Search Results

Search found 28582 results on 1144 pages for 'message loop'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 415/1144 | < Previous Page | 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422  | Next Page >

  • How to receive Email in JEE application

    - by Hank
    Obviously it's not so difficult to send out emails from a JEE application via JavaMail. What I am interested in is the best pattern to receive emails (notification bounces, mostly)? I am not interested in IMAP/POP3-based approaches (polling the inbox) - my application shall react to inbound emails. One approach I could think of would be Keep existing MTA (postfix on linux in my case) - ops team already knows how to configure / operate it For every mail that arrives, spawn a Java app that receives the data and sends it off via JMS. I could do this via an entry in /etc/aliases like myuser: "|/path/to/javahelper" with javahelper calling the Java app, passing STDIN along. MDB (part of JEE application) receives JMS message, parses it, detects bounce message and acts accordingly. Another approach could be Open a listening network socket on port 25 on the JEE application container. Associate a SessionBean with the socket. Bean is part of JEE application and can parse/detect bounces/handle the messages directly. Keep existing MTA as inbound relay, do all its security/spam filtering, but forward emails to myuser (that pass the filter) to the JEE application container, port 25. The first approach I have done before (albeit in a different language/setup). From a performance and (perceived) cleanliness point of view, I think the second approach is better, but it would require me to provide a proper SMTP transport implementation. Also, I don't know if it's at all possible to connect a network socket with a bean... What is your recommendation? Do you have details about the second approach?

    Read the article

  • UIAlertView choice causing resignFirstResponder to fail

    - by Chazbot
    Hi everyone. I'm having a similar issue to Anthony Chan's question, and after trying every suggested solution, I'm still stuck. Somehow, only after interacting with my UIAlertView, I'm unable to dismiss the keyboard in another view of my app. It's as though the Alert is breaking my UITextField's ability to resignFirstResponder. Below I instantiate my UIAlertView, which then calls its didDismissWIthButtonIndex method. Then, I call the showInfo method, which loads another UIViewController. UIAlertView *emailFailAlert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Error" message:@"error message text." delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Not now" otherButtonTitles:@"Settings", nil]; [emailFailAlert setTag:2]; [emailFailAlert show]; [emailFailAlert release]; Once the 'Settings' option is pressed, I'm calling this method: - (void)alertView:(UIAlertView *)alertView didDismissWithButtonIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if ([alertView tag] == 2) { if (buttonIndex == 1){ [self showInfo:nil]; } } } My showInfo method loads the other ViewController, via the code below: - (IBAction)showInfo:(id)sender { FlipsideViewController *fscontroller = [[FlipsideViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FlipsideView" bundle:nil]; fscontroller.delegate = self; fscontroller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:fscontroller animated:YES]; [fscontroller release]; } Upon clicking any textField in this Flipside VC, I'm unable to dismiss the keyboard as I normally can with - (BOOL)textFieldShouldReturn:(UITextField *)textField, and [textField resignFirstResponder]. I've omitted this code bc this question is getting long, but I'm happy to post if necessary. The interesting part is that if I comment out the [self showInfo:nil] call made when the button is clicked and call it by clicking a test button (outside the alertView didDismissWithButtonIndex: method), everything works fine. Any idea what's happening here? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Postgres Stored procedure using iBatis

    - by Om Yadav
    --- The error occurred while applying a parameter map. --- Check the newSubs-InlineParameterMap. --- Check the statement (query failed). --- Cause: org.postgresql.util.PSQLException: ERROR: wrong record type supplied in RETURN NEXT Where: PL/pgSQL function "getnewsubs" line 34 at return next the function detail is as below.... CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION getnewsubs(timestamp without time zone, timestamp without time zone, integer) RETURNS SETOF record AS $BODY$declare v_fromdt alias for $1; v_todt alias for $2; v_domno alias for $3; v_cursor refcursor; v_rec record; v_cpno bigint; v_actno int; v_actname varchar(50); v_actid varchar(100); v_cpntypeid varchar(100); v_mrp double precision; v_domname varchar(100); v_usedt timestamp without time zone; v_expirydt timestamp without time zone; v_createdt timestamp without time zone; v_ctno int; v_phone varchar; begin open v_cursor for select cpno,c.actno,usedt from cpnusage c inner join account s on s.actno=c.actno where usedt = $1 and usedt < $2 and validdomstat(s.domno,v_domno) order by c.usedt; fetch v_cursor into v_cpno,v_actno,v_usedt; while found loop if isactivation(v_cpno,v_actno,v_usedt) IS TRUE then select into v_actno,v_actname,v_actid,v_cpntypeid,v_mrp,v_domname,v_ctno,v_cpno,v_usedt,v_expirydt,v_createdt,v_phone a.actno,a.actname as name,a.actid as actid,c.descr as cpntypeid,l.mrp as mrp,s.domname as domname,c.ctno as ctno,b.cpno,b.usedt,b.expirydt,d.createdt,a.phone from account a inner join cpnusage b on a.actno=b.actno inner join cpn d on b.cpno=d.cpno inner join cpntype c on d.ctno=c.ctno inner join ssgdom s on a.domno=s.domno left join price_class l ON l.price_class_id=b.price_class_id where validdomstat(a.domno,v_domno) and b.cpno=v_cpno and b.actno=v_actno; select into v_rec v_actno,v_actname,v_actid,v_cpntypeid,v_mrp,v_domname,v_ctno,v_cpno,v_usedt,v_expirydt,v_createdt,v_phone; return next v_rec; end if; fetch v_cursor into v_cpno,v_actno,v_usedt; end loop; return ; end;$BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE; ALTER FUNCTION getnewsubs(timestamp without time zone, timestamp without time zone, integer) OWNER TO radius If i am running the function from the console it is running fine and giving me the correct response. But when using through java causing the above error. Can ay body help in it..Its very urgent. Please response as soon as possible. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Delphi: Error when starting MCI

    - by marco92w
    I use the TMediaPlayer component for playing music. It works fine with most of my tracks. But it doesn't work with some tracks. When I want to play them, the following error message is shown: Which is German but roughly means that: In the project pMusicPlayer.exe an exception of the class EMCIDeviceError occurred. Message: "Error when starting MCI.". Process was stopped. Continue with "Single Command/Statement" or "Start". The program quits directly after calling the procedure "Play" of TMediaPlayer. This error occurred with the following file for example: file size: 7.40 MB duration: 4:02 minutes bitrate: 256 kBit/s I've encoded this file with a bitrate of 128 kBit/s and thus a file size of 3.70 MB: It works fine! What's wrong with the first file? Windows Media Player or other programs can play it without any problems. Is it possible that Delphi's TMediaPlayer cannot handle big files (e.g. 5 MB) or files with a high bitrate (e.g. 128 kBit/s)? What can I do to solve the problem?

    Read the article

  • .Net Entity Framework SaveChanges is adding without add method

    - by tmfkmoney
    I'm new to the entity framework and I'm really confused about how savechanges works. There's probably a lot of code in my example which could be improved, but here's the problem I'm having. The user enters a bunch of picks. I make sure the user hasn't already entered those picks. Then I add the picks to the database. var db = new myModel() var predictionArray = ticker.Substring(1).Split(','); // Get rid of the initial comma. var user = Membership.GetUser(); var userId = Convert.ToInt32(user.ProviderUserKey); // Get the member with all his predictions for today. var memberQuery = (from member in db.Members where member.user_id == userId select new { member, predictions = from p in member.Predictions where p.start_date == null select p }).First(); // Load all the company ids. foreach (var prediction in memberQuery.predictions) { prediction.CompanyReference.Load(); } var picks = from prediction in predictionArray let data = prediction.Split(':') let companyTicker = data[0] where !(from i in memberQuery.predictions select i.Company.ticker).Contains(companyTicker) select new Prediction { Member = memberQuery.member, Company = db.Companies.Where(c => c.ticker == companyTicker).First(), is_up = data[1] == "up", // This turns up and down into true and false. }; // Save the records to the database. // HERE'S THE PART I DON'T UNDERSTAND. // This saves the records, even though I don't have db.AddToPredictions(pick) foreach (var pick in picks) { db.SaveChanges(); } // This does not save records when the db.SaveChanges outside of a loop of picks. db.SaveChanges(); foreach (var pick in picks) { } // This saves records, but it will insert all the picks exactly once no matter how many picks you have. //The fact you're skipping a pick makes no difference in what gets inserted. var counter = 1; foreach (var pick in picks) { if (counter == 2) { db.SaveChanges(); } counter++; } There's obviously something going on with the context I don't understand. I'm guessing I've somehow loaded my new picks as pending changes, but even if that's true I don't understand I have to loop over them to save changes. Can someone explain this to me?

    Read the article

  • Chrome not sending POST requests on localhost, Firefox works fine

    - by AP257
    I have copied the simple Django forms example exactly, running on localhost. The basic contact form example should submit a POST request when you click the Submit button. I'm running Chrome on Mac Snow Leopard, and whenever I submit the form, the page simply reloads with an empty form: I can see from the runserver output that it's not sending a POST - instead it's sending a GET request. If I open the same page in Firefox on Mac Snow Leopard, and submit the form, I can see it's sending a POST request (as it should be). Looking at the source in Chrome, the form definitely says method="post". <form action="/contact/" method="post"> <p><label for="id_subject">Subject:</label> <input id="id_subject" type="text" name="subject" maxlength="100" /></p> <p><label for="id_message">Message:</label> <input type="text" name="message" id="id_message" /></p> <p><label for="id_sender">Sender:</label> <input type="text" name="sender" id="id_sender" /></p> <p><label for="id_cc_myself">Cc myself:</label> <input type="checkbox" name="cc_myself" id="id_cc_myself" /></p> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> External sites with POST forms seem to work OK in Chrome. In addition, if I fill the form in incorrectly, in Chrome the page just reloads, with a GET request, as before; in Firefox the form gets validated, as it should. I've tried with other POST forms on localhost and got the same result. I know Chrome for Mac has its quirks, but what on earth is going on?

    Read the article

  • Default update detailViewController, HELP.

    - by DrBeak1
    I've created an app that allows users to add information (from an addViewController), which is then displayed in a UITableView on the rootViewController. When the user taps the tableViewCell the detailViewController then displays, you guessed it, more details regarding the inputted user information. What I'm trying to accomplish is to setup an editViewController that will allow users to edit information they've already submitted. Currently, I'm trying to auto-populate the editViewController with the information that was previously submitted by the user (after which they can press save and update the info). However, I'm getting stuck trying to perform this auto-populating and I'm not sure this is even the best route to accomplish this. Here is the edit method that is called to load the editViewController from the detailViewController. -(IBAction)editDetails:(id)sender { editViewController *evc = [[editViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"editViewController" bundle:nil]; rootViewController *rvc = [[rootViewController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:evc]; [[self navigationController] presentModalViewController:navigationController animated:YES]; ///For Style NSInteger styleCount = [[rvc scoreTypeArray] count]; NSInteger styleRows = [rvc.scoreTypeArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; ///HERE I GET AN ERROR MESSAGE SAYING THAT indexPath IS NOT DEFINED ///For Date NSInteger count = [[rvc dateArray] count]; NSInteger rows = [[rvc indexPath] row]; ///AND HERE I GET A WARNING MESSAGE SAYING rootViewController MAY NOT RESPOND TO INDEX PATH, AND OF COURSE IT DOESN'T WORK [[evc dateField] setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [[evc dateArray] objectAtIndex:(count-1-rows)]]]; [[evc styleField] setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [[rvc scoresArray] objectAtIndex:(styleCount-1-styleRows)]]]; [navigationController release]; [evc release]; [rvc release];} So here I'm trying to load the information from a saved array that is declared in my rootViewController. Any thoughts any body? Please and thank you : )

    Read the article

  • Syntax error results in blank page

    - by Philipp
    I am new to wicket and trying to get some things working. One thing that annoys me a lot is that I get a blank (0 chars of text) page whenever there is a syntax error on a page. Striped down example: Test.html header stuff: doctype ... html ... head ... body ... <span wicket:id="msgTest" id="message">MSG</span> footer stuff: /body ... /html Test.java public class Test extends WebPage { public Test() { add(new Label("msgTest", "Hello, World!")); } } This will output the page as expected. Now, lets introduce an error: header stuff: doctype ... html ... head ... body ... <span wicket:id="msgTest2" id="message">MSG</span> footer stuff: /body ... /html I changed the label-id to something different then what the source-file expects. If I run this code I get the already mentioned blank page. However, for every request to a page with such a syntax error I get an error report in the log-file of around 1000+ lines. This error-report is basically just wicket-generated html of a page which describes the error. This makes me wonder why wicket isn't displaying the error-stuff instead of the blank page. I'm not very experienced with wicket but to me it somehow looks like wicket is having trouble rendering its own error-page code. It would be nice to know how one goes about finding syntax-errors with wicket. Reading through a 1000+ line error-report for a small error like a misplaced character seems a bit tedious. Thanks in advance for guiding me into the right direction :) PS: wicket-version: 1.4.9 stage: development

    Read the article

  • How to group photos in Wordpress?

    - by alex
    Hi, For a custom theme template i like to use particular photos i have uploaded. I just need x rows of 4 images. So i was thinking of using a loop for images which belong to photo Album..... But in WP i can't find a place where i can group images i am using 2.9.2 Any tips how to fix this??

    Read the article

  • How can I use linq to initialize an array of repeated elements?

    - by Eric
    At present, I'm using something like this to build a list of 10 objects: myList = (from _ in Enumerable.Range(0, 9) select new MyObject {...}).toList() This is based off my python background, where I'd write: myList = [MyObject(...) for _ in range(10)] Note that I want my list to contain 10 instances of my object, not the same instance 10 times. Is this still a sensible way to do things in C#? Is there a cost to doing it this way over a simple for loop?

    Read the article

  • WPF List - ListItem Visibility

    - by niao
    Greetings, I have a FlowDocument where List control is placed. Inside this list I have some ListItem. Is there any way to set some kind of Visibility for specific ListItem? I don't see a coressponding Property like Visibility for ListItem. When I set fontsize="0.1" then application hangs (it goes into infinite loop).

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to validates_presence_of only one time? (to skip that validation once the user's been

    - by GoodGets
    So, I'd like for a user to see an error message if he submits a comment and the :name is blank (typical error message, don't need help with that). However, I'd then like to allow the user to skip that validation once he's been notified that "we like all comments to have a name." So, he submits the comment once, sees the notification, then can submit the form again unchanged if he really doesn't want to add a name, and the validates_presences_of :name is skipped. But, I'm not sure how to go about doing this. I thought about checking to see where the request is coming from, but after a create, errors are handed off to the "new" action, which is the same as actual "new" comments. I then thought about checking to see if flash[errors] were present, but that won't work because there are other validations a comment has to pass. Finally, I thought about trying a validates_presences_of :name, :unless = :notified but wasn't sure how to define notified. I honestly hate asking such an open ended question, but wasn't sure where to get started. So, is there a way to just check a certain validation once?

    Read the article

  • Memory management with Objective-C Distributed Objects: my temporary instances live forever!

    - by jkp
    I'm playing with Objective-C Distributed Objects and I'm having some problems understanding how memory management works under the system. The example given below illustrates my problem: Protocol.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @protocol DOServer - (byref id)createTarget; @end Server.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Protocol.h" @interface DOTarget : NSObject @end @interface DOServer : NSObject < DOServer > @end @implementation DOTarget - (id)init { if ((self = [super init])) { NSLog(@"Target created"); } return self; } - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"Target destroyed"); [super dealloc]; } @end @implementation DOServer - (byref id)createTarget { return [[[DOTarget alloc] init] autorelease]; } @end int main() { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; DOServer *server = [[DOServer alloc] init]; NSConnection *connection = [[NSConnection new] autorelease]; [connection setRootObject:server]; if ([connection registerName:@"test-server"] == NO) { NSLog(@"Failed to vend server object"); } else [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] run]; [pool drain]; return 0; } Client.m #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "Protocol.h" int main() { unsigned i = 0; for (; i < 3; i ++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; id server = [NSConnection rootProxyForConnectionWithRegisteredName:@"test-server" host:nil]; [server setProtocolForProxy:@protocol(DOServer)]; NSLog(@"Created target: %@", [server createTarget]); [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] runUntilDate:[NSDate dateWithTimeIntervalSinceNow:1.0]]; [pool drain]; } return 0; } The issue is that any remote objects created by the root proxy are not released when their proxy counterparts in the client go out of scope. According to the documentation: When an object’s remote proxy is deallocated, a message is sent back to the receiver to notify it that the local object is no longer shared over the connection. I would therefore expect that as each DOTarget goes out of scope (each time around the loop) it's remote counterpart would be dellocated, since there is no other reference to it being held on the remote side of the connection. In reality this does not happen: the temporary objects are only deallocate when the client application quits, or more accurately, when the connection is invalidated. I can force the temporary objects on the remote side to be deallocated by explicitly invalidating the NSConnection object I'm using each time around the loop and creating a new one but somehow this just feels wrong. Is this the correct behaviour from DO? Should all temporary objects live as long as the connection that created them? Are connections therefore to be treated as temporary objects which should be opened and closed with each series of requests against the server? Any insights would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Disable table in javascript

    - by Muhammad Akhtar
    Hi, I have many controls in table and I want to disable all the controls using JavaScript upon clicking of some checkbox. I have google and found that we can't disable table instead all controls through loop. Please suggest me, what is better idea Thanks

    Read the article

  • jQuery bind efficiency

    - by chelfers
    I'm having issue with load speed using multiple jQuery binds on a couple thousands elements and inputs, is there a more efficient way of doing this? The site has the ability to switch between product lists via ajax calls, the page cannot refresh. Some lists have 10 items, some 100, some over 2000. The issue of speed arises when I start flipping between the lists; each time the 2000+ item list is loaded the system drags for about 10 seconds. Before I rebuild the list I am setting the target element's html to '', and unbinding the two bindings below. I'm sure it has something to do with all the parent, next, and child calls I am doing in the callbacks. Any help is much appreciated. loop 2500 times <ul> <li><input type="text" class="product-code" /></li> <li>PROD-CODE</li> ... <li>PRICE</li> </ul> end loop $('li.product-code').bind( 'click', function(event){ selector = '#p-'+ $(this).prev('li').children('input').attr('lm'); $(selector).val( ( $(selector).val() == '' ? 1 : ( parseFloat( $(selector).val() ) + 1 ) ) ); Remote.Cart.lastProduct = selector; Remote.Cart.Products.Push( Remote.Cart.customerKey, { code : $(this).prev('li').children('input').attr('code'), title : $(this).next('li').html(), quantity : $('#p-'+ $(this).prev('li').children('input').attr('lm') ).val(), price : $(this).prev('li').children('input').attr('price'), weight : $(this).prev('li').children('input').attr('weight'), taxable : $(this).prev('li').children('input').attr('taxable'), productId : $(this).prev('li').children('input').attr('productId'), links : $(this).prev('li').children('input').attr('productLinks') }, '#p-'+ $(this).prev('li').children('input').attr('lm'), false, ( parseFloat($(selector).val()) - 1 ) ); return false; }); $('input.product-qty').bind( 'keyup', function(){ Remote.Cart.lastProduct = '#p-'+ $(this).attr('lm'); Remote.Cart.Products.Push( Remote.Cart.customerKey, { code : $(this).attr('code') , title : $(this).parent().next('li').next('li').html(), quantity : $(this).val(), price : $(this).attr('price'), weight : $(this).attr('weight'), taxable : $(this).attr('taxable'), productId : $(this).attr('productId'), links : $(this).attr('productLinks') }, '#p-'+ $(this).attr('lm'), false, previousValue ); });

    Read the article

  • PHP Form Validation

    - by JM4
    This question will undoubtedly be difficult to answer and ask in a way that makes sense but I'll try my best: I have a form which uses PHP to display certain sections of the form such as: <?php if ($_SESSION['EnrType'] == "Individual") { display only form information for individual enrollment } ?> and <?php if ($_SESSION['Num_Enrs'] > 6) { display only form information for 7 total members enrollment } ?> In each form piece, unique information is collected about each enrollee but the basic criteria for each enrollee is the same, i.e. All enrollee's must use have a value in the FirstName field. Each field is named according to the enrollee number, i.e. Num1FirstName; Num2FirstName. I have a PHP validation script which is absolutely fantastic and am not looking to change it but the issue I am running into is duplication of the script in order to validate ALL fields in one swoop. On submission, all POSTED items are run through my validation script and based on the rules set return an error if they do not equal true. Sample code: if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { // import the validation library require("validation.php"); $rules = array(); // stores the validation rules //All Enrollee Rules $rules[] = "required,Num1FirstName,Num2FirstName,The First Name field is required."; The script above does the following, $rules[] ="REQUIREMENT,fieldname,error message" where requirement gives criteria (in this case, simply that a value is passed), fieldname is the name of the field being validated, and error message returns the error used. My Goal is to use the same formula above and have $rules[] run through ALL firstnames and return the error posted ONLY if they exist (i.e. dont check for member #7's first name if it doesnt exist on the screen). If I simply put a comma between the 'fieldnames' this only checks for the first, then second, and so on so this wont work. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • msys+mingw - is there installer or at least .tar.lzma/.zip?

    - by Maciej Piechotka
    I try to install n'th time the msys+mingw - however with little success. I need the minimal developer system (standard tools such as sed/awk+autotools+gcc) however each time something is not working (for example currently when I try to run autotools m4 goes into some error loop on AC_INIT). I know they stopped providing installer 'for easy update of components' and they are working on something but maybe there is something unofficial.

    Read the article

  • In my cakephp project the save function is not working?

    - by Faheem
    My controller action is: function add() { if (!empty($this-data)) { $this-Customer-create(); if ($this-Customer-save($this-data)) { $this-Session-setFlash('A new Customer has been added'); $this-redirect(array('action'='index')); } else { $this-Session-setFlash('The customer cannot be added this time. Try again later.'); $this-redirect(array('action'='index')); } } } My model is: class Customer extends AppModel { var $name = 'Customer'; var $validate = array( 'name' = array( 'length'= array( 'rule' = array('between', 4,50), 'message' = 'Name must be minimum 4 and maximum 50 characters long.' ), 'checkUnique'= array( 'rule' = 'isUnique', 'message' = 'This Name is already registered' ) )); and this is my view: create('Customer',array('action'='add'));? input('Customer.name'); echo $form-input('Customer.balance',array('type'='hidden','default'=0)); ? end('Submit');? every time I submit the form it splashes: The customer cannot be added this time. Try again later.

    Read the article

  • Operator== in derived class never gets called.

    - by Robin Welch
    Can someone please put me out of my misery with this? I'm trying to figure out why a derived operator== never gets called in a loop. To simplify the example, here's my Base and Derived class: class Base { // ... snipped bool operator==( const Base& other ) const { return name_ == other.name_; } }; class Derived : public Base { // ... snipped bool operator==( const Derived& other ) const { return ( static_cast<const Base&>( *this ) == static_cast<const Base&>( other ) ? age_ == other.age_ : false ); }; Now when I instantiate and compare like this ... Derived p1("Sarah", 42); Derived p2("Sarah", 42); bool z = ( p1 == p2 ); ... all is fine. Here the operator== from Derived gets called, but when I loop over a list, comparing items in a list of pointers to Base objects ... list<Base*> coll; coll.push_back( new Base("fred") ); coll.push_back( new Derived("sarah", 42) ); // ... snipped // Get two items from the list. Base& obj1 = **itr; Base& obj2 = **itr2; cout << obj1.asString() << " " << ( ( obj1 == obj2 ) ? "==" : "!=" ) << " " << obj2.asString() << endl; Here asString() (which is virtual and not shown here for brevity) works fine, but obj1 == obj2 always calls the Base operator== even if the two objects are Derived. I know I'm going to kick myself when I find out what's wrong, but if someone could let me down gently it would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • npgsql Leaking Postgres DB Connections: Way to monitor connections?

    - by Alan
    Background: I'm moving my application from npgsql v1 to npgsql v2.0.9. After a few minutes of running my application, I get a System.Exception: Timeout while getting a connection from the pool. The web claims that this is due to leaking connections (opening a db connection, but not properly closing them). So I'm trying to diagnose leaking postgres connections in npgsql. From the various web literature around; one way to diagnose leaking connections is to setup logging on npgsql, and look for the leaking connection warning message in the log. Problem is, I'm not seeing this message in the logs anywhere. I also found utility that monitors npgsql connections, but it's unstable and crashes. So I'm left manually inspecting code. For everyplace that creates an npgsql connection, there is a finally block disposing of it. For everyplace that opens a datareader, CommandBehavior.CloseConnection is used (and the datareader is disposed). Any other places to check or can someone recommend a way to look for leaking pool connections?

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422  | Next Page >