of a C++ code?

  - by Biga

  I am having this very weird behaviour with a C++ code: It gives me different results when running with and without redirecting the screen output to a file (reproducible in cygwin and linux). I mean, if I get the same executable and run it like ./run or run it like ./run >out.log, I get different results! I use std::cout to output to screen, all lines ending with endl; I use ifstream for the input file; I use ofstream for output, all lines ending with endl. I am using g++ 4. Any idea what is going on? UPDATE: I have hard-coded the input data, so 'ifstream' is not used, and problem persists. UPDATE 2: That's getting interesting. I have probed three variables that are computed initially, and that's what I get when using with and without redirecting the output to file redirected to file: 0 -0.02 0 direct to screen: 0 -0.02 1.04083e-17 So there's a round-off difference in the code variables with and without redirecting the output! Now, why redirecting would interefere with an internal computation of the code? UPDATE 3: If I redirect to /dev/null, I get the sam behaviour as outputing direct to screen, instead of redirecting to file.

  Read the article

• The "correct" way of using multilingual support

  - by Felipe Athayde

  I just began working with ASP.NET and I'm trying to bring with me some coding standards I find healthy. Among such standards there is the multilingual support and the use of resources for easily handling future changes. Back when I used to code desktop applications, every text had to be translated, so it was a common practice to have the language files for every languages I would want to offer to the customers. In those files I would map every single text, from button labels to error messages. In ASP.NET, with the help of Visual Studio, I have the resort of using the IDE to generate such Resource Files (from Tools - Generate Local Resource), but then I would have to fill my webpages with labels - at least that is what I've learned from articles and tutorials. However, such approach looks a bit odd and I'm tempted to guess it doesn't smell that good as well. Now to the question: 1) Should I keep every single text in my website as labels and manage its contents in the resource files? It looks/feels odd specially when considering a text with several paragraphs. 2) Whenever I add/remove something, e.g.: a button, to an aspx file I would have to add it to the resource file as well, because generating the resource file again would simply override all my previous changes to it. That doesn't feel like a reusable code at all for me. Any comment suggestion on this one? Perhaps I got it all wrong from tutorials as it doesn't seem like a standardized matter - specially if it required recompiling the entire application whenever some change has to be done.

  Read the article

• Releasing Autopool crashes on iOS 4.0 (and only on 4.0)

  - by samsam

  Hi there. I'm wondering what could cause this. I have several methods in my code that i call using performSelectorInBackground. Within each of these methods i have an Autoreleasepool that is being alloced/initialized at the beginning and released at the end of the method. this perfectly works on iOS 3.1.3 / 3.2 / 4.2 / 4.2.1 but it fataly crashes on iOS 4.0 with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS Exception that happens after calling [myPool release]. After I noticed this strange behaviour I was thinking about rewriting portions of my code and to make my app "less parallel" in case that the client os is 4.0. After I did that, the next point where the app crashed was within the ReachabilityCallback-Method from Apples Reachability "Framework". well, now I'm not quite sure what to do. The things i do within my threaded methods is pretty simple xml parsing (no cocoa calls or stuff that would affect the UI). After each method finishes it posts a notification which the coordinating-thread listens to and once all the parallelized methods have finished, the coordinating thread calls viewcontrollers etc... I have absolutely no clue what could cause this weird behaviour. Especially because Apples Code fails as well. any help is greatly appreciated! thanks, sam

  Read the article

• HTML/CSS: Keep the same height between the backgrounds of a term-description pair in a table-like de

  - by peroyomas

  I want to format a definition list in HTML as if it were a table with th in a column and td in another, with a background that alternates per row (although a background for the dt and another for the dd also fits for the problem), so I have this CSS: dl { font-family: Verdana, Geneva, sans-serif; font-size: 0.6em; overflow: hidden; width: 200px;; } dl dt { font-weight: bold; float: left; clear: left; padding-right: 1%; width: 48%; } dl dt:nth-of-type(odd), dl dd:nth-of-type(odd) { background-color: #EEE; } dl dt:nth-of-type(even), dl dd:nth-of-type(even) { background-color: #DDD; } dl dd { float: left; width: 50%; padding-left: 1%; margin-left: 0; } Example HTML: <dl> <dt>Key 1</dt> <dd>Value 1</dd> <dt>Very very very long key 2 </dt> <dd>Value 2</dd> <dt>Key 3</dt> <dd>Value 3 with<br /> line breaks</dd> <dt>Key 4</dt> <dd>Value 4</dd> </dl> The problem is that, due to the eventual height dissimilarity, "holes" with no background appears in the list: Is there a way to fix that?

  Read the article

• Windows 7 taskbar icon grouping with multiple similar windows

  - by user1266104

  When I have a number of similar windows opens, for example, multiple explorer windows, they are all grouped into the same icon on the taskbar. When I hover over this I get a thumbnail of the window, and a piece of truncated text which is supposed to help me work out what that window is. However I also like to have the full path shown in explorer windows, so the truncated text is usually C:\CommonPathToEveryWind... I have noticed that if I have over 14 explorer windows open, then Windows gives up trying to display these useless thumbnails, and instead gives me a nicely formatted list of paths. My question is how can I customise this behaviour, to either disable thumbnails all together for a subset of applications where a thumbnail is inappropriate (explorer, 'Everything'); or to lower the max number of thumbnails per grouped taskbar icon to 2; or just to disable thumbnails all together, (without loosing the entire windows theme) Edit: Just to make it clear what I currently get, and what I actually want. I do still want to keep the grouping behaviour, so that multiple instances of the same program, Explorer for example, only take one slot on the taskbar. What I want is to alter what is displayed when I hover over the grouped icon: What I actually see - useless thumbnails:- http://i.stack.imgur.com/8bTxX.png The style I want for any number of instances:- http://i.stack.imgur.com/zv6Si.png

  Read the article

• How to make zebra table with Sphinx? Or how to use jQuery with Sphinx?

  - by prosseek

  I think the table generated from Sphinx is not pretty, as it produces the following HTML code for table. <table border="1" class="docutils"> <colgroup> <col width="43%" /> <col width="29%" /> <col width="29%" /> </colgroup> <thead valign="bottom"> <tr><th class="head">Graph</th> <th class="head">HIR</th> <th class="head">AIR</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody valign="top"> <tr><td>Graph</td> <td>Circuit</td> <td>System</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> How can I turn in into pretty one, for example, zebra table? The HTML generated html has the jQuery, and according to this site, it's just one line of code to have a zebra table, but I'm not sure how to use jQuery to make a zebra table. $("tr:nth-child(odd)").addClass("odd"); Q: How to use jQuery with Sphinx? Q: Is there any other way to have a zebra table with Sphinx?

  Read the article

• wx_ref and custom wx_object's

  - by Iogann

  Hi! I am developing MDI application with help of wxErlang. I have a parent frame, implemented as wx_object: -module(main_frame). -export([new/0, init/1, handle_call/3, handle_event/2, terminate/2]). -behaviour(wx_object). .... And I have a child frame, implemented as wx_object too: module(child_frame). -export([new/2, init/1, handle_call/3, handle_event/2, terminate/2]). -export([save/1]). -behaviour(wx_object). % some public API method save(Frame) -> wx_object:call(Frame, save). .... I want to call save/1 for an active child frame from the parent frame. There is my code: ActiveChild = wxMDIParentFrame:getActiveChild(Frame), case wx:is_null(ActiveChild) of false - child_frame:save(ActiveChild); _ - ignore end This code fails because ActiveChild is #wx_ref{} with state=[], but wx_object:call/2 needs #wx_ref{} where state is set to the pid of the process which we call. What is the right method to do this? I thought only to store a list of all created child frames with its pids in the parent frame and search the pid in this list, but this is ugly.

  Read the article

• crash when using stl vector at instead of operator[]

  - by Jamie Cook

  I have a method as follows (from a class than implements TBB task interface - not currently multithreading though) My problem is that two ways of accessing a vector are causing quite different behaviour - one works and the other causes the entire program to bomb out quite spectacularly (this is a plugin and normally a crash will be caught by the host - but this one takes out the host program as well! As I said quite spectacular) void PtBranchAndBoundIterationOriginRunner::runOrigin(int origin, int time) const // NOTE: const method { BOOST_FOREACH(int accessMode, m_props->GetAccessModes()) { // get a const reference to appropriate vector from member variable // map<int, vector<double>> m_rowTotalsByAccessMode; const vector<double>& rowTotalsForAccessMode = m_rowTotalsByAccessMode.find(accessMode)->second; if (origin != 129) continue; // Additional debug constrain: I know that the vector only has one non-zero element at index 129 m_job->Write("size: " + ToString(rowTotalsForAccessMode.size())); try { // check for early return... i.e. nothing to do for this origin if (!rowTotalsForAccessMode[origin]) continue; // <- this works if (!rowTotalsForAccessMode.at(origin)) continue; // <- this crashes } catch (...) { m_job->Write("Caught an exception"); // but its not an exception } // do some other stuff } } I hate not putting in well defined questions but at the moment my best phrasing is : "WTF?" I'm compiling this with Intel C++ 11.0.074 [IA-32] using Microsoft (R) Visual Studio Version 9.0.21022.8 and my implementation of vector has const_reference operator[](size_type _Pos) const { // subscript nonmutable sequence #if _HAS_ITERATOR_DEBUGGING if (size() <= _Pos) { _DEBUG_ERROR("vector subscript out of range"); _SCL_SECURE_OUT_OF_RANGE; } #endif /* _HAS_ITERATOR_DEBUGGING */ _SCL_SECURE_VALIDATE_RANGE(_Pos < size()); return (*(_Myfirst + _Pos)); } (Iterator debugging is off - I'm pretty sure) and const_reference at(size_type _Pos) const { // subscript nonmutable sequence with checking if (size() <= _Pos) _Xran(); return (*(begin() + _Pos)); } So the only difference I can see is that at calls begin instead of simply using _Myfirst - but how could that possibly be causing such a huge difference in behaviour?

  Read the article

• C++, using one byte to store two variables

  - by 2di

  Hi All I am working on representation of the chess board, and I am planning to store it in 32 bytes array, where each byte will be used to store two pieces. (That way only 4 bits are needed per piece) Doing it in that way, results in a overhead for accessing particular index of the board. Do you think that, this code can be optimised or completely different method of accessing indexes can be used? c++ char getPosition(unsigned char* c, int index){ //moving pointer c+=(index>>1); //odd number if (index & 1){ //taking right part return *c & 0xF; }else { //taking left part return *c>>4; } } void setValue(unsigned char* board, char value, int index){ //moving pointer board+=(index>>1); //odd number if (index & 1){ //replace right part //save left value only 4 bits *board = (*board & 0xF0) + value; }else { //replacing left part *board = (*board & 0xF) + (value<<4); } } int main() { char* c = (char*)malloc(32); for (int i = 0; i < 64 ; i++){ setValue((unsigned char*)c, i % 8,i); } for (int i = 0; i < 64 ; i++){ cout<<(int)getPosition((unsigned char*)c, i)<<" "; if (((i+1) % 8 == 0) && (i > 0)){ cout<<endl; } } return 0; } I am equally interested in your opinions regarding chess representations, and optimisation of the method above, as a stand alone problem. Thanks a lot

  Read the article

• Can JQuery.Validate plugin prevent submission of an Ajax form

  - by berko

  I am using the JQuery form plugin (http://malsup.com/jquery/form/) to handle the ajax submission of a form. I also have JQuery.Validate (http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Validation) plugged in for my client side validation. What I am seeing is that the validation fails when I expect it to however it does not stop the form from submitting. When I was using a traditional form (i.e. non-ajax) the validation failing prevented the form for submitting at all.... which is my desired behaviour. I know that the validation is hooked up correctly as the validation messages still appear after the ajax submit has happened. So what I am I missing that is preventing my desired behaviour? Sample code below.... <form id="searchForm" method="post" action="/User/GetDetails"> <input id="username" name="username" type="text" value="user.name" /> <input id="submit" name="submit" type="submit" value="Search" /> </form> <div id="detailsView"> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> var options = { target: '#detailsView' }; $('#searchForm').ajaxForm(options); $('#searchForm').validate({ rules: { username: {required:true}}, messages: { username: {required:"Username is a required field."}} }); </script>

  Read the article

• jQuery .die isnt killing an attached event?

  - by adam

  Hi I've just started experimenting with .live and .die and having some great results but one thing isn't working. I've been tinkering with firebugs console to try out my written code live to see if i can figure out the reason why .die isn't killing off an attached event. First if i do this //attach ajax submission $('a[href$=edit]').live("click", function(event) { $.get($(this).attr("href"), null, null); return false; }); Then as expected when I click on a link the ajax fires off and my server side code injects a form for inline editing. But sometimes I want to disable this behaviour and also make the link unclickable so I do the following //unbind ajax form creation when we click on a link, then disable its semantic behaviour $('a[href$=edit]').die("click").click( function(){ return false; } ); which works but if then try to remove this and restore that ajax goodness with the code below it doesn't work, Instead the link remains unclickable. I cant figure out why? Can anyone help? //remove any previous events from the links $('a[href$=edit]').die(); //attach ajax submission $('a[href$=edit]').live("click", function(event) { $.get($(this).attr("href"), null, null); return false; });

  Read the article

• How to use .htaccess to redirect to an url that includes a query parameter

  - by wbervoets

  Hi guys, I've been struggling with a redirect where the final URL includes a query parameter that is an URL. It seems htaccess is escaping some characters. Here is my htaccess: Code: RewriteRule ^mypath http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 [L,R=302] First, if I put Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 in my browser address bar, www.otherserver.com will do its thing and then redirect to otherserver2 (including the &param2=1 which is a parameter of that URL and not of the URL otherserver.com) That's the behaviour I need :-) Now when I try to use the htaccess redirect from my site: http://mysite/mypath; the behaviour is not the same then putting the same URL in the browser address bar; it now tries to redirect to http ://otherserver2.com/ (no param2=1 anymore). (ps: otherserver1 and otherserver2 are not under my control.) I've tried escaping the redirectto parameter in my htaccess, like below, but it didn't work either: Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http%3a%2f%otherserver2.com%2f%3fparam2%3d1 Because then my browser tries to go to httpotherserver.com (all special characters are gone) In the end I would like to see http ://mysite/mypath to show the contents of Code: http s://www.otherserver.com/cookie?param1=123&redirectto=http://otherserver2.com/&param2=1 (preferred solution) or do a redirect to that URL. I hope my message is not to confusing, I hope someone can help me out; as I've already spent hours on this :-)

  Read the article

• Sequence Point and Evaluation Order( Preincrement)

  - by Josh

  There was a debate today among some of my colleagues and I wanted to clarify it. It is about the evaluation order and the sequence point in an expression. It is clearly stated in the standard that C/C++ does not have a left-to-right evaluation in an expression unlike languages like Java which is guaranteed to have a sequencial left-to-right order. So, in the below expression, the evaluation of the leftmost operand(B) in the binary operation is sequenced before the evaluation of the rightmost operand(C): A = B B_OP C The following expression according, to CPPReference under the subsection Sequenced-before rules(Undefined Behaviour) and Bjarne's TCPPL 3rd ed, is an UB x = x++ + 1; It could be interpreted as the compilers like BUT the expression below is said to be clearly a well defined behaviour in C++11 x = ++x + 1; So, if the above expression is well defined, what is the "fate" of this? array[x] = ++x; It seems the evaluation of a post-increment and post-decrement is not defined but the pre-increment and the pre-decrement is defined. NOTE: This is not used in a real-life code. Clang 3.4 and GCC 4.8 clearly warns about both the pre- and post-increment sequence point.

  Read the article

• jQuery .ready() automatically assigning variables for each element with ID in DOM

  - by Greg

  I have noticed some unexpected behaviour when using the jQuery .ready() function, whereby afterwards you can reference an element in the DOM simply by using its ID without prior declaration or assignment: <html> <script src="jquery.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function() { myowndiv.innerHTML = 'wow!' }); </script> <body> <div id="myowndiv"></div> </body> </html> I would have expected to have to declare and assign myowndiv with document.getElementById("myowndiv"); or $("#myowndiv"); before I could call innerHTML or anything else on it? Is this behaviour by design? Can anyone explain why? My fear is that if I refactor and end up not using .ready() or even using jQuery at all then my code will fail to execute. Cheers!

  Read the article

• Force calling the derived class implementation within a generic function in C#?

  - by Adam Hardy

  Ok so I'm currently working with a set of classes that I don't have control over in some pretty generic functions using these objects. Instead of writing literally tens of functions that essentially do the same thing for each class I decided to use a generic function instead. Now the classes I'm dealing with are a little weird in that the derived classes share many of the same properties but the base class that they are derived from doesn't. One such property example is .Parent which exists on a huge number of derived classes but not on the base class and it is this property that I need to use. For ease of understanding I've created a small example as follows: class StandardBaseClass {} // These are simulating the SMO objects class StandardDerivedClass : StandardBaseClass { public object Parent { get; set; } } static class Extensions { public static object GetParent(this StandardDerivedClass sdc) { return sdc.Parent; } public static object GetParent(this StandardBaseClass sbc) { throw new NotImplementedException("StandardBaseClass does not contain a property Parent"); } // This is the Generic function I'm trying to write and need the Parent property. public static void DoSomething<T>(T foo) where T : StandardBaseClass { object Parent = ((T)foo).GetParent(); } } In the above example calling DoSomething() will throw the NotImplemented Exception in the base class's implementation of GetParent(), even though I'm forcing the cast to T which is a StandardDerivedClass. This is contrary to other casting behaviour where by downcasting will force the use of the base class's implementation. I see this behaviour as a bug. Has anyone else out there encountered this?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48  | Next Page >