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  • Switch activity from a AlertDialog button

    - by Fahim Ahmed
    Let's say , I have three classes : MapsActivity , MyItemizedOverlay & GetDirectionActivity . In MyItemizedOverlay , I want to switch to GetDirectionActivity after the positive dialog button is clicked . ActiveDialog is placed under onTap method , so that I can get the GeoPoint. For this , what I've done : In ItemizedOverlay class : @Override public boolean onTap(GeoPoint p, MapView mapView) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub int lat = p.getLatitudeE6(); int lot = p.getLongitudeE6(); AlertDialog.Builder dialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(mContext); dialog.setTitle("Confirmation"); dialog.setMessage("Confirm this as end point ?"); dialog.setPositiveButton("Yes", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int arg1) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Intent intent = new Intent(mContext, GetDestination.class); startActivity(intent); } }); dialog.setNegativeButton("No", null); dialog.show(); return true ; } here IDE shows that I have a error in startActivity(intent) line . I've tried that also : In MyItemizedOverlay class : @Override public boolean onTap(GeoPoint p, MapView mapView) { return super.onTap(p, mapView); } In MapsActivity class : GeoPoint point2 = null ; confirmationOverlay.onTap(point2, mapView) ; int latt = point.getLatitudeE6() ; int longt = point.getLongitudeE6(); final int endpointArray [] = {latt , longt}; if(some condition to show the alert dialog after tapping) { AlertDialog.Builder dialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(MapsActivity.this); dialog.setTitle("Confirmation"); dialog.setMessage("Confirm this location as end point ?"); dialog.setPositiveButton("Yes", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int arg1) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Intent intent = new Intent(MapsActivity.this,GetDestination.class); intent.putExtra("geopoint" , endpointArray); startActivity(intent); } }); dialog.setNegativeButton("No", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int arg1) { } }); dialog.show(); } For the if statement what sort of condition I can use ? If I set it just like lat0 then the alertdialog appears without tapping on the map. I know this is very silly , but since I am new in both android & java , I hope you guys will consider it. Please help !

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  • C++ type-checking at compile-time

    - by Masterofpsi
    Hi, all. I'm pretty new to C++, and I'm writing a small library (mostly for my own projects) in C++. In the process of designing a type hierarchy, I've run into the problem of defining the assignment operator. I've taken the basic approach that was eventually reached in this article, which is that for every class MyClass in a hierarchy derived from a class Base you define two assignment operators like so: class MyClass: public Base { public: MyClass& operator =(MyClass const& rhs); virtual MyClass& operator =(Base const& rhs); }; // automatically gets defined, so we make it call the virtual function below MyClass& MyClass::operator =(MyClass const& rhs); { return (*this = static_cast<Base const&>(rhs)); } MyClass& MyClass::operator =(Base const& rhs); { assert(typeid(rhs) == typeid(*this)); // assigning to different types is a logical error MyClass const& casted_rhs = dynamic_cast<MyClass const&>(rhs); try { // allocate new variables Base::operator =(rhs); } catch(...) { // delete the allocated variables throw; } // assign to member variables } The part I'm concerned with is the assertion for type equality. Since I'm writing a library, where assertions will presumably be compiled out of the final result, this has led me to go with a scheme that looks more like this: class MyClass: public Base { public: operator =(MyClass const& rhs); // etc virtual inline MyClass& operator =(Base const& rhs) { assert(typeid(rhs) == typeid(*this)); return this->set(static_cast<Base const&>(rhs)); } private: MyClass& set(Base const& rhs); // same basic thing }; But I've been wondering if I could check the types at compile-time. I looked into Boost.TypeTraits, and I came close by doing BOOST_MPL_ASSERT((boost::is_same<BOOST_TYPEOF(*this), BOOST_TYPEOF(rhs)>));, but since rhs is declared as a reference to the parent class and not the derived class, it choked. Now that I think about it, my reasoning seems silly -- I was hoping that since the function was inline, it would be able to check the actual parameters themselves, but of course the preprocessor always gets run before the compiler. But I was wondering if anyone knew of any other way I could enforce this kind of check at compile-time.

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  • Are there programs that iteratively write new programs?

    - by chris
    For about a year I have been thinking about writing a program that writes programs. This would primarily be a playful exercise that might teach me some new concepts. My inspiration came from negentropy and the ability for order to emerge from chaos and new chaos to arise out of order in infinite succession. To be more specific, the program would start by writing a short random string. If the string compiles the programs will log it for later comparison. If the string does not compile the program will try to rewrite it until it does compile. As more strings (mini 'useless' programs) are logged they can be parsed for similarities and used to generate a grammar. This grammar can then be drawn on to write more strings that have a higher probability of compilation than purely random strings. This is obviously more than a little silly, but I thought it would be fun to try and grow a program like this. And as a byproduct I get a bunch of unique programs that I can visualize and call art. I'll probably write this in Ruby due to its simple syntax and dynamic compilation and then I will visualize in processing using ruby-processing. What I would like to know is: Is there a name for this type of programming? What currently exists in this field? Who are the primary contributors? BONUS! - In what ways can I procedurally assign value to output programs beyond compiles(y/n)? I may want to extend the functionality of this program to generate a program based on parameters, but I want the program to define those parameters through running the programs that compile and assigning meaning to the programs output. This question is probably more involved than reasonable for a bonus, but if you can think of a simple way to get something like this done in less than 23 lines or one hyperlink, please toss it into your response. I know that this is not quite meta-programming and from the little I know of AI and generative algorithms they are usually more goal oriented than what I am thinking. What would be optimal is a program that continually rewrites and improves itself so I don't have to ^_^

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  • Accessing Content Page elements

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I am facing a strange problem.. may be i am overlooking something and not able to find the silly issue. Need your help! I have a Master page and a Content Page: <form id="AccountForm" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="MenuHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> <hr /> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ContentHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> And my content page has some form elements: <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentHolder" runat="server"> First Name: <asp:TextBox ID="fName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Middle Name: <asp:TextBox ID="mName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Family Name: <asp:TextBox ID="lName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Birthday: <asp:TextBox ID="birthday" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Mobile Phone: <asp:TextBox ID="mobile" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> Alternate Phone: <asp:TextBox ID="phone" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <br /> I also have the code for submit button in the content page where i try to retrieve the values from the form elements and persist it into DB. Here is the SubmitButton_Click code: protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { log.Info("From Submit button: " + customerObject.first_name + " " + customerObject.family_name); if (fName != null) log.Info("First Name is not null"); log.Info("First Name:" + fName.Text); log.Info("Middle Name:" + mName.Text); log.Info("Family Name:" + fName.Text); log.Info("Mobile:" + mobile.Text); log.Info("Phone: " + phone.Text); log.Info("Address:" + bAddressL1.Text + bAddressL2.Text); Strangly.. i don't get any data that is filled into my text fields? Their objects are not null as well!! why is this behaviour happening? I am not trying to access elements in master page or other.. all the fields are in the content page.. only thing is there is no form element in the content page and the form element is in master page! Thanks in advance for your suggestions and answers. Abdel Raoof Olakara

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  • help me "dry" out this .net XML serialization code

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I have a base collection class and a child collection class, each of which are serializable. In a test, I discovered that simply having the child class's ReadXml method call base.ReadXml resulted in an InvalidCastException later on. First, here's the class structure: Base Class // Collection of Row objects [Serializable] [XmlRoot("Rows")] public class Rows : IList<Row>, ICollection<Row>, IEnumerable<Row>, IEquatable<Rows>, IXmlSerializable { public Collection<Row> Collection { get; protected set; } public void ReadXml(XmlReader reader) { reader.ReadToFollowing(XmlNodeName); do { using (XmlReader rowReader = reader.ReadSubtree()) { var row = new Row(); row.ReadXml(rowReader); Collection.Add(row); } } while (reader.ReadToNextSibling(XmlNodeName)); } } Derived Class // Acts as a collection of SpecificRow objects, which inherit from Row. Uses the same // Collection<Row> that Rows defines which is fine since SpecificRow : Row. [Serializable] [XmlRoot("MySpecificRowList")] public class SpecificRows : Rows, IXmlSerializable { public new void ReadXml(XmlReader reader) { // Trying to just do base.ReadXml(reader) causes a cast exception later reader.ReadToFollowing(XmlNodeName); do { using (XmlReader rowReader = reader.ReadSubtree()) { var row = new SpecificRow(); row.ReadXml(rowReader); Collection.Add(row); } } while (reader.ReadToNextSibling(XmlNodeName)); } public new Row this[int index] { // The cast in this getter is what causes InvalidCastException if I try // to call base.ReadXml from this class's ReadXml get { return (Row)Collection[index]; } set { Collection[index] = value; } } } And here's the code that causes a runtime InvalidCastException if I do not use the version of ReadXml shown in SpecificRows above (i.e., I get the exception if I just call base.ReadXml from within SpecificRows.ReadXml): TextReader reader = new StringReader(serializedResultStr); SpecificRows deserializedResults = (SpecificRows)xs.Deserialize(reader); SpecificRow = deserializedResults[0]; // this throws InvalidCastException So, the code above all compiles and runs exception-free, but it bugs me that Rows.ReadXml and SpecificRows.ReadXml are essentially the same code. The value of XmlNodeName and the new Row()/new SpecificRow() are the differences. How would you suggest I extract out all the common functionality of both versions of ReadXml? Would it be silly to create some generic class just for one method? Sorry for the lengthy code samples, I just wanted to provide the reason I can't simply call base.ReadXml from within SpecificRows.

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  • Is there any alternative to obfuscation to make it harder to get any string in javascript?

    - by MarceloRamires
    I use DropBox and I've had some trouble reaching to my files from other computers: I not always want to login to anything when I'm in a public computer, but I like being able to reach my stuff from wherever I am. So I've made a simple little application that when put in the public folder, ran and given the right UID, creates (still in your public folder) an HTML of all the content in the folder (including subfolders) as a tree of links. But I didn't risk loading it anywhere, since there are slightly private things in there (yes, I know that the folder's name is "PUBLIC"). So I've came up with the idea to make it a simple login page, given the right password, the rest of the page should load. brilliant!, but how? If I did this by redirecting to other HTML on the same folder, I'd still put the html link in the web history and the "url's accessed" history of the administrator. So I should generate itin the same page. I've done it. And currently the page is a textbox and a button, and only if you type in the right password (asked by the generator) the rest of the page loads. The fault is that everything (password, URL's) is easily reachable through the sourcecode. Now, assuming I only want to avoid silly people to get it all too easily, not make a bulletproof all-content-holding NSA certified website, I though about some ways to make these informations a bit harder to get. As you may have already figured, I use a streamwritter to write a .HTM file (head, loop through links, bottom), then it's extremely configurable, and I can come up with a pretty messy-but-working c# code, though my javascript knowledge is not that good. Public links in DropBox look like this: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/3045472/img.png Summarizing: How do I hide stuff (MAINLY the password, of course) in my source-code so that no bumb-a-joe that can read, use a computer and press CTRL+U can reach to my stuff too easily ? PS.: It's not that personal, if someone REALLY wants it, it could never be 100% protected, and if it was that important, I wouldnt put it in the public folder, also, if the dude really wants to get it that hard, he should deserve it. PS2.: "Use the ultra-3000'tron obfuscator!!11" is not a real answer, since my javascript is GENERATED by my c# program. PS3.: I don't want other solutions as "use a serverside application and host it somewhere to redirect and bla bla" or "compress the links in a .RAR file and put a password in it" since I'm doing this ALSO to learn, and I want the thrill of it =)

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  • How do you prevent IDisposable from spreading to all your classes?

    - by GrahamS
    Start with these simple classes... Let's say I have a simple set of classes like this: class Bus { Driver busDriver = new Driver(); } class Driver { Shoe[] shoes = { new Shoe(), new Shoe() }; } class Shoe { Shoelace lace = new Shoelace(); } class Shoelace { bool tied = false; } A Bus has a Driver, the Driver has two Shoes, each Shoe has a Shoelace. All very silly. Add an IDisposable object to Shoelace Later I decide that some operation on the Shoelace could be multi-threaded, so I add an EventWaitHandle for the threads to communicate with. So Shoelace now looks like this: class Shoelace { private AutoResetEvent waitHandle = new AutoResetEvent(false); bool tied = false; // ... other stuff .. } Implement IDisposable on Shoelace Buit now FxCop will complain: "Implement IDisposable on 'Shoelace' because it creates members of the following IDisposable types: 'EventWaitHandle'." Okay, I implement IDisposable on Shoelace and my neat little class becomes this horrible mess: class Shoelace : IDisposable { private AutoResetEvent waitHandle = new AutoResetEvent(false); bool tied = false; private bool disposed = false; public void Dispose() { Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~Shoelace() { Dispose(false); } protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (!this.disposed) { if (disposing) { if (waitHandle != null) { waitHandle.Close(); waitHandle = null; } } // No unmanaged resources to release otherwise they'd go here. } disposed = true; } } Or (as pointed out by commenters) since Shoelace itself has no unmanaged resources, I might use the simpler dispose implementation without needing the Dispose(bool) and Destructor: class Shoelace : IDisposable { private AutoResetEvent waitHandle = new AutoResetEvent(false); bool tied = false; public void Dispose() { if (waitHandle != null) { waitHandle.Close(); waitHandle = null; } GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } } Watch in horror as IDisposable spreads Right that's that fixed. But now FxCop will complain that Shoe creates a Shoelace, so Shoe must be IDisposable too. And Driver creates Shoe so Driver must be IDisposable. and Bus creates Driver so Bus must be IDisposable and so on. Suddenly my small change to Shoelace is causing me a lot of work and my boss is wondering why I need to checkout Bus to make a change to Shoelace. The Question How do you prevent this spread of IDisposable, but still ensure that your unmanaged objects are properly disposed?

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  • Who calls the Destructor of the class when operator delete is used in multiple inheritance.

    - by dicaprio-leonard
    This question may sound too silly, however , I don't find concrete answer any where else. With little knowledge on how late binding works and virtual keyword used in inheritance. As in the code sample, when in case of inheritance where a base class pointer pointing to a derived class object created on heap and delete operator is used to deallocate the memory , the destructor of the of the derived and base will be called in order only when the base destructor is declared virtual function. Now my question is : 1) When the destructor of base is not virtual, why the problem of not calling derived dtor occur only when in case of using "delete" operator , why not in the case given below: derived drvd; base *bPtr; bPtr = &drvd; //DTOR called in proper order when goes out of scope. 2) When "delete" operator is used, who is reponsible to call the destructor of the class? The operator delete will have an implementation to call the DTOR ? or complier writes some extra stuff ? If the operator has the implementation then how does it looks like , [I need sample code how this would have been implemented]. 3) If virtual keyword is used in this example, how does operator delete now know which DTOR to call? Fundamentaly i want to know who calls the dtor of the class when delete is used. Sample Code class base { public: base() { cout<<"Base CTOR called"<<endl; } virtual ~base() { cout<<"Base DTOR called"<<endl; } }; class derived:public base { public: derived() { cout<<"Derived CTOR called"<<endl; } ~derived() { cout<<"Derived DTOR called"<<endl; } }; I'm not sure if this is a duplicate, I couldn't find in search. int main() { base *bPtr = new derived(); delete bPtr;// only when you explicitly try to delete an object return 0; }

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  • Best practices regarding equals: to overload or not to overload?

    - by polygenelubricants
    Consider the following snippet: import java.util.*; public class EqualsOverload { public static void main(String[] args) { class Thing { final int x; Thing(int x) { this.x = x; } public int hashCode() { return x; } public boolean equals(Thing other) { return this.x == other.x; } } List<Thing> myThings = Arrays.asList(new Thing(42)); System.out.println(myThings.contains(new Thing(42))); // prints "false" } } Note that contains returns false!!! We seems to have lost our things!! The bug, of course, is the fact that we've accidentally overloaded, instead of overridden, Object.equals(Object). If we had written class Thing as follows instead, then contains returns true as expected. class Thing { final int x; Thing(int x) { this.x = x; } public int hashCode() { return x; } @Override public boolean equals(Object o) { return (o instanceof Thing) && (this.x == ((Thing) o).x); } } Effective Java 2nd Edition, Item 36: Consistently use the Override annotation, uses essentially the same argument to recommend that @Override should be used consistently. This advice is good, of course, for if we had tried to declare @Override equals(Thing other) in the first snippet, our friendly little compiler would immediately point out our silly little mistake, since it's an overload, not an override. What the book doesn't specifically cover, however, is whether overloading equals is a good idea to begin with. Essentially, there are 3 situations: Overload only, no override -- ALMOST CERTAINLY WRONG! This is essentially the first snippet above Override only (no overload) -- one way to fix This is essentially the second snippet above Overload and override combo -- another way to fix The 3rd situation is illustrated by the following snippet: class Thing { final int x; Thing(int x) { this.x = x; } public int hashCode() { return x; } public boolean equals(Thing other) { return this.x == other.x; } @Override public boolean equals(Object o) { return (o instanceof Thing) && (this.equals((Thing) o)); } } Here, even though we now have 2 equals method, there is still one equality logic, and it's located in the overload. The @Override simply delegates to the overload. So the questions are: What are the pros and cons of "override only" vs "overload & override combo"? Is there a justification for overloading equals, or is this almost certainly a bad practice?

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  • Python File Search Line And Return Specific Number of Lines after Match

    - by Simos Anderson
    I have a text file that has lines representing some data sets. The file itself is fairly long but it contains certain sections of the following format: Series_Name INFO Number of teams : n1 | Team | # | wins | | TeamName1 | x | y | . . . | TeamNamen1 | numn | numn | Some Irrelevant lines Series_Name2 INFO Number of teams : n1 | Team | # | wins | | TeamName1 | num1 | num2 | . where each section has a header that begins with the Series_Name. Each Series_Name is different. The line with the header also includes the number of teams in that series, n1. Following the header line is a set of lines that represents a table of data. For each series there are n1+1 rows in the table, where each row shows an individual team name and associated stats. I have been trying to implement a function that will allow the user to search for a Team name and then print out the line in the table associated with that team. However, certain team names show up under multiple series. To resolve this, I am currently trying to write my code so that the user can search for the header line with series name first and then print out just the following n1+1 lines that represent the data associated with the series. Here's what I have come up with so far: import re print fname = raw_input("Enter filename: ") seriesname = raw_input("Enter series: ") def findcounter(fname, seriesname): logfile = open(fname, "r") pat = 'INFO Number of teams :' for line in logfile: if seriesname in line: if pat in line: s=line pattern = re.compile(r"""(?P<name>.*?) #starting name \s*INFO #whitespace and success \s*Number\s*of\s*teams #whitespace and strings \s*\:\s*(?P<n1>.*)""",re.VERBOSE) match = pattern.match(s) name = match.group("name") n1 = int(match.group("n1")) print name + " has " + str(n1) + " teams" lcount = 0 for line in logfile: if line.startswith(name): if pat in line: while lcount <= n1: s.append(line) lcount += 1 return result The first part of my code works; it matches the header line that the person searches for, parses the line, and then prints out how many teams are in that series. Since the header line basically tells me how many lines are in the table, I thought that I could use that information to construct a loop that would continue printing each line until a set counter reached n1. But I've tried running it, and I realize that the way I've set it up so far isn't correct. So here's my question: How do you return a number of lines after a matched line when given the number of desired lines that follow the match? I'm new to programming, and I apologize if this question seems silly. I have been working on this quite diligently with no luck and would appreciate any help.

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  • How can I implement NotOfType<T> in LINQ that has a nice calling syntax?

    - by Lette
    I'm trying to come up with an implementation for NotOfType, which has a readable call syntax. NotOfType should be the complement to OfType<T> and would consequently yield all elements that are not of type T My goal was to implement a method which would be called just like OfType<T>, like in the last line of this snippet: public abstract class Animal {} public class Monkey : Animal {} public class Giraffe : Animal {} public class Lion : Animal {} var monkey = new Monkey(); var giraffe = new Giraffe(); var lion = new Lion(); IEnumerable<Animal> animals = new Animal[] { monkey, giraffe, lion }; IEnumerable<Animal> fewerAnimals = animals.NotOfType<Giraffe>(); However, I can not come up with an implementation that supports that specific calling syntax. This is what I've tried so far: public static class EnumerableExtensions { public static IEnumerable<T> NotOfType<T>(this IEnumerable<T> sequence, Type type) { return sequence.Where(x => x.GetType() != type); } public static IEnumerable<T> NotOfType<T, TExclude>(this IEnumerable<T> sequence) { return sequence.Where(x => !(x is TExclude)); } } Calling these methods would look like this: // Animal is inferred IEnumerable<Animal> fewerAnimals = animals.NotOfType(typeof(Giraffe)); and // Not all types could be inferred, so I have to state all types explicitly IEnumerable<Animal> fewerAnimals = animals.NotOfType<Animal, Giraffe>(); I think that there are major drawbacks with the style of both of these calls. The first one suffers from a redundant "of type/type of" construct, and the second one just doesn't make sense (do I want a list of animals that are neither Animals nor Giraffes?). So, is there a way to accomplish what I want? If not, could it be possible in future versions of the language? (I'm thinking that maybe one day we will have named type arguments, or that we only need to explicitly supply type arguments that can't be inferred?) Or am I just being silly?

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  • How can I send multiple types of objects across Protobuf?

    - by cyclotis04
    I'm implementing a client-server application, and am looking into various ways to serialize and transmit data. I began working with Xml Serializers, which worked rather well, but generate data slowly, and make large objects, especially when they need to be sent over the net. So I started looking into Protobuf, and protobuf-net. My problem lies in the fact that protobuf doesn't sent type information with it. With Xml Serializers, I was able to build a wrapper which would send and receive any various (serializable) object over the same stream, since object serialized into Xml contain the type name of the object. ObjectSocket socket = new ObjectSocket(); socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(string)); // Tells the socket the types socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(int)); // of objects we will want socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(bool)); // to send and receive. socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Person)); // When it gets data, it looks for socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Address)); // these types in the Xml, then uses // the appropriate serializer. socket.Connect(_host, _port); socket.Send(new Person() { ... }); socket.Send(new Address() { ... }); ... Object o = socket.Read(); Type oType = o.GetType(); if (oType == typeof(Person)) HandlePerson(o as Person); else if (oType == typeof(Address)) HandleAddress(o as Address); ... I've considered a few solutions to this, including creating a master "state" type class, which is the only type of object sent over my socket. This moves away from the functionality I've worked out with Xml Serializers, though, so I'd like to avoid that direction. The second option would be to wrap protobuf objects in some type of wrapper, which defines the type of object. (This wrapper would also include information such as packet ID, and destination.) It seems silly to use protobuf-net to serialize an object, then stick that stream between Xml tags, but I've considered it. Is there an easy way to get this functionality out of protobuf or protobuf-net? I've come up with a third solution, and posted it below, but if you have a better one, please post it too!

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  • Container div ignores height of floated elements

    - by Thomas
    Ok, so this seems like a really silly problem but I can't get my container div to inherit the height of the floated elements inside of it. Since I need to center the container div, I can't use float to fix this problem. Here is my css: #container { margin: 0 auto; width: 1000px; border-left: 1px solid #f1f1f1; border-right: 1px solid #f1f1f1; border-bottom: 1px solid #f1f1f1; } #focus { padding-left: 23px; width: 977px; padding-top: 20px; padding-bottom: 23px; border-bottom: 1px solid #f1f1f1; float: left; } .rslider { float: left; width: 600px; margin-left: 15px; } .welcome { float: left; width: 300px; } Html: <div id="container"> <div id="logo_block"> <a href="#"><img src="img/logo.jpg" alt="" /></a> </div> <div id="focus"> <div class="welcome"> <h1>All About This Page</h1> <p>Donec quam felis, ultricies nec, pellentesque eu, pretium quis, sem. Nulla consequat massa quis enim. Donec pede justo, fringilla vel, liquet nec, vulputate eget, arcu. In enim justo, rhoncus ut, imperdiet a, venenatis vitae, justo. Nullam dictum felis eu pede mollis pretium.</p> </div> <div class="rslider"> <img src="img/slider_image.jpg"> </div> </div> </div> Any ideas?

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  • BULK INSERT from one table to another all on the server

    - by steve_d
    I have to copy a bunch of data from one database table into another. I can't use SELECT ... INTO because one of the columns is an identity column. Also, I have some changes to make to the schema. I was able to use the export data wizard to create an SSIS package, which I then edited in Visual Studio 2005 to make the changes desired and whatnot. It's certainly faster than an INSERT INTO, but it seems silly to me to download the data to a different computer just to upload it back again. (Assuming that I am correct that that's what the SSIS package is doing). Is there an equivalent to BULK INSERT that runs directly on the server, allows keeping identity values, and pulls data from a table? (as far as I can tell, BULK INSERT can only pull data from a file) Edit: I do know about IDENTITY_INSERT, but because there is a fair amount of data involved, INSERT INTO ... SELECT is kinda of slow. SSIS/BULK INSERT dumps the data into the table without regards to indexes and logging and whatnot, so it's faster. (Of course creating the clustered index on the table once it's populated is not fast, but it's still faster than the INSERT INTO...SELECT that I tried in my first attempt) Edit 2: The schema changes include (but are not limited to) the following: 1. Splitting one table into two new tables. In the future each will have its own IDENTITY column, but for the migration I think it will be simplest to use the identity from the original table as the identity for the both new tables. Once the migration is over one of the tables will have a one-to-many relationship to the other. 2. Moving columns from one table to another. 3. Deleting some cross reference tables that only cross referenced 1-to-1. Instead the reference will be a foreign key in one of the two tables. 4. Some new columns will be created with default values. 5. Some tables aren’t changing at all, but I have to copy them over due to the "put it all in a new DB" request.

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  • Symfony2 Forms: is it possible to bind a form in an "unconventional way"?

    - by DonCallisto
    Imagine this scenario: in our company there is an employee that "play" around graphic,css,html and so on. Our new project will born under symfony2 so we're trying some silly - but "real" - stuff (like authentication from db, submit data from a form and persist it to db and so on..) The problem As far i know, learnt from symfony2 "book" that i found on the site (you can find it here), there is an "automated" way for creating and rendering forms: 1) Build the form up into a controller in this way $form = $this->createFormBuilder($task) ->add('task','text'), ->add('dueDate','date'), ->getForm(); return $this->render('pathToBundle:Controller:templateTwig', array('form'=>$form->createview()); 2) Into templateTwig render the template {{ form_widget(form) }} // or single rows method 3) Into a controller (the same that have a route where you can submit data), take back submitted information if($rquest->getMethod()=='POST'){ $form->bindRequest($request); /* and so on */ } Return to scenario Our graphic employee don't want to access controllers, write php and other stuff like those. So he'll write a twig template with a "unconventional" (from symfony2 point of view, but conventional from HTML point of view) method: /* into twig template */ <form action="{{ path('SestanteUserBundle_homepage') }}" method="post" name="userForm"> <div> USERNAME: <input type="text" name="user_name" value="{{ user.username}}"/> </div> <div> EMAIL: <input type="text" name="user_mail" value="{{ user.email }}"/> </div> <input type="hidden" name="user_id" value="{{ id }}" /> <input type="submit" value="modifica i dati"> </form> Now, if into the controller that handle the submission of data we do something like that public function indexAction(Request $request) { if($request->getMethod() == 'POST'){ // sono arrivato per via di un submit, quindi devo modificare i dati prima di farli vedere a video $defaultData = array('message'=>'ho visto questa cosa in esempio, ma non capisco se posso farne a meno'); $form = $this->createFormBuilder($defaultData) ->add('user_name','text') ->add('user_mail','email') ->add('user_id','integer') ->getForm(); $form->bindRequest($request); //bindo la form ad una request $data = $form->getData(); //mi aspetto un'array chiave=>valore /* .... */ We expected that $data will contain an array with key,value from the submitted form. We found that it isn't true. After googling for a while and try with other "bad" ideas, we're frozen into that. So, if you have a "graphic office" that can't handle directly php code, how can we interface from form(s) to controller(s) ? UPDATE It seems that Symfony2 use a different convention for form's field name and lookup once you've submitted that. In particular, if my form's name is addUser and a field is named userName, the field's name will be AddUser[username] so maybe it have a "dynamic" lookup method that will extract form's name, field's name, concat them and lookup for values. Is it possible?

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  • How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

    - by kevinegham
    Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

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  • TestNG - Factories and Dataproviders

    - by Tim K
    Background Story I'm working at a software firm developing a test automation framework to replace our old spaghetti tangled system. Since our system requires a login for almost everything we do, I decided it would be best to use @BeforeMethod, @DataProvider, and @Factory to setup my tests. However, I've run into some issues. Sample Test Case Lets say the software system is a baseball team roster. We want to test to make sure a user can search for a team member by name. (Note: I'm aware that BeforeMethods don't run in any given order -- assume that's been taken care of for now.) @BeforeMethod public void setupSelenium() { // login with username & password // acknowledge announcements // navigate to search page } @Test(dataProvider="players") public void testSearch(String playerName, String searchTerm) { // search for "searchTerm" // browse through results // pass if we find playerName // fail (Didn't find the player) } This test case assumes the following: The user has already logged on (in a BeforeMethod, most likely) The user has already navigated to the search page (trivial, before method) The parameters to the test are associated with the aforementioned login The Problems So lets try and figure out how to handle the parameters for the test case. Idea #1 This method allows us to associate dataproviders with usernames, and lets us use multiple users for any specific test case! @Test(dataProvider="players") public void testSearch(String user, String pass, String name, String search) { // login with user/pass // acknowledge announcements // navigate to search page // ... } ...but there's lots of repetition, as we have to make EVERY function accept two extra parameters. Not to mention, we're also testing the acknowledge announcements feature, which we don't actually want to test. Idea #2 So lets use the factory to initialize things properly! class BaseTestCase { public BaseTestCase(String user, String password, Object[][] data); } class SomeTest { @Factory public void ... } With this, we end up having to write one factory per test case... Although, it does let us have multiple users per test-case. Conclusion I'm about fresh out of ideas. There was another idea I had where I was loading data from an XML file, and then calling the methods from a program... but its getting silly. Any ideas?

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  • I always get stuck here... Divs not behaving properly (alignment issues)

    - by user345501
    Hi, I don't know why, after encountering this problem dozens of times, the answer always seems different and I can't seem to work my way through the problem-solving process, but here I am again with misaligned divs. I've got 3rows encasing columns. each row is to have (at least) 3 columns (and probably some nested divs down the line, but I'm not even there yet). I'm trying to make a fluid chunk in the center ultimately, with pretty corners. However, my top row is already showing signs of misbehaving. .O Please help with my silly questions! Cheers and thanks in advance! <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <style type="text/css"> #wrap { margin:auto; width:80%; height:75%; border: solid #066 1px;} #row1 { width:100%; height:10%; background:#F20; } #r1c1 { float:left; width:05%;} #r1c2 { float:left; width:80%} #r1c3 { clear:both; width:05%; } #row2 { float:none; width:100%; background:#0C6; } #r2c1 {} #r2c2 {} #r2c3 {} #row3 { width:100%; height:15%; background:#00F; clear:both; } #r3c1 {} #r3c2 {} #r3c3 {} </style> <body> <div id="wrap"> <div id="row1"> <div id="r1c1">LEFT</div> <div id="r1c2">CENT</div> <div id="r1c3">RIGHT</div> </div> <div id="row2"> MIDDLE </div> <div id="row3"> BOTTOM </div> </div> </body> </html>

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  • C# - periodic data reading and Thread.Sleep()

    - by CaldonCZE
    Hello, my C# application reads data from special USB device. The data are read as so-called "messages", each of them having 24 bytes. The amount of messages that must be read per second may differ (maximal frequency is quite high, about 700 messages per second), but the application must read them all. The only way to read the messages is by calling function "ReadMessage", that returns one message read from the device. The function is from external DLL and I cannot modify it. My solution: I've got a seperate thread, that is running all the time during the program run and it's only job is to read the messages in cycle. The received messages are then processed in main application thread. The function executed in the "reading thread" is the following: private void ReadingThreadFunction() { int cycleCount; try { while (this.keepReceivingMessages) { cycleCount++; TRxMsg receivedMessage; ReadMessage(devHandle, out receivedMessage); //...do something with the message... } } catch { //... catch exception if reading failed... } } This solution works fine and all messages are correctly received. However, the application consumes too much resources, the CPU of my computer runs at more than 80%. Therefore I'd like to reduce it. Thanks to the "cycleCount" variable I know that the "cycling speed" of the thread is about 40 000 cycles per second. This is unnecessarily too much, since I need to receive maximum 700 messagges/sec. (and the device has buffer for about 100 messages, so the cycle speed can be even a little lower) I tried to reduce the cycle speed by suspending the thread for 1 ms by Thread.Sleep(1); command. Of course, this didn't work and the cycle speed became about 70 cycles/second which was not enough to read all messages. I know that this attempt was silly, that putting the thread to sleep and then waking him up takes much longer than 1 ms. However, I don't know what else to do: Is there some other way how to slow the thread execution down (to reduce CPU consumption) other than Thread.Sleep? Or am I completely wrong and should I use something different for this task instead of Thread, maybe Threading.Timer or ThreadPool? Thanks a lot in advance for all suggestions. This is my first question here and I'm a beginner at using threads, so please excuse me if it's not clear enough.

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  • How do you return a string from a function correctly in Dynamic C?

    - by aquanar
    I have a program I am trying to debug, but Dynamic C apparently treats strings differently than normal C does (well, character arrays, anyway). I have a function that I made to make an 8 character long (well, 10 to include the \0 ) string of 0s and 1s to show me the contents of an 8-bit char variable. (IE, I give it the number 13, it returns the string "0001101\0" ) When I use the code below, it prints out !{happy face] 6 times (well, the second one is the happy face alone for some reason), each return comes back as 0xDEAE or "!\x02. I thought it would dereference it and return the appropriate string, but it appears to just be sending the pointer and attempting to parse it. This may seem silly, but my experience was actually in C++ and Java, so going back to C brings up a few issues that were dealt with in later programming languages that I'm not entirely sure how to deal with (like the lack of string variables). How could I fix this code, or how would be a better way to do what I am trying to do (I thought maybe sending in a pointer to a character array and working on it from the function might work, but I thought I should ask to see if maybe I'm just trying to reinvent the wheel). Currently I have it set up like this: this is an excerpt from the main() display[0] = '\0'; for(i=0;i<6;i++) { sprintf(s, "%s ", *char_to_bits(buffer[i])); strcat(display, s); } DispStr(8,5, display); and this is the offending function: char *char_to_bits(char x) { char bits[16]; strcpy(bits,"00000000\0"); if (x & 0x01) bits[7]='1'; if (x & 0x02) bits[6]='1'; if (x & 0x04) bits[5]='1'; if (x & 0x08) bits[4]='1'; if (x & 0x10) bits[3]='1'; if (x & 0x20) bits[2]='1'; if (x & 0x40) bits[1]='1'; if (x & 0x80) bits[0]='1'; return bits; } and just for the sake of completion, the other function is used to output to the stdio window at a specific location: void DispStr(int x, int y, char *s) { x += 0x20; y += 0x20; printf ("\x1B=%c%c%s", x, y, s); }

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  • How to set Minimum and Maximum Character limitation to EditText in Android?

    - by nishitpatel
    I am new to android here i have very silly problem i want to set my Edit text box minimum and maximum input value. Here I am creating one Simple validation for Edit text it only take A-Z and 0-9 value with minimum 5 and Maximum 8 character. I set the Maximum and other validation as follow. <EditText android:id="@+id/edittextKode_Listing" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_marginRight="5dp" android:layout_marginLeft="5dp" android:layout_alignTop="@+id/textKode_listing" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/textKode_listing" android:maxLength="8" android:inputType="textCapCharacters" android:digits="0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTVUWXYZ" /> but not able to set Minimum requirement. My Edit text is in alert dialog and i also apply the following code to solve this problem ` private void openInboxDialog() { LayoutInflater inflater = this.getLayoutInflater(); // declare dialog view final View dialogView = inflater.inflate(R.layout.kirim_layout, null); final EditText edittextKode = (EditText) dialogView.findViewById(R.id.edittextKode_Listing); final EditText edittextalamat = (EditText) dialogView.findViewById(R.id.edittextAlamat); edittextKode.setOnFocusChangeListener(new OnFocusChangeListener() { @Override public void onFocusChange(View v, boolean hasFocus) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub if(edittextKode.getText().toString().length() > 0){ if(edittextKode.getText().toString().length() < 5) { edittextKode.setError("Error"); Toast.makeText(GPSActivity.this, "Kode listing value not be less than 5", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); edittextKode.requestFocus(); } } } }); final AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(GPSActivity.this); builder.setTitle("Kirim").setView(dialogView) .setNeutralButton("OK", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int which) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub gpsCoordinates = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.text_GPS_Coordinates); kode = edittextKode.getText().toString(); alamat = edittextalamat.getText().toString(); catatan = edittextcatatan.getText().toString(); pengirim = edittextPengirim.getText().toString(); if (kode.length() > 0 && alamat.length() > 0 && catatan.length() > 0 && pengirim.length() > 0) { message = "Kode listing : " + kode + "\nAlamat : " + alamat + " \nCatatan : " + catatan + " \n Pengirim : " + pengirim + "\nKoordinat GPS : " + gpsCoordinates.getText().toString(); sendByGmail(); } else { Toast.makeText( getApplicationContext(), "Please fill all three fields to send mail", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } }); builder.create(); builder.show(); }` in this alert dialog i have two edittext i want to apply my validation on first edittext i called the setOnFocusChangeListener to check its minimum length on focus change and if length is less than 5 request for focus but it still type in second edittext. please help me out.

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  • jQuery getScript function with frames

    - by user210099
    Hello.. I'm a novice at Javascript/Jquery programming, so an apology if this is a simple/silly question. I am trying to use the jQuery .getScript() function to refresh part of an existing webpage. This webpage must be run on a local file system, and a large amount of the formatting is done using frames. Right now, there’s three main frames- a sidebar which displays possible “scopes” to choose from, a main frame which displays the majority of the contents of the webpage, and a footer frame. The main entry into the page is in an index.html file, which loads a sidebar.html, main.html, and footer.html file into each of the respective frames. In turn, the main.html has a number of javascript files which it loads, the main being a main.js, which contains numerous functions to format/process the contents for this main window. After loading this javascript file, main.html loads a few javascript files, which contain the data which is going to be displayed in the main frame. These files that are loaded have a fixed data structure, and are dependent on the functions that were loaded by the main.js file. Loading the webpage works fine now, but when a user tries to switch to another “scope”, the whole webpage is reloaded to make the switch. The only difference in the webpage is the content in the main.js frame, loaded in by a different set of .js files. Enough text, let’s look at some code. When the webpage loads, I tried to add a simple call to the getScript function in a .js file at the index.html level which handles switching scopes. This file, newFile, has different data definitions than the previously loaded oldFile.js which was loaded in the main.html file. $.getScript(/js/newFile.js); However this doesn’t work, since newFile.js depends on a parseData() function which is in main.js. If I open firebug up, parseData is not located in the dom tab, which I assume is related to some scoping issue with the main.html and main.js file existing in a different frame. I tried to do some targeting to the correct “frame” but I don’t think I understand jQuery enough to know what is happening. $(window.parent.frames[0]).getScript(/js/newFile.js); Any suggestions? If I were to type into firebug console “parseData” it can not find it: “ReferenceError: parseData is not defined” However, if I type in window.parent.frames[1].parseData, it can find the function. Sorry about all the rambling and poor understanding of javascript. Hopefully someone can provide some assistance! Thanks

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  • Database advantages? Access, MySQL, msSQL, or any others?

    - by JimZ
    Dear all Stackoverflowers, I just started to learn programming and now I'm putting this question online based on a quote: no question is silly My work needs to develop a order system based on web, which wants a database system. Since using Excel for years as a general office user, I naturally turn this to Access. However, most people say Access is very limited comparing to MySQL or MSSQL, or any other more professional database system. But after developing some functions for my company's order system, I really find Access can fulfill my request. And I also tried MSSQL to develop, which I found it not quite convenient to use. I have searched in stackoverflow and find no general answer about my doubt. Now I am sincerely hoping some experienced and professional developers could clear my doubts. Now I'm listing some Access advantages, which I don't think other database system have. I hope you could help me also find these advantages in others. 1. Access is portable, I can just copy a xxx.accdb file to my company and continue with development. 2. Access is easy to generate helpful table, for example, it will automatically generate a field that can automatically count, could be used as primary key value. 3. it is more compatable with Excel, to display and filter data. 4. importantly, it nerely needs no environment to setup, just needs MS Office to be installed. ............others However, I also find some points that MSSQL is advantaged: 1. security reasons 2. easy to backup, ( just use BACKUP..... sql statement to do it) 3. can edit stored procedure to save some functions to database ...............others specifically, I wish some friends could tell me how to make other database portable? since I usually work both at home and in office. It's a headache to move MSSQL work to my office, since the version of MSSQL is not the same. Thank you all and best regards, :)

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  • Ajax posting to PHP

    - by JQonfused
    Hi guys, I'm testing a jQuery ajax post method on a local Apache 2.2 server with PHP 5.3 (totally new at this). Here are the files, all in the same folder. html body (jQuery library included in head): <form id="postForm" method="post"> <label for="name">Input Name</label> <input type="text" name="name" id="name" /><br /> <label for="age">Input Age</label> <input type="text" name="age" id="age" /><br /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" id="submitBtn" /> </form> <div id="resultDisplay"></div> <script src="queryRequest.js"></script> queryRequest.js $(document).ready(function(){ $('#s').focus(); $('#postForm').submit(function(){ var name = $('#name').val(); var age = $('#age').val(); var URL = "post.php"; $.ajax({ type:'POST', url: URL, datatype:'json', data:{'name': name ,'age': age}, success: function(data){ $('#resultDisplay').append("Value returned.<br />name: "+data.name+" age: "+data.age); }, error: function() { $('resultDisplay').append("ERROR!") } }); }); }); post.php <?php $name = $_POST['name']; $age = $_POST['age']; $return = array('name' => $name, 'age' => $age); echo json_encode($return); ?> After inputting the two fields and pressing 'Submit', the success method is called, text appended, but the values returned from ajax post are undefined. And then after less than a second, the text fields are emptied, and the text appended to the div is gone. Doesn't seem like it's a page refresh, though, since there's no empty page flash. What's going on here? I'm sure it's a silly mistake but Firebug isn't telling me anything.

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  • iptables not allowing mysql connections to aliased ips?

    - by Curtis
    I have a fairly simple iptables firewall on a server that provides MySQL services, but iptables seems to be giving me very inconsistent results. The default policy on the script is as follows: iptables -P INPUT DROP I can then make MySQL public with the following rule: iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -j ACCEPT With this rule in place, I can connect to MySQL from any source IP to any destination IP on the server without a problem. However, when I try to restrict access to just three IPs by replacing the above line with the following, I run into trouble (xxx=masked octect): iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -m state --state NEW -s 208.XXX.XXX.184 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -m state --state NEW -s 208.XXX.XXX.196 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -m state --state NEW -s 208.XXX.XXX.251 -j ACCEPT Once the above rules are in place, the following happens: I can connect to the MySQL server from the .184, .196 and .251 hosts just fine as long as am connecting to the MySQL server using it's default IP address or an IP alias in the same subnet as the default IP address. I am unable to connect to MySQL using IP aliases that are assigned to the server from a different subnet than the server's default IP when I'm coming from the .184 or .196 hosts, but .251 works just fine. From the .184 or .196 hosts, a telnet attempt just hangs... # telnet 209.xxx.xxx.22 3306 Trying 209.xxx.xxx.22... If I remove the .251 line (making .196 the last rule added), the .196 host still can not connect to MySQL using IP aliases (so it's not the order of the rules that is causing the inconsistent behavior). I know, this particular test was silly as it shouldn't matter what order these three rules are added in, but I figured someone might ask. If I switch back to the "public" rule, all hosts can connect to the MySQL server using either the default or aliased IPs (in either subnet): iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -j ACCEPT The server is running in a CentOS 5.4 OpenVZ/Proxmox container (2.6.32-4-pve). And, just in case you prefer to see the problem rules in the context of the iptables script, here it is (xxx=masked octect): # Flush old rules, old custom tables /sbin/iptables --flush /sbin/iptables --delete-chain # Set default policies for all three default chains /sbin/iptables -P INPUT DROP /sbin/iptables -P FORWARD DROP /sbin/iptables -P OUTPUT ACCEPT # Enable free use of loopback interfaces /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT /sbin/iptables -A OUTPUT -o lo -j ACCEPT # All TCP sessions should begin with SYN /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp ! --syn -m state --state NEW -j DROP # Accept inbound TCP packets (Do this *before* adding the 'blocked' chain) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT # Allow the server's own IP to connect to itself /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -s 208.xxx.xxx.178 -j ACCEPT # Add the 'blocked' chain *after* we've accepted established/related connections # so we remain efficient and only evaluate new/inbound connections /sbin/iptables -N BLOCKED /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -j BLOCKED # Accept inbound ICMP messages /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p ICMP --icmp-type 8 -j ACCEPT /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p ICMP --icmp-type 11 -j ACCEPT # ssh (private) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 22 -m state --state NEW -s xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx -j ACCEPT # ftp (private) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 21 -m state --state NEW -s xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx -j ACCEPT # www (public) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 443 -j ACCEPT # smtp (public) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 25 -j ACCEPT /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 2525 -j ACCEPT # pop (public) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 110 -j ACCEPT # mysql (private) /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -m state --state NEW -s 208.xxx.xxx.184 -j ACCEPT /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -m state --state NEW -s 208.xxx.xxx.196 -j ACCEPT /sbin/iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 3306 -m state --state NEW -s 208.xxx.xxx.251 -j ACCEPT Any ideas? Thanks in advance. :-)

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