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  • ruby on rails photo upload problem

    - by dodo00700
    Hallo rails version 2.3.5 I'm learning rails and I run into a problem. I'm doing some nesting forms from the railscasts tutorials. I changed the text area into a data field to upload photos and everything is working. Now i have to display the uploaded pictures and i simply can't do it. I Tried everything I could find on the net but nothing worked. PROBLEM I have the Article controller which handles the article CRUD. inside the article new form there is nested a form for uploading images. article controller def code_image @image_data = Photo.find(params[:id]) @image = @image_data.binary_data send_data(@image, :type => @image_data.content_type, :filename => @image_data.filename, :disposition => 'inline') end photo model def image_file=(input_data) self.filename = input_data.original_filename self.content_type = input_data.content_type.chomp self.binary_data = input_data.read end articles/show.html.erb <%=h @article.title %> <%=h @article.body %> <% for photos in @article.photos %> <%= image_tag(url_for({:action => 'code_image', :id => @article.photos.id})) -%> <% end %> articles/_formnew.html.erb <% form_for (:article, @article, :url => {:action=>'create'}, :html=> {:multipart=>true}) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages % <%= f.label :title %><br /> <%= f.text_field :title %><br /><br /> <%= f.label :body %><br /> <%= f.text_area :body, :style => 'width: 600px;' %><br /><br /> <% f.fields_for :photos do |builder|%> <%= builder.label :content, "Photo"%><br /> <%= builder.file_field :image_file %><br /> <% end %> <br /> <%= f.submit "Create" %> <% end % Thanks

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  • How can I construct this file tree based on what files the user is allowed to view?

    - by robert
    I have an array of files that looks like this: Array ( [0] => Array ( [type] => folder [path] => RootFolder ) [1] => Array ( [type] => file [path] => RootFolder\error.log ) [2] => Array ( [type] => folder [path] => RootFolder\test ) [3] => Array ( [type] => file [path] => RootFolder\test\asd.txt ) [4] => Array ( [type] => folder [path] => RootFolder\test\sd ) [5] => Array ( [type] => file [path] => RootFolder\test\sd\testing.txt ) ) I parse this array and create a tree like view based on the depth of the files ('/' count). It looks like this: RootFolder - error.log - test - asd.txt - sd - testing.txt What I have now is an array of filepaths the user is allowed to view. I need to take this array into account when constructing the above tree. That array looks like this: Array ( [0] => Array ( [filePath] => RootFolder\test\sd ) [1] => Array ( [filePath] => RootFolder\error.log ) ) It would be easy to do a if in_array($path, $allowed) but that won't give me the tree. Just a list of files... Another part I'm stumped on is this requirement: If the user has access to view the folder test, they then have access to all children of that folder. My idea was to simply parse the filepaths. For example, I'd confirm that RootFolder\test\sd was a directory and then create a tree based on the '/' count. Like I was doing earlier. Then, since this is a directory, I'd pull out all files within this directory and show them to the user. However, I'm having trouble converting this to working code... Any ideas?

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  • wxWidgets: Show a window that was marked hidden in the XRC

    - by jdwieber
    I'm new to wxWidgets and DialogBlocks. I have a form that is created using DialogBlocks and saved as an XRC file. Part of the form has a vertical wxStaticBoxSizer into which is placed two wxScrolledWindow elements. I want to only show one at a time based on what data is to be shown to the user, so I have one marked hidden and left the other one visible. In code (C++), when I try to switch the display and show the widget that was hidden in the XRC and hide the one that was not, the one that I hide goes away fine, but the one that I want to show is not visible. If I resize the window however, it appears. Once it has appeard then I can switch back and forth with no issues. I tried many combinations of showing, enabling, invalidating, getting the sizer and calling RecalcSizes, refresh, layout, and some others. I tried them in different combinations too. Simply calling Show will allow me to toggle between the two, but only after I switch to the one that does not show initially and resize the window. From what I see in the docs. the issue is that wxSizer doesn't allocate space for hidden windows, but there is a flag that can be set to override that behavor. My problem is that DialogBlocks does not expose that feature, so if I manually edit the XRC file the modifation will be lost when I, or one of the other devs. saves some changes. Is ther a sequence of calls that I can make to tell the sizer to allocate space? The default OnResize handler does something to cause the sizer to allocate space, but I don't know what that is, or how to do it. This is the flag I found in the docs: wxRESERVE_SPACE_EVEN_IF_HIDDEN Normally wxSizers don't allocate space for hidden windows or other items. This flag overrides this behavior so that sufficient space is allocated for the window even if it isn't visible. This makes it possible to dynamically show and hide controls without resizing parent dialog, for example. This function is new since wxWidgets version 2.8.8 Thanks in advance.

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  • User control events not getting to their handlers

    - by PhrkOnLsh
    I am trying to create a user control to wrap around the Membership API (A set of custom Gridviews to display the data better) and, while the code and the controls worked fine in the page, when I moved them to an .ascx, the events stopped firing to it. <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="CustomMembership.ascx.cs" Inherits="CCGlink.CustomMembership" %> <asp:Panel ID="mainPnl" runat="server"> <asp:Label id="lblError" ForeColor="Red" Font-Bold="true" runat="server" /> <asp:GridView id="grdUsers" HeaderStyle-cssclass="<%# _headercss %>" RowStyle-cssclass="<%# _rowcss %>" AlternatingRowStyle-cssclass="<%# _alternatingcss %>" OnRowUpdating="grdUsers_RowUpdating" OnRowDeleting="grdUsers_RowDeleting" OnRowCancelingEdit="grdUsers_cancelEdit" autogeneratecolumns="false" allowsorting="true" AllowPaging="true" EmptyDataText="No users..." pagesize="<%# PageSizeForBoth %>" runat="server"> <!-- ...columns... --> </asp:GridView> <asp:Button id="btnAllDetails" onclick="btnAllDetails_clicked" text="Full Info" runat="server" /> <asp:GridView DataKeyNames="UserName" HeaderStyle-cssclass="<%# _headercss %>" RowStyle-cssclass="<%# _rowcss %>" AlternatingRowStyle-cssclass="<%# _alternatingcss %>" id="grdAllDetails" visible="false" allowsorting="true" EmptyDataText="No users in DB." pagesize="<%# PageSizeForBoth %>" runat="server" /> <asp:Button id="btnDoneAllDetails" onclick="btnAllDetails_clicked" text="Done." Visible="false" runat="server" /> </asp:Panel> However, none of the events in the first two controls (the gridview grdUsers and the button btnAllDetails) simply do NOT occur, I have verified this in the debugger. If they occured just fine in the aspx page, why do they die on moving to the ascx? My code in the aspx now is: <div class="admin-right"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="sm1" runat="server" /> <h1>User Management</h1> <div class="admin-right-users"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="up1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <cm1:CustomMembership id="showUsers" PageSizeForBoth="9" AlternatingRowStylecssclass="alternating" RowStylecssclass="row" DataSource="srcUsers" HeaderStylecssclass="header" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> Thanks.

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  • Advice needed: stay with Java team or move to C++ team?

    - by user68759
    Some background - I have been programming in Java as a professional for the last few years. This is mainly using Java SE. I have also touched bits and pieces of other various Java technologies and have some basic knowledge about them. I consider my self as an intermediate Java programmer. I like Java very much. I think it is only going to get bigger. Recently, my manager asked my opinion on whether I would like to be transferred to another team within the company that is developing a product in C++. This is mainly because my current Java team simply didn't make enough money due to poor sales and the economic downturn. Now, I have never had any experience with C++ nor have I ever coded a single line of code in C++. I have always wanted to learn it and now is my chance. But I really want to make sure I get benefit out of it in the future, in the sense that I will have the skills that will still be on-demand in the future. So, what do you experts think? Is C++ still the language to learn these days to secure yourself for the future? What will I learn more in C++ but not in Java? And are they worthy to learn considering the current and possible future demands in IT industry? (Apart from the obvious more control over memory management and something along that line.) What is a good excuse to refuse the offer in order to stay with the Java team? I don't want to blatantly refuse it because you can never predict the future and I could possibly come back to my manager in the future and ask him to transfer me to the C++ team. How do I say it nicely that I am taking the offer but I would like to still be involved with Java one way or another, such as when there is a new Java project I would like to be considered. I have to admit that I am kind of 50-50 at the moment. I want to learn C++ for the sake of improving my skills and also helping my company to reduce the fund required for the Java team. But it is also hard for me to leave Java because I know Java is going to get bigger, so I am afraid of getting behind when I start concentrating on C++. I could, of course, decide to just join the C++ team, and then spend my free time reading about Java to keep in touch with it, but I thought I would ask anyway in case some people can point out the strong points of either over the other given the current and possibly future circumstances.

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  • Codeigniter: Retrieving data on button click with Ajax

    - by OllyTenerife
    I have a simple webpage which generates a random quote from my database upon refreshing the page. I wish to implement some AJAX and JQuery in order to generate quotes via the button rather than having to refresh the page. I have done some research but I am not sure how to implement this in Codeigniter. My current code is below... Page controller: public function index() { $this->load->model('quote_model', '', TRUE); $data['quotes'] = $this->quote_model->getRandom(); $this->load->view('home', $data); } The view: <?php include ('layout/header.php'); ?> <div class="container-fluid"> <div class="row"> <div class="col-md-4 quote-holder"> <img src="application/assets/alan1.jpg" alt="..." class="img-circle img-responsive"> <br> <blockquote class="text-center"> <p><?php echo $quotes[0]['quote']; ?></p> <footer class="text-center"><?php echo $quotes[0]['character_name']; ?> in <cite title="Source Title"><?php echo $quotes[0]['series_name']; ?></cite></footer> </blockquote> <button type="button" class="btn btn-default center-block">Generate quote</button> </div> </div> <?php include ('layout/footer.php'); ?> Here is the function in the model I am retrieving the data from: function getRandom() { $query = $this->db->query(" SELECT * FROM quotes, characters, series WHERE quotes.series_id = series.series_id AND quotes.character_id = characters.character_id ORDER BY rand() LIMIT 1 "); return $query->result_array(); } Should I simply be using something like this? $("button").click(function(){ $.get( "Page/index", function( data ) { //output data to page element... } });

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  • pointer to preallocated memory as an input parameter and have the function fill it

    - by djones2010
    test code: void modify_it(char * mystuff) { char test[7] = "123456"; //last element is null i presume for c style strings here. //static char test[] = "123123"; //when i do this i thought i should be able to gain access to this bit of memory when the function is destroyed but that does not seem to be the case. //char * test = new char[7]; //this is also creating memory on stack and not the heap i reckon and gets destroyed once the function is done with. strcpy_s(mystuff,7,test); //this does the job as long as memory for mystuff has been allocated outside the function. mystuff = test; //this does not work. I know with c style strings you can't just do string assignments they have to be actually copied. in this case I was using this in conjunction with static char test thinking by having it as static the memory would not get destroyed and i can then simply point mystuff to test and be done with it. i would later have address the memory cleanup in the main function. but anyway this never worked. } int main(void) { char * mystuff = new char [7]; //allocate memory on heap where the pointer will point cool(mystuff); std::string test_case(mystuff); std::cout<<test_case.c_str(); //this is the only way i know how to use cout by making it into a string c++ string. delete [] mystuff; return 0; } in the case, of a static array in the function why would it not work. in the case, when i allocated memory using new in the function does it get created on the stack or heap? in the case, i have string which needs to be copied into a char * form. everything i see usually requires const char* instead of just char*. I know i could use reference to take care of this easy. Or char ** to send in the pointer and do it that way. But i just wanted to know if I could do it with just char *. Anyway your thoughts and comments plus any examples would be very helpful.

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  • Problem displaying contents of a class in Java

    - by LuckySlevin
    My problem is i have a class and in it there is a list of elements of another class. public class Branch { private ArrayList<Player> players = new ArrayList<Player>(); String brName; public Branch() {} public void setBr(String brName){this.brName = brName;} public String getBr(){return brName;} public ArrayList<Player> getPlayers() { return players; } public void setPlayers(ArrayList<Player> players) { this.players =new ArrayList<Player>(players); } } public class Player { private String name; private String pos; private Integer salary; private Integer number; public Player(String name, String pos, Integer salary, Integer number) { this.name = name; this.pos = pos; this.salary = salary; this.number = number; } public Player(){} public String getName() { return name; } public String getPos() { return pos; } public Integer getSalary() { return salary; } public Integer getNumber() { return number; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public void setPos(String pos) { this.pos = pos; } public void setSalary(Integer salary) { this.salary = salary; } public void setNumber(Integer number) { this.number = number; } } My problem is to print the players of a Branch with their name,pos,salary,number. For this i tried this simply : String p1,p2; int a1,a2; p1 = input.readLine(); p2 = input.readLine(); a1 = Integer.parseInt(input.readLine()); a2 = Integer.parseInt(input.readLine()); players[0].setName(p1); players[0].setPos(p2); players[0].setSalary(a1); players[0].setNumber(a2); ptmp.add(players[0]); myBranch[0].setPlayers(ptmp); System.out.println(myBranch[0].brName + " " + myBranch[0].getPlayers()); I wrote this just to try how to display. I created an array of Players, and Branches so they already defined. The problem is getPlayers() doesn't give me any result. What is the way to do this?

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  • SQL version control methodology

    - by Tom H.
    There are several questions on SO about version control for SQL and lots of resources on the web, but I can't find something that quite covers what I'm trying to do. First off, I'm talking about a methodology here. I'm familiar with the various source control applications out there and I'm familiar with tools like Red Gate's SQL Compare, etc. and I know how to write an application to check things in and out of my source control system automatically. If there is a tool which would be particularly helpful in providing a whole new methodology or which have a useful and uncommon functionality then great, but for the tasks mentioned above I'm already set. The requirements that I'm trying to meet are: The database schema and look-up table data are versioned DML scripts for data fixes to larger tables are versioned A server can be promoted from version N to version N + X where X may not always be 1 Code isn't duplicated within the version control system - for example, if I add a column to a table I don't want to have to make sure that the change is in both a create script and an alter script The system needs to support multiple clients who are at various versions for the application (trying to get them all up to within 1 or 2 releases, but not there yet) Some organizations keep incremental change scripts in their version control and to get from version N to N + 3 you would have to run scripts for N-N+1 then N+1-N+2 then N+2-N+3. Some of these scripts can be repetitive (for example, a column is added but then later it is altered to change the data type). We're trying to avoid that repetitiveness since some of the client DBs can be very large, so these changes might take longer than necessary. Some organizations will simply keep a full database build script at each version level then use a tool like SQL Compare to bring a database up to one of those versions. The problem here is that intermixing DML scripts can be a problem. Imagine a scenario where I add a column, use a DML script to fill said column, then in a later version that column name is changed. Perhaps there is some hybrid solution? Maybe I'm just asking for too much? Any ideas or suggestions would be greatly appreciated though. If the moderators think that this would be more appropriate as a community wiki, please let me know. Thanks!

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  • Disregard a particular TD element

    - by RussellDias
    Below I have the code that allows me to edit a table row inline. However it edits ALL of the TDs within that row. My problem, along with the code, are stated below. Any help is appreciated. <tbody> <tr> <th scope="row">Test</th> <td class="amount">$124</td> <td class="amount" id="" >$154</td> <td class="diff">- 754</td> </tr> </tbody> The above table is just a sample. What I have been trying to accomplish is, to simply edit the TDs within that particular row, but I need it to disregard the diff TD. I'm fairly new to jQuery and have got the following code via the help of a jQuery book. $(document).ready(function() { TABLE.formwork('#current-expenses'); }); var TABLE = {}; TABLE.formwork = function(table){ var $tables = $(table); $tables.each(function () { var _table = $(this); _table.find('thead tr').append($('<th class="edit">&nbsp;</th>')); _table.find('tbody tr').append($('<td class="edit"><input type="button" value="Edit"/></td>')) }); $tables.find('.edit :button').live('click', function(e) { TABLE.editable(this); e.preventDefault(); }); } TABLE.editable = function(button) { var $button = $(button); var $row = $button.parents('tbody tr'); var $cells = $row.children('td').not('.edit'); if($row.data('flag')) { // in edit mode, move back to table // cell methods $cells.each(function () { var _cell = $(this); _cell.html(_cell.find('input').val()); }) $row.data('flag',false); $button.val('Edit'); } else { // in table mode, move to edit mode // cell methods $cells.each(function() { var _cell = $(this); _cell.data('text', _cell.html()).html(''); if($('td.diff')){ var $input = $('<input type="text" />') .val(_cell.data('text')) .width(_cell.width() - 16); _cell.append($input); } }) $row.data('flag', true); $button.val('Save'); } } I have attempted to alter the code so that it would disregard the diff class TD, but have had no luck so far.

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  • How to store byte[] from Android Camera onPictureTaken method within application for later use

    - by Kiel Wood
    I am writing a larger Android application and I use the camera within the app. All I want to do with the camera is have the user take a picture, then start a new activity to show that image and allow the user to decide if they want to keep the image or not. I am having the hardest time figuring out how to simply store the byte[] data from the onPictureTaken method so that I can display it to the user in the next activity. I have tried many different routes and none of them have worked. The last thing I tried was creating a globalsettings class that extends the Application class and creating a byte[] field within it to store the byte[] from the camera so that I could use it within another activity, but my global variable is still not getting set. My CameraActivity code is shown below: public class CameraActivity extends Activity { CameraPreview Preview; Intent intent; byte[] image; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.cameralayout); Preview = new CameraPreview(this); ((FrameLayout)findViewById(R.id.uxfmlayPreview)).addView(Preview); intent = new Intent(this, PostCaptureActivity.class); } public void uxbtnCaptureSnap_Click(View v) { Preview.DeviceCamera.setPreviewCallback(null); Preview.DeviceCamera.takePicture(shutterCallback, rawCallback, jpegCallback); startActivity(intent); finish(); } public void uxbtnCaptureExit_Click(View v) { Intent i = new Intent(this, ExploreMenuActivity.class); setResult(RESULT_OK); startActivity(i); finish(); } ShutterCallback shutterCallback = new ShutterCallback() { public void onShutter() {} }; PictureCallback rawCallback = new PictureCallback() { public void onPictureTaken(byte[] data, Camera camera) {} }; PictureCallback jpegCallback = new PictureCallback() { public void onPictureTaken(byte[] data, Camera camera) { ((GlobalSettings)getApplication()).setGlobalImage(data); camera.release(); camera = null; } }; } Here is my code from my PostCaptureActivity onCreate() method where I attempt to convert and set the image as the source for an imageview: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.postcapturelayout); SnapShot = ((ImageView)findViewById(R.id.uximgSnapshot)); if(((GlobalSettings)this.getApplication()).getGlobalImage() != null) { Bitmap b = BitmapFactory.decodeByteArray(((GlobalSettings)this.getApplication()).getGlobalImage(), 0, ((GlobalSettings)this.getApplication()).getGlobalImage().length); SnapShot.setImageBitmap(b); } else { Toast.makeText(this, "Oops! Picture cannot be saved", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }

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  • WPF Style Triggers: can I apply the one style for a variety of Properties?

    - by Matt H.
    It seems like there has to be a way to do this: I am applying an ItemContainerStyle in my Listbox, based on two property triggers. As you can see, I'm using the exact same set of trigger enter/exit actions, simply applied on two different properties. Is there something equivalent to a <Trigger Property="prop1" OR Property="prop2" ??? (Obviously wouldn't look like that, but that probably gets the point across.) <Style x:Key="ListBoxItemStyle" TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsKeyboardFocusWithin" Value="True"> <Trigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetProperty="Height" To="50" Duration="0:0:.3"></DoubleAnimation> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </Trigger.EnterActions> <Trigger.ExitActions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetProperty="Height" To="25" Duration="0:0:.3" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </Trigger.ExitActions> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> <Style x:Key="ListBoxItemStyle" TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="True"> <Trigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetProperty="Height" To="50" Duration="0:0:.3"></DoubleAnimation> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </Trigger.EnterActions> <Trigger.ExitActions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetProperty="Height" To="25" Duration="0:0:.3" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </Trigger.ExitActions> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style>

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  • Efficient method of finding database rows that have *one or more* qualities from a list of seven qualities

    - by hithere
    Hello! For this question, I'm looking to see if anyone has a better idea of how to implement what I'm currently planning on implementing (below): I'm keeping track of a set of images, using a database. Each image is represented by one row. I want to be able to search for images, using a number of different search parameters. One of these parameters involves a search-by-color option. (The rest of the search stuff is currently working fine.) Images in this database can contain up to seven colors: -Red -Orange -Yellow -Green -Blue -Indigo -Violet Here are some example user queries: "I want an image that contains red." "I want an image that contains red and blue." "I want an image that contains yellow and violet." "I want an image that contains red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet." And so on. Users make this selection through the use of checkboxes in an html form. They can check zero checkboxes, all seven, and anything in between. I'm curious to hear what people think would be the most efficient way to perform this database search. I have two possible options right now, but I feel like there must be something better that I'm not thinking of. (Option 1) -For each row, simply have seven additional fields in the database, one for each color. Each field holds a 1 or 0 (true/false) value, and I SELECT based on whatever the user has checked off. (I didn't like this solution so much, because it seemed kind of wasteful to add seven additional fields...especially since most pictures in this table will only have 3-4 colors max, though some could have up to 7. So that means I'm storing a lot of zeros.) Also, if I added more searchable colors later on (which I don't think I will, but it's always possible), I'd have to add more fields. (Option 2) -For each image row, I could have a "colors" text field that stores space-separated color names (or numbers for the sake of compactness). Then I could do a fulltext match against search through the fields, selecting rows that contain "red yellow green" (or "1 3 4"). But I kind of didn't want to do fulltext searching because I already allow a keyword search, and I didn't really want to do two fulltext searches per image search. Plus, if the database gets big, fulltext stuff might slow down. Any better options that I didn't think of? Thanks! Side Note: I'm using PHP to work with a MySQL database.

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  • SFTP not supported error with PHP & cURL

    - by Bad Programmer
    I followed the advice from this Stack Overflow question thread, but I keep hitting a snag. I am receiving the following error message: Unsupported protocol: sftp Here is my code: $ch = curl_init(); if(!$ch) { $error = curl_error($ch); die("cURL session could not be initiated. ERROR: $error.""); } $fp = fopen($docname, 'r'); if(!$fp) { $error = curl_error($ch); die("$docname could not be read."); } curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "sftp://$user_name:$user_pass@$server:22/$docname"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_UPLOAD, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_PROTOCOLS, CURLPROTO_SFTP); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_INFILE, $fp); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_INFILESIZE, filesize($docname)); //this is where I get the failure $exec = curl_exec ($ch); if(!$exec) { $error = curl_error($ch); die("File $docname could not be uploaded. ERROR: $error."); } curl_close ($ch); I used the curl_version() function to see my curl information, and found that sftp doesn't seem to be in the array of supported protocols: [version_number] => 462597 [age] => 2 [features] => 1597 [ssl_version_number] => 0 [version] => 7.15.5 [host] => x86_64-redhat-linux-gnu [ssl_version] => OpenSSL/0.9.8b [libz_version] => 1.2.3 [protocols] => Array ( [0] => tftp [1] => ftp [2] => telnet [3] => dict [4] => ldap [5] => http [6] => file [7] => https [8] => ftps ) Is this a matter of my version of cURL being outdated, or is the SFTP protocol simply not supported at all? Any advice is greatly appreciated.

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  • PHP - trying to automate/loop a save function

    - by Homer_J
    EDIT: the difference between the pages are the simply $q1, $q2, $q3 becomes, for example, $q13, $q14, $q15 - they are questions in the form. Hi all, I have the following code: $rguid = $_POST["r"]; $ip=substr($_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'], 0, 50); $browser=substr($_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'], 0, 255); $q1 = $_POST["q1"]; $q2 = $_POST["q2"]; $q3 = $_POST["q3"]; $q4 = $_POST["q4"]; $q5 = $_POST["q5"]; $q6 = $_POST["q6"]; $q7 = $_POST["q7"]; $q8 = $_POST["q8"]; $respondent_id = decode_respondent_guid($rguid); $rcount=respondent_status($respondent_id); if ($rcount==0) { $proc = mysqli_prepare($link, "INSERT INTO tresults (respondent_id, ip, browser, q1, q2, q3, q4, q5, q6, q7, q8) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?);"); mysqli_stmt_bind_param($proc, "issiiiiiiii", $respondent_id, $ip, $browser, $q1, $q2, $q3, $q4, $q5, $q6, $q7, $q8); mysqli_stmt_execute($proc); $mysql_error = mysqli_error($link); if ($mysql_error!="") { printf("Unexpected database error: %s\n", $mysql_error); mysqli_stmt_close($proc); mysqli_clean_connection($link); exit(); } else { mysqli_stmt_close($proc); mysqli_clean_connection($link); update_completion_status($respondent_id, 'Started'); header("Location: page2.php?r=".$rguid); } } This code works a treat - no problem. At the moment, that code appears on a 'save' page that relates to a 'form' page (i.e. if I have 5 .php pages with a form on each, I need 5 save.php pages to save each pages data to the database) to save data to my SQL database. What I would like is to have a single save.php page that will work with as many 'form' pages as I have. So instead of manually having to setup and change each save page, it automates it. I've no idea of the coding to do this, though I suspect something like a foreacg or loop etc. Any suggestions? Thanks, Homer.

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  • Terminating a long-executing thread and then starting a new one in response to user changing parameters via UI in an applet

    - by user1817170
    I have an applet which creates music using the JFugue API and plays it for the user. It allows the user to input a music phrase which the piece will be based on, or lets them choose to have a phrase generated randomly. I had been using the following method (successfully) to simply stop and start the music, which runs in a thread using the Player class from JFugue. I generate the music using my classes and user input from the applet GUI...then... private playerThread pthread; private Thread threadPlyr; private Player player; (from variables declaration) public void startMusic(Pattern p) // pattern is a JFugue object which holds the generated music { if (pthread == null) { pthread = new playerThread(); } else { pthread = null; pthread = new playerThread(); } if (threadPlyr == null) { threadPlyr = new Thread(pthread); } else { threadPlyr = null; threadPlyr = new Thread(pthread); } pthread.setPattern(p); threadPlyr.start(); } class playerThread implements Runnable // plays midi using jfugue Player { private Pattern pt; public void setPattern(Pattern p) { pt = p; } @Override public void run() { try { player.play(pt); // takes a couple mins or more to execute resetGUI(); } catch (Exception exception) { } } } And the following to stop music when user presses the stop/start button while Player.isPlaying() is true: public void stopMusic() { threadPlyr.interrupt(); threadPlyr = null; pthread = null; player.stop(); } Now I want to implement a feature which will allow the user to change parameters while the music is playing, create an updated music pattern, and then play THAT pattern. Basically, the idea is to make it simulate "real time" adjustments to the generated music for the user. Well, I have been beating my head against the wall on this for a couple of weeks. I've read all the standard java documentation, researched, read, and searched forums, and I have tried many different ideas, none of which have succeeded. The problem I've run into with all approaches I've tried is that when I start the new thread with the new, updated musical pattern, all the old threads ALSO start, and there is a cacophony of unintelligible noise instead of my desired output. From what I've gathered, the issue seems to be that all the methods I've come across require that the thread is able to periodically check the value of a "flag" variable and then shut itself down from within its "run" block in response to that variable. However, since my thread makes a call that takes several minutes minimum to execute (playing the music), and I need to terminate it WHILE it is executing this, there is really no safe way to do so. So, I'm wondering if there is something I'm missing when it comes to threads, or if perhaps I can accomplish my goal using a totally different approach. Any ideas or guidance is greatly appreciated! Thank you!

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  • Entity Framework: An object with the same key already exists in the objectstatemanager

    - by NealR
    I see that this question has been asked a lot, however I haven't found anything yet that solves the problem I'm having. Obviously i'm using the Entity Framework to perform an update to a record. Once the updates are complete, however, whenever I try to save I get the following error message: An object with the same key already exists in the objectstatemanager At first I was passing in a collection object from the view that contained a copy of the the ZipCodeTerritory model object zipToUpdate. I changed the code by pulling this object out and just sending in the relevant fields instead. However, I'm still getting the same error. What's also weird is the first time I run this code, it works fine. Any attempt after that I get the error. Controller Here is the code from the method calling the edit function public static string DescriptionOnly(ZipCodeIndex updateZip) { if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(updateZip.newEffectiveDate) || !string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(updateZip.newEndDate)) { return "Neither effective or end date can be present if updating Territory Code only; "; } _updated = 0; foreach (var zipCode in updateZip.displayForPaging.Where(x => x.Update)) { ProcessAllChanges(zipCode, updateZip.newTerritory, updateZip.newStateCode, updateZip.newDescription, updateZip.newChannelCode); } _msg += _updated + " record(s) updated; "; return _msg; } And here is the method that actually does the updating. private static void ProcessAllChanges(ZipCodeTerritory zipToUpdate, string newTerritory, string newStateCode, string newDescription, string newChannelCode) { try { if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newTerritory)) zipToUpdate.IndDistrnId = newTerritory; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newStateCode)) zipToUpdate.StateCode = newStateCode; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newDescription)) zipToUpdate.DrmTerrDesc = newDescription; if (!string.IsNullOrWhiteSpace(newChannelCode)) zipToUpdate.ChannelCode = newChannelCode; if (zipToUpdate.EndDate == DateTime.MinValue) zipToUpdate.EndDate = DateTime.MaxValue; _db.Entry(zipToUpdate).State = EntityState.Modified; _db.SaveChanges(); _updated++; } catch (DbEntityValidationException dbEx) { _msg += "Error during update; "; EventLog.WriteEntry("Monet", "Error during ProcessAllChanges: " + zipToUpdate.ToString() + " |EX| " + dbEx.Message); } catch (Exception ex) { _msg += "Error during update; "; EventLog.WriteEntry("Monet", "Error during ProcessAllChanges: " + zipToUpdate.ToString() + " |MESSAGE| " + ex.Message); } } EDIT The ZipCodeIndex object contains a list of ZipCodeTerritory model objects. These aren't being pulled from a linq query, but instead simply passed back to the controller from the view. Here is the signature of the controller method that starts the process: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Update(ZipCodeIndex updateZip, string button)

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  • Python - 2 Questions: Editing a variable in a function and changing the order of if else statements

    - by Eric
    First of all, I should explain what I'm trying to do first. I'm creating a dungeon crawler-like game, and I'm trying to program the movement of computer characters/monsters in the map. The map is basically a Cartesian coordinate grid. The locations of characters are represented by tuples of the x and y values, (x,y). The game works by turns, and in a turn a character can only move up, down, left or right 1 space. I'm creating a very simple movement system where the character will simply make decisions to move on a turn by turn basis. Essentially a 'forgetful' movement system. A basic flow chart of what I'm intending to do: Find direction towards destination Make a priority list of movements to be done using the direction eg.('r','u','d','l') means it would try to move right first, then up, then down, then left. Try each of the possibilities following the priority order. If the first movement fails (blocked by obstacle etc.), then it would successively try the movements until the first one that is successful, then it would stop. At step 3, the way I'm trying to do it is like this: def move(direction,location): try: -snip- # Tries to move, raises the exception Movementerror if cannot move in the direction return 1 # Indicates movement successful except Movementerror: return 0 # Indicates movement unsuccessful (thus character has not moved yet) prioritylist = ('r','u','d','l') if move('r',location): pass elif move('u',location): pass elif move('d',location): pass elif move('l',location): pass else: pass In the if/else block, the program would try the first movement on the priority on the priority list. At the move function, the character would try to move. If the character is not blocked and does move, it returns 1, leading to the pass where it would stop. If the character is blocked, it returns 0, then it tries the next movement. However, this results in 2 problems: How do I edit a variable passed into a function inside the function itself, while returning if the edit is successful? I have been told that you can't edit a variable inside a function as it won't really change the value of the variable, it just makes the variable inside the function refer to something else while the original variable remain unchanged. So, the solution is to return the value and then assign the variable to the returned value. However, I want it to return another value indicating if this edit is successful, so I want to edit this variable inside the function itself. How do I do so? How do I change the order of the if/else statements to follow the order of the priority list? It needs to be able to change during runtime as the priority list can change resulting in a different order of movement to try.

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  • Single entity with single view or two views in mvc3 vs2010?

    - by user2905798
    I have the following entity model public class Employee { public int Employee ID{get;set;} public string employeename{get;set;} public datetime employeeDOb{get;set;} public datetime? employeeDateOfJoin{get;set;} public string empFamilyname{get;set;} public datetime empFamilyDob{get;set;} } here I have to design a view for collecting employee information and employee family information. Since I am working on already available data, where in empFamilyDob was not mandatory. But now it is being made mandatory, the previous data doesn't contain EmpFamilyDob. So naturally I have added this new property EmpFamilyDob to the Model and made it required through DataAnnotations. Now there are two set of views to be developed. 1. A view which simply allows to collect the employee information without employee family information. i.e, empFamilyName and EmpFamilyDob.--This view is used by the Hr section to insert empplyee details Since the empFamilyname and EmpFamilyDob being now made mandatory, some other section will edit the data and update the EmpFamilyName and EmpFamilyDob as and when the information about employee family details are received. I have action controller for CreateNew and Edit Which is being generated by using the default model. There are two user actions being performed. 1.When the user clicks the Create new -- he will be able to update only the Employee information 2.As and when the other section receives the employee family details they update the familyname and family date of birth. i.e, EmployeeFamilyname and EmployeFamilyDob. While creating new record the uses should be able to update employee information only and while editing the information he should be able to update the employeefamily information. Since I have a single view with most of these fields as required and not allowing null , How can I achieve this in a sincle view? I have recorrected the model like this public class Employee { public int Employee ID{get;set;} public string employeename{get;set;} public datetime employeeDOb{get;set;} public datetime? employeeDateOfJoin{get;set;} public string empFamilyname{get;set;} public datetime? empFamilyDob{get;set;} } Now by default I hope the createnew action would insert null value for empFamilyname(string datatype) and empFamilyDob . In the Edit action the user should be made to enter empFamilyname and empFamilyDob(mandatory). As there is every chance that the user might edit other information about the employee(like employeeDob) I don't want to go for partial views. Can you help me out with some illustration. Thanks in advance

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  • How do I overlay text on an image who's size is to be set?

    - by Mike
    I am trying to make a bar chart using tables, which I have almost accomplished to my liking. The last step I want is text over my image which represents the bar. Here is the code I have thus far for building my little bar charts: $height = 50; //build length $width = 450; $multi = $brewAvg / 5; $width = $width * $multi; print " <tr > <td > $count. <a href=\"$breweryURL\"> $brewR</a> </td> <td > <img src=\"blueBar.png\" width=\"$width\" height=\"$height\"> </td> </tr> "; And this produces something like this: You can see in the code how I simply calculate the length of the bar based on a breweries rating. What I want to do next is have the rating number show on top of each breweries on the left hand side. How would I go about accomplishing this? Update: I tried a tutorial I read here: http://www.kavoir.com/2009/02/css-text-over-image.html and I changed my code to this: print "<div class=\"overlay\"> "; print " <tr valign=\"middle\" > <td > $count. <a href=\"$breweryURL\"> $brewR</a> </td> <td > <img src=\"blueBar.png\" width=\"$width\" height=\"$height\"> </td> </tr> "; print" <div class=\"text\"> <p> $brewAvg </p> </div> </div> "; And my css I added was this: <style> .overlay { position:relative; float:left; /* optional */ } .overlay .text { position:absolute; top:10px; /* in conjunction with left property, decides the text position */ left:10px; width:300px; /* optional, though better have one */ } </style> And it did put any of the value son top of my images. All the text is in a list above all the bars like this:

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  • VB.Net 2008 IDE hanging - MSVB7.dll eating 100% CPU when editing code

    - by Andrew Backer
    I am having a problem with msvb7.dll eating 50%+ cpu on my dual core system. This usually lasts 10-30 seconds or so, during which time the IDE is non-responsive. This occurs when I do pretty much anything in the text editor, and can be replicated by simply adding blank lines to a function, and then deleting them. Or pasting some code. Or... lotsa stuff. SP1 installed I had DevExpress' refactor/coderush, components, and codeit.right installed, but have removed all 3 of them. (I had installed the latest version of Refactor Pro! (9.3.4), perhaps the day before) I have tried a VS.NET Repair. There is a kb that referenced some cpu destroying with vb, but it was included in SP1 Also: The solution consists of ~30 VB projects and 2 C# projects 8 other developers aren't having any issues with this (or at least not the SAME issues, we all have em) Clean get from TFS was done Project builds properly, can can even debug. This doesn't seem to happen on really small solutions, but perhaps it does and it just goes away super quick. Any clues at all as to what might be causing this, or how to fix it? I REALLY don't want to lose another day uninstalling and reinstalling and patching and so on =) If that even fixes it. Here is the stack trace (process explorer) that I get from the threads window when the msvb7.dll is churning. --- title in process explorer [threads] tab for process -------- cpu:49.28% cswitch delta: 300 to 3500 startaddress: [msvb7.dll+0x4218c] msvb7.dll version: 9.0.30729.1 --- actual stack trace ------- ntkrnlpa.exe!KiUnexpectedInterrupt+0x121 ntkrnlpa.exe!ZwYieldExecution+0x1c56 ntkrnlpa.exe!KiDispatchInterrupt+0x72e NDIS.sys!NdisFreeToBlockPool+0x15e1 // shortened stack trace. all of these are from msvb7, msvb7.dll+0x46ce7 <- 0x2676a <- 0x2698e <- 0x38031 <- 0x2659f <- 0x26644 msvb7.dll+0x25f29 <- 0x2ac7a <- 0x27522 <- 0x274a0 <- 0x2b5ce <- 0x2b6e4 msvb7.dll+0x67d0a <- 0x68551 <- 0x6817b <- 0x681f0 <- 0x67c38 <- 0x65fa8 msvb7.dll+0x666c6 <- 0x6672c <- 0x6673d <- 0x6677c <- 0x667b4 <- 0x63c77 msvb7.dll+0x63e97 <- 0x42c3a <- 0x42bc1 <- 0x41bd7 kernel32.dll!GetModuleFileNameA+0x1b4 This is the list of stuff from "copy info" in help-about, shortened to a resonable length. Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 | Version 9.0.30729.1 SP Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Professional Edition - ENU Service Pack 1 (KB945140) KB945140 Microsoft .NET Framework | Version 3.5 SP1 Microsoft Visual Basic 2008 Microsoft Visual C# 2008 Microsoft Visual F# for Visual Studio 2008 Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Team Explorer | Version 9.0.30729.1 Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Tools for Office Microsoft Visual Web Developer 2008 Hotfix for Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Professional Edition - ENU KB944899, KB945282, KB946040, KB946308, KB946344, KB946581, KB947171 KB947173, KB947180, KB947540, KB947789, KB948127, KB946260, KB946458, KB948816 Microsoft Recipe Framework Package 8.0 Process Editor WIT Designer 1.4.0.0 Process Editor for Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server, Version 1.4.0.0 tangible T4 Editor 9.0 tangible T4 Text Template Editor - T4 Editor tangibleprojectsystem 1.0 Team Foundation Server Power Tools October 2008 SQL Prompt 4.0 (disabled)

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  • XNA 4.0 draw a cube with DrawUserIndexedPrimitives method [on hold]

    - by Leggy7
    EDIT Since I read what Mark H suggested (thanks a lot, I found it very useful) I think my question can become clearer structured this way: Using XNA 4.0, I'm trying to draw a cube. Im using this method: GraphicsDevice.DrawUserIndexedPrimitives<VertexPositionColor>( PrimitiveType.LineList, primitiveList, 0, // vertex buffer offset to add to each element of the index buffer 8, // number of vertices in pointList lineListIndices, // the index buffer 0, // first index element to read 7 // number of primitives to draw ); I got the code sample from this page which simply draw a serie of triangles. I want to modify this code in order to draw a cube. I was able to slitghly move the camera so I can have the perception of solidity, I set the vertex array to contain the 8 points defining a cube. But I can't fully understand how many primitives I have to draw (last parameter) for each of PrimitiveType. So, I wasn't able to draw the cube (just some of the edges in a non-defined order). More in detail: to build the vertex index list, the sample used // Initialize an array of indices of type short. lineListIndices = new short[(points * 2) - 2]; // Populate the array with references to indices in the vertex buffer for (int i = 0; i < points - 1; i++) { lineListIndices[i * 2] = (short)(i); lineListIndices[(i * 2) + 1] = (short)(i + 1); } I'm ashamed to say I cannot do the same in the case of a cube. what has to be the size of the lineListIndices? how should I populate it? In which order? And how do these things change when I use a different PrimitiveType? In the code sample there are also another couple of calls which I cannot fully understand, which are: // Initialize the vertex buffer, allocating memory for each vertex. vertexBuffer = new VertexBuffer(graphics.GraphicsDevice, vertexDeclaration, points, BufferUsage.None); // Set the vertex buffer data to the array of vertices. vertexBuffer.SetData<VertexPositionColor>(pointList); and vertexDeclaration = new VertexDeclaration(new VertexElement[] { new VertexElement(0, VertexElementFormat.Vector3, VertexElementUsage.Position, 0), new VertexElement(12, VertexElementFormat.Color, VertexElementUsage.Color, 0) } ); that is, for VertexBuffer and VertexDeclaration I could not find and significant (monkey-like) guide. I reported them too because I think they could be involded in understanding things. I think I also have to understand something related to the order the vertexes are stored in the array. But actually I have no clue of what I should learn to have this function drawing a cube. So, if anybody could point me to the right direction, it wil be appreciated. Hope to have made myself clear this time

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  • Why does Cacti keep waiting for dead poller processes?

    - by Oliver Salzburg
    sorry for the length I am currently setting up a new Debian (6.0.5) server. I put Cacti (0.8.7g) on it yesterday and have been battling with it ever since. Initial issue The initial issue I was observing, was that my graphs weren't updating. So I checked my cacti.log and found this concerning message: POLLER: Poller[0] Maximum runtime of 298 seconds exceeded. Exiting. That can't be good, right? So I went checking and started poller.php myself (via sudo -u www-data php poller.php --force). It will pump out a lot of message (which all look like what I would expect) and then hang for a minute. After that 1 minute, it will loop the following message: Waiting on 1 of 1 pollers. This goes on for 4 more minutes until the process is forcefully ended for running longer than 300s. So far so good I went on for a good hour trying to determine what poller might still be running, until I got to the conclusion that there simply is no running poller. Debugging I checked poller.php to see how that warning is issued and why. On line 368, Cacti will retrieve the number of finished processes from the database and use that value to calculate how many processes are still running. So, let's see that value! I added the following debug code into poller.php: print "Finished: " . $finished_processes . " - Started: " . $started_processes . "\n"; Result This will print the following within seconds of starting poller.php: Finished: 0 - Started: 1 Waiting on 1 of 1 pollers. Finished: 1 - Started: 1 So the values are being read and are valid. Until we get to the part where it keeps looping: Finished: - Started: 1 Waiting on 1 of 1 pollers. Suddenly, the value is gone. Why? Putting var_dump() in there confirms the issue: NULL Finished: - Started: 1 Waiting on 1 of 1 pollers. The return value is NULL. How can that be when querying SELECT COUNT()...? (SELECT COUNT() should always return one result row, shouldn't it?) More debugging So I went into lib\database.php and had a look at that db_fetch_cell(). A bit of testing confirmed, that the result set is actually empty. So I added my own database query code in there to see what that would do: $finished_processes = db_fetch_cell("SELECT count(*) FROM poller_time WHERE poller_id=0 AND end_time>'0000-00-00 00:00:00'"); print "Finished: " . $finished_processes . " - Started: " . $started_processes . "\n"; $mysqli = new mysqli("localhost","cacti","cacti","cacti"); $result = $mysqli->query("SELECT COUNT(*) FROM poller_time WHERE poller_id=0 AND end_time>'0000-00-00 00:00:00';"); $row = $result->fetch_assoc(); var_dump( $row ); This will output Finished: - Started: 1 array(1) { ["COUNT(*)"]=> string(1) "2" } Waiting on 1 of 1 pollers. So, the data is there and can be accessed without any problems, just not with the method Cacti is using? Double-check that! I enabled MySQL logging to make sure I'm not imagining things. Sure enough, when the error message is looped, the cacti.log reads as if it was querying like mad: 06/29/2012 08:44:00 PM - CMDPHP: Poller[0] DEVEL: SQL Cell: "SELECT count(*) FROM cacti.poller_time WHERE poller_id=0 AND end_time>'0000-00-00 00:00:00'" 06/29/2012 08:44:01 PM - CMDPHP: Poller[0] DEVEL: SQL Cell: "SELECT count(*) FROM cacti.poller_time WHERE poller_id=0 AND end_time>'0000-00-00 00:00:00'" 06/29/2012 08:44:02 PM - CMDPHP: Poller[0] DEVEL: SQL Cell: "SELECT count(*) FROM cacti.poller_time WHERE poller_id=0 AND end_time>'0000-00-00 00:00:00'" But none of these queries are logged my MySQL. Yet, when I add my own database query code, it shows up just fine. What the heck is going on here?

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  • HTTP 500 Internal Server Error on IIS 7.5 with MVC3

    - by Tor Haugen
    I am trying to install an MVC3 application on our production server with no luck. The application is from a 3rd party (compiled), and so debugging is not available to me. Besides, I strongly suspect the error occurs before any code in the site has a chance to execute. Our staging server is - as far as I can determine - set up excactly like the production server. Both run Windows Server 2008 Standard R2, both also run a Sharepoint 2010 site (though this install doesn't touch that in any way). IIS is version 7.5, and .NET Framework 4.0 (required by the MVC app) is (recently) installed (by me, with a reboot after). The application is very small and simple and, as far as I can tell sticks to fairly standard functionality - including forms authentication (ie. it doesnt' pull any dirty tricks). The error message shown in the browser is very general: HTTP Error 500.0 - Internal Server Error An error message detailing the cause of this specific request failure can be found in the application event log of the web server. Please review this log entry to discover what caused this error to occur. The bit about 'An error message detailing the cause' being in the application event log seems to be just speculation - a pious hope that whatever code actually caused the error will log it. Nothing useful is to be found in the event log (only the very same message, logged by IIS). Module: AspNetInitClrHostFailureModule Notification: BeginRequest Handler: StaticFile Error Code: 0x80070002 Requested URL: http://xxxxxx.xxxxxx.xx:80/ Physical Path: C:\Xxxxxxx\Prod\WebClient Logon Method: Not yet determined Logon User: Not yet determined Using Failed Request Tracing, I have been able to track the error (as also indicated above) to the AspNetInitClrHostFailureModule: 103. -NOTIFY_MODULE_START ModuleName AspNetInitClrHostFailureModule Notification 1 fIsPostNotification false Notification BEGIN_REQUEST 104. -SET_RESPONSE_ERROR_DESCRIPTION ErrorDescription An error message detailing the cause of this specific request failure can be found in the application event log of the web server. Please review this log entry to discover what caused this error to occur. 105. -MODULE_SET_RESPONSE_ERROR_STATUS ModuleName AspNetInitClrHostFailureModule Notification 1 HttpStatus 500 HttpReason Internal Server Error HttpSubStatus 0 ErrorCode 2147942402 ConfigExceptionInfo Notification BEGIN_REQUEST ErrorCode The system cannot find the file specified. (0x80070002) So there you have it. Seemingly, the AspNetInitClrHostFailureModule fails to find some file. So some questions are: What is the AspNetInitClrHostFailureModule? It is not listed in the fairly exhausting list of modules configurable in IIS manager for the site. I have had no success googling it either. Maybe it's secret.. I access the root URL of the site. This is supposed to be redirected to /Account/LogOn by the FormsAuthenticationModule. Why then is the handler StaticFile? Is that a clue? I have tried removing the infamous system.webserver/modules/runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests attribute, and that makes the error go away (but MVC not actually working, of course). I am prepared to specify all necessary modules manually if that's what it takes, but if the AspNetInitClrHostFailureModule is actually needed, I will be just as stuck. Does anyone know, or can anyone direct me to someone who knows, exactly what modules a typical MVC3 application actually needs? This question might well be a duplicate of this one, but he didn't get any useful answer, and also asked less specific questions. So I'll have my own go. Hoping for some help here :) Edit: I have now tried setting up a trivial MVC 3 project on the server. I created a new project using the MVC Application template, compiled it and deployed it to the server. It behaves in exactly the same way. The server simply cannot run MVC 3 projects.

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  • Strange DNS issue with internal Windows DNS

    - by Brady
    I've encountered a strange issue with our internal Windows DNS infrastructure. We have a website hosted on Amazon EC2 with the DNS running on Amazon Route 53. In the publicly facing DNS we have the wildcard record setup as an A record Alias pointing to an AWS Elastic Load Balancer sitting in front of our EC2 instances. For those who are not aware, the A record Alias behaves like a CNAME record, however no extra lookup is required on the client side (See http://docs.amazonwebservices.com/Route53/latest/DeveloperGuide/CreatingAliasRRSets.html for more information). We have a secondary domain that has the www subdomain as a CNAME pointing to a subdomain on the primary domain, which resolves against the wildcard entry. For example the subdomain www.secondary.com is a CNAME to sub1.primary.com, but there is no explicit entry for sub1.primary.com, so it resolves to wildcard record. This setup work without issue publicly. The issue comes in our internal DNS at our corporate office where we use the same primary domain for some internal only facing sites. In this setup we have two Active Directory DNS servers with one Server 2003 and one Server 2008 R2 instance. The zone is an AD integrated zone, but it is not the AD domain. In the internal DNS we have the wildcard record pointing to a third external domain, that is also hosted on Route 53 with an A record Alias pointing to the same ELB instance. For example, *.primary.com is a CNAME to tertiary.com, so in effect you have www.secondary.com as a CNAME to *.primary.com, which is a CNAME to tertiary.com. In this setup, attempting to resolve www.secondary.com will fail. Clearing the cache on the Server 2003 instance will allow it to resolve once, but subsequent attempts will fail. It fails even with a clean cache against the 2008 R2 server. It seems that only Windows clients are affected. A Mac running OSX Mountain Lion does not experience this issue. I'm even able to replicate the issue using nslookup. Against the 2003 server, with a freshly cleaned cache, I recieve the appropriate response from www.secondary.com: Non-authoritative answer: Name: subdomain.primary.com Address: x.x.x.x (Public IP) Aliases: www.secondary.com Subsequent checks simply return: Non-authoritative answer: Name: www.secondary.com If you set the type to CNAME you get the appropriate responses all the time. www.secondary.com gives you: Non-authoritative answer: www.secondary.com canonical name = subdomain.primary.com And subdomain.primary.com gives you: subdomain.primary.com canonical name = tertiary.com And setting type back to A gives you the appropriate response for tertiary.com: Non-authoritative answer: Name: tertiary.com Address: x.x.x.x (Public IP) Against the 2008 R2 server things are a little different. Even with a clean cache, www.secondary.com returns just: Non-authoritative answer: Name: www.secondary.com The CNAME records are returned appropriately. www.secondary.com returns: Non-authoritative answer: www.secondary.com canonical name = subdomain.primary.com And subdomain.primary.com gives you: subdomain.primary.com canonical name = tertiary.com tertiary.com internet address = x.x.x.x (Public IP) tertiary.com AAAA IPv6 address = x::x (Public IPv6) And setting type back to A gives you the appropriate response for tertiary.com: Non-authoritative answer: Name: tertiary.com Address: x.x.x.x (Public IP) Requests directly against subdomain.primary.com work correctly.

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