Search Results

Search found 43110 results on 1725 pages for 'noob question'.

Page 413/1725 | < Previous Page | 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420  | Next Page >

  • Which is the best way to encode batch videos on server side?

    - by albanx
    Hello I am making a general question since I am a developer and I have no advance experience on video elaboration. I have to preparare a web application with the purpose to allow video files upload on our company server and then video elaboration by server, on user command. The purpose of the web application is to allow to the user to make some elaboration on video depending on user action launch from the web app: (server has to ) convert video in different format(mp4, flv...) extact keyframes from video and saves them in jpeg format possibility to extract audio from video automatic control of quality audio & video (black frames,silences detection) change scene detection and keyframe extraction ..... This what's my bosses wanted from the web based application (with the server support obviously), and I understand only the first 3 points of this list, the rest for me was arabic.... My question is: Which is the best and fastest server side application for this works, that can support multiple batch video conversions, from command line (comand line for php-soap-socket interaction or something else..)? Is suitable Adobe Media Server for batch video conversion? Which are adobe products that can be used for this purpose? Note: I have experience with Indesign Server scripting programing (sending xml with php and soap call...), and I am looking to something similiar for video elaboration. I will appreciate any answers. THANKS ALL

    Read the article

  • Drupal module for complex hours of operation / office hours

    - by Eronarn
    Background: I am building a website in Drupal that links together a wide variety of social service providers for the purposes of discovery, collaboration, and all that good stuff. The goal is to make a website that is simple to browse for consumers of these services and simple to update for providers of these services. The beta has been very well received, but I want to switch to a different information schema before the site goes live. Specific question: I am looking for a module (or other solution) that... Stores this data in Drupal (i.e., no GCal) Supports a wide variety of repeats Is intuitive for people editing the node (no Cron-style interfaces, please!) I have looked into several modules on drupal.org and none seem to meet all of these criteria. I've also searched here, and while this question is similar: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2794149/drupal-create-a-node-with-employee-working-hours my needs are too complex for the offered solution. Some of these providers have "hours" such as "the third Wednesday of every month", or "open during Winter months", or separate hotline & office hours. Likewise, the Date Repeat module doesn't cut it as stands currently. I'm comfortable hacking what I need into an existing module - I just don't want to duplicate effort! If you have a suggestion on what module might be a good starting point, I'd appreciate that input, too. Thanks. <3

    Read the article

  • casting vs using the 'as' keyword in the CLR

    - by Frank V
    I'm learning about design patterns and because of that I've ended using a lot of interfaces. One of my "goals" is to program to an interface, not an implementation. What I've found is that I'm doing a lot of casting or object type conversion. What I'd like to know is if there is a difference between these two methods of conversion: public interface IMyInterface { void AMethod(); } public class MyClass : IMyInterface { public void AMethod() { //Do work } // other helper methods.... } public class Implementation { IMyInterface _MyObj; MyClass _myCls1; MyClass _myCls2; public Implementation() { _MyObj = new MyClass(); // What is the difference here: _myCls1 = (MyClass)_MyObj; _myCls2 = (_MyObj as MyClass); } } If there is a difference, is there a cost difference or how does this affect my program? Hopefully this makes sense. Sorry for the bad example; it is all I could think of... Update: What is "in general" the preferred method? (I had a question similar to this posted in the 'answers'. I moved it up here at the suggestion of Michael Haren. Also, I want to thank everyone who's provided insight and perspective on my question.

    Read the article

  • How to rewrite data-driven test suites of JUnit 3 in Junit 4?

    - by rics
    I am using data-driven test suites running JUnit 3 based on Rainsberger's JUnit Recipes. The purpose of these tests is to check whether a certain function is properly implemented related to a set of input-output pairs. Here is the definition of the test suite: public static Test suite() throws Exception { TestSuite suite = new TestSuite(); Calendar calendar = GregorianCalendar.getInstance(); calendar.set(2009, 8, 05, 13, 23); // 2009. 09. 05. 13:23 java.sql.Date date = new java.sql.Date(calendar.getTime().getTime()); suite.addTest(new DateFormatTestToString(date, JtDateFormat.FormatType.YYYY_MON_DD, "2009-SEP-05")); suite.addTest(new DateFormatTestToString(date, JtDateFormat.FormatType.DD_MON_YYYY, "05/SEP/2009")); return suite; } and the definition of the testing class: public class DateFormatTestToString extends TestCase { private java.sql.Date date; private JtDateFormat.FormatType dateFormat; private String expectedStringFormat; public DateFormatTestToString(java.sql.Date date, JtDateFormat.FormatType dateFormat, String expectedStringFormat) { super("testGetString"); this.date = date; this.dateFormat = dateFormat; this.expectedStringFormat = expectedStringFormat; } public void testGetString() { String result = JtDateFormat.getString(date, dateFormat); assertTrue( expectedStringFormat.equalsIgnoreCase(result)); } } How is it possible to test several input-output parameters of a method using JUnit 4? This question and the answers explained to me the distinction between JUnit 3 and 4 in this regard. This question and the answers describe the way to create test suite for a set of class but not for a method with a set of different parameters.

    Read the article

  • ServiceStack razor default page

    - by Tom
    Say I have 2 pages /NotADefault.cshtml /Views/Default.cshtml Question 1. Now I run it, page A always gets called implicitly as start-up default page no matter what I name it. Page B will only be called when I explicitly call localhost/View/Default. How do I make page B (the one in View folder) my default page? Question 2. I also have NotADefaultService.cs and DefaultService.cs. I give each page a Service class at the back. However, when page A is called NotADefaultService.cs never gets called. Only DefaultService.cs gets called when page B is called... My observation is that only the pages in the View folder will get their back-end service class working. Outside of View folder it doesn't work. Combining Q1 and Q2. How do I: Option 1. get the backend service class working under / root outside "View" folder? OR Option 2. appoint /View/Default.schtml as my default at start-up where the service class can be hit?

    Read the article

  • LINQ extention SelectMany in 3.5 vs 4.0?

    - by Moberg
    Hi When I saw Darins suggestion here .. IEnumerable<Process> processes = new[] { "process1", "process2" } .SelectMany(Process.GetProcessesByName); ( http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3059667/process-getprocessesbyname/3059733#3059733 ) .. I was a bit intrigued and I tried it in VS2008 with .NET 3.5 - and it did not compiling unless I changed it to .. IEnumerable<Process> res = new string[] { "notepad", "firefox", "outlook" } .SelectMany(s => Process.GetProcessesByName(s)); Having read some Darins answers before I suspected that it was me that were the problem, and when I later got my hands on a VS2010 with.NET 4.0 - as expected - the original suggestion worked beautifully. My question is : What have happend from 3.5 to 4.0 that makes this (new syntax) possible? Is it the extentionmethods that have been extended(hmm) or new rules for lambda syntax or? I've tried to search but my google-fu was not strong enough. Please forgive if the question is a bit naive and note that I've taged it as beginner :)

    Read the article

  • C++: Copy contructor: Use Getters or access member vars directly?

    - by cbrulak
    Have a simple container class: public Container { public: Container() {} Container(const Container& cont) //option 1 { SetMyString(cont.GetMyString()); } //OR Container(const Container& cont) //option 2 { m_str1 = cont.m_str1; } public string GetMyString() { return m_str1;} public void SetMyString(string str) { m_str1 = str;} private: string m_str1; } So, would you recommend this method or accessing the member variables directly? In the example, all code is inline, but in our real code there is no inline code. Update (29 Sept 09): Some of these answers are well written however they seem to get missing the point of this question: this is simple contrived example to discuss using getters/setters vs variables initializer lists or private validator functions are not really part of this question. I'm wondering if either design will make the code easier to maintain and expand. Some ppl are focusing on the string in this example however it is just an example, imagine it is a different object instead. I'm not concerned about performance. we're not programming on the PDP-11

    Read the article

  • asp.net, wcf authentication and caching

    - by andrew
    I need to place my app business logic into a WCF service. The service shouldn't be dependent on ASP.NET and there is a lot of data regarding the authenticated user which is frequently used in the business logic hence it's supposed to be cached (probably using a distributed cache). As for authentication - I'm going to use two level authentication: Front-End - forms authentication back-end (WCF Service) - message username authentication. For both authentications the same custom membership provider is supposed to be used. To cache the authenticated user data, I'm going to implement two service methods: 1) Authenticate - will retrieve the needed data and place it into the cache(where username will be used as a key) 2) SignOut - will remove the data from the cache Question 1. Is correct to perform authentication that way (in two places) ? Question 2. Is this caching strategy worth using or should I look at using aspnet compatible service and asp.net session ? Maybe, these questions are too general. But, anyway I'd like to get any suggestions or recommendations. Any Idea

    Read the article

  • Why can't I play videos on my Samsung Moment w/Android 2.1 that did play on 1.5?

    - by cpcarroll71
    Hello all. I was directed here by the Google Android Devs Group. I'm still not sure if this is the place I need to be. I've been on forum after forum and asked the same question but no one seems to know the answer or will tell me the REAL correct place to find it. I have a Samsung Moment with Android 2.1. I can not get videos that DID play on Android 1.5 to play on 2.1 now with very few exceptions. I'm not just talking about different videos with the same format, I'm talking about some of the exact same videos that did play in 1.5 will no longer play in 2.1. These are almost all AVI files. If Android doesn't support AVI natively with it's own stock media player then why or how was I able to play these videos flawlessly on 1.5? The way I always played the videos was viewing my SD card, tapping the thumbnail of the video I wanted, and it would automatically open up in the phones media player right away. Now the phone locks up and then eventually gives an error message. Please tell me someone here knows what is going on and if there is a way to fix this. Or if nothing else, tell me where I do need to look to ask this question and find an answer. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • JQuery: Current, Well-Formatted, Printable Documentation?

    - by Eli
    Hi All, I'm looking for a current (1.2), well-formatted, printable version of the jQuery documentation. I've checked the alternative resources page and see the PDF versions from CF and Java, but both are out of date. The jQuery site has the API browser with "Printable Version" in the toolbox, but it prints terribly, and I don't really want to print one page or tab at a time. I have a hard time believing that there is no print doc for a tool this popular - all I want is a simple listing with descriptions and examples ON PAPER. Am I missing something? I can buy one of the books if I need to, but not sure which is for the current version. Thanks! Update: I can see that somebody voted this down. I know it's a pretty basic question, but it is not asked lightly or frivolously. I have made a pretty solid effort to find this on my own, and am pretty good at finding information when I need it. Perhaps the person who thought the question not worth asking knows where to find the print doc?

    Read the article

  • Parameter meaning of CBasePin::GetMediaType(int iPosition, ...) method

    - by user325320
    Thanks to everyone who views my question. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/desktop/dd368709(v=vs.85).aspx It is not very clear from the documentation regarding the iPosition parameter for virtual HRESULT GetMediaType( int iPosition, CMediaType *pMediaType ); It is said "Zero-based index value.", but what kind of index it is? the index of the samples? I have a source filter sending the H.264 NALU flows (MEDIASUBTYPE_AVC1) and it works very well except that the SPS/PPS may be changed after the video is played for a while. The SPS and PPS are appended to the MPEG2VIDEOINFO structure, which is passed in CMediaType::SetFormat method when GetMediaType method is called. and there is another version of GetMediaType which accepts the iPosition parameter. It seems I can use this method to update the SPS / PPS. My question is: What does the iPosition param mean, and how does Decoder Filter know which SPS/PPS are assigned for each NALU sample. HRESULT GetMediaType(int iPosition, CMediaType *pMediaType) { ATLTRACE( "\nGetMediaType( iPosition = %d ) ", iPosition); CheckPointer(pMediaType,E_POINTER); CAutoLock lock(m_pFilter->pStateLock()); if (iPosition < 0) { return E_INVALIDARG; } if (iPosition == 0) { pMediaType->InitMediaType(); pMediaType->SetType(&MEDIATYPE_Video); pMediaType->SetFormatType(&FORMAT_MPEG2Video); pMediaType->SetSubtype(&MEDIASUBTYPE_AVC1); pMediaType->SetVariableSize(); } int nCurrentSampleID; DWORD dwSize = m_pFlvFile->GetVideoFormatBufferSize(nCurrentSampleID); LPBYTE pBuffer = pMediaType->ReallocFormatBuffer(dwSize); memcpy( pBuffer, m_pFlvFile->GetVideoFormatBuffer(nCurrentSampleID), dwSize); pMediaType->SetFormat(pBuffer, dwSize); return S_OK; }

    Read the article

  • There is a Default instance of form in VB.Net but not in C#, WHY?

    - by Shekhar_Pro
    I'm just curious to know that there is The (Name) property, which represents the name of the Form class.This property is used within the namespace to uniquely identify the class that the Form is an instance of and, in the case of Visual Basic, is used to access the default instance of the form. Now where this Default Instance come from, why can't C# have a equivalent method to this. Also for example to show a form in C# we do something like this: //Only method Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.Show(); But in VB.Net we have both ways to do it: //'First common method (used slash because editor wouldn't format it properly) Form1.Show(); //'Second method Dim frm as New Form1(); frm.Show(); My question comes from this first method. What is this Form1, is it an instance of Form1 or the Form1 class itself. Now as i mentioned above the Form name is the Default instance in VB.Net. But we also know that Form1 is a class defined in Designer so how can the names be same for both the Instance and class name. If Form1 is Class then there is no (Static\Shared) method named Show(). So where does this method come from. And finally why C# can't have an equivalent of this. If there some mistake in my question Please let me know *I've checked this on stackoverflow, but couldn't find an answer to this.If you do find then please give a link to it.*

    Read the article

  • C# Interface Method calls from a controller

    - by ArjaaAine
    I was just working on some application architecture and this may sound like a stupid question but please explain to me how the following works: Interface: public interface IMatterDAL { IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input); IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input); } Class: public class MatterDAL : IMatterDAL { private readonly Database _db; public MatterDAL(Database db) { _db = db; LoadAll(); //Private Method } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersBySearch(string input) { //CODE return result; } public virtual IEnumerable<Matter> GetMattersByCode(string input) { //CODE return results; } Controller: public class MatterController : ApiController { private readonly IMatterDAL _publishedData; public MatterController(IMatterDAL publishedData) { _publishedData = publishedData; } [ValidateInput(false)] public JsonResult SearchByCode(string id) { var searchText = id; //better name for this var results = _publishedData.GetMattersBySearch(searchText).Select( matter => new { MatterCode = matter.Code, MatterName = matter.Name, matter.ClientCode, matter.ClientName }); return Json(results); } This works, when I call my controller method from jquery and step into it, the call to the _publishedData method, goes into the class MatterDAL. I want to know how does my controller know to go to the MatterDAL implementation of the Interface IMatterDAL. What if I have another class called MatterDAL2 which is based on the interface. How will my controller know then to call the right method? I am sorry if this is a stupid question, this is baffling me.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to specify a per-host deploy_to path with Capistrano?

    - by Chad Johnson
    I have searched and searched and asked a question already and have not received a clear answer. I have the following deploy script (snippet): set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :app, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :db, "domain1.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true role :db, "domain2.com", :norelease => true As you see, I have set deploy_to to a specific path. And, I also have specified multiple web servers. However, each web server should have a different deployment path. I want to be able to run "cap deploy" and deploy to all hosts in one shot. I am NOT trying to deploy to staging and then to production. This is all production. My question is: how exactly do I specify a path per server? I have read the "Roles" documentation for Capistrano, and this is unclear. Can someone please post a deploy file example? I have read the documentation, and it is unclear how to do this. Does anyone know? Am I crazy? Am I thinking of this wrong or something? No answers anywhere online. Nowhere. Nothing. Please, someone help.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to spoof or reuse VIEWSTATE or detect if it is protected from modification?

    - by Peter Jaric
    Question ASP and ASP.NET web applications use a value called VIEWSTATE in forms. From what I understand, this is used to persist some kind of state on the client between requests to the web server. I have never worked with ASP or ASP.NET and need some help with two questions (and some sub-questions): 1) Is it possible to programmatically spoof/construct a VIEWSTATE for a form? Clarification: can a program look at a form and from that construct the contents of the base64-encoded VIEWSTATE value? 1 a) Or can it always just be left out? 1 b) Can an old VIEWSTATE for a particular form be reused in a later invocation of the same form, or would it just be luck if that worked? 2) I gather from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms972976.aspx#viewstate_topic12 that it is possible to turn on security so that the VIEWSTATE becomes secure from spoofing. Is it possible for a program to detect that a VIEWSTATE is safeguarded in such a way? 2 a) Is there a one-to-one mapping between the occurrence of EVENTVALIDATION values and secure VIEWSTATEs? Regarding 1) and 2), if yes, can I have a hint about how I would do that? For 2) I am thinking I could base64-decode the value and search for a string that always is found in unencrypted VIEWSTATEs. "First:"? Something else? Background I have made a small tool for detecting and exploiting so called CSRF vulnerabilities. I use it to quickly make proof of concepts of such vulnerabilities that I send to the affected site owners. Quite often I encounter these forms with a VIEWSTATE, and these I don't know if they are secure or not. Edit 1: Clarified question 1 somewhat. Edit 2: Added text in italics.

    Read the article

  • How to call a method from another class that's been instantiated within the current class

    - by Pavan
    my screen has a few views like such __________________ | _____ | | | | | //viewX is a video screen | | | | | viewX | vY | | //viewY is a custom uiview i created. | |____| | //it contains a method which i would like to call that toggles |_________________| //the hidden property of this view. and when it hides, a little | | //button is replaced no the top right corner on top of viewX | viewZ | //the video layer | | |_________________| //viewZ is a view containing many square views - thumbnails. my question is, i dont know how to register for touch events so that it recognises any touch event on no matter which view the user touches the screen.. atm im handling the touch events for each view inside it. so all works well... however what im trying to do is that when the user taps anywhere else on the screen but on viewY, viewY should dissapear by calling that method in the viewY class. this viewY class is instantiated and has no xib file attached to it. the uiview is created progammatically in the viewY class. this whole class for viewY behviour is instantiated in viewX - the video view. my boss says add delegates.. although i have now clue how to do that... any help? is there anyway i can just make it really simple and be able to say REMOVE VIEW no matter which class im calling from? Also ive seen other people achieve this by using these funky arrows - ... <- etc.. although im not sure if thats what i need or how to implement such a thing. ah i think ive made my question quite complicated but i really mean it to be a simple one, and know it can be done in an easy way!

    Read the article

  • What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

    - by Curtis White
    This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

    Read the article

  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

    Read the article

  • Refresh page in browser without resubmitting form

    - by Michael
    I'm an ASP.NET developer, and I usually find myself leaving the webpage that I'm working on open in my browser (Chrome is my browser of choice, but this question is relevant for any browser). My workflow typically goes like this: I write code, I rebuild my project in Visual Studio, and then I flip back to my browser with Alt-Tab and hit F5 to refresh the page. This is fine and dandy if a form hasn't been submitted since the page was opened. But if I've been clicking around on ASP.NET form controls, the page has posted form data a number of times, so hitting F5 causes the browser to (sensibly) pop up a confirmation message, e.g., "Confirm Form Resubmission: The page that you're looking for used information that you entered...". Sometimes I do want to resubmit the form, but more often than not, I just want to start over with the page (rather than resubmit form data). The way I usually get around this is to simply add some query string data to the URL so that the browser sees it as a fresh page request, e.g.: page.aspx becomes page.aspx? (or vice-versa). My question is: Is there a better way to quickly request a fresh version of a webpage (and not submit form data) in any of the major browsers? It seems like a no-brainer to me for web development, but maybe I'm missing something. What I'd love to see is something like the last item in this list: F5: refresh page Ctrl-F5: refresh page (and force cache refresh) Alt-F5: request fresh copy of the page without resubmitting the form

    Read the article

  • Is there a design pattern that expresses objects (an their operations) in various states?

    - by darren
    Hi I have a design question about the evolution of an object (and its state) after some sequence of methods complete. I'm having trouble articulating what I mean so I may need to clean up the question based on feedback. Consider an object called Classifier. It has the following methods: void initialise() void populateTrainingSet(TrainingSet t) void pupulateTestingSet(TestingSet t) void train() void test() Result predict(Instance i) My problem is that these methods need to be called in a certain order. Futher, some methods are invalid until a previous method is called, and some methods are invalid after a method has been called. For example, it would be invalid to call predict() before test() was called, and it would be invalid to call train() after test() was called. My approach so far has been to maintain a private enum that represents the current stateof the object: private static enum STATE{ NEW, TRAINED, TESTED, READY}; But this seems a bit cloogy. Is there a design pattern for such a problem type? Maybe something related to the template method.

    Read the article

  • Where to translate message strings - in the view or in the model?

    - by GrGr
    We have a multilingual (PHP) application and use gettext for i18n. There are a few classes in the backend/model that return messages or message formats for printf(). We use xgettext to extract the strings that we want to translate. We apply the gettext function T_() in the frontend/view - this seems to be where it belongs. So far we kept the backend clean from T_() calls, this way we can also unit-test messages. So in the frontend we have something like echo T_($mymodel->getMessage()); or printf(T_($mymodel->getMessageFormat()), $mymodel->getValue()); This makes it impossible to apply xgettext to extract the strings, unless we put some dummy T_("my message %s to translate") call in the MyModel class. So this leads to the more general question: Do you apply translation in the backend classes, resp. where do you apply translation and how do you keep track of the strings which you have to translate? (I am aware of Question: poedit workaround for dynamic gettext.)

    Read the article

  • Leftover Nav Bar in Landscape View

    - by Rob Bonner
    Hello, I am working to force a view into landscape mode, and have picked up all kinds of cool tips to make this happen, but am stuck on one item that is left on the screen. I have my XIB file laid out in landscape, and in my code I create the view controller normally: RedeemViewController *aViewController = [[RedeemViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"RedeemViewController" bundle:nil]; aViewController.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; aViewController.wantsFullScreenLayout = YES; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:aViewController animated:YES]; Inside the controller viewDidLoad I complete the following: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setStatusBarOrientation:UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight]; [[self navigationController] setNavigationBarHidden:YES animated:YES]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"View Flip" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:.75]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; if (self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait) { self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformIdentity; self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(degreesToRadian(90)); self.view.bounds = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 480, 320); } [UIView commitAnimations]; What I end up with is a perfectly rotated view, with a grey vertical bar on the left side (see pic). So to the question, how do I get rid of the bar? Edit: I am pretty sure this is the navigation bar that is not being hidden. This is a duplicate of another post, with some modified code, the other question was being answered with the bug.

    Read the article

  • Which OpenGL functions are not GPU-accelerated?

    - by Xavier Ho
    I was shocked when I read this (from the OpenGL wiki): glTranslate, glRotate, glScale Are these hardware accelerated? No, there are no known GPUs that execute this. The driver computes the matrix on the CPU and uploads it to the GPU. All the other matrix operations are done on the CPU as well : glPushMatrix, glPopMatrix, glLoadIdentity, glFrustum, glOrtho. This is the reason why these functions are considered deprecated in GL 3.0. You should have your own math library, build your own matrix, upload your matrix to the shader. For a very, very long time I thought most of the OpenGL functions use the GPU to do computation. I'm not sure if this is a common misconception, but after a while of thinking, this makes sense. Old OpenGL functions (2.x and older) are really not suitable for real-world applications, due to too many state switches. This makes me realise that, possibly, many OpenGL functions do not use the GPU at all. So, the question is: Which OpenGL function calls don't use the GPU? I believe knowing the answer to the above question would help me become a better programmer with OpenGL. Please do share some of your insights.

    Read the article

  • Implimenting Zend MVC for my existing site-first step?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, OK-newbie question here. I'll try not to bombard SO with lots of questions-and hopefully this first one will show me the method I'll need to follow for subsequent conversions. I have a web-based calendar system that I developed, but it was coded for me procedurally (using PHP). I'm now working on learning OO and wanting to integrate this site into my localhost Zend Framework and slowly start converting parts to OO and the Zend Framework MVC process in particular. As I've said before, I understand that this will be a slow process, and when I'm done, I still probably won't have anything as OO friendly as if I had rewritten it from scratch, but I'd like to use this as a learning experience. So, I have dropped the whole site into my localhose/zend/Public folder, and everything is showing up great and linking to the database, etc. My question is-what would be the easiest first component to switch over to the MVC model? This site has a bit of everything-forms, login, authentication, some jQuery, etc. Can anyone point to a tutorial that would address what I'm trying to do? If indeed, a form would be one of the simpler things to switch, can someone walk me through those changes? Another idea is changing over all the header info, etc? Thanks for any pointers on where to start! EDIT: Also, I understand that SO is mainly for specific coding questions-I'm happy to share specific code, once I have an idea about which section to tackle first...

    Read the article

  • Log session and session changes of a asp.net web user

    - by Johan Wikström
    This is going to be a quite broad question, and any suggestions, examples, links are very welcome! I'm looking for a good way to log my users session, and actions on the site up to a certain point. The site in question is a site for doing bookings. The users start with doing a search, doing a few steps of data gathering and selections and end up with a booking. So what I need to implement is some kind of logging of the current session variables at each step the user takes. And perhaps some other valid information. Logging should preferably be done to the a database. At the end i would like to associate all these session with a booking reference. The goal is to later if something goes wrong with the booking or we need to investigate a situation have all information we need. I understand log4net is a popular choice for logging, and used it a bit myself for simple purposes, but can not find any good examples regarding my situation. This should be a common situation, i'm curious how others do it.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420  | Next Page >