Search Results

Search found 23792 results on 952 pages for 'void pointers'.

Page 424/952 | < Previous Page | 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431  | Next Page >

  • string in c++,question

    - by user189364
    Hi, I created a program in C++ that remove commas (') from a given integer. i.e. 2,00,00 would return 20000. I am not using any new space. Here is the program i created void removeCommas(string& str1,int len) { int j=0; for(int i=0;i<len;i++) { if(str1[i] == ',') continue; else { str1[j] =str1[i]; j++; } } str1[j] = '\0'; } void main() { string str1; getline(cin,str1); int i = str1.length(); removeCommas(str1,i); cout<<"the new string "<<str1<<endl; } Here is the result i get : Input : 2,000,00 String length =8 Output = 200000 0 Length = 8 My question is that why does it show the length has 8 in output and shows the rest of string when i did put a null character. It should show output as 200000 and length has 6.

    Read the article

  • C++ map performance - Linux (30 sec) vs Windows (30 mins) !!!

    - by sonofdelphi
    I need to process a list of files. The processing action should not be repeated for the same file. The code I am using for this is - using namespace std; vector<File*> gInputFileList; //Can contain duplicates, File has member sFilename map<string, File*> gProcessedFileList; //Using map to avoid linear search costs void processFile(File* pFile) { File* pProcessedFile = gProcessedFileList[pFile->sFilename]; if(pProcessedFile != NULL) return; //Already processed foo(pFile); //foo() is the action to do for each file gProcessedFileList[pFile->sFilename] = pFile; } void main() { size_t n= gInputFileList.size(); //Using array syntax (iterator syntax also gives identical performance) for(size_t i=0; i<n; i++){ processFile(gInputFileList[i]); } } The code works correctly, but... My problem is that when the input size is 1000, it takes 30 minutes - HALF AN HOUR - on Windows/Visual Studio 2008 Express (both Debug and Release builds). For the same input, it takes only 40 seconds to run on Linux/gcc! What could be the problem? The action foo() takes only a very short time to execute, when used separately. Should I be using something like vector::reserve for the map?

    Read the article

  • Is the "==" operator required to be defined to use std::find

    - by user144182
    Let's say I have: class myClass std::list<myClass> myList where myClass does not define the == operator and only consists of public fields. In both VS2010 and VS2005 the following does not compile: myClass myClassVal = myList.front(); std::find( myList.begin(), myList.end(), myClassVal ) complaining about lack of == operator. I naively assumed it would do a value comparison of the myClass object's public members, but I am almost positive this is not correct. I assume if I define a == operator or perhaps use a functor instead, it will solve the problem. Alternatively, if my list was holding pointers instead of values, the comparison would work. Is this right or should I be doing something else?

    Read the article

  • C++ wrapper for C library

    - by Maximilien
    Hi, Recently I found a C library that I want to use in my C++ project. This code is configured with global variables and writes it's output to memory pointed by static pointers. When I execute my project I would like 2 instances of the C program to run: one with configuration A and one with configuration B. I can't afford to run my program twice, so I think there are 2 options: Make a C++ wrapper: The problem here is that the wrapper-class should contain all global/static variables the C library has. Since the functions in the C library use those variables I will have to create very big argument-lists for those functions. Copy-paste the C library: Here I'll have to adapt the name of every function and every variable inside the C library. Which one is the fastest solution? Are there other possibilities to run 2 instances of the same C source? Thanks, Max

    Read the article

  • How can i initialise a server on startup?

    - by djerry
    Hey all, I need to make some connections on startup of a server. I'm using the wcf technology for this client-server application. The problem is that the constructor of the server isn't called at any time, so for the moment, i initialize the connections when the first client makes a connection. But this generates problems in a further part. This is my server setup: private static ServiceHost _svc; static void Main(string[] args) { NetTcpBinding binding = new NetTcpBinding(SecurityMode.Message); Uri address = new Uri("net.tcp://localhost:8000"); _svc = new ServiceHost(typeof(MonitoringSystemService), address); publishMetaData(_svc, "http://localhost:8001"); _svc.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IMonitoringSystemService), binding, "Monitoring Server"); _svc.Open(); Console.WriteLine("Listener service gestart op net.tcp://localhost:8000/Monitoring"); Console.ReadLine(); } private static void publishMetaData(ServiceHost svc, string sEndpointAddress) { ServiceMetadataBehavior smb = svc.Description.Behaviors.Find<ServiceMetadataBehavior>(); if (smb != null) { smb.HttpGetEnabled = true; smb.HttpGetUrl = new Uri(sEndpointAddress); } else { smb = new ServiceMetadataBehavior(); smb.HttpGetEnabled = true; smb.HttpGetUrl = new Uri(sEndpointAddress); svc.Description.Behaviors.Add(smb); } } How can i start the server without waiting for a client to logon so i can initialize it. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Static initialization of a struct with class members

    - by JS Bangs
    I have a struct that's defined with a large number of vanilla char* pointers, but also an object member. When I try to statically initialize such a struct, I get a compiler error. typedef struct { const char* pszA; // ... snip ... const char* pszZ; SomeObject obj; } example_struct; // I only want to assign the first few members, the rest should be default example_struct ex = { "a", "b" }; SomeObject has a public default constructor with no arguments, so I didn't think this would be a problem. But when I try to compile this (using VS), I get the following error: error C2248: 'SomeObject::SomeObject' : cannot access private member declared in class 'SomeObject' Any idea why?

    Read the article

  • Suspend TimerTask until the next execution

    - by user1052518
    I am using a TimerTask to run some periodic tasks, the task being processing a set of files. I have a requirement where if the number of files to be processed exceeds a pre-determined limit, the thread suspends execution and waits till the next cycle to start processing the files again. Is there a way to suspend the TimerTask until the next execution period or do I have to extend the TimerTask class to achieve this functionality? I saw there is a TimerTask.cancel method, but this will cancel all further executions of this thread. I don't want this to happen. I just want the thread to be suspended until the next execution period. I don't have the luxury of moving to any of the other concurrent classes in Java as our framework uses TimerTask, and I have to stick with it. Any suggestions, pointers or tips are greatly appreciated. thanks, Asha

    Read the article

  • any simple jquery <table> paginators

    - by Mike
    I'm looking for a jquery plugin so I can paginate my html tables (the content of which is generated by a jsp c:forEach). But so far I haven't found anything that worked. The plugin doesn't need to be fancy, in fact something like the first example on http://dl.dropbox.com/u/4151695/html/pajinate-0.2/examples/example1.html would do fine. I'm still very new to jquery so I don't have the knowledge yet to write one myself. So does anyone have any pointers where I could find one?

    Read the article

  • Controlling race condition at startup.

    - by Will Hartung
    I have some code that I want to have some one time initialisation performed. But this code doesn't have a definite lifecycle, so my logic can be potentially invoked by multiple threads before my initialisation is done. So, I want to basically ensure that my logic code "waits" until initialisation is done. This is my first cut. public class MyClass { private static final AtomicBoolean initialised = new AtomicBoolean(false); public void initialise() { synchronized(initialised) { initStuff(); initialised.getAndSet(true); initialised.notifyAll(); } } public void doStuff() { synchronized(initialised) { if (!initialised.get()) { try { initialised.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException ex) { throw new RuntimeException("Uh oh!", ex); } } } doOtherStuff(); } } I basically want to make sure this is going to do what I think it's going to do -- block doStuff until the initialised is true, and that I'm not missing a race condition where doStuff might get stuck on a Object.wait() that will never arrive. Edit: I have no control over the threads. And I want to be able to control when all of the initialisation is done, which is why doStuff() can't call initialise(). I used an AtomicBoolean as it was a combination of a value holder, and an object I could synchronize. I could have also simply had a "public static final Object lock = new Object();" and a simple boolean flag. AtomicBoolean conveniently gave me both. A Boolean can not be modified. The CountDownLatch is exactly what I was looking for. I also considered using a Sempahore with 0 permits. But the CountDownLatch is perfect for just this task.

    Read the article

  • onActivityResult method not being called Android

    - by Chintan
    I am trying to send data from child activity to parent. But somehow, onActivityResult(..) is not getting called. here is code Parent activity selectedText.setOnTouchListener(new OnTouchListener() { public boolean onTouch(View v, MotionEvent event) { if (event.getActionMasked() == MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN) { Intent intent = new Intent(Parents.this,Child.class); startActivityForResult(intent, 1); } return true; } }); @Override protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { switch (requestCode) { case 1: if (resultCode == RESULT_OK) { if (data.hasExtra("selText")) { selectedText.setText(data.getExtras().getString( "selText")); } break; } } Child Activity: I can see selected value set in the setResult(). But after finish of child activity, it's not going back to parent activity. textListView.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> arg0, View arg1, int myItemInt, long arg3) { selectedFromList =(String) (textListView.getItemAtPosition(myItemInt)); Intent data = new Intent(); data.putExtra("selText", selectedFromList); setResult(RESULT_OK,data); finish(); } });

    Read the article

  • Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

    - by Dan Tao
    I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

    Read the article

  • Why does the roll_out event fire in this code?

    - by user339681
    I have made this simple example to demonstrate some problems I'm having. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:Canvas id="buttonCanvas" x="100" y="100" opaqueBackground="#000000" width="80%" height="300" creationComplete="init(event)"> <mx:Button x="5" y="5"/> <mx:Button x="5" y="50"/> </mx:Canvas> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function init(event:Event):void{ buttonCanvas.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, function(event:Event):void{ buttonCanvas.opaqueBackground=(buttonCanvas.opaqueBackground==0)? 0x666666:0; }); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application> I don't understand the following: Why doesn't the percentage nor absolute dimensions affect the canvas? Why does the roll_out event fire when the mouse leaves a button (even when it is still inside the canvas). I'm going nuts trying to figure this out. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • How do I pass references as method parameters across AppDomains?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    I have been trying to get the following code to work(everything is defined in the same assembly) : namespace SomeApp{ public class A : MarshalByRefObject { public byte[] GetSomeData() { // } } public class B : MarshalByRefObject { private A remoteObj; public void SetA(A remoteObj) { this.remoteObj = remoteObj; } } public class C { A someA = new A(); public void Init() { AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("ChildDomain"); string currentAssemblyPath = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location; B remoteB = domain.domain.CreateInstanceFromAndUnwrap(currentAssemblyPath,"SomeApp.B") as B; remoteB.SetA(someA); // this throws an ArgumentException "Object type cannot be converted to target type." } } } What I'm trying to do is pass a reference of an 'A' instance created in the first AppDomain to the child domain and have the child domain execute a method on the first domain. In some point on 'B' code I'm going to call 'remoteObj.GetSomeData()'. This has to be done because the 'byte[]' from 'GetSomeData' method must be 'calculated' on the first appdomain. What should I do to avoid the exception, or what can I do to achieve the same result?

    Read the article

  • Can't declare an abstract method private....

    - by Zombies
    I want to do this, yet I can't. Here is my scenario and rational. I have an abstract class for test cases that has an abstract method called test(). The test() method is to be defined by the subclass; it is to be implemented with logic for a certain application, such as CRMAppTestCase extends CompanyTestCase. I don't want the test() method to be invoked directly, I want the super class to call the test() method while the sub class can call a method which calls this (and does other work too, such as setting a current date-time right before the test is executed for example). Example code: public abstract class CompanyTestCase { //I wish this would compile, but it cannot be declared private private abstract void test(); public TestCaseResult performTest() { //do some work which must be done and should be invoked whenever //this method is called (it would be improper to expect the caller // to perform initialization) TestCaseResult result = new TestCaseResult(); result.setBeginTime(new Date()); long time = System.currentTimeMillis(); test(); //invoke test logic result.setDuration(System.currentTimeMillis() - time); return result; } } Then to extend this.... public class CRMAppTestCase extends CompanyTestCase { public void test() { //test logic here } } Then to call it.... TestCaseResult result = new CRMAppTestCase().performTest();

    Read the article

  • long startup time...Need help

    - by Jeff
    My app is all done and working great. So now I ran it on a old iPhone and the app takes 17.3 seconds to start!?!? i spent a lot of time looking into it and i found that the reason it is taking so long to load is i have a lot of views and each view has a png background image. All my views and made in IB and in my code: #import "MyTestAppDelegate.h" #import "MyTestViewController.h" @implementation MyTestAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController; - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // Override point for customization after app launch [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } - (void)dealloc { [viewController release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end At the end of the code where is says: [window addSubview:viewController.view]; the app seems to be loading all the views in the nib at the same time. All the png's from all the views are about 12mb. There is no need for the app to load all the views at the same time during startup. Is there a way i can only load the first "home" view at startup? (All the views are part of the same nib.)

    Read the article

  • UITableView populating EVERY OTHER launch

    - by Joshmattvander
    I am having a problem that I cant seem to get to the bottom of. In my view did load code, I am creating an array and attempting to populate the table. For some reason it only populates the data on EVERY OTHER time the app is run. I put logs in viewDidLoad which runs as does viewWillAppear and outputs the correct count for the array. Also, the UITableView specicic methods get called when it works and they just don't get called when it doesnt work. I cant figure out the root of this problem. Again this occurrence happens exactly 50% of the time. Theres no dynamic data that could be tripping up or anything. #import "InfoViewController.h" @implementation InfoViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"Info View Loaded"); // This runs infoList = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; //Set The Data //Theres 8 similar lines [infoList addObject :[[NSMutableDictionary alloc] initWithObjectsAndKeys: @"Scrubbed", @"name", @"scrubbed", @"url", nil]]; NSLog(@"%d", [infoList count]); // This shows the count correctly every time [super viewDidLoad]; } -(void) viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { NSLog(@"Info Will Appear"); // This Runs } - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { // This WILL NOT RUN when it doesnt work, and DOES show the count when it does run NSLog(@"Counted in numberOfRowsInSection %d", [infoList count]); return [infoList count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSLog(@"ROW"); static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"infoCell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; cell.textLabel.text = [[infoList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"name"]; return cell; } @end

    Read the article

  • Can an application on the user's computer be started from a Firefox Extension?

    - by Saurabh Agarwal
    For example, can I start an instance of "Calculator.exe" on the user's computer (if it is available of course) upon some particular event in firefox, say clicking of a button? I thought of perhaps linking the extension to Python's subprocess method using XPCOM. But I was wondering whether there is an easier way. Additional information: I do not, at this point need to interact with the application upon its instantiation. Therefore I am looking for a way to open an application that's all. (Though, out of interest, if you have any pointers to interact with the same as well, that would be great) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • C++ Vector at/[] operator speed

    - by sub
    In order to give functions the option to modify the vector I can't do curr = myvec.at( i ); doThis( curr ); doThat( curr ); doStuffWith( curr ); But I have to do: doThis( myvec.at( i ) ); doThat( myvec.at( i ) ); doStuffWith( myvec.at( i ) ); (as the answers of my other question pointed out) I'm going to make a hell lot of calls to myvec.at() then. How fast is it, compared to the first example using a variable to store the result? Is there a different option for me? Can I somehow use pointers? When it's getting serious there will be thousands of calls to myvec.at() per second. So every little performance-eater is important.

    Read the article

  • Insert data into table effeciently, postgresql

    - by Rowan_Gaffney
    I am new to postgresql (and databases in general) and was hoping to get some pointers on improving the efficiency of the following statement. I am inserting data from one table to another, and do not want to insert duplicate values. I have a rid (unique identifier in each table) that are indexed and are Primary Keys. I am currently using the following statement: Insert INTO table1 SELECT * FROM table2 WHERE rid NOT IN (SELECT rid FROM table1). As of now the table one is 200,000 records, table2 is 20,000 records. Table1 is going to keep growing (probably to around 2,000,000) and table2 will stay around 20,000 records. As of now the statement takes about 15 minutes to run. I am concerned that as Table1 grows this is going to take way to long. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • How to detect if breaking an edge will make a graph disjoint?

    - by the_graph_guy
    I have a graph that starts off with a single, root node. Nodes are added one by one to the graph. At node creation time, they have to be linked either to the root node, or to another node, by a single edge. Edges can also be created and deleted (one by one, between any two nodes). Nodes can be deleted one at a time. Node and edge creation, deletion operations can happen in any arbitrary order. OK, so here's my question: When an edge is deleted, is it possible do determine, in constant time (i.e. with an O(1) algorithm), if doing this will divide the graph into two disjoint subgraphs? If it will, then which side of the edge will the root node belong? I'm willing to maintain, within reasonable limits, any additional data structure that can facilitate the derivation of this information. Maybe it is not possible to do it in O(1), if so any pointers to literature will be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • actionscript 3 website load movieclips (frames) from library

    - by steve
    Here is my current code that doesn't function: import flash.display.*; import fl.transitions.*; import flash.events.MouseEvent; stop(); var contentBox:MovieClip = new MovieClip(); contentBox.width = 400; contentBox.height = 500; contentBox.x = 400; contentBox.y = 0; var closeBtn:close_btn = new close_btn(); closeBtn.x = 850; closeBtn.y = 15; var bagLink:MovieClip = new bag_link_mc(); bagLink.x = 900; bagLink.y = 0; menu_bag_button.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, bagClick); function bagClick(event:MouseEvent):void{ if(MovieClip(root).currentFrame == 835) { } else { MovieClip(root).addChild (contentBox); MovieClip(root).contentBox.addChild (bagLink); MovieClip(root).contentBox.addChild (closeBtn); MovieClip(root).gotoAndPlay(806); } } closeBtn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, closeBag); function closeBag (event:MouseEvent):void{ MovieClip(root).removeChild(contentBox); MovieClip(root).gotoAndPlay(850); } I don't know ActionScript at all, so this may be the complete wrong way of approaching it. The setup is as follows: site loads, there's a big menu in the center (frame 805). When you click on a menu item from there, the whole menu moves to the side, and the right side I want a "contentBox" movieclip, filled with "bagLink" (which is site content) and to have a close button (closeBtn.) It also needs to know that if you click the same link again on the left side that it doesn't reanimate, it just stays (which I achieved with the "if" statement.) Finally, if someone clicks another link, it needs to clear "contentBox" and refill it with whatever movieClip that was clicked. I know this is a lot to ask, but I'm in dire need of help as this is due on Wednesday...

    Read the article

  • Problems getting git 'server' to work on Windows

    - by Benjol
    I've followed the Tim's article (mentioned in the answer to this question), but - like many others, it seems - I'm stuck when trying do the test clone at the end. I get the fatal: the remote end hung up unexpectedly error, even though my $HOME path seems to be right. Anyone got any pointers to where I might start for debugging this? My git and linux-fu are severely limited... I'm aware of this answer to the same question, but it doesn't apply in my case, I don't get any messages about paths.

    Read the article

  • read successive frames OpenCV using cvQueryframe

    - by AtharvaI
    Hi all I have a basic question in regards to cvQueryFrame() in OpenCV. I have the following code: IplImage *frame1,*frame2; frame1 = cvQueryFrame(capture); frame2 = cvQueryFrame(capture); Now my question is: if frame1 is a pointer to the first frame, is frame2 a pointer to the 2nd frame? So will the two cvQueryFrame() calls read successive frames? I thought I'd check myself first but the pointers frame1,frame2 seem to have the same hex value. :s I just need to capture two frames at a time and then need to process them. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Is it OK to set state within Event Raising methods?

    - by Greg
    I ran across this pattern in the code of a library I'm using. It sets state within the event raising method, but only if the event is not null. protected virtual void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { if(MyEvent != null) { State = "Executing"; // Only sets state if MyEvent != null. MyEvent(this,e); } } Which means that the state is not set when overriding the method: protected override void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { base.OnMyEvent(e); Debug.Assert( State == "Executing" ); // This fails } but is only set when handling the event: foo.MyEvent += (o, args) => Debug.Assert(State == "Executing"); // This passes Setting state within the if(MyEvent != null) seems like bad form, but I've checked the Event Design Guidelines and it doesn't mention this. Do you think this code is incorrect? If so, why? (Reference to design guidelines would be helpful). Edit for Context: It's a Control, I'm trying to create subclass of it, and the state that it's setting is calling EnsureChildControls() conditionally based upon there being an event handler. I can call EnsureChildControls() myself, but I consider that something of a hack.

    Read the article

  • Trouble managing events in Flex/actionscript

    - by Zaka
    Hello all, I'm doing some newbie tests, so I decided to capture the keyboard events to move a rectangle. But I don't get the desired result. Unless I click on the TextArea box, I'm not able to capture the event key code. After that, all goes pretty well. I'm using Eclipse 3.3 + Flex 3.0 on Linux. Here's my code: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" enterFrame="enterFrame(event)" keyDown="onKeyDown(event)"> <mx:TextArea id="myText" x="200" y="200" width="100" height="100" /> <mx:Canvas id="myCanvas" x="0" y="0" width="100" height="100" /> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public var clearColor : uint = 0xFF456798; public var myPoint : Point = new Point(0,0); public function enterFrame(event:Event):void { myCanvas.graphics.clear(); myCanvas.graphics.beginFill(0xFF344ff0); myCanvas.graphics.drawRect(myPoint.x,myPoint.y,40,40); myCanvas.graphics.endFill(); } public function onKeyDown(event:KeyboardEvent):void { myText.text = "Keycode is: " + event.keyCode + "\n"; switch(event.keyCode) { case 37: //Left myPoint.x -= 1; break; case 38: //Up myPoint.y -= 1; break; case 39: //Right myPoint.x += 1; break; case 40: //Down myPoint.y += 1; break; } } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application>

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 420 421 422 423 424 425 426 427 428 429 430 431  | Next Page >