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• slow DNS resolution

  - by Ehsan

  I have a DNS server that resolves all queries for an internal group of servers. It is a bind on CentOS 5.5 (same as RHEL5) and I have set it up to allow recursion and resolve direction without any forwarders. The problem I am facing is that it takes a freakishly long amount of time to resolve a name for the first time. (in the magnitudes of 20 sec) This causes clients to give timeout. When I set it to forward all to Google's public DNS, i.e. 8.8.8.8+8.8.4.4, it works very nicely (within a second). I tried monitoring the traffic on the net to see why it is doing this: [root@ns1 ~]# tcpdump -nnvvvA -s0 udp tcpdump: listening on eth0, link-type EN10MB (Ethernet), capture size 65535 bytes 23:06:36.137797 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 64, id 35903, offset 0, flags [none], proto: UDP (17), length: 60) 172.17.1.10.36942 > 172.17.1.4.53: [udp sum ok] 19773+ A? www.paypal.com. (32) E..<[email protected]... .....N.5.(6.M=...........www.paypal.com..... 23:06:36.140594 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 64, id 56477, offset 0, flags [none], proto: UDP (17), length: 71) 172.17.1.4.6128 > 192.35.51.30.53: [udp sum ok] 10105 [1au] A? www.paypal.com. ar: . OPT UDPsize=4096 (43) E..G....@........#3....5.3fR'y...........www.paypal.com.......)........ 23:06:38.149756 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 64, id 13078, offset 0, flags [none], proto: UDP (17), length: 71) 172.17.1.4.52425 > 192.54.112.30.53: [udp sum ok] 54892 [1au] A? www.paypal.com. ar: . OPT UDPsize=4096 (43) [email protected]&.....6p....5.3.q.l...........www.paypal.com.......)........ 23:06:40.159725 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 64, id 43016, offset 0, flags [none], proto: UDP (17), length: 71) 172.17.1.4.24059 > 192.42.93.30.53: [udp sum ok] 11205 [1au] A? www.paypal.com. ar: . OPT UDPsize=4096 (43) E..G....@..@.....*].]..5.3..+............www.paypal.com.......)........ 23:06:41.141403 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 64, id 35904, offset 0, flags [none], proto: UDP (17), length: 60) 172.17.1.10.36942 > 172.17.1.4.53: [udp sum ok] 19773+ A? www.paypal.com. (32) E..<.@..@..@... .....N.5.(6.M=...........www.paypal.com..... 23:06:42.169652 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 64, id 44001, offset 0, flags [none], proto: UDP (17), length: 60) 172.17.1.4.9141 > 192.55.83.30.53: [udp sum ok] 1184 A? www.paypal.com. (32) E..<[email protected].#..5.(...............www.paypal.com..... 23:06:42.207295 IP (tos 0x0, ttl 54, id 38004, offset 0, flags [none], proto: UDP (17), length: 205) 192.55.83.30.53 > 172.17.1.4.9141: [udp sum ok] 1184- q: A? www.paypal.com. 0/3/3 ns: paypal.com. NS ns1.isc-sns.net., paypal.com. NS ns2.isc-sns.com., paypal.com. NS ns3.isc-sns.info. ar: ns1.isc-sns.net. AAAA 2001:470:1a::1, ns1.isc-sns.net. A 72.52.71.1, ns2.isc-sns.com. A 38.103.2.1 (177) E....t..6./A.7S......5#..................www.paypal.com..................ns1.isc-sns.net..............ns2.isc-sns...............ns3.isc-sns.info..,.......... ..p.............,..........H4G..I..........&g.. (this goes on for a few more seconds) If you look carefully, you will see that the first 3-4 root servers did not respond at all. This wastes 7-8 seconds, until one of them responded. Do you think I have setup something wrong here? Interestingly, when I dig directly from the root servers that did not respond, the always respond very fast (showing the firewall/nat is not the issue here). E.g. dig www.paypal.com @192.35.51.30 works perfectly, consistently, and very fast. What do you think about this mystery?

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• Question about Client IDs

  - by George

  I have a user control that is emmitting javascript using the ClientId function. For example: Out &= "ValidatorHookupControlID(" & Quote & ddlMonth.ClientID & Quote & "), document.all(" & Quote & CustomValidator1.ClientID & Quote & "));" & vbCrLf It appears to me that the ClientID function DOES not return the ultimate ID that is sent to the browser. Instead, the ClientID function only appears to be aware of its current parent control, which in this case is a the User Control and so the ID that is returned is the ID "dtmPassportExpirationDate_ddlMonth" When in fact the usercontrol is included in a master page and the ultimate ID that is used is: "ctl00_phPageContent_dtmPassportExpirationDate_ddlMonth" I may be nuts, but that's what it appears to be doing. I expect that the ClientID function would return the ultimate ID used in the HTML. Am I missing something?

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• Redirect in combination with a rewrite condition in htaccess

  - by Robbert van den Bogerd

  Hi all! I've got a cms-driven website, with no option to change the code. What I want to accomplish is creating friendly url's, using only apaches mod-rewrite engine. The problem is I'm creating an infinite loop, because I first redirect the original url (index.php?id=21) to a friendly one (/friendly/) and then rewrite the '/friendly' part back to 'id=21' I know there should be an extra condition or parameter to avoid looping in this case, but I can´t get one of the possible solutions to work. Here´s the code: RewriteCond %{query_string} ^id=21$ [NC] RewriteRule /* /peuterspeelzaal? [R=301,L] RewriteRule ^peuterspeelzaal$ index.php?id=21 [L]

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• How to: generate UnhandledException?

  - by serhio

  I use this code to catch the WinForm application UnhandledException. [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { // Add the event handler for handling UI thread exceptions to the event. Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); // Set the unhandled exception mode to force all Windows Forms errors // to go through our handler. Application.SetUnhandledExceptionMode(UnhandledExceptionMode.CatchException); // Add the event handler for handling non-UI thread exceptions to the event. AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); try { Application.Run(new MainForm()); } catch.... There I will try to restart the application. Now my problem is to simulate a exception like this. I tried before try (in main): throw new NullReferenceException("test"); VS caught it. Tried also in MainForm code with button : private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs ev) { ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(new WaitCallback(TestMe), null); } protected void TestMe(object state) { string s = state.ToString(); } did not help, VS caught it, even in Release mode. How should I, finally, force the application generate UnhandleldException? Will I be able to restart the application in CurrentDomain_UnhandledException?

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• Appending string in NSXMLNode

  - by iSight

  Hi, When I call the method setStringValue:mCurrentString when is encountered, the child elements which are already attached to element are detached. Can any one suggest why it is happening so. The sample XML file goes like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Test xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" Version="1.0"> <Page Id="123-234-345-456-567"> <Word/> <Text Id="234-345-456-567-678" Left="120.789" Top="120.234657" Width="300.2390" Height="50.00"> <Content> <![CDATA[<FlowDocument FontFamily="Helvetica" FontSize="24" Foreground="#FFFFFF00" TextAlignment="Left" PagePadding="5,0,5,0" AllowDrop="True" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation"><Paragraph><Run FontFamily="Helvetica" FontSize="24" Foreground="FF00B38D" xml:lang="en-gb">This is for Testing purpose</Run></Paragraph>]]></Content> <Stroke Color="#FF00B300" Width="10"/> </Text> <Image Id="345-456-567-678-789" Left="200.345" Top="350.678" Width="200.00" Height="200.00"> <Source>Bear.png</Source> </Image> </Page> <Page Id="345-897-123-756-098" Left="100.90" Top="200.098" Width="200.098" Height="50.09"> <Image Id="756-098-978-685-298" Left="12098" Top="340.87" Right="109.78" Height="100.987"> <Source>Flower.png</Source> </Image> </Page> </Test> This is the method i am using for an NSXMLElement object: [mCurrentElement setStringValue:mCurrentString];// mCurrentString is the string that obtained through delegate method.

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• System.MissingMemberException was unhandled by user code

  - by AmRoSH

  I'm using this code: Dim VehiclesTable1 = dsVehicleList.Tables(0) Dim VT1 = (From d In VehiclesTable1.AsEnumerable _ Select VehicleTypeName = d.Item("VehicleTypeName") _ , VTypeID = d.Item("VTypeID") _ , ImageURL = d.Item("ImageURL") _ , DailyRate = d.Item("DailyRate") _ , RateID = d.Item("RateID")).Distinct its linq to dataset and I Take Data on THis Rotator: <telerik:RadRotator ID="RadRotatorVehicleType" runat="server" Width="620px" Height="145" ItemWidth="155" ItemHeight="145" ScrollDirection="Left" FrameDuration="1" RotatorType="Buttons"> <ItemTemplate> <div style="text-align: center; cursor: pointer; width: 150px"> <asp:Image ID="ImageVehicleType" runat="server" Width="150" ImageUrl='<%# Container.DataItem("ImageURL") %>' /> <asp:Label ID="lblVehicleType" runat="server" Text='<%# Container.DataItem("VehicleTypeName") %>' Font-Bold="true"></asp:Label> <br /> <asp:Label ID="lblDailyRate" runat="server" Text='<%# Container.DataItem("DailyRate") %>' Visible="False"></asp:Label> <input id="HiddenVehicleTypeID" type="hidden" value='<%# Container.DataItem("VTypeID") %>' name="HiddenVehicleTypeID" runat="server" /> <input id="HiddenRateID" type="hidden" value='<%# Container.DataItem("RateID") %>' name="HiddenRateID" runat="server" /> </div> </ItemTemplate> <ControlButtons LeftButtonID="img_left" RightButtonID="img_right" /> </telerik:RadRotator> and I got this Exception: No default member found for type 'VB$AnonymousType_0(Of Object,Object,Object,Object,Object)'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.MissingMemberException: No default member found for type 'VB$AnonymousType_0(Of Object,Object,Object,Object,Object)'. I don't know whats up ? Any help please. Thanks for who tried to solve this but I got solution: using '<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem,"ImageURL") %>' instead of '<%# Container.DataItem("RateID") %>' Thanks,

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• PHP, MySQL, jQuery, AJAX: json data returns correct response but frontend returns error

  - by Devner

  Hi all, I have a user registration form. I am doing server side validation on the fly via AJAX. The quick summary of my problem is that upon validating 2 fields, I get error for the second field validation. If I comment first field, then the 2nd field does not show any error. It has this weird behavior. More details below: The HTML, JS and Php code are below: HTML FORM: <form id="SignupForm" action=""> <fieldset> <legend>Free Signup</legend> <label for="username">Username</label> <input name="username" type="text" id="username" /><span id="status_username"></span><br /> <label for="email">Email</label> <input name="email" type="text" id="email" /><span id="status_email"></span><br /> <label for="confirm_email">Confirm Email</label> <input name="confirm_email" type="text" id="confirm_email" /><span id="status_confirm_email"></span><br /> </fieldset> <p> <input id="sbt" type="button" value="Submit form" /> </p> </form> JS: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#email").blur(function() { var email = $("#email").val(); var msgbox2 = $("#status_email"); if(email.length > 3) { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'check_ajax2.php', data: "email="+ email, dataType: 'json', cache: false, success: function(data) { if(data.success == 'y') { alert('Available'); } else { alert('Not Available'); } } }); } return false; }); $("#confirm_email").blur(function() { var confirm_email = $("#confirm_email").val(); var email = $("#email").val(); var msgbox3 = $("#status_confirm_email"); if(confirm_email.length > 3) { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'check_ajax2.php', data: 'confirm_email='+ confirm_email + '&email=' + email, dataType: 'json', cache: false, success: function(data) { if(data.success == 'y') { alert('Available'); } else { alert('Not Available'); } } , error: function (data) { alert('Some error'); } }); } return false; }); }); </script> PHP code: <?php //check_ajax2.php if(isset($_POST['email'])) { $email = $_POST['email']; $res = mysql_query("SELECT uid FROM members WHERE email = '$email' "); $i_exists = mysql_num_rows($res); if( 0 == $i_exists ) { $success = 'y'; $msg_email = 'Email available'; } else { $success = 'n'; $msg_email = 'Email is already in use.</font>'; } print json_encode(array('success' => $success, 'msg_email' => $msg_email)); } if(isset($_POST['confirm_email'])) { $confirm_email = $_POST['confirm_email']; $email = ( isset($_POST['email']) && trim($_POST['email']) != '' ? $_POST['email'] : '' ); $res = mysql_query("SELECT uid FROM members WHERE email = '$confirm_email' "); $i_exists = mysql_num_rows($res); if( 0 == $i_exists ) { if( isset($email) && isset($confirm_email) && $email == $confirm_email ) { $success = 'y'; $msg_confirm_email = 'Email available and match'; } else { $success = 'n'; $msg_confirm_email = 'Email and Confirm Email do NOT match.'; } } else { $success = 'n'; $msg_confirm_email = 'Email already exists.'; } print json_encode(array('success' => $success, 'msg_confirm_email' => $msg_confirm_email)); } ?> THE PROBLEM: As long as I am validating the $_POST['email'] as well as $_POST['confirm_email'] in the check_ajax2.php file, the validation for confirm_email field always returns an error. With my limited knowledge of Firebug, however, I did find out that the following were the responses when I entered email and confirm_email in the fields: RESPONSE 1: {"success":"y","msg_email":"Email available"} RESPONSE 2: {"success":"y","msg_email":"Email available"}{"success":"n","msg_confirm_email":"Email and Confirm Email do NOT match."} Although the RESPONSE 2 shows that we are receiving the correct message via msg_confirm_email, in the front end, the alert 'Some error' is popping up (I have enabled the alert for debugging). I have spent 48 hours trying to change every part of the code wherever possible, but with only little success. What is weird about this is that if I comment the validation for $_POST['email'] field completely, then the validation for $_POST['confirm_email'] field is displaying correctly without any errors. If I enable it back, it is validating email field correctly, but when it reaches the point of validating confirm_email field, it is again showing me the error. I have also tried renaming success variable in check_ajax2.php page to other different names for both $_POST['email'] and $_POST['confirm_email'] but no success. I will be adding more fields in the form and validating within the check_ajax2.php page. So I am not planning on using different ajax pages for validating each of those fields (and I don't think it's smart to do it that way). I am not a jquery or AJAX guru, so all help in resolving this issue is highly appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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• issues with live function

  - by Do Good

  I am using the .live function to fire of a function aaa(). Unable to fire the function because code does not reach alert msg The structure of my html is body id="plants" form id= flower method="post" div class= "rose" div class= "red" ul id = "colors" li a li a li a Cuurently I am using $( 'body#plants form#flower div.rose div.red ul#colors li a' ).live('click', function(){ alert('code reaches'); aaa(); }); How can I get this to work?

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• How to use jQuery to assign a class to only one radio button in a group when user clicks on it?

  - by xraminx

  I have the following markup. I would like to add class_A to <p class="subitem-text"> (that holds the radio button and the label) when user clicks on the <input> or <label>. If user clicks some other radio-button/label in the same group, I would like to add class_A to this radio-button's parent paragraph and remove class_A from any other paragraph that hold radio-buttons/labels in that group. Effectively, in each <li>, only one <p class="subitem-text"> should have class_A added to it. Is there a jQuery plug-in that does this? Or is there a simple trick that can do this? <ul> <li> <div class="myitem-wrapper" id="10"> <div class="myitem clearfix"> <span class="number">1</span> <div class="item-text">Some text here </div> </div> <p class="subitem-text"> <input type="radio" name="10" value="15" id="99"> <label for="99">First subitem </label> </p> <p class="subitem-text"> <input type="radio" name="10" value="77" id="21"> <label for="21">Second subitem</label> </p> </div> </li> <li> <div class="myitem-wrapper" id="11"> <div class="myitem clearfix"> <span class="number">2</span> <div class="item-text">Some other text here ... </div> </div> <p class="subitem-text"> <input type="radio" name="11" value="32" id="201"> <label for="201">First subitem ... </label> </p> <p class="subitem-text"> <input type="radio" name="11" value="68" id="205"> <label for="205">Second subitem ...</label> </p> <p class="subitem-text"> <input type="radio" name="11" value="160" id="206"> <label for="206">Third subitem ...</label> </p> </div> </li>

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• How come drawing this line at (0,0) doesn't really draw it at (0,0)?

  - by George Edison

  I have this ActionScript code here: package { import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.display.LineScaleMode; import flash.display.CapsStyle; import flash.display.JointStyle; import flash.display.Shape; import flash.events.Event; public class Main extends Sprite { private var lines:Shape; public function Main():void { if (stage) init(); else addEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, init); } private function init(e:Event = null):void { removeEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, init); // entry point lines = new Shape(); addChild(lines); lines.graphics.clear(); lines.graphics.lineStyle(10, 0x000000); lines.graphics.moveTo(0, 0); lines.graphics.lineTo(stage.stageWidth, stage.stageHeight); } } } What I'm expecting this to do is to draw a line from one corner of the screen to the other... but that's not what it does. See here.

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• What setting needs to be made to make .Net Automation responsive?

  - by Greg

  Have an app that is looking for application windows being created on the desktop using class Unresponsive { private StructureChangedEventHandler m_UIAeventHandler = new StructureChangedEventHandler(OnStructureChanged); public Unresponsive() { Automation.AddStructureChangedEventHandler(AutomationElement.RootElement, TreeScope.Children, m_UIAeventHandler); } private void OnStructureChanged(object sender, StructureChangedEventArgs e) { Debug.WriteLine("Change event"); } } You can see the same issue using UISpy.exe, selecting the desktop and configuring scope for children and just the structure changed event. The problem I'm trying to resolve is that the events are not raised in a timely manner, there seems to be some grouping/delay which makes the app appear to be non responsive. If you start a new app with 1 window and wait a second you get the event, seems alright. If you start the same app several times without delay (say clicking on quickstart), it's not until all of the instances of the app get 'initialised' by the AutomationProxies that you get the notice for the first app (and in short order the other apps/windows). I've sat watching task manager as each instance of the app starts to grow as it is initialised, waiting until the last app is done and then seeing the events all come in. Similarly any time any apps are starting windows within a timeframe there seems to be some blocking. I can't see how to configure this timeframe, or get each structure changed event to be sent on as soon as it happens. Also, this process of listening for structure changed events seems to be leaking, just by listening there is a leak in native memory. (visible in UISpy and my app)

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• Help with grasping (INNER?) JOIN

  - by Greenie

  I'm having trouble building a query. I can do what I want in 3 different queries. SELECT id FROM table1 WHERE url LIKE '%/$downloadfile' put that in $url_id SELECT item_id FROM table2 WHERE rel_id = '$url_id'" put that in $item_id SELECT rel_id FROM table2 WHERE rel_id = '$item_id' AND field_id = '42'" put that in $user_id But from reading examples on joins and inner joins I think there's a more elegant way. I cant wrap my brain around writing a better query (but would like to) I can describe how it should go: table1 fields: id, url table2 fields item_id, rel_id, field_id I know the last part of table1.url (LIKE '%/$filename') with that I select table1.id. table1.id is equal to one entry in table2.rel_id. So get that and select the table2.item_id. In table2 there is another entry which has the same table2.item_id and it will have a table2.field_id = '42' And finally the value I need is the table2.rel_id where the table2.field_id was 42. I will fetch that value and put it in $user_id Can this be done with one query using joins/inner joins?

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• Mysql Select 1:n

  - by clinisbut

  Hello, I have two tables that relates 1:n content --------- - id - title - text content_meta ------------- - id - content_id - meta_key - meta_value A content can have multiple content_meta registers associated to it. Typically content_meta will contain the category, tags, descriptions and all that stuff, so I really don't know the number of registers a content will have. What I want to accomplish is to take the content register and also all the related registers in content_meta in a single query. I've tried the subselect approachment but seems that I can only get one register/column (¿?) SELECT content.*, ( SELECT * FROM content_meta WHERE content_id = content.id ) FROM content This query complains that "Operand should contain 1 column(s)", so changing the '*' by for example meta_key clears the error, but returns a NULL for this subselect... SELECT content.*, ( SELECT meta_key FROM content_meta WHERE content_id = content.id ) FROM content Can anybody show me where to go from here please?

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• jquery-ui autocomplete with ASP MVC suggestions not displaying

  - by adamnickerson

  I have been trying to get a simple example of the jquery-ui autocomplete to work. I have a controller setup to handle the query, and it returns the json that looks to be in order, but I am getting no suggestions showing up. Here are the js libraries I am including: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="/Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js"></script> <link href="/Content/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> and here is the javascript and the form tags: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { $("#organization").autocomplete({ source: function (request, response) { $.ajax({ url: '/Organization/OrganizationLookup', dataType: "json", data: { limit: 12, q: request.term } }) }, minLength: 2 }); }); </script> <div class="ui-widget"> <label for="organization">Organization: </label> <input id="organization" /> </div> I get back a json response that looks reasonable from my controller: [{"id":"Sector A","value":"Sector A"},{"id":"Sector B","value":"Sector B"},{"id":"Sector C","value":"Sector C"}] id and value seem to be the default naming that autocomplete is looking for. But I get no joy at all. Any thoughts?

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• Ruby on Rails: link_to_remote and rel

  - by DerNalia

  I want a link to remote to have a rel tag, because I want to use facebox with it. I had it working with a regular link to... but I needed the link to remote to handle the event that a user doesn't have javascript enabled. this, currently does't work (except for the non-javascript part ) <%= link_to_remote "Ask a Question", {:url => {:action => :ask_question, :id => @container.id.to_s, :javascript_disabled => false }, :rel => 'facebox'}, :href => url_for( :controller => :view, :action => :ask_question, :id => @container.id.to_s, :javascript_disabled => true) %>

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• JPA joined column allow every value...

  - by Fabio Beoni

  I'm testing JPA, in a simple case File/FileVersions tables (Master/Details), with OneToMany relation, I have this problem: in FileVersions table, the field "file_id" (responsable for the relation with File table) accepts every values, not only values from File table. How can I use the JPA mapping to limit the input in FileVersion.file_id only for values existing in File.id? My class are File and FileVersion: FILE CLASS @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name="FILE_ID") private Long id; @Column(name="NAME", nullable = false, length = 30) private String name; //RELATIONS ------------------------------------------- @OneToMany(mappedBy="file", fetch=FetchType.EAGER) private Collection <FileVersion> fileVersionsList; //----------------------------------------------------- FILEVERSION CLASS @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name="VERSION_ID") private Long id; @Column(name="FILENAME", nullable = false, length = 255) private String fileName; @Column(name="NOTES", nullable = false, length = 200) private String notes; //RELATIONS ------------------------------------------- @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="FILE_ID", referencedColumnName="FILE_ID", nullable=false) private File file; //----------------------------------------------------- and this is the FILEVERSION TABLE CREATE TABLE `JPA-Support`.`FILEVERSION` ( `VERSION_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `FILENAME` varchar(255) NOT NULL, `NOTES` varchar(200) NOT NULL, `FILE_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`VERSION_ID`), KEY `FK_FILEVERSION_FILE_ID` (`FILE_ID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=4 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1

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• Security approach in web application

  - by meep

  Hello everyone. I am designing a web application in ASP.NET / C# where each registered user has the ability to add/modify/delete rows based on their user-id. Take this example: I am going to edit my route on the page /route.aspx?routeid=854 which belongs to me (user-id: 1). But because I am a curious guy I try to access /route.aspx?routeid=855 which belongs to another user (user-id: 2). How can I best avoid people from accessing other peoples data? Should I send each user id (from session) with each database-call, should I validate user/password on every page load or what is the best and most secure approach? I hope I made this clear enough.

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• Approach for authentication and storing user details.

  - by cappuccino

  Hey folks, I am using the Zend Framework but my question is broadly about sessions / databases / auth (PHP MySQL). Currently this is my approach to authentication: 1) User signs in, the details are checked in database. - Standard stuff really. 2) If the details are correct only the user's unique ID is stored in the session and a security token (user unique ID + IP + Browser info + salt). The session in written to the filesystem. I've been reading around and many are saying that storing stuff in sessions is not a good idea, and that you should really only write a unique ID which refers back to the user's details and a security token to prevent session hijacking. So this is the approach i've taken, i use to write the user's details in session, but i've moved that out. Wanted to know your opinions on this. I'm keeping sessions in the filesystem since i don't run on multiple servers, and since i'm only writting a tiny tiny bit of data to sessions, i thought that performance would be greater keeping sessions in the filesystem to reduce load on the database. Once the session is written on authentication, it really is only read-only from then on. 3) The rest of the user's details (like subscription details, permissions, account info etc) are cached in the filesystem (this can always be easily moved to memory if i wanted even more performance). So rather than keeping the user's details in session, the user's details are cached in the file system. I'm using Zend_Cache and the unique cache id is something like md5(/cache/auth/2892), the number is the unique id of the user. I guess the benefit of this method is that once the user is logged in, there is essentially not database queries being run to get the user's details. Just wonder if this approach is better than keeping the whole lot in session... 4) As the user moves throughout the site the only thing that is checked is the ID in the session and the security token. So, overall the first question is 1) is the filesystem more efficient than a database for this purpose 2) have i taken enough security precautions 3) is separating user detail's from the session into a cached file a pointless task? Thanks.

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• AJAX PopupControl Extender with Bing Maps

  - by Morano88

  Hey! I want to use AJAX PopupControl Extender with a text box so when a user clicks on the text box a popup that contains the Bing Map appears. I'm using the following code but I don't know why it is not working ? <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Font-Bold="true" Font-Size="14px" Text="Click inside the textbox to open AJAX Popup Control:"></asp:Label> <div class="clear"><br /></div> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" CssClass="textbox" runat="server" Width="200px"></asp:TextBox> <html> <head> <title></title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ecn.dev.virtualearth.net/mapcontrol/mapcontrol.ashx?v=6.2"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map = null; function GetMap() { map = new VEMap('myMap'); map.LoadMap(new VELatLong(47.6, -122.33), 10 ,'h' ,false); } </script> </head> <body onload="GetMap();"> <div id='myMap' style="position:relative; width:400px; height:400px;"></div> </body> </html> <ajaxToolkit:PopupControlExtender ID="PopupControlExtender1" runat="server" CommitProperty="foreColor" Position="Right" TargetControlID="TextBox1" PopupControlID="myMap" OffsetX="2" OffsetY="2"> </ajaxToolkit:PopupControlExtender> what's wrong ?

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• How to float all child divs to center inside a parent div?

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  i use a parent div with three child divs , <div id="parentDiv"> <div id="PagerUp" class="pager"> </div> <div id="ResultsDiv"> </div> <div id="PagerDown" class="pager"> </div> </div> But what i get is this http://img132.imageshack.us/img132/5923/floatingdivs.jpg How to float all those divs to center.... Hint:I dint apply any css...

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• Can't access annotation property of subclassed uibutton - editted

  - by Tzur Gazit

  Below is my original question. I kept investigating and found out that the type of the button I allocate is of type UIButton instead of the subclassed type CustomButton. the capture below is the allocation of the button and connection to target. I break immediately after the allocation and check the button type (po rightButton at the debugger console). It's turned out tht the type is UIButton instead of CustomButton. CustomButton* rightButton = [CustomButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeDetailDisclosure]; [rightButton addTarget:self action:@selector(showDetails:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; I have a mapView to which I add annotations. The pin's callout have a button (rightCalloutAccessoryView). In order to be able to display various information when the button is pushed, i've subclassed uibutton and added a class called "Annotation". @interface CustomButton : UIButton { NSIndexPath *indexPath; Annotation *mAnnotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSIndexPath *indexPath; @property (nonatomic, copy) Annotation *mAnnotation; - (id) setAnnotation2:(Annotation *)annotation; @end Here is "Annotation": @interface Annotation : NSObject <MKAnnotation> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; NSString *mPhotoID; NSString *mPhotoUrl; NSString *mPhotoName; NSString *mOwner; NSString *mAddress; } @property (nonatomic, assign) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoID; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoUrl; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoName; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mOwner; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mAddress; - (id) initWithCoordinates:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)coordinate; - (id) setPhotoId:(NSString *)id url:(NSString *)url owner:(NSString *)owner address:(NSString *)address andName:(NSString *)name; @end I want to set the annotation property of the uibutton at - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)pMapView viewForAnnotation:(id )annotation, in order to refer to it at the button push handler (-(IBAction) showDetails:(id)sender). The problem is that I can't set the annotation property of the button. I get the following message at run time: 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400' 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] Stack: ( 32080987, 2472563977, 32462907, 32032374, 31884994, 55885, 30695992, 30679095, 30662137, 30514190, 30553882, 30481385, 30479684, 30496027, 30588515, 63333386, 31865536, 31861832, 40171029, 40171226, 2846639 ) I appreciate the help. Tzur.

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• mysql multiple insert - what happens on error?

  - by aviv

  What happens in mysql multiple records insert during an error. I have a table: id | value 2 | 100 UNIQUE(id) Now i try to execute the query: INSERT INTO table(id, value) VALUES (1,10),(2,20),(3,30) I will get a duplicate-key error for the (2,20) BUT... Will the (1,10) get into the database? Will the (3,30) get into the database?

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• MySQL: Complex Join Statement involving two tables and a third correlation table

  - by Stephen

  I have two tables that were built for two disparate systems. I have records in one table (called "leads") that represent customers, and records in another table (called "manager") that are the exact same customers but "manager" uses different fields (For example, "leads" contains an email address, and "manager" contains two fields for two different emails--either of which might be the email from "leads"). So, I've created a correlation table that contains the lead_id and manager_id. currently this correlation table is empty. I'm trying to query the "leads" table to give me records that match either "manager" email field with the single "leads" email field, while at the same time ignoring fields that have already been added to the "correlated" table. (this way I can see how many leads that match have not yet been correlated.) Here's my current, invalid SQL attempt: SELECT leads.id, manager.id FROM leads, manager LEFT OUTER JOIN correlation ON correlation.lead_id = leads.id WHERE correlation.id IS NULL AND leads.project != "someproject" AND (manager.orig_email = leads.email OR manager.dest_email = leads.email) AND leads.created BETWEEN '1999-01-01 00:00:00' AND '2010-05-10 23:59:59' ORDER BY leads.created ASC; I get the error: Unknown column 'leads.id' in 'on clause' Before you wonder: there are records in the "leads" table where leads.project != "someproject" and leads.created falls between those dates. I've included those additional parameters for completeness.

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• how do i need to place the datapicker using jquery

  - by kumar

  hi, How to place the datapicker inthis code? <fieldset class="empty" id="fieldset"> <legend>School Name</legend> <div class="Edit"> <label for="ID"> ID: <span><%=Html.DisplayFor(e => e.ID)%></span> </label> <label for="Date"> Date: <span><%=Model.Date.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") %></span> </label> </fieldset> I need to place Datepicker in Date beside date label? how i can do this? thanks

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• Hibernate MapKeyManyToMany gives composite key where none exists

  - by larsrc

  I have a Hibernate (3.3.1) mapping of a map using a three-way join table: @Entity public class SiteConfiguration extends ConfigurationSet { @ManyToMany @MapKeyManyToMany(joinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="SiteTypeInstallationId")) @JoinTable( name="SiteConfig_InstConfig", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name="SiteConfigId"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name="InstallationConfigId") ) Map<SiteTypeInstallation, InstallationConfiguration> installationConfigurations = new HashMap<SiteTypeInstallation, InstallationConfiguration>(); ... } The underlying table (in Oracle 11g) is: Name Null Type ------------------------------ -------- ---------- SITECONFIGID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) SITETYPEINSTALLATIONID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) INSTALLATIONCONFIGID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) The key entity used to have a three-column primary key in the database, but is now redefined as: @Entity public class SiteTypeInstallation implements IdResolvable { @Id @GeneratedValue(generator="SiteTypeInstallationSeq", strategy= GenerationType.SEQUENCE) @SequenceGenerator(name = "SiteTypeInstallationSeq", sequenceName = "SEQ_SiteTypeInstallation", allocationSize = 1) long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="SiteTypeId") SiteType siteType; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="InstalationRoleId") InstallationRole role; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="InstallationTypeId") InstType type; ... } The table for this has a primary key 'Id' and foreign key constraints+indexes for each of the other columns: Name Null Type ------------------------------ -------- ---------- SITETYPEID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) INSTALLATIONROLEID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) INSTALLATIONTYPEID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) ID NOT NULL NUMBER(19) For some reason, Hibernate thinks the key of the map is composite, even though it isn't, and gives me this error: org.hibernate.MappingException: Foreign key (FK1A241BE195C69C8:SiteConfig_InstConfig [SiteTypeInstallationId])) must have same number of columns as the referenced primary key (SiteTypeInstallation [SiteTypeId,InstallationRoleId]) If I remove the annotations on installationConfigurations and make it transient, the error disappears. I am very confused why it thinks SiteTypeInstallation has a composite key at all when @Id is clearly defining a simple key, and doubly confused why it picks exactly just those two columns. Any idea why this happens? Is it possible that JBoss (5.0 EAP) + Hibernate somehow remembers a mistaken idea of the primary key across server restarts and code redeployments? Thanks in advance, -Lars

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