Search Results

Search found 13313 results on 533 pages for 'hit count'.

Page 414/533 | < Previous Page | 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421  | Next Page >

  • Setting "submit"

    - by user361626
    Driving me a bit nuts this one, have tried alsorts of combination's... At the top of my file I have PHP Code: if (!ISSET ($_POST['submit'])) which tests if the submit has been hit, if not displays the form.... What I'd like to be able to to is generate a link that would be processed directly by the php code that the form would normally be submitted to... (does that make sense ?) so a generated link in the code looks like .. PHP Code: echo '<a href="index.php?submit&s_type=' . $s_type . '&d_height=' . $d_height . '&j_ref=' . $j_ref . '&j_name=' . j_name . '">' . $j_ref . '</a>'; The link generated looks like .. HTML Code: index.php?s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name I have tried setting "submit" with links like HTML Code: index.php?submit=submit&s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name index.php?submit&s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name How do I create a link that sets "submit so it gets processed rather than going through the form ???

    Read the article

  • Where does the delete control go in my Cocoa user interface?

    - by Graham Lee
    Hi, I have a Cocoa application managing a collection of objects. The collection is presented in an NSCollectionView, with a "new object" button nearby so users can add to the collection. Of course, I know that having a "delete object" button next to that button would be dangerous, because people might accidentally knock it when they mean to create something. I don't like having "are you sure you want to..." dialogues, so I dispensed with the "delete object". There's a menu item under Edit for removing an object, and you can hit Cmd-backspace to do the same. The app supports undoing delete actions. Now I'm getting support emails ranging from "does it have to be so hard to delete things" to "why can't I delete objects?". That suggests I've made it a bit too hard, so what's the happy middle ground? I see applications from Apple that do it my way, or with the add/remove buttons next to each other, but I hate that latter option. Is there another good (and preferably common) convention for delete controls? I thought about an action menu but I don't think I have any other actions that would go in it, rendering the menu a bit thin.

    Read the article

  • Battery drains even with app off screen, could it be Location Services doing it?

    - by John Jorsett
    I run my app, which uses GPS and Bluetooth, then hit the back button so it goes off screen. I verified via LogCat that the app's onDestroy was called. OnDestroy removes the location listeners and shuts down my app's Bluetooth service. I look at the phone 8 hours later and half the battery charge has been consumed, and my app was responsible according the phone's Battery Use screen. If I use the phone's Settings menu to Force Stop the app, this doesn't occur. So my question is: do I need to do something more than remove the listeners to stop Location Services from consuming power? That's the only thing I can think of that would be draining the battery to that degree when the app is supposedly dormant. Here's my onStart() where I turn on the location-related stuff and Bluetooth: @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); if(D_GEN) Log.d(TAG, "MainActivity onStart, adding location listeners"); // If BT is not on, request that it be enabled. // setupBluetooth() will then be called during onActivityResult if (!mBluetoothAdapter.isEnabled()) { Intent enableIntent = new Intent(BluetoothAdapter.ACTION_REQUEST_ENABLE); startActivityForResult(enableIntent, REQUEST_ENABLE_BT); // Otherwise, setup the Bluetooth session } else { if (mBluetoothService == null) setupBluetooth(); } // Define listeners that respond to location updates mLocationManager = (LocationManager) this.getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); mLocationManager.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, GPS_UPDATE_INTERVAL, 0, this); mLocationManager.addGpsStatusListener(this); mLocationManager.addNmeaListener(this); } And here's my onDestroy() where I remove them: public void onDestroy() { super.onDestroy(); if(D_GEN) Log.d(TAG, "MainActivity onDestroy, removing update listeners"); // Remove the location updates if(mLocationManager != null) { mLocationManager.removeUpdates(this); mLocationManager.removeGpsStatusListener(this); mLocationManager.removeNmeaListener(this); } if(D_GEN) Log.d(TAG, "MainActivity onDestroy, finished removing update listeners"); if(D_GEN) Log.d(TAG, "MainActivity onDestroy, stopping Bluetooth"); stopBluetooth(); if(D_GEN) Log.d(TAG, "MainActivity onDestroy finished"); }

    Read the article

  • IPhone - Memory Management problems.

    - by user321721
    i am going over my code and trying to get a handle on proper memory management. This code: imageView = [[[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:myImage] autorelease]; causes my application to crash. I am using multiple view controllers within a nav bar controller. The app works fine, i cant select a person from the first view controller (tableview) and it puts me to a list of that persons photos, i can then select a photo from that view controller (tableview) and move to a final view with a scrollview for viewing the photo. Once i hit back on the navbar the previous view loads (list of photos in a tableview) however the app crashes right before the row is deselected using this code: (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; if(RowSelected != nil) { [MainTableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:RowSelected animated:YES]; } } Row selected is stored when a the user clicks a row. If i leave the code as : imageView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:myImage]; The app runs fine. Am i doing something wrong? do i not need to autorelease this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Parsing URL error

    - by user577875
    It didn't seem like there was a post about this, so here goes. I've been working on a simple app to grab my time table from my school, and get it on my phone. Currently I'm working on the port on android but I've hit an issue. I get the error: java.io.IOException: -1 error loading URL urladress. Code: public void updateTimeTable(){ //Get UID and Birthday SharedPreferences prefs = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(getBaseContext()); String uid = prefs.getString("uid", "000000"); String fods = prefs.getString("fodsdag", "000000"); //Set URL String url = "http://unv1.aalborg-stu.dk/cgi-bin/elevskema.pl?ugen=0&unavn=" + uid + "&fodsdag=" + fods; try { Document doc = Jsoup.connect(url).get(); Elements td = doc.getElementsByTag("td"); //ArrayList<String> tdArray = new ArrayList<String>(); // for (Element tds : td) { // String tdText = tds.text(); // tdArray.add(tdText); //} //String[] data = tdArray.toArray(new String[tdArray.size()]); } catch (IOException e ){ Log.e("Parser", "shite", e); } Context context = getApplicationContext(); CharSequence text = url; int duration = Toast.LENGTH_SHORT; Toast toast = Toast.makeText(context, text, duration); toast.show(); } I've commented some lines out to identify where the issue is, and it seems it's at the actual parsing. Anywho, screenshot of the error I get: Screenshot I got about 4 days worth of Java experience so forgive me if it's something silly. Best Regards

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net event only being raised every other time?

    - by eftpotrm
    I have an ASP.Net web user control which represents a single entry in a list. To allow users to reorder the items, each item has buttons to move the item up or down the list. Clicking on one of these raises an event to the parent page, which then shuffles the items in the placeholder control. Code fragments from the list entry: Public Event UpClicked As System.EventHandler Protected Sub btnUp_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnUp.Click RaiseEvent UpClicked(Me, New EventArgs()) End Sub And the parent container: rem (within the code to add an individual item to the placeholder) AddHandler l_oItem.UpClicked, AddressOf UpClicked Protected Sub UpClicked(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) MoveItem(DirectCast(sender, ScriptListItem), -1) End Sub It originally looked in testing like every other time the value for sender (verified by its properties) that reaches UpClicked is of an adjacent ListItem, not the one I've just clicked on - the first click is always wrong, then the second for the correct control. At present, testing appears to show that the button's click event is just being ignored every other time through. Breakpoints on the click events within the control simply aren't being hit, though the events are definitely being established. Why?

    Read the article

  • Unit Testing an Event Firing From a Thread

    - by Dougc
    I'm having a problem unit testing a class which fires events when a thread starts and finishes. A cut down version of the offending source is as follows: public class ThreadRunner { private bool keepRunning; public event EventHandler Started; public event EventHandler Finished; public void StartThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = true; var thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.LongRunningMethod)); thread.Start(); } public void FinishThreadTest() { this.keepRunning = false; } protected void OnStarted() { if (this.Started != null) this.Started(this, new EventArgs()); } protected void OnFinished() { if (this.Finished != null) this.Finished(this, new EventArgs()); } private void LongRunningMethod() { this.OnStarted(); while (this.keepRunning) Thread.Sleep(100); this.OnFinished(); } } I then have a test to check that the Finished event fires after the LongRunningMethod has finished as follows: [TestClass] public class ThreadRunnerTests { [TestMethod] public void CheckFinishedEventFiresTest() { var threadTest = new ThreadRunner(); bool finished = false; object locker = new object(); threadTest.Finished += delegate(object sender, EventArgs e) { lock (locker) { finished = true; Monitor.Pulse(locker); } }; threadTest.StartThreadTest(); threadTest.FinishThreadTest(); lock (locker) { Monitor.Wait(locker, 1000); Assert.IsTrue(finished); } } } So the idea here being that the test will block for a maximum of one second - or until the Finish event is fired - before checking whether the finished flag is set. Clearly I've done something wrong as sometimes the test will pass, sometimes it won't. Debugging seems very difficult as well as the breakpoints I'd expect to be hit (the OnFinished method, for example) don't always seem to be. I'm assuming this is just my misunderstanding of the way threading works, so hopefully someone can enlighten me.

    Read the article

  • Glassfish complaining about JSF component IDs

    - by Brian
    Hello All I am very new to JSF (v2.0) and I am attempting to learn it at places like netbeans.org and coreservlets.com. I am working on a very simple "add/subtract/multiply/divide" Java webapp and I have run into a problem. When I first started out, the application was enter two numbers and hit a '+' key and they would be automatically added together. Now that I have added more complexity I am having trouble getting the operation to the managed bean. This is what I had when it was just "add": <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number01" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number01}" /> <h:inputText styleClass="display" id="number02" size="4" maxlength="3" value="#{Calculator.number02}" /> <h:commandButton id="add" action="answer" value="+" /> For the "answer" page, I display the answer like this: <h:outputText value="#{Calculator.answer}" /> I had the proper getters and setters in the Calculator.java managed bean and the operation worked perfectly. Now I have added the other three operations and I am having trouble visualizing how to get the operation parameter to the bean so that I can switch around it. I tried this: <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="+" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="-" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="*" /> <h:commandButton id="operation" action="answer" value="/" /> However, Glassfish complained that I have already used "operation" once and I am trying to use it four times here. Any adivce/tips on how to get multiple operations to the managed bean so that it can preform the desired operation? Thank you for taking the time to read.

    Read the article

  • [Apache] Creating rewrite rules for multiple urls in the same folder

    - by DavidYell
    I have been asked by our client to convert a site we created into SEO friendly url format. I've managed to crack a small way into this, but have hit a problem with having the same urls in the same folder. I am trying to rewrite the following urls, /review/index.php?cid=intercasino /review/submit.php?cid=intercasino /review/index.php?cid=intercasino&page=2#reviews I would like to get them to, /review/intercasino /submit-review/intercasino /review/intercasino/2#reviews I've almost got it working using the following rule, RewriteRule (submit-review)/(.*)$ review/submit.php?cid=$2 [L] RewriteRule (^review)/(.*) review/index.php?cid=$2 The problem, you may already see, is that /submit-review rewrites to /review, which in turn gets rewritten to index.php, thus my review submission page is lost in place of my index page. I figured that putting [L] would prevent the second rule being called, but it seems that it rewrites both urls in two seperate passes. I've also tried [QSE], and [S=1] I would rather not have to move my files into different folders to get the rewriting to work, as that just seems too much like bad practise. If anyone could give me some pointers on how to differentiate between these similar urls that would be great! Thanks (Ref: http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.0/mod/mod_rewrite.html)

    Read the article

  • GetIpAddrTable() leaks memory. How to resolve that?

    - by Stabledog
    On my Windows 7 box, this simple program causes the memory use of the application to creep up continuously, with no upper bound. I've stripped out everything non-essential, and it seems clear that the culprit is the Microsoft Iphlpapi function "GetIpAddrTable()". On each call, it leaks some memory. In a loop (e.g. checking for changes to the network interface list), it is unsustainable. There seems to be no async notification API which could do this job, so now I'm faced with possibly having to isolate this logic into a separate process and recycle the process periodically -- an ugly solution. Any ideas? // IphlpLeak.cpp - demonstrates that GetIpAddrTable leaks memory internally: run this and watch // the memory use of the app climb up continuously with no upper bound. #include <stdio.h> #include <windows.h> #include <assert.h> #include <Iphlpapi.h> #pragma comment(lib,"Iphlpapi.lib") void testLeak() { static unsigned char buf[16384]; DWORD dwSize(sizeof(buf)); if (GetIpAddrTable((PMIB_IPADDRTABLE)buf, &dwSize, false) == ERROR_INSUFFICIENT_BUFFER) { assert(0); // we never hit this branch. return; } } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { for ( int i = 0; true; i++ ) { testLeak(); printf("i=%d\n",i); Sleep(1000); } return 0; }

    Read the article

  • is it better to query database or grab from file? php & mysql

    - by pfunc
    I am keeping a large amount of words in a database that I want to match up articles to. I was thinking that it would just be better to keep these words in an array and grab that array whenever needed instead of querying the database every time (since the words won't be changing that much). Is there much performance difference in doing this? And if I were to do this, how to I write a script that writes the array to a a new php file. I tried writing the array like so: while( $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { $newArray[] = $row; } $fp = fopen('noWordsArr.php', 'w'); fwrite($fp, $newArray); fclose($fp); But all I get in the other file is "Array". So i figured I could write this and then write have a chron hit up the file every few days or so in case things have changed. But I guess if there is no performance advantage then it prob won't be necessary and I can just query the database every time I need to access the words.

    Read the article

  • Refresh page in browser without resubmitting form

    - by Michael
    I'm an ASP.NET developer, and I usually find myself leaving the webpage that I'm working on open in my browser (Chrome is my browser of choice, but this question is relevant for any browser). My workflow typically goes like this: I write code, I rebuild my project in Visual Studio, and then I flip back to my browser with Alt-Tab and hit F5 to refresh the page. This is fine and dandy if a form hasn't been submitted since the page was opened. But if I've been clicking around on ASP.NET form controls, the page has posted form data a number of times, so hitting F5 causes the browser to (sensibly) pop up a confirmation message, e.g., "Confirm Form Resubmission: The page that you're looking for used information that you entered...". Sometimes I do want to resubmit the form, but more often than not, I just want to start over with the page (rather than resubmit form data). The way I usually get around this is to simply add some query string data to the URL so that the browser sees it as a fresh page request, e.g.: page.aspx becomes page.aspx? (or vice-versa). My question is: Is there a better way to quickly request a fresh version of a webpage (and not submit form data) in any of the major browsers? It seems like a no-brainer to me for web development, but maybe I'm missing something. What I'd love to see is something like the last item in this list: F5: refresh page Ctrl-F5: refresh page (and force cache refresh) Alt-F5: request fresh copy of the page without resubmitting the form

    Read the article

  • Why won't my Setup Project Perform my Custom Registration Process

    - by Jordan S
    I am trying to write an Setup Project/Installer for a class library driver that I wrote in C# using Visual Studio 2008. The driver project has a section of code that looks like this... [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterASCOM(Type t) { Trace.WriteLine("Registration Started."); DoRegistration(true); } In the driver project Properties - "Assembly Information" I have set checked the box that says Make COM-Visible = true. I added a Setup Project to the solution in VS, added the output dll from the driver project so that it installs on the target machine and set the Register property of the dll to "vsdraCOM". So, my understanding is that when the installer runs it SHOULD execute the methods of the dll that are marked with [COMRegisterFunction]. Using SysInternals Debug View I can monitor when the above code snippet is hit by watching for the "Registration started" text to show up in the window. When I build the solution, I can see the text show up so I know the driver is registering properly. The problem is that when I run the installer, I don't think it is doing the registration bit. I see nothing show up in Debug View. And if i try to access my driver via another application I get an error saying it "Cannot create ActiveX object". Why does the registration not occur during the install process? The driver does register for COM but it does NOT call my custom registration method. Does anyone have and suggestions of what I could be missing? Is there another way I can debug this? (I can provide more code if anyone want's to take a look!!)

    Read the article

  • What are CDN Best Practices?

    - by Wild Thing
    Hi, I have recently started using the Rackspace Cloudfiles CDN (Limelight), about which I have some questions: I am using jQuery, jQuery UI and jQuery tools in addition to custom JS code. Also, my site is written in ASP.Net, which means there is some ASP.Net generated JS code. Right now what I have done is that I have combined all of the js (including the jquery code), except the ASP.Net generated JS into one file. I am hosting this on the Rackspace CDN. I am wondering if it would make more sense to just get the jQuery, jQuery UI files from the Google hosted CDN (which I suspect would work very well in serving these files, since they will be in many users' cache already)? This would mean one extra HTTP request, so I'm not sure if it'll help. Right now I have multiple containers for my assets. For example, in Rackspace I have 3 containers: JS, CSS and Images. The URL subdomain for all 3 is different. Will that lead to a performance penalty? Should I just use one container (and thus one domain for the CDN)? Is there a way of having the MS ASP.Net generated JS loaded from MS CDN? Would this have a performance hit as per the above question? Thanks in advance, WT

    Read the article

  • stripping random number with substr problem

    - by Jim
    Using a random number to be included with another character. Then I want to strip out the random number and just leave the other character. I have this code that generates the random number (8 characters long) consistently. If you hit your refresh button multiple times, the “ID” field disappears even though the “Random Number” plus “ID” are still there. Not sure what is happening to the random number on refresh in the substr function. This is the code: // Begin Create Random ID Code ///////////////////////////////////////// function gRanStr1() { $length1 = 8; $characters = “0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ”; for ($p = 0; $p < $length1; $p++) { $lcrs1 .= $characters[mt_rand(0, strlen($characters)-1)]; } $lcrs9 = str_replace(' ', '', $lcrs9); return $lcrs1; } // End Create Random ID Code ///////////////////////////////////////// // Begin Decode Random ID Code ///////////////////////////////////////// $TrkR99 = "c"; $ResHeadID = gRanStr1() . $TrkR99; $ResHeadID = preg_replace('/[\s]+/',' ',$ResHeadID); echo "”; echo $ResHeadID . ” = echo of Random Number plus ID“; for($i=0; $i if ($ResHeadID == "") { ""; } else { $ResHeadID = preg_replace('/[\s]+/',' ',$ResHeadID); $TrkRa1 = substr($ResHeadID, $Index1 + 8, 1); } $dTrkRes = $TrkRa1; echo $TrkRa1 . " = echo of ID after random number stripped.“; echo “”; // End Decode Random ID Code /////////////////////////////////////////

    Read the article

  • How do you use glFrustrum in OpenGL ES1 on iPhone

    - by Paul
    So I am using Xcode 3.2.1 and am trying to make an iPhone OpenGL ES1 project. The default template for an opengl project is ok, but I have been trying to split the code up so not everything is done per frame on the drawView() call. I have a seperate setupRC method that sets the lighting, turns on depth test, turns on culling and sets the clear color. This is called on the init of the EAGLView and this works just fine. I have took the glViewport() and glFrustrum() calls and put them at the end of the resizeFromLayer() method in the ES1Renderer.m file. This gets hit when the app starts and when the app gets resized as it should. Now the problem is the frustrum's far seems to be messed up, as in all my objects get cut / clipped off. I tried adjusting the camera position and angle and it still all objects are cut / clipped. I increased the far from 1000.0f to 30000.0f and still get the same result. What is crazy is that if i call both the glViewport() and glFrustrum() calls in the drawView() every frame everything looks right. Nothing is clipped and looks like i want it. From everything I've been reading the frustrum and viewport calls only need to be called when the window / gets made and resizes, but If I don't call it every frame in my project it doesn't work. Any ideas? Thanks In Advance

    Read the article

  • Can knowing C actually hurt the code you write in higher level languages?

    - by Jurily
    The question seems settled, beaten to death even. Smart people have said smart things on the subject. To be a really good programmer, you need to know C. Or do you? I was enlightened twice this week. The first one made me realize that my assumptions don't go further than my knowledge behind them, and given the complexity of software running on my machine, that's almost non-existent. But what really drove it home was this Slashdot comment: The end result is that I notice the many naive ways in which traditional C "bare metal" programmers assume that higher level languages are implemented. They make bad "optimization" decisions in projects they influence, because they have no idea how a compiler works or how different a good runtime system may be from the naive macro-assembler model they understand. Then it hit me: C is just one more abstraction, like all others. Even the CPU itself is only an abstraction! I've just never seen it break, because I don't have the tools to measure it. I'm confused. Has my mind been mutilated beyond recovery, like Dijkstra said about BASIC? Am I living in a constant state of premature optimization? Is there hope for me, now that I realized I know nothing about anything? Is there anything to know, even? And why is it so fascinating, that everything I've written in the last five years might have been fundamentally wrong? To sum it up: is there any value in knowing more than the API docs tell me? EDIT: Made CW. Of course this also means now you must post examples of the interpreter/runtime optimizing better than we do :)

    Read the article

  • ServiceStack razor default page

    - by Tom
    Say I have 2 pages /NotADefault.cshtml /Views/Default.cshtml Question 1. Now I run it, page A always gets called implicitly as start-up default page no matter what I name it. Page B will only be called when I explicitly call localhost/View/Default. How do I make page B (the one in View folder) my default page? Question 2. I also have NotADefaultService.cs and DefaultService.cs. I give each page a Service class at the back. However, when page A is called NotADefaultService.cs never gets called. Only DefaultService.cs gets called when page B is called... My observation is that only the pages in the View folder will get their back-end service class working. Outside of View folder it doesn't work. Combining Q1 and Q2. How do I: Option 1. get the backend service class working under / root outside "View" folder? OR Option 2. appoint /View/Default.schtml as my default at start-up where the service class can be hit?

    Read the article

  • Suggestion on Database structure for relational data

    - by miccet
    Hi there. I've been wrestling with this problem for quite a while now and the automatic mails with 'Slow Query' warnings are still popping in. Basically, I have Blogs with a corresponding table as well as a table that keeps track of how many times each Blog has been viewed. This last table has a huge amount of records since this page is relatively high traffic and it logs every hit as an individual row. I have tried with indexes on the fields that are included in the WHERE clause, but it doesn't seem to help. I have also tried to clean the table each week by removing old ( 1.weeks) records. SO, I'm asking you guys, how would you solve this? The query that I know is causing the slowness is generated by Rails and looks like this: SELECT count(*) AS count_all FROM blog_views WHERE (created_at >= '2010-01-01 00:00:01' AND blog_id = 1); The tables have the following structures: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS 'blogs' ( 'id' int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, 'name' varchar(255) default NULL, 'perma_name' varchar(255) default NULL, 'author_id' int(11) default NULL, 'created_at' datetime default NULL, 'updated_at' datetime default NULL, 'blog_picture_id' int(11) default NULL, 'blog_picture2_id' int(11) default NULL, 'page_id' int(11) default NULL, 'blog_picture3_id' int(11) default NULL, 'active' tinyint(1) default '1', PRIMARY KEY ('id'), KEY 'index_blogs_on_author_id' ('author_id') ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=1 ; And CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS 'blog_views' ( 'id' int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, 'blog_id' int(11) default NULL, 'ip' varchar(255) default NULL, 'created_at' datetime default NULL, 'updated_at' datetime default NULL, PRIMARY KEY ('id'), KEY 'index_blog_views_on_blog_id' ('blog_id'), KEY 'created_at' ('created_at') ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=1 ;

    Read the article

  • VS2010 final does only link project on "rebuild all", not on "build changed"

    - by Sam
    I've just migrated a solution containing c++ and c# projects from VS2008 to VS2010 and got a strange problem. When I select "rebuild all", everything compiles and links as I would expect it to do. Then I change some c++ source file (just add a space), build the project, I get several thousands of linking errors like these: GDlgPackerListe.obj : error LNK2028: Nicht aufgelöstes Token (0A0000C7) ""public: bool __thiscall LList::Add(class LBString const &)" (?Add@LList@@$$FQAE_NABVLBString@@@Z)", auf das in Funktion ""public: virtual void __thiscall LRcPackerListe::HookRunReport(class LFortschritt &)" (?HookRunReport@LRcPackerListe@@$$FUAEXAAVLFortschritt@@@Z)" verwiesen wird. Db_Lieferschein2.obj : error LNK2020: Nicht aufgelöstes Token (0A0000E6) "public: bool __thiscall LList::Add(class LBString const &)" (?Add@LList@@$$FQAE_NABVLBString@@@Z). bmed.obj : error LNK2028: Nicht aufgelöstes Token (0A00014D) ""public: bool __thiscall LList::Add(class LBString const &)" (?Add@LList@@$$FQAE_NABVLBString@@@Z)", auf das in Funktion ""public: virtual long __thiscall MENUKB::Methode(long,long)" (?Methode@MENUKB@@$$FUAEJJJ@Z)" verwiesen wird. GDlgPackerListe.obj : error LNK2028: Nicht aufgelöstes Token (0A0000C9) ""public: void __thiscall LList::Sort(void)" (?Sort@LList@@$$FQAEXXZ)", auf das in Funktion ""public: virtual void __thiscall LRcPackerListe::HookRunReport(class LFortschritt &)" (?HookRunReport@LRcPackerListe@@$$FUAEXAAVLFortschritt@@@Z)" verwiesen wird. Dlg_Gutschrift.obj : error LNK2020: Nicht aufgelöstes Token (0A000128) "public: virtual __thiscall LBaseType::~LBaseType(void)" (??1LBaseType@@$$FUAE@XZ). Module_Damals.lib(svSuchAltLink.obj) : error LNK2001: Nicht aufgelöstes externes Symbol ""public: __thiscall SView::SView(void)" (??0SView@@QAE@XZ)". Module_Damals.lib(svShowEMF.obj) : error LNK2001: Nicht aufgelöstes externes Symbol ""public: virtual void __thiscall SView::HookValueChanged(unsigned __int64)" (?HookValueChanged@SView@@UAEX_K@Z)". When I hit "rebuild all" it recompiles and links without any errors or even warnings and produces a working exe. I'm using Visual Studio 2010 final (german edition). Whats going on here? Or, more important: how do I get the linker to work correctly??

    Read the article

  • C++ design question, container of instances and pointers

    - by Tom
    Hi all, Im wondering something. I have class Polygon, which composes a vector of Line (another class here) class Polygon { std::vector<Line> lines; public: const_iterator begin() const; const_iterator end() const; } On the other hand, I have a function, that calculates a vector of pointers to lines, and based on those lines, should return a pointer to a Polygon. Polygon* foo(Polygon& p){ std::vector<Line> lines = bar (p.begin(),p.end()); return new Polygon(lines); } Here's the question: I can always add a Polygon (vector Is there a better way that dereferencing each element of the vector and assigning it to the existing vector container? //for line in vector<Line*> v //vcopy is an instance of vector<Line> vcopy.push_back(*(v.at(i)) I think not, but I dont really like that approach. Hopefully, I will be able to convince the author of the class to change it, but I cant base my coding right now to that fact (and i'm scared of a performance hit). Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • C++ design question, container of instances and pointers

    - by Tom
    Hi all, Im wondering something. I have class Polygon, which composes a vector of Line (another class here) class Polygon { std::vector<Line> lines; public: const_iterator begin() const; const_iterator end() const; } On the other hand, I have a function, that calculates a vector of pointers to lines, and based on those lines, should return a pointer to a Polygon. Polygon* foo(Polygon& p){ std::vector<Line> lines = bar (p.begin(),p.end()); return new Polygon(lines); } Here's the question: I can always add a Polygon (vector Is there a better way that dereferencing each element of the vector and assigning it to the existing vector container? //for line in vector<Line*> v //vcopy is an instance of vector<Line> vcopy.push_back(*(v.at(i)) I think not, but I dont really like that approach. Hopefully, I will be able to convince the author of the class to change it, but I cant base my coding right now to that fact (and i'm scared of a performance hit). Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • C++ design question, container of instances and pointers

    - by Tom
    Hi all, Im wondering something. I have class Polygon, which composes a vector of Line (another class here) class Polygon { std::vector<Line> lines; public: const_iterator begin() const; const_iterator end() const; } On the other hand, I have a function, that calculates a vector of pointers to lines, and based on those lines, should return a pointer to a Polygon. Polygon* foo(Polygon& p){ std::vector<Line> lines = bar (p.begin(),p.end()); return new Polygon(lines); } Here's the question: I can always add a Polygon (vector Is there a better way that dereferencing each element of the vector and assigning it to the existing vector container? //for line in vector<Line*> v //vcopy is an instance of vector<Line> vcopy.push_back(*(v.at(i)) I think not, but I dont really like that approach. Hopefully, I will be able to convince the author of the class to change it, but I cant base my coding right now to that fact (and i'm scared of a performance hit). Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Is it okay for multiple objects to retain the same object in Objective-C/Cocoa?

    - by Andrew Arrow
    Say I have a tableview class that lists 100 Foo objects. It has: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray* fooList; and I fill it up with Foos like: self.fooList = [NSMutableArray array]; while (something) { Foo* foo = [[Foo alloc] init]; [fooList addObject:foo]; [foo release]; } First question: because the NSMutableArray is marked as retain, that means all the objects inside it are retained too? Am I correctly adding the foo and releasing the local copy after it's been added to the array? Or am I missing a retain call? Then if the user selects one specific row in the table and I want to display a detail Foo view I call: FooView* localView = [[FooView alloc] initWithFoo:[self.fooList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:localView animated:YES]; [localView release]; Now the FooView class has: @property (nonatomic, retain) Foo* theFoo; so now BOTH the array is holding on to that Foo as well as the FooView. But that seems okay right? When the user hits the back button dealloc will be called on FooView and [theFoo release] will be called. Then another back button is hit and dealloc is called on the tableview class and [fooList release] is called. You might argue that the FooView class should have: @property (nonatomic, assign) Foo* theFoo; vs. retain. But sometimes the FooView class is called with a Foo that's not also in an array. So I wanted to make sure it was okay to have two objects holding on to the same other object.

    Read the article

  • jquery form validation, and submit-on-change

    - by Bee
    I want to make all my settings forms across my site confirm that changes are saved, kinda like facebook does if you make changes in a form and then try to navigate away without saving. So I'm disabling the submit button on the forms only enabling if the values change. I then prompt the user to hit save before they leave the page in the case that they do have changes pending. var form = $('form.edit'); if(form.length > 0) { var orig_str = form.serialize(); $(':submit',form).attr('disabled','disabled'); form.on('change keyup', function(){ if(form.serialize() == orig_str) { setConfirmUnload(false); $(':submit',form).attr('disabled','disabled'); } else { setConfirmUnload(true); $(':submit',form).removeAttr('disabled') } }); $('input[type=submit]').click(function(){ setConfirmUnload(false); }); } function setConfirmUnload(on) { window.onbeforeunload = (on) ? unloadMessage : null; } function unloadMessage() { return 'If you navigate away from this page without saving your changes, they will be lost.'; } One of these forms needs some additional validation which I do using jQuery.validate library. e.g. if i wanted to ensure the user can't double submit the form on accident by double clicking on submit or somesuch (the actual validation in question is for a credit-card form and not this simple): $('form').validate({ submitHandler: function(form) { $(':submit', form).attr('disabled','disabled'); form.submit(); } }); Unfortunately both bits are trying to bind to submit button and they're interfering with each other such that the submit button remains disabled no matter what I do and it is impossible to submit the form at all. Is there some way to chain the validations together or something? Or some other way to avoid re-writing the validation code to repeat the "did you change anything in the form" business?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421  | Next Page >