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• Cannot seem to communicate between views

  - by devnet247

  Hi all I have written a MVVM prototype as a learning exercise and I am struggling to understand how I can communicate between views.Let me explain I have a treeview on the left (leftSideView) ListView on the right (rightSideView) MainWindow (includes the 2 views mentioned above and a splitter) What I have implemented does not work and I would like you if you can point out where I am going wrong or if there is a better way of doing it. you can download the quick prototype from here http://cid-9db5ae91a2948485.skydrive.live.com/self.aspx/.Public/WpfCommunicationBetweenViews.zip For sure I am doing something wrong with the bindind. Also it would be nice to learn how you do it. EG ListBox on left (one view) ListView On the right (another view) how u communicate between the two. Thanks a lot of any suggestions

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• jQuery: extend plugin question

  - by Fuxi

  hi all, i'm having this simple plugin code: (function ($) { $.fn.tWeb = function () { var me = this; me.var1 = "foo"; this.done = function() { return this; } return this.done(); }; })(jQuery); var web = new jQuery.fn.tWeb(); alert(web.var1); works nice - alert(web.var1) is giving me "foo". my question: would it be possible extending this plugin by simply including another .js which has more code? eg. that i could ask for web.var2 i previously used a prototype function and could "extend" it by simply adding another js-include which refered to it eg. like tWeb.prototype.newfunction = function() how could this be done with jQuery? thx

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• Windows based development for ARM processors

  - by user367231

  I am a complete newbie to the ARM world. I need to be able to write C code, compile it, and then download into an ARM emulator, and execute. I need to use the GCC 4.1.2 compiler for the C code compilation. Can anybody point me in the correct directions for the following issues? What tool chain to use? What emulator to use? Are there tutorials or guides on setting up the tool chain?

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• Initializing new instances of a class in a loop, how can I persist an assignment to an event handler

  - by Pydroid

  This is a follow on question from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3020960/why-is-my-prototype-function-not-returning-the-property-of-the-instance $.getJSON(myjson, function(data) { var json = data; for (i in json) { juuvies[i] = new Juuvy(i,json[i], font, keyfontsize, valfontsize, orbcol, orbkeycol, orbvalcol, paper); juuvies[i].juuv_it(); var mykey = juuvies[i].init_nodes(); juuvies[i].orb.node.onmouseover = function() { console.log(mykey);}; } }); And my init_nodes function, Juuvy.prototype.init_nodes = function() { return this.key; } At this point of time, I get only the last key in the loop, instead of a unique pass each time. Is there a way I can persist the assignment for the event handler?

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• Multiple Timers with setTimeInterval

  - by visibleinvisibly

  I am facing a problem with setInterval being used in a loop. I have a function subscribeFeed( ) which takes an array of urls as input. It loops through the url array and subscribes each url to getFeedAutomatically() using a setInterval function. so if three URL's are there in the array, then 3 setInterval's will be called. The problem is 1)how to distinguish which setInterval is called for which URL. 2)it is causing Runtime exception in setInterval( i guess because of closure problem in javascript) //constructor function myfeed(){ this.feedArray = []; } myfeed.prototype.constructor= myfeed; myfeed.prototype.subscribeFeed =function(feedUrl){ var i=0; var url; var count = 0; var _this = this; var feedInfo = { url : [], status : "" }; var urlinfo = []; feedUrl = (feedUrl instanceof Array) ? feedUrl : [feedUrl]; //notifyInterval = (notifyInterval instanceof Array) ? notifyInterval: [notifyInterval]; for (i = 0; i < feedUrl.length; i++) { urlinfo[i] = { url:'', notifyInterval:5000,// Default Notify/Refresh interval for the feed isenable:true, // true allows the feed to be fetched from the URL timerID: null, //default ID is null called : false, position : 0, getFeedAutomatically : function(url){ _this.getFeedUpdate(url); }, }; urlinfo[i].url = feedUrl[i].URL; //overide the default notify interval if(feedUrl[i].NotifyInterval /*&& (feedUrl[i] !=undefined)*/){ urlinfo[i].notifyInterval = feedUrl[i].NotifyInterval; } // Trigger the Feed registered event with the info about URL and status feedInfo.url[i] = feedUrl[i].URL; //Set the interval to get the feed. urlinfo[i].timerID = setInterval(function(){ urlinfo[i].getFeedAutomatically(urlinfo[i].url); }, urlinfo[i].notifyInterval); this.feedArray.push(urlinfo[i]); } } // The getFeedUpate function will make an Ajax request and coninue myfeed.prototype.getFeedUpdate = function( ){ } I am posting the same on jsfiddle http://jsfiddle.net/visibleinvisibly/S37Rj/ Thanking you in advance

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• How to add response headers based on Content-type; getting Content-type before the response is commi

  - by Bozho

  I want to set the Expires header for all image/* and text/css. I'm doing this in a Filter. However: before calling chain.doFilter(..) the Content-type is not yet "realized" after calling chain.doFilter(..) the Content-type is set, but so is content-length, which forbids adding new headers (at least in Tomcat implementation) I can use the extensions of the requested resource, but since some of the css files are generated by richfaces by taking them from inside jar-files, the name of the file isn't x.css, but is /xx/yy/zz.xcss/DATB/.... So, is there a way to get the Content-type before the response is committed.

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• Function chaining depending on boolean result

  - by Markive

  This is just an efficiency question really.. I'm interested to know if there is a more efficient or logical way that people use to handle this sort of scenario. In my asp.net application I am running a script to generate a new project my code at the top level looks like this: Dim ok As Boolean = True ok = createFolderStructure() If ok Then ok = createMDB() If ok Then ok = createProjectConfig() If ok Then ok = updateCompanyConfig() I create a boolean and each function returns a boolean result, the next function in this chain will only run if the previous one was successful. I do this because an asp.net application will continue to run through the page life cycle unless there is an unhandled exception and I don't want my whole application to be screwed up if something in the chain goes wrong (there is a lot of copying and deleting of files etc.. in this example). I was just wondering how other people handle this scenario? the vb.net single line if statement is quite succinct but I'm wondering if there is a better way?

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• What is the best way to expose a callback API - C++

  - by rursw1

  Hi, I have a C++ library that should expose some system\ resource calls as callbacks from the linked application. For example: the interfacing application (which uses this library) can send socket management callback functions - send, receive, open, close etc., and the library will use this implementation in stead of the library's implementation. (This way enables the application to manage the sockets by itself, can be useful). This library has to expose also more callbacks, like, for example, a password validation, so I wonder if there is a preferred method to expose the callback sending option in one API. Something like: int AddCallbackFunc (int functionCallbackType, <generic function prototype>, <generic way to pass some additional arguments>) Then within my library I will assign the callback to the appropriate function pointer according to the functionCallbackType parameter. Is there any way to implement it in a generic way which will fit ANY function prototype and ANY additional arguments? Your help will be more than appreciated... Thanks!

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• Is there any way to retrieve a float from a varargs function's parameters?

  - by Jared P

  If the function was defined with a prototype which explicitly stated the types of the parameters, eg. void somefunc(int arg1, float arg2); but is implemented as void somefunc(int arg1, ...) { ... } is it possible to use va_arg to retrieve a float? It's normally prevented from doing this because varargs functions have implicit type promotions, like float to double, so trying to retrieve an unpromoted type is unsupported, even though the function is being called with the unpromoted type do to the more specific function prototype. The reason for this is to retrieve arguments of different types at runtime, as part of an obj-c interpreter, where one function will be reused for all different types of methods. This would be best as architecture independent (so that if nothing else the same code works on simulator and on device), although if there is no way to do this then device specific fixes will be accepted.

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• Why does document.QuerySelectorAll return a StaticNodeList rather than a real Array?

  - by Kev

  It bugs me that I can't just do document.QuerySelectorAll(...).map(...) even in Firefox 3.6, and I still can't find an answer, so I thought I'd cross-post on SO the question from this blog: http://blowery.org/2008/08/29/yay-for-queryselectorall-boo-for-staticnodelist/ Does anyone know of a technical reason why you don't get an Array? Or why an SNL doesn't inherit from an Array in such a way that you could use map, concat, etc? (BTW if it's just one function you want, you can do something like NodeList.prototype.map = Array.prototype.map;...but again, why is this functionality (intentionally?) blocked in the first place?)

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• Add code to html pages automatically

  - by piede

  I need to add some code to the of several html contained in a folder on my desktop. How can i do that? I am using a prototyping tool (Axure) on Mac and I want to add some html meta tags to the generated pages. These pages can be overwritten every time I generate the prototype. What I need is a sort of script that I can launch after re-generating the prototype, to reinsert the code. There is something for windows but it doesn't work on Mac: http://joshuamorse.com/2009/01/14/axure-protonotes-an-alternative-to-protoshare/ thanks

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• Lithium: Run filter after find() to format output

  - by Housni

  I wanted to specify the output of a field from within my model so I added a date key to my $_schema: models/Tags.php <?php protected $_schema = array( 'id' => array('type' => 'integer', 'key' => 'primary'), 'title' => array('type' => 'string'), 'created' => array('type' => 'integer', 'date' => 'F jS, Y - g:i a'), 'modified' => array('type' => 'integer') ); ?> I store my time as an unsigned integer in the db (output of time()). I want my base model to format any field that has the date key for output. I thought the best place to do that would be right after a find: extensions/data/Model.php <?php static::applyFilter('find', function($self, $params, $chain) { $schema = $self::schema(); $entity = $chain->next($self, $params, $chain); foreach ($schema as $field => $options) { if (array_key_exists('date', $options)) { //format as a date $params['data'][$field] = $entity->formatDate($field, $options['date']); } } return $entity; }); public function formatdate($entity, $field, $format, $timezone = 'Asia/Colombo') { $dt = new \DateTime(); $tz = new \DateTimeZone($timezone); $dt->setTimestamp($entity->$field); $dt->setTimezone($tz); return $dt->format($format); } ?> This doesn't seem to be working. When I execute a find all, this filter seems to get hit twice. The first time, $entity contains a count() of the results and only on the second hit does it contain the Records object. What am I doing wrong? How do I alter this so that simply doing <?= $tag->created; ?> in my view will format the date the way I want? This, essentially, needs to be an 'after filter', of sorts. EDIT If I can find a way to access the current model entity object (not the full namespaced path, $self contains that), I can probably solve my problem.

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• function in c language

  - by sandy101

  Hello, I am practice the function in c and come across to the program .... include int main() { float a=15.5; char ch ='C'; printit(a,ch); return 0; } printit(a,ch) { printf("%f\n%c",a,ch); } I want to know that why the above program compile and not give the error as i understood so for is ... 1) The function in c must be declared with the specific prototype (but this program does not contain the prototype ) 2)why the program give the output 'x'for the char variable 3)can the function in c are capable of accepting the value without being declared about type in parameters like what has done in the function declaration .... plz.... help

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• jquery "this" binding issue on event handler

  - by clyfe

  In jquery an event hadler's binding is the event generating DOM element (this points to the dom element). In prototype to change the binding of an event handler one can use the bindAsEventListener function; How can I access both the instance and the DOM element from a event handler? Similar to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/117361/how-can-i-bind-an-event-handler-to-an-instance-in-jquery function Car(){ this.km = 0; $("#sprint").click(this.drive); //setup event handler } // event handler // in it I need to access both the clicked element // and the binding object (instance of car) Car.prototype.drive = function(){ this.km += 10; // i'd like to access the binding (but jq changes it) this.css({ left: this.km }); // also the element // NOTE that is inside this function I want to access them not elsewhere } var car = new Car();

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• How to call object's method from constructor?

  - by Kirzilla

  Hello, var Dog = function(name) { this.name = name; this.sayName(); } Dog.prototype.sayName = function() { alert(this.name); } I'm creating new instance of Dog object, but method sayName() is undefined. Why? Or maybe I should do something like (but I can't see difference)... var Dog = function(name) { this.name = name; this.prototype.sayName = function() { alert(this.name); } } Thank you.

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• Custom GMapTypeControl buttons (Google Maps V2 API)

  - by AndiDog

  A similar question was already asked, but does not have a satisfying answer. I want to change the CSS style for the map type selection buttons (which are actually DIVs that don't have a CSS class). The links in the referenced question show how to subclass controls, but the examples don't seem to work for GMapTypeControl. Tried the following function CustomGMapTypeControl() {} CustomGMapTypeControl.prototype = new GMapTypeControl() CustomGMapTypeControl.prototype.setButtonStyle_ = function(button) { button.style.backgroundColor = "red"; } but the setButtonStyle_ function doesn't even get called. Any solutions for this?

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• minifying patched javascript files

  - by Stacia

  I'm writing a Rails app and I've partially integrated in this nice little patch to the in line ajax editor: http://inplacericheditor.box.re/ The problem is, on that page I have tinymce, prototype and scriptaculous included. In Firefox at least there's a big lag when all this stuff is loading. I was hoping to fix it by compressing the files so I checked out a plugin for rails called Smurf. It seemed to do what it was supposed to do nicely, but it choked on the little patch files that are included with the Ajax editor thing. THe patch files look like this: Object.extend(Ajax.InPlaceEditor.prototype, { handleAJAXFailure: function(transport) Alternatively, should I just be catching them instead of worrying about minfying them? I know I'm running on development and that Apache would maybe be handling serving the js files differently..It just seems like a lot of things to serve on one page.

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• Javascript Inheritance and Arrays

  - by Inespe

  Hi all! I am trying to define a javascript class with an array property, and its subclass. The problem is that all instances of the subclass somehow "share" the array property: // class Test function Test() { this.array = []; this.number = 0; } Test.prototype.push = function() { this.array.push('hello'); this.number = 100; } // class Test2 : Test function Test2() { } Test2.prototype = new Test(); var a = new Test2(); a.push(); // push 'hello' into a.array var b = new Test2(); alert(b.number); // b.number is 0 - that's OK alert(b.array); // but b.array is containing 'hello' instead of being empty. why? As you can see I don't have this problem with primitive data types... Any suggestions?

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• Why does coffeescript generate classes like this?

  - by ryeguy

  Given the following coffeescript code: class Animal constructor: (@name) -> speak: (things) -> "My name is #{@name} and I like #{things}" This is generated: var Animal = (function() { function Animal(name) { this.name = name; } Animal.prototype.speak = function(things) { return "My name is " + this.name + " and I like " + things; }; return Animal; })(); But why isn't this more idiomatic code generated? var Animal = function Animal(name) { this.name = name; }; Animal.prototype.speak = function(things) { return "My name is " + this.name + " and I like " + things; }; I know that coffeescript wraps a lot of stuff in anonymous functions to control scope leak, but what could leak here?

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• Doubt about a particular pattern of Javascript class definition

  - by fenderplayer

  Recently i saw the following code that creates a class in javascript: var Model.Foo = function(){ // private stuff var a, b; // public properties this.attr1 = ''; this.attr2 = ''; if(Model.Foo._init === 'undefined'){ Model.Foo.prototype = { func1 : function(){ //...}, func2 : function(){ //... }, //other prototype functions } } Model.Foo._init = true; } // Instantiate and use the class as follows: var foo = new Model.Foo(); foo.func1(); I guess the _init variable is used to make sure we don't define the prototypes again. Also, i feel the code is more readable since i am placing everything in a function block (so in oop-speak, all attributes and methods are in one place). Do you see any issues with the code above? Any pitfalls of using this pattern if i need to create lots of classes in a big project?

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• VS JavaScript intellisense with paramaters

  - by TonyB

  here is some sample javascript: SomeObjectType = function() { } SomeObjectType.prototype = { field1: null, field2: null } SomeOtherObject = function() { } SomeOtherObject.prototype = { doSomething: function(val) { /// <param name="val" type="SomeObjectType"></param> var val2 = new SomeObjectType(); //val2. shows intellisense correctly //val1. does NOT } } Shouldn't visual studio be giving me intellisence when i do "val." inside the "doSomething" function? I would expect it to give me field1 and field2 as options, but it doesn't. I DO get field1 and field2 if I type "val2." so intellisence works when I create a new object of the same type that I specify in the param comment. Any ideas what I am doing wrong or is this just not supported?

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• JavaScript: filter() for Objects

  - by AgileMeansDoAsLittleAsPossible

  ECMAScript 5 has the filter() prototype for Array types, but not Object types, if I understand correctly. How would I implement a filter() for Objects in JavaScript? Let's say I have this object: var foo = { bar: "Yes" }; And I want to write a filter() that works on Objects: Object.prototype.filter = function(predicate) { var result = {}; for (key in this) { if (this.hasOwnProperty(key) && !predicate(this[key])) { result[key] = this[key]; } } return result; }; This works when I use it in jsfiddle (http://jsfiddle.net/MPUnL/4/), but when I add it to my site that uses jQuery 1.5 and jQuery UI 1.8.9, I get JavaScript errors in FireBug.

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• Use of .apply() with 'new' operator. Is this possible?

  - by Premasagar

  In JavaScript, I want to create an object instance (via the new operator), but pass an arbitrary number of arguments to the constructor. Is this possible? What I want to do is something like this (but the code below does not work): function Something(){ // init stuff } function createSomething(){ return new Something.apply(null, arguments); } var s = createSomething(a,b,c); // 's' is an instance of Something The Answer From the responses here, it became clear that there's no in-built way to call .apply() with the new operator. However, people suggested a number of really interesting solutions to the problem. My preferred solution was this one from Matthew Crumley (I've modified it to pass the arguments property): var createSomething = (function() { function F(args) { return Something.apply(this, args); } F.prototype = Something.prototype; return function() { return new F(arguments); } })();

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• iptables not allowing mysql connections to aliased ips?

  - by Curtis

  I have a fairly simple iptables firewall on a server that provides MySQL services, but iptables seems to be giving me very inconsistent results. The default policy on the script is as follows: iptables -P INPUT DROP I can then make MySQL public with the following rule: iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -j ACCEPT With this rule in place, I can connect to MySQL from any source IP to any destination IP on the server without a problem. However, when I try to restrict access to just three IPs by replacing the above line with the following, I run into trouble (xxx=masked octect): iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -m state --state NEW -s 208.XXX.XXX.184 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -m state --state NEW -s 208.XXX.XXX.196 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -m state --state NEW -s 208.XXX.XXX.251 -j ACCEPT Once the above rules are in place, the following happens: I can connect to the MySQL server from the .184, .196 and .251 hosts just fine as long as am connecting to the MySQL server using it's default IP address or an IP alias in the same subnet as the default IP address. I am unable to connect to MySQL using IP aliases that are assigned to the server from a different subnet than the server's default IP when I'm coming from the .184 or .196 hosts, but .251 works just fine. From the .184 or .196 hosts, a telnet attempt just hangs... # telnet 209.xxx.xxx.22 3306 Trying 209.xxx.xxx.22... If I remove the .251 line (making .196 the last rule added), the .196 host still can not connect to MySQL using IP aliases (so it's not the order of the rules that is causing the inconsistent behavior). I know, this particular test was silly as it shouldn't matter what order these three rules are added in, but I figured someone might ask. If I switch back to the "public" rule, all hosts can connect to the MySQL server using either the default or aliased IPs (in either subnet): iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -j ACCEPT The server is running in a CentOS 5.4 OpenVZ/Proxmox container (2.6.32-4-pve). And, just in case you prefer to see the problem rules in the context of the iptables script, here it is (xxx=masked octect): # Flush old rules, old custom tables /sbin/iptables --flush /sbin/iptables --delete-chain # Set default policies for all three default chains /sbin/iptables -P INPUT DROP /sbin/iptables -P FORWARD DROP /sbin/iptables -P OUTPUT ACCEPT # Enable free use of loopback interfaces /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT /sbin/iptables -A OUTPUT -o lo -j ACCEPT # All TCP sessions should begin with SYN /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp ! --syn -m state --state NEW -j DROP # Accept inbound TCP packets (Do this *before* adding the 'blocked' chain) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT # Allow the server's own IP to connect to itself /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -s 208.xxx.xxx.178 -j ACCEPT # Add the 'blocked' chain *after* we've accepted established/related connections # so we remain efficient and only evaluate new/inbound connections /sbin/iptables -N BLOCKED /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -j BLOCKED # Accept inbound ICMP messages /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p ICMP --icmp-type 8 -j ACCEPT /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p ICMP --icmp-type 11 -j ACCEPT # ssh (private) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 22 -m state --state NEW -s xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx -j ACCEPT # ftp (private) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 21 -m state --state NEW -s xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx -j ACCEPT # www (public) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 443 -j ACCEPT # smtp (public) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 25 -j ACCEPT /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 2525 -j ACCEPT # pop (public) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 110 -j ACCEPT # mysql (private) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -m state --state NEW -s 208.xxx.xxx.184 -j ACCEPT /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -m state --state NEW -s 208.xxx.xxx.196 -j ACCEPT /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -m state --state NEW -s 208.xxx.xxx.251 -j ACCEPT Any ideas? Thanks in advance. :-)

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• Cannot ping Localhost so I can't shutdown Tomcat

  - by gav

  Hi, I installed Tomcat 6 using the tar-ball via wget. Startup of the server is fine but on shutdown I get a timeout exception. root@88:/usr/local/tomcat/logs# /usr/local/tomcat/bin/shutdown.sh Using CATALINA_BASE: /usr/local/tomcat Using CATALINA_HOME: /usr/local/tomcat Using CATALINA_TMPDIR: /usr/local/tomcat/temp Using JRE_HOME: /usr Using CLASSPATH: /usr/local/tomcat/bin/bootstrap.jar 30-Mar-2010 17:33:41 org.apache.catalina.startup.Catalina stopServer SEVERE: Catalina.stop: java.net.ConnectException: Connection timed out at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connect(PlainSocketImpl.java:182) at java.net.SocksSocketImpl.connect(SocksSocketImpl.java:366) ... I read that this might be because I have a firewall blocking incoming connections on the shutdown port (8005). I have a default Ubuntu 9.04 installation running on a VPS with no rules in my iptables. How can I tell if that port is blocked? How can I check that the server is listening for connections on 8005? Bizarrely pinging localhost or the IP of my server fails from the server itself, whereas pinging the IP of my server from another machine succeeds. -------- EDIT -------- (In reply to Davey) Thanks for all the tips and suggestions! netstat -nlp Active Internet connections (only servers) Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State PID/Program name tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:8005 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 9611/java tcp 0 0 127.0.0.1:3306 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 28505/mysqld tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:8080 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 9611/java tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:22 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN ... So we can see that tomcat is listening, I just don't seem to be able to reach it. root@88:/usr/local/tomcat# telnet localhost 8005 Trying 127.0.0.1... Trying to telnet to the port Hangs indefinitely. I have no rules in my iptables so I don't think it's a firewall thing. root@88:/usr/local/tomcat# iptables --list Chain INPUT (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination Chain FORWARD (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination This is the contents of /etc/hosts 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost # Auto-generated hostname. Please do not remove this comment. 88.198.31.14 88.198.31.14 88 88 But I still can't ping localhost... do I need to check a loopback device is enabled properly or something? (I'm unsure how to do that if you do say yes :)). root@88:/usr/local/tomcat# ping localhost PING localhost (127.0.0.1) 56(84) bytes of data. --- localhost ping statistics --- 7 packets transmitted, 0 received, 100% packet loss, time 5999ms Trying to find out what the loop back is configured as; root@88:~# ifconfig lo lo Link encap:Local Loopback LOOPBACK MTU:16436 Metric:1 RX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:0 (0.0 B) TX bytes:0 (0.0 B) SOLUTION THANKS TO DAVEY I needed to bring up the interface (Not sure why it wasn't running). ifconfig lo up did the trick. root@88:~# ifconfig lo up root@88:~# ifconfig lo lo Link encap:Local Loopback inet addr:127.0.0.1 Mask:255.0.0.0 inet6 addr: ::1/128 Scope:Host UP LOOPBACK RUNNING MTU:16436 Metric:1 RX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:0 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:0 (0.0 B) TX bytes:0 (0.0 B) root@88:~# ping localhost PING localhost.localdomain (127.0.0.1) 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from localhost.localdomain (127.0.0.1): icmp_seq=1 ttl=64 time=0.025 ms Thanks again, Gav

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