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• How do you use glFrustrum in OpenGL ES1 on iPhone

  - by Paul

  So I am using Xcode 3.2.1 and am trying to make an iPhone OpenGL ES1 project. The default template for an opengl project is ok, but I have been trying to split the code up so not everything is done per frame on the drawView() call. I have a seperate setupRC method that sets the lighting, turns on depth test, turns on culling and sets the clear color. This is called on the init of the EAGLView and this works just fine. I have took the glViewport() and glFrustrum() calls and put them at the end of the resizeFromLayer() method in the ES1Renderer.m file. This gets hit when the app starts and when the app gets resized as it should. Now the problem is the frustrum's far seems to be messed up, as in all my objects get cut / clipped off. I tried adjusting the camera position and angle and it still all objects are cut / clipped. I increased the far from 1000.0f to 30000.0f and still get the same result. What is crazy is that if i call both the glViewport() and glFrustrum() calls in the drawView() every frame everything looks right. Nothing is clipped and looks like i want it. From everything I've been reading the frustrum and viewport calls only need to be called when the window / gets made and resizes, but If I don't call it every frame in my project it doesn't work. Any ideas? Thanks In Advance

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• Python programming - Windows focus and program process

  - by Zack

  I'm working on a python program that will automatically combine sets of files based on their names. Being a newbie, I wasn't quite sure how to go about it, so I decided to just brute force it with the win32api. So I'm attempting to do everything with virtual keys. So I run the script, it selects the top file (after arranging the by name), then sends a right click command,selects 'combine as adobe PDF', and then have it push enter. This launched the Acrobat combine window, where I send another 'enter' command. The here's where I hit the problem. The folder where I'm converting these things loses focus and I'm unsure how to get it back. Sending alt+tab commands seems somewhat unreliable. It sometimes switches to the wrong thing. A much bigger issue for me.. Different combination of files take different times to combine. though I haven't gotten this far in my code, my plan was to set some arbitrarily long time.sleep() command before it finally sent the last "enter" command to finish and confirm the file name completing the combination process. Is there a way to monitor another programs progress? Is there a way to have python not execute anymore code until something else has finished?

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• jquery form validation, and submit-on-change

  - by Bee

  I want to make all my settings forms across my site confirm that changes are saved, kinda like facebook does if you make changes in a form and then try to navigate away without saving. So I'm disabling the submit button on the forms only enabling if the values change. I then prompt the user to hit save before they leave the page in the case that they do have changes pending. var form = $('form.edit'); if(form.length > 0) { var orig_str = form.serialize(); $(':submit',form).attr('disabled','disabled'); form.on('change keyup', function(){ if(form.serialize() == orig_str) { setConfirmUnload(false); $(':submit',form).attr('disabled','disabled'); } else { setConfirmUnload(true); $(':submit',form).removeAttr('disabled') } }); $('input[type=submit]').click(function(){ setConfirmUnload(false); }); } function setConfirmUnload(on) { window.onbeforeunload = (on) ? unloadMessage : null; } function unloadMessage() { return 'If you navigate away from this page without saving your changes, they will be lost.'; } One of these forms needs some additional validation which I do using jQuery.validate library. e.g. if i wanted to ensure the user can't double submit the form on accident by double clicking on submit or somesuch (the actual validation in question is for a credit-card form and not this simple): $('form').validate({ submitHandler: function(form) { $(':submit', form).attr('disabled','disabled'); form.submit(); } }); Unfortunately both bits are trying to bind to submit button and they're interfering with each other such that the submit button remains disabled no matter what I do and it is impossible to submit the form at all. Is there some way to chain the validations together or something? Or some other way to avoid re-writing the validation code to repeat the "did you change anything in the form" business?

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• I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

  - by carny666

  So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

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• entity framework navigation property further filter without loading into memory

  - by cellik

  Hi, I've two entities with 1 to N relation in between. Let's say Books and Pages. Book has a navigation property as Pages. Book has BookId as an identifier and Page has an auto generated id and a scalar property named PageNo. LazyLoading is set to true. I've generated this using VS2010 & .net 4.0 and created a database from that. In the partial class of Book, I need a GetPage function like below public Page GetPage(int PageNumber) { //checking whether it exist etc are not included for simplicity return Pages.Where(p=>p.PageNo==PageNumber).First(); } This works. However, since Pages property in the Book is an EntityCollection it has to load all Pages of a book in memory in order to get the one page (this slows down the app when this function is hit for the first time for a given book). i.e. Framework does not merge the queries and run them at once. It loads the Pages in memory and then uses LINQ to objects to do the second part To overcome this I've changed the code as follows public Page GetPage(int PageNumber) { MyContainer container = new MyContainer(); return container.Pages.Where(p=>p.PageNo==PageNumber && p.Book.BookId==BookId).First(); } This works considerably faster however it doesn't take into account the pages that have not been serialized to the db. So, both options has its cons. Is there any trick in the framework to overcome this situation. This must be a common scenario where you don't want all of the objects of a Navigation property loaded in memory when you don't need them.

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• Suggestion on Database structure for relational data

  - by miccet

  Hi there. I've been wrestling with this problem for quite a while now and the automatic mails with 'Slow Query' warnings are still popping in. Basically, I have Blogs with a corresponding table as well as a table that keeps track of how many times each Blog has been viewed. This last table has a huge amount of records since this page is relatively high traffic and it logs every hit as an individual row. I have tried with indexes on the fields that are included in the WHERE clause, but it doesn't seem to help. I have also tried to clean the table each week by removing old ( 1.weeks) records. SO, I'm asking you guys, how would you solve this? The query that I know is causing the slowness is generated by Rails and looks like this: SELECT count(*) AS count_all FROM blog_views WHERE (created_at >= '2010-01-01 00:00:01' AND blog_id = 1); The tables have the following structures: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS 'blogs' ( 'id' int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, 'name' varchar(255) default NULL, 'perma_name' varchar(255) default NULL, 'author_id' int(11) default NULL, 'created_at' datetime default NULL, 'updated_at' datetime default NULL, 'blog_picture_id' int(11) default NULL, 'blog_picture2_id' int(11) default NULL, 'page_id' int(11) default NULL, 'blog_picture3_id' int(11) default NULL, 'active' tinyint(1) default '1', PRIMARY KEY ('id'), KEY 'index_blogs_on_author_id' ('author_id') ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=1 ; And CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS 'blog_views' ( 'id' int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, 'blog_id' int(11) default NULL, 'ip' varchar(255) default NULL, 'created_at' datetime default NULL, 'updated_at' datetime default NULL, PRIMARY KEY ('id'), KEY 'index_blog_views_on_blog_id' ('blog_id'), KEY 'created_at' ('created_at') ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=1 ;

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• is it better to query database or grab from file? php & mysql

  - by pfunc

  I am keeping a large amount of words in a database that I want to match up articles to. I was thinking that it would just be better to keep these words in an array and grab that array whenever needed instead of querying the database every time (since the words won't be changing that much). Is there much performance difference in doing this? And if I were to do this, how to I write a script that writes the array to a a new php file. I tried writing the array like so: while( $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { $newArray[] = $row; } $fp = fopen('noWordsArr.php', 'w'); fwrite($fp, $newArray); fclose($fp); But all I get in the other file is "Array". So i figured I could write this and then write have a chron hit up the file every few days or so in case things have changed. But I guess if there is no performance advantage then it prob won't be necessary and I can just query the database every time I need to access the words.

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• What are CDN Best Practices?

  - by Wild Thing

  Hi, I have recently started using the Rackspace Cloudfiles CDN (Limelight), about which I have some questions: I am using jQuery, jQuery UI and jQuery tools in addition to custom JS code. Also, my site is written in ASP.Net, which means there is some ASP.Net generated JS code. Right now what I have done is that I have combined all of the js (including the jquery code), except the ASP.Net generated JS into one file. I am hosting this on the Rackspace CDN. I am wondering if it would make more sense to just get the jQuery, jQuery UI files from the Google hosted CDN (which I suspect would work very well in serving these files, since they will be in many users' cache already)? This would mean one extra HTTP request, so I'm not sure if it'll help. Right now I have multiple containers for my assets. For example, in Rackspace I have 3 containers: JS, CSS and Images. The URL subdomain for all 3 is different. Will that lead to a performance penalty? Should I just use one container (and thus one domain for the CDN)? Is there a way of having the MS ASP.Net generated JS loaded from MS CDN? Would this have a performance hit as per the above question? Thanks in advance, WT

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• ajax on parked domain

  - by Daryl

  I'm currently writing this jquery and for some reason (I don't know why) it works on the normal domain, but on the parked domain it doesn't. Normal domain - http://www.thefinishedbox.com Parked domain - http://www.tfbox.com If you scroll down to the colony news and hit the click me link you'll see it will retrieve data via jquery ajax on the Normal domain, but on the parked domain it wont. Here is the jQuery code I have so far (its pretty standard): $(function() { $.ajaxSetup({ cache: false }); var ajax_load = "Load me plz"; // load() functions var loadUrl = "http://thefinishedbox.com/wp-content/themes/tfbox-beta/test.php"; $('.overlay').css({ opacity: '0' }); $('.toggle').click(function() { $('.overlay').css({ display: 'block' }).animate({ opacity: '1' }, 300); $(".overlay .content").html(ajax_load).load(loadUrl); return false; }); $('.close').click(function() { $('.overlay').animate({ opacity: '0' }, 300); $('.overlay').queue(function() { $(this).css({ display: 'none' }); $(this).dequeue(); }); return false; }); I'm a complete noob when it comes to ajax so any help would be massivly appreciated.

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• How can I add two models in one form, where one model is a has_many :through?

  - by Angela

  How do I model having multiple Addresses for a Company and assign a single Address to a Contact? Contacts belong_to a Company. A Company has_many Contacts. A Company also has_many Addresses. And each Contact has_one Address. I want to be able, whenever I create a New Contact, to access all the addresses in all Contacts that belong to the Company. Here is are my Models: class Company < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :phone, :addresses has_many :contacts has_many :addresses, :through => :contacts end class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :first_name, :last_name, :title, :phone, :fax, :email, :company, :date_entered, :campaign_id, :company_name, :address belongs_to :company has_one :address accepts_nested_attributes_for :address end class Address < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :street1 has_many :contacts end How do I create the View in the _form for Contacts so that I can 1) Add an Address when creating a Contact; 2) Display the options of the Address. Here is how I am doing step 1, which is just to add a new address for a new contact: <% f.fields_for :addresses do |builder| %> <p> <%= builder.label :street1, "Street 1" %> </br> <%= builder.text_field :street1 %> <p> Right now, what I have doesn't work. The console says I cannot mass-assign addresses when I hit "submit" on this New contact form.

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• Is it okay for multiple objects to retain the same object in Objective-C/Cocoa?

  - by Andrew Arrow

  Say I have a tableview class that lists 100 Foo objects. It has: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray* fooList; and I fill it up with Foos like: self.fooList = [NSMutableArray array]; while (something) { Foo* foo = [[Foo alloc] init]; [fooList addObject:foo]; [foo release]; } First question: because the NSMutableArray is marked as retain, that means all the objects inside it are retained too? Am I correctly adding the foo and releasing the local copy after it's been added to the array? Or am I missing a retain call? Then if the user selects one specific row in the table and I want to display a detail Foo view I call: FooView* localView = [[FooView alloc] initWithFoo:[self.fooList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:localView animated:YES]; [localView release]; Now the FooView class has: @property (nonatomic, retain) Foo* theFoo; so now BOTH the array is holding on to that Foo as well as the FooView. But that seems okay right? When the user hits the back button dealloc will be called on FooView and [theFoo release] will be called. Then another back button is hit and dealloc is called on the tableview class and [fooList release] is called. You might argue that the FooView class should have: @property (nonatomic, assign) Foo* theFoo; vs. retain. But sometimes the FooView class is called with a Foo that's not also in an array. So I wanted to make sure it was okay to have two objects holding on to the same other object.

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• C++ design question, container of instances and pointers

  - by Tom

  Hi all, Im wondering something. I have class Polygon, which composes a vector of Line (another class here) class Polygon { std::vector<Line> lines; public: const_iterator begin() const; const_iterator end() const; } On the other hand, I have a function, that calculates a vector of pointers to lines, and based on those lines, should return a pointer to a Polygon. Polygon* foo(Polygon& p){ std::vector<Line> lines = bar (p.begin(),p.end()); return new Polygon(lines); } Here's the question: I can always add a Polygon (vector Is there a better way that dereferencing each element of the vector and assigning it to the existing vector container? //for line in vector<Line*> v //vcopy is an instance of vector<Line> vcopy.push_back(*(v.at(i)) I think not, but I dont really like that approach. Hopefully, I will be able to convince the author of the class to change it, but I cant base my coding right now to that fact (and i'm scared of a performance hit). Thanks in advance.

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• C++ design question, container of instances and pointers

  - by Tom

  Hi all, Im wondering something. I have class Polygon, which composes a vector of Line (another class here) class Polygon { std::vector<Line> lines; public: const_iterator begin() const; const_iterator end() const; } On the other hand, I have a function, that calculates a vector of pointers to lines, and based on those lines, should return a pointer to a Polygon. Polygon* foo(Polygon& p){ std::vector<Line> lines = bar (p.begin(),p.end()); return new Polygon(lines); } Here's the question: I can always add a Polygon (vector Is there a better way that dereferencing each element of the vector and assigning it to the existing vector container? //for line in vector<Line*> v //vcopy is an instance of vector<Line> vcopy.push_back(*(v.at(i)) I think not, but I dont really like that approach. Hopefully, I will be able to convince the author of the class to change it, but I cant base my coding right now to that fact (and i'm scared of a performance hit). Thanks in advance.

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• C++ design question, container of instances and pointers

  - by Tom

  Hi all, Im wondering something. I have class Polygon, which composes a vector of Line (another class here) class Polygon { std::vector<Line> lines; public: const_iterator begin() const; const_iterator end() const; } On the other hand, I have a function, that calculates a vector of pointers to lines, and based on those lines, should return a pointer to a Polygon. Polygon* foo(Polygon& p){ std::vector<Line> lines = bar (p.begin(),p.end()); return new Polygon(lines); } Here's the question: I can always add a Polygon (vector Is there a better way that dereferencing each element of the vector and assigning it to the existing vector container? //for line in vector<Line*> v //vcopy is an instance of vector<Line> vcopy.push_back(*(v.at(i)) I think not, but I dont really like that approach. Hopefully, I will be able to convince the author of the class to change it, but I cant base my coding right now to that fact (and i'm scared of a performance hit). Thanks in advance.

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• "Thread was being aborted" 0n large dataset

  - by Donaldinio

  I am trying to process 114,000 rows in a dataset (populated from an oracle database). I am hitting an error at around the 600 mark - "Thread was being aborted". All I am doing is reading the dataset, and I still hit the issue. Is this too much data for a dataset? It seems to load into the dataset ok though. I welcome any better ways to process this amount of data. rootTermsTable = entKw.GetRootKeywordsByCategory(catID); for (int k = 0; k < rootTermsTable.Rows.Count; k++) { string keywordID = rootTermsTable.Rows[k]["IK_DBKEY"].ToString(); ... } public DataTable GetKeywordsByCategory(string categoryID) { DbProviderFactory provider = DbProviderFactories.GetFactory(connectionProvider); DbConnection con = provider.CreateConnection(); con.ConnectionString = connectionString; DbCommand com = provider.CreateCommand(); com.Connection = con; com.CommandText = string.Format("Select * From icm_keyword WHERE (IK_IC_DBKEY = {0})",categoryID); com.CommandType = CommandType.Text; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); DbDataAdapter ad = provider.CreateDataAdapter(); ad.SelectCommand = com; con.Open(); ad.Fill(ds); con.Close(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt = ds.Tables[0]; return dt; //return ds.Tables[0].DefaultView; }

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• What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

  - by Joe

  I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

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• Extremely Difficult Problem with ASP.Net 4.0 WebForms app using Routing

  - by dudeNumber4

  I have a completed app running in a QA environment. Everything works fine under most circumstances. If you hit a plain URL (no identifying information in the URL), you see an intro page with a button (generated by an asp LinkButton control) that posts back and directs you to another page. The markup looks the same when it fails and when it doesn't. When such a URL is followed from, e.g., Word and the default browser is IE, the intro page loads fine, but clicking the button causes an error. When not debugging, this behavior occurs every time. While debugging, the error occurs only ~ 1 in 10 times (closing the browser instance and starting over every time). When the error occurs, the intro page Page_Load fires and IsPostBack is false. Somehow, instead of a post, a get is being issued. When I run fiddler to try to analyze the actual calls (can't use firebug because it never happens using Firefox), everything works every time. I don't know whether this issue has anything to do with routing, and I've no idea even what to look at next. The strange thing is, when I debug, the intro page doesn't fully load every time. Only about 1 in 3 times does it fully load even if I've just cleared browser cache. When I run it through fiddler, it fully loads and works fine every time.

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• Navigating the timeline

  - by Dean 'Deacon' Beard

  O.K, being a little new to this, I have hit a brick wall, I'm using AS3 in Flash CS5. All I want to do is have a tweened animation which stops at a frame and which has a clickable button to access another part of the maintime line. Also there will be a button on the animation to skip it. How does one set this up? Obviously you need a stop(); at the stop frame of the time line and an event listener and function for both buttons right? Any more help besides that. I have it set up like this; totalSlides:Number = 60; currentSlideNumber:Number = 1; skipbutton.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK,skipbuttonPress); function skipbuttonPress(evt:MouseEvent):void{ currentframelabel = currentframelabel+1; if(currentSlideNumber>=0){ currentframelabel = introstop; } framelabel.gotoAndStop(introstop); } and the frame it stops on is set up as follows stop(); totalSlides:Number = 60; currentSlideNumber:Number = 5; click01.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK,click01Press); function click01Press( evt : MouseEvent ) : void { currentSlideNumber = currentSlideNumber+1; if (currentSlideNumber >= 0) { currentSlideNumber = 25; } framelabel.gotoAndStop(mainpage); } As I need this for a project, any help would be greatly valued. Many Thanks

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• problems getting HTTPRiot working

  - by bwizzy

  I've got an iphone app where I'm trying to use HTTPRiot to make some API calls to a web app. Problem is I can't see that none of the HTTPRiot delegate methods are being called. I've got a log in all the delegate methods, and I'm also looking at the webserver log. I see that the URL is being hit. //API.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #include <HTTPRiot/HTTPRiot.h> @interface API : HRRestModel { } +(void)runTest; @end //API.m #import "API.h" @implementation API + (void)initialize { NSLog(@"api initialize"); [self setDelegate:self]; [self setBaseURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://localhost:3000/api"]]; [self setBasicAuthWithUsername:@"demo" password:@"123456"]; NSDictionary *params = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:@"1234567" forKey:@"api_key"]; [self setDefaultParams:params]; }//end initialize +(void)runTest { NSLog(@"api run test"); // Would send a request to http://localhost:1234/api/people/1?api_key=1234567 [self getPath:@"/save_diet" withOptions:nil object:nil]; } +(void)restConnection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReturnResource:(id)resource object:(id)object { NSLog(@"didReturnResource"); } +(void)restConnection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSHTTPURLResponse *)response object:(id)object { NSLog(@"didReceiveResponse"); } +(void)restConnection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveParseError:(NSError *)error responseBody:(NSString *)body object:(id)object { NSLog(@"didReceiveParseError"); } +(void)restConnection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveError:(NSError *)error response:(NSHTTPURLResponse *)response object:(id)object { NSLog(@"didReceiveError"); } +(void)restConnection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didFailWithError:(NSError *)error object:(id)object { NSLog(@"didFailWithError"); } @end //test code [API runTest]; //log output

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• Changing direction of rotation Pygame

  - by czl

  How would you change the direction of a rotating image/rect in Pygame? Applying positive and negative degree values works but it seems to only be able to rotate one direction throughout my window. Is there a way to ensure a change in direction of rotation? Perhaps change up rotation of a spinning image every 5 seconds, or if able to change the direction of the spin when hitting a X or Y axis. I've added some code below. It seems like switching movement directions is easy with rect.move_ip as long as I specify a speed and have location clause, it does what I want. Unfortunately rotation is't like that. Here I'l adding angles to make sure it spins, but no matter what I try, I'm unable to negate the rotation. def rotate_image(self): #rotate image orig_rect = self.image.get_rect() rot_image = pygame.transform.rotate(self.image, self.angle) rot_rect = orig_rect.copy() rot_rect.center = rot_image.get_rect().center rot_image = rot_image.subsurface(rot_rect).copy() return rot_image def render(self): self.screen.fill(self.bg_color) self.rect.move_ip(0,5) #Y axis movement at 5 px per frame self.angle += 5 #add 5 anglewhen the rect has not hit one of the window self.angle %= 360 if self.rect.left < 0 or self.rect.right > self.width: self.speed[0] = -self.speed[0] self.angle = -self.angle #tried to invert the angle self.angle -= 5 #trying to negate the angle rotation self.angle %= 360 self.screen.blit(self.rotate_image(),self.rect) pygame.display.flip() I would really like to know how to invert rotation of a image. You may provide your own examples.

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• Can I create an activity for a particular task without that task coming to the foreground?

  - by Neil Traft

  Here's my use case: The app starts at a login screen. You enter your credentials and hit the "Login" button. Then a progress dialog appears and you wait for some stuff to download. Once the stuff has downloaded, you are taken to a new activity. Exactly which activity you are taken to depends on the server response. Here's my problem: If you go HOME during this login/download process, at some point in the near future your download will complete and will invoke startActivity(). So then the new activity will be pushed to the foreground, rudely interrupting the user. I can't start the activity before I start the download, because, as I mentioned earlier, the activity I start depends on the result of the download. I would obviously not like to interrupt the user like this. One way to solve this is to refrain from calling startActivity() until the user returns to the app. I can do this by keeping track of the LoginActivity's onStop() and onRestart(). But I'm wondering, is there any way to create the activity while it is in the background? That way the user returns to the app and he is ready to go... otherwise he would have to wait for the new activity to be created (which could take some time because the new activity also has to download and display some data). Update: Guess what? I LIED! I could have sworn that starting this activity was causing it to come to the foreground, but I went back to test it again and the problem has magically disappeared. I tested in both 1.6 and 2.0.1 and both OSes were smart enough not to bring a backgrounded task to the front.

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• WindowsFormsApplicationBase SplashScreen makes login form ignore keypresses until I click on it - how to debug?

  - by Tom Bushell

  My WinForms app has a simple modal login form, invoked at startup via ShowDialog(). When I run from inside Visual Studio, everything works fine. I can just type in my User ID, hit the Enter key, and get logged in. But when I run a release build directly, everything looks normal (the login form is active, there's a blinking cursor in the User ID MaskedEditBox), but all keypresses are ignored until I click somewhere on the login form. Very annoying if you are used to doing everything from the keyboard. I've tried to trace through the event handlers, and to set the focus directly with code, to no avail. Any suggestions how to debug this (outside of Visual Studio), or failing that - a possible workaround? Edit Here's the calling code, in my Main Form: private void OfeMainForm_Shown(object sender, EventArgs e) { OperatorLogon(); } private void OperatorLogon() { // Modal dialogs should be in a "using" block for proper disposal using (var logonForm = new C21CfrLogOnForm()) { var dr = logonForm.ShowDialog(this); if (dr == DialogResult.OK) SaveOperatorId(logonForm.OperatorId); else Application.Exit(); } } Edit 2 Didn't think this was relevant, but I'm using Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase for it's splash screen and SingleInstanceController support. I just commented out the splash screen code, and the problem has disappeared. So that's opened up a whole new line of inquiry... Edit 3 Changed title to reflect better understanding of the problem

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• How to get VC# to rebuild auto-generated .cs files?

  - by Jive Dadson

  I imagine this question has been asked and answered, but I cannot find it. I wanted to make a simple GUI to interface to a windows 7 command. I usually use Wx, but since this was to be a windows-only thing, I decided to see if I could whip it out real fast using Visual C# 2010 Express, which I had never used before. Things started off just great. I created a form, put a few buttons and text boxes and such on it, and hit Debug. It came up and ran just like that. No muss, no fuss. So I then designed the form just the way I wanted it, renamed the controls from "Button1" and so forth to meaningful names. But now it's a mess. By clicking around, I discovered that VC# had auto-generated two files called Form1.cs and Form1.Designer.cs. The later contains the bindings between functions and the events generated from user-clicks etc., and the former contains no-op code for those functions, for me to complete. Problem is, the names are all still the original "Button1" and so forth, not the new ones, and the new controls I added after running the first time do not appear at all. I want it to regenerate all that stuff afresh from the finished form. How to?

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• Two references to the same domain/entity model

  - by Sbossb

  Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

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• Python : How do you find the CPU consumption for a piece of code?

  - by Yugal Jindle

  Background: I have a django application, it works and responds pretty well on low load, but on high load like 100 users/sec, it consumes 100% CPU and then due to lack of CPU slows down. Problem : Profiling the application gives me time taken by functions. This time increases on high load. Time consumed may be due to complex calculation or for waiting for CPU. so, how to find the CPU cycles consumed by a piece of code ? Since, reducing the CPU consumption will increase the response time. I might have written extremely efficient code and need to add more CPU power OR I might have some stupid code taking the CPU and causing the slow down ? Any help is appreciated ! Update: I am using Jmeter to profile my webapp, it gives me a throughput of 2 requests/sec. [ 100 users] I get a average time of 36 seconds on 100 request vs 1.25 sec time on 1 request. More Info Configuration Nginx + Uwsgi with 4 workers No database used, using a responses from a REST API On 1st hit the response of REST API gets cached, therefore doesn't makes a difference. Using ujson for json parsing. Curious to Know: Python-Django is used by so many orgs for so many big sites, then there must be some high end Debug / Memory-CPU analysis tools. All those I found were casual snippets of code that perform profiling.

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