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• Parsing prototype AJAX.response XML in IE

  - by adam

  Hi I have an xml webservice which I'm fetching using PrototypeJS. The xml has the correct content type and is well-formed, and looks like this: <GetTokenResponse xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <GetTokenResult>F655100D64F098F0AC33AFF414A4A0D5</GetTokenResult> </GetTokenResponse> The AJAX request is completing successfully, and I can access the GetTokenResult node in both IE and FF but can only get the text content of the node in FF. My code is below: node = transport.responseXML.documentElement.getElementsByTagName('GetTokenResult')[0]; rawToken = (document.all) ? node.innerText : node.textContent; I've tried innerText and innerHTML, as well as children[0] and a few other chance guesses but IE returns 'undefined' when I access rawToken. Anyone able to lend a hand? Thanks, Adam

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• Is it safe to lock a static variable in a non-static class?

  - by Dario Solera

  I've got a class that manages a shared resource. Now, since access to the resource depends on many parameters, this class is instantiated and disposed several times during the normal execution of the program. The shared resource does not support concurrency, so some kind of locking is needed. The first thing that came into my mind is having a static instance in the class, and acquire locks on it, like this: // This thing is static! static readonly object MyLock = new object(); // This thing is NOT static! MyResource _resource = ...; public DoSomeWork() { lock(MyLock) { _resource.Access(); } } Does that make sense, or would you use another approach?

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• How can I use a value from a session variable as part of the group name in signalR

  - by user1844734

  Hi I am trying to set up signalR to distribute messages to web users the problem is that the one site holds different 'areas' and also 'user types'. The Area is decided when the user visits the site by passing a url parameter, this is then stored in a session variable, The 'user type' is by default not logged in then changed when the user logs in to there user type (returned from a webservice) and stored in a User object. My aim was to connect to the hub using signalR when the user visits the site and add the users connectionId to a groupname, using the 'area id' from the session and the 'user type id' from the User object in the context. The problem I am having is that I can obtain the user id but when it comes to the area id signalR cannot access the session. I understand the reasoning behind not allowing the session available in signalR but does any one know if there is a way to enable this or an alternative way that I can gain access to the users area so that I can create these unique groups.

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• Reading Lotus Notes & Domino Mailboxe using Interop.Domino.dll

  - by Pari

  I would like to populate the list of mailboxes from "Mail" folder of Domino from c# using the above API (Interop.Domino.dll). I have no problems connecting to Notes, accessing the database.It is easy to access all nsf files but i want to access only only nsf files in Mail Folder i.e Mail files. I am using below code: while (_localDatabase != null) { dbString = _localDatabase.Title; TreeNode objRootNode = new TreeNode(dbString); objForm.tvwExchDomain.Nodes.Add(objRootNode); dbCount = dbCount + 1; _localDatabase = dir.GetNextDatabase(); } Kindly suggest me some links or sample code which will make my work simpler. I am using Domino Server 8.5.

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• Are JSF 2.x ViewScoped Beans Thread Safe?

  - by Mark

  I've been googling for a couple hours on this issue to no eval. WELD docs and the CDI spec are pretty clear regarding thread safety of the scopes provided. For example: Application Scope - not safe Session Scope - not safe Request Scope - safe, always bound to a single thread Conversation Scope - safe (due to the WELD proxy serializing access from multiple request threads) I can't find anything on the View Scope defined by JSF 2.x. It is in roughly the same bucket as the Conversation Scope in that it is very possible for multiple requests to hit the scope concurrently despite it being bound to a single view / user. What I don't know is if the JSF implementation serializes access to the bean from multiple requests. Anyone have knowledge of the spec or of the Morraja/MyFaces implementations that could clear this up?

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• System.ComponentModel.Component in Visual Studio 2008

  - by Mark A Johnson

  I'm maintaining a .Net 2.0 application using Visual Studio 2008. When the application was built, it was originally in Visual Studio 2003 and made use of the System.ComponentModel.Component class for data access. You can drag and drop commands, connections, etc onto the designer surface of the component. In 2008, the data access classes don't "stick" to the component. I.e., the code for the command does not get generated in the class. when did this change? 2005? is there a replacement for this behavior, perhaps using the db pro edition? Thanks.

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• Dangers of Windows API and Administrator accounts?

  - by Brett Powell

  I wrote a game server plugin last night that allowed me to create a user account and set it as administrator, which is a huge problem. Of course the simple fix is to create a basic user account with limited privileges for the game servers, so they would not have access to do things like this. I wanted to find out if there's anything else in the Windows API that would create such a huge vulnerability though? I guess I want to just make sure that when the client's game servers accounts are moved to limited access accounts, we won't have to worry about any of them using the windows API to sabotage the machines. There is already enough exploits in the game itself to worry about, without having to worry about client's taking over the machines with plugins lol. Some of the questions relative would be... Can you disable/enable Remote Desktop from c++? Can you get a list of AD user groups from c++? (not that a user belongs to, but a complete list)

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• Web service performance testing plan, Microsoft .NET WS, SQL

  - by zxed

  Trying to answer a question to come up with a testing plan. It has to do with using a website and/or webservice that queries a sql server to get data and display to user. * Solution must be able to handle an estimated 2000 users, approximately 700 concurrent users, 10,000 + website hits a month. Database calls should handle 100,000 queries via the website/webservice a month. The system is used at multiple times during a 24 hour period; however networking and bandwidth traffic decreases after 5 pm * two windows 2003 servers are used, one for web, another for sql. Both are located in the same room. User access is varied and users can be far/near (its a centralized system), users access via www

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• Entity Framework connection metadata extraction

  - by James

  Hi, I am using the EntityFramework POCO adapter and since there are limitations to what microsoft gives access to with regards to the meta data, i am manually extracting the information i need out of the xml. The only problem is i want to get the ssdl, msl, csdl file names to load without having to directly check for the connection string node in app.config. In short where in the ObjectContext/EntityConnection can i get access to these file names? Worst case scenario i need to get the connection name from the EntityConnection object then load this from app.config and parse the string itself and extract the filenames myself. (But i obviously don't want to do that). Thanks

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• Office documents prompt for login in anonymous SharePoint site

  - by xmt15

  I have a MOSS 07 site that is configured for anonymous access. There is a document library within this site that also has anonymous access enabled. When an anonymous user clicks on a PDF file in this library, he or she can read or download it with no problem. When a user clicks on an Office document, he or she is prompted with a login box. The user can cancel out of this box without entering a log in, and will be taken to the document. This happens in IE but not FireFox. I see some references to this question on the web but no clear solutions: http://www.microsoft.com/communities/newsgroups/en-us/default.aspx?dg=microsoft.public.sharepoint.windowsservices.development&tid=5452e093-a0d7-45c5-8ed0-96551e854cec&cat=en_US_CC8402B4-DC5E-652D-7DB2-0119AFB7C906&lang=en&cr=US&sloc=&p=1 http://www.sharepointu.com/forums/t/5779.aspx http://www.eggheadcafe.com/software/aspnet/30817418/anonymous-users-getting-p.aspx

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• Testing Django web app with Hudson and Selenium

  - by ycseattle

  This might be a newbie question for Hudson. I am trying to setup Selenium testing for my Django website in my Hudson CI server. The question is, the Hudson will use subversion to checkout my Django code into its own path, how do I "deploy" the code into the same server for testing? This is not a question about deploying django, but instead how to access the source file in hudson workspace. Most tutorials/blogs is about building and running tests, but I couldn't find useful information about how to setup the web application on the server to run the test against. 1) Should I write some shell script to copy the source files from the hudson workspace? Is there an environment variable to use to access the workspace? 2) Is there a tutorial on how to grab web app files in hudson workspace and deploy them? I am sure this apply for other technologies like PHP as well. Thanks!

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• Java: Framework for Yahoo Webservices?

  - by Chris

  Is there a framework / a library that provides simple access to Yahoo's Webservices? Thanks in advance!

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• Release Excel Object In My Destructor

  - by Murat

  Hi all, I'm writing a Excel class using Microsoft.Interropt.Excel DLL. I finish all function but I have an error in my Destructor. I Want to save all changes to my file and I want to release all source. I want to all of them in my destructor. But In my destructor, Excel.ApplicationClass, Workbook and Worksheet objects are fill by an Exception which have message "COM object that has been separated from its underlying RCW cannot be used." So I can't save nothing, close nothing because i can't access workbook or worksheet object. Can't I access the class private members in Destructor?

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• Purpose of Explicit Default Constructors

  - by Dennis Zickefoose

  I recently noticed a class in C++0x that calls for an explicit default constructor. However, I'm failing to come up with a scenario in which a default constructor can be called implicitly. It seems like a rather pointless specifier. I thought maybe it would disallow Class c; in favor of Class c = Class(); but that does not appear to be the case. Some relevant quotes from the C++0x FCD, since it is easier for me to navigate [similar text exists in C++03, if not in the same places] 12.3.1.3 [class.conv.ctor] A default constructor may be an explicit constructor; such a constructor will be used to perform default-initialization or value initialization (8.5). It goes on to provide an example of an explicit default constructor, but it simply mimics the example I provided above. 8.5.6 [decl.init] To default-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9), the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); 8.5.7 [decl.init] To value-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9) with a user-provided constructor (12.1), then the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); In both cases, the standard calls for the default constructor to be called. But that is what would happen if the default constructor were non-explicit. For completeness sake: 8.5.11 [decl.init] If no initializer is specified for an object, the object is default-initialized; From what I can tell, this just leaves conversion from no data. Which doesn't make sense. The best I can come up with would be the following: void function(Class c); int main() { function(); //implicitly convert from no parameter to a single parameter } But obviously that isn't the way C++ handles default arguments. What else is there that would make explicit Class(); behave differently from Class();? The specific example that generated this question was std::function [20.8.14.2 func.wrap.func]. It requires several converting constructors, none of which are marked explicit, but the default constructor is.

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• Simplest solution to replace a tiny file inside an MSI?

  - by sascha

  Many of our customers have access to InstallShield, WISE or AdminStudio. These aren't a problem. I'm hoping there is some way I can provide our smaller customers without access to commercial repackaging tools a freely available set of tools and steps to do the file replacement themselves. Only need to replace a single configuration file inside a compressed MSI, the target user can be assumed to already have Orca installed, know how to use this to customize the Property table (to embed license details for GPO deployment) and have generated an MST file. Disclaimer: this is very similar to another question but both questions and answers in that thread are not clear.

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• How the kernel gives seg. fault for a scenario like this?

  - by bala1486

  I have a doubt in accessing some invalid data. How will the OS cause segmentation fault for a scenario like this? Suppose a date segment has some 100 bytes. This will be mapped and a page table entry will be created. But the page size is 4K. Consider the data segment is aligned with this page boundary. So at first consider accessing a valid data within the 100 bytes. So now the page table entry is in TLB. Next if you try to access some invalid data between the 100 and 4K, the entry is there in page table and will it be allowed to access the invalid data??? Thanks, Bala

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• Response.Redirect() will not redirect on Internet Explorer

  - by Amit

  Hi, I am using Response.Redirect("someurl",true); in the page_preInit event to redirect all the requests that come to a page. It works fine on Firexox, but if i access the page from internet explorer 7/8, it says page can not be found and will not redirect to new URL. Any idea why this happens?? Update: I tried giving a radom URL in the redirect such as google.com and it works fine. Actually the URL I am trying to redirect is not accessible on my machine, it is on another VPN. I guess IE will not change the URL on the addressbar if it can not access the URL. Firefox on the other hand changes the address on the address bar.

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• How to get "paster request" to use config host value instead of localhost?

  - by mmartinez

  I'm trying to access my pylons application via cron job to send notifications to my users. The way I'm doing this is by running the application using something like: paster request myconfig.ini /maintenance/do In the actual controller I check for the "paste.command_request" to block public access. Everything works but the only problem is that within the notifications that I send to my users there is a link to their profile and the host is "localhost" which should instead be the domain name of the application. When the notifications are sent from within the served application (say, a user modifies their settings on the site) the notifications have the correct url. I am using mako to render my email tamplates and within the template I am using the "pylons.url" method with "qualified" set to "True". Am I missing something here? Thanks in advance.

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• How to structure an enterprise MVC app, and where does Business Logic go?

  - by James

  I am an MVC newbie. As far as I can tell: Controller: deals with routing requests View: deals with presentation of data Model: looks a whole lot like a Data Access layer Where does the Business Logic go? Take a large enterprise application with: Several different sources of data (WCF, WebServices and ADO) tied together in a data access layer (useing multiple different DTOs). A lot business logic segmented over several dlls. What is an appropriate way for an MVC web application to sit on top of this (in terms of code and project structure)? The example I have seen where everything just goes in the Model folder don't seem like they are appropriate for very large applications. Thanks for any advice!

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• KO 2.3.4 - Accessing validation array from callbacks in models

  - by kenny99

  Hi, Apologies if this is an oversight or sheer stupidity on my part but I can't quite figure out how to access the validation array from a callback in a model (using ORM and KO 2.3.4). I want to be able to add specific error messages to the validation array if a callback returns false. e.g This register method: public function register(array & $array, $save = FALSE) { // Initialise the validation library and setup some rules $array = Validation::factory($array) ->pre_filter('trim') ->add_rules('email', 'required', 'valid::email', array($this, 'email_available')) ->add_rules('confirm_email', 'matches[email]') ->add_rules('password', 'required', 'length[5,42]') ->add_rules('confirm_password', 'matches[password]'); return ORM::validate($array, $save); } Callback: public function email_available($value) { return ! (bool) $this->db ->where('email', $value) ->count_records($this->table_name); } I can obviously access the current model from the callback, but I was wondering what the best way to add custom error from the callback would be?

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• dynamically created datagridview columns not accessible unless added to a form...why?

  - by deostroll

  We simply created a DataGridView control dynamically and bound it to a DataTable. We were tying to style certain columns. But, when we tried to access the columns we got a null reference. On further investigation we found that if we add the DataGridView control to the main form, and then try to access its columns, it works fine!!! Code which throws error: DataGridView gv = new DataGridView(); gv.DataSource = GetDataTable(); //binding it to datatable Debug.Assert(gv.Columns == null); Code which works fine: DataGridView gv = new DataGridView(); gv.DataSource = GetDataTable(); //binding it to datatable this.Controls.Add(gv); //adding to form Debug.Assert(gv.Columns == null); //the assertion fails! Why is this behaviour so? Is there a workaround for this?

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• Using the ASP.NET membership provider database with your own database?

  - by Shaharyar

  Hello everybody, We are developing an ASP.NET MVC Application that currently uses it's own databse ApplicationData for the domain models and another one Membership for the user management / membership provider. We do access restrictions using data-annotations in our controllers. [Authorize(Roles = "administrators, managers")] This worked great for simple use cases. As we are scaling our application our customer wants to restrict specific users to access specific areas of our ApplicationData database. Each of our products contains a foreign key referring to the region the product was assembled in. A user story would be: Users in the role NewYorkManagers should only be able to edit / see products that are assembled in New York. We created a placeholder table UserRightsRegions that contains the UserId and the RegionId. How can I link both the ApplicationData and the Membership databases in order to work properly / having cross-database-key-references? (Is something like this even possible?) All help is more than appreciated!

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• Assigning to struct in different class

  - by 4thSpace

  I have a struct in ClassA and want to assign it to the same struct in ClassB (the two structs are the same with different names). ClassA and ClassB are view controllers. Basically, I need to pass this struct to another class. However, structs don't seem to be exposed as members, which means I can't access them. Here is ClassA's struct declared in its header file: typedef struct { NSString *startDate; NSString *endDate; NSString *classId; } selectedItemsClassAStruct; selectedItemsClassAStruct selectedItemsClassA; and the same for ClassB (just with ClassA text replaced) It doesn't appear in code hints for ClassB. I see this error if I try to access it: request for member 'selectedItemsClassBStruct' in something not a structure or union How should it be done?

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• Authenticated Referrals & Server-Side Auth Flow - What is the redirect_uri?

  - by Brian P. Hamachek

  From an authenticated referral (such as from a timeline story) to my website, I am trying to use the server-side authentication flow to obtain an access token for the referred user. I need to pass my app secret, the auth code, and the original redirect URI to the Facebook access token endpoint. Since I did not initiate the authentication request, how do I determine the original redirect_uri? The link from the Facebook timeline looks like: http://www.facebook.com/connect/uiserver.php?app_id=153644678059870&method=permissions.request&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.wnmlive.com%2Fpost%2F141833948%3Ffb_action_ids%3D10100708033267487%26fb_action_types%3Dwnm-live%253Acomment%26fb_source%3Drecent_activity&response_type=code&display=page&auth_referral=1 So I figure that the redirect URI I need to pass is: http%3A%2F%2Fwww.wnmlive.com%2Fpost%2F141833948%3Ffb_action_ids%3D10100708033267487%26fb_action_types%3Dwnm-live%253Acomment%26fb_source%3Drecent_activity The URI that the user is ultimately redirected to is: http://www.wnmlive.com/post/141833948?fb_action_ids=10100708032119787&fb_action_types=wnm-live%3Apost&fb_source=recent_activity&code=AQALK-Mwb_Nwi4z7FWnFaL6tEXvNtVJiRKrgarG9X73sp22TJyk8v2GWKtuXuevJk4hPSRNnuNpEgZXLFdOS_k-pY-mE15DYytIa8Y7VdSw3VL-XYi-CR9BCqRQGq4uBJvSSdZayCp6MWzDMaNqWd5r8OhKVnOhg_yDlvfoLl21N2SMwkJaOfD5mlPnPb5A-Q4A#_=_ Is it safe to assume that I can just chop off everything starting with the "&code=" and use that as the redirect URI?

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• UICollectionViewController nested in a normal UIViewController

  - by patrickS

  I have added a UICollectionView into a normal ViewController (MainViewController), and than created a UICollectionViewController Subclass (CollectionViewController) in the ViewController and connected the UICollectionView outlet with the CollectionViewController object _collectionViewController = [[CollectionViewController alloc] initWithCollectionViewLayout:_collectionView.collectionViewLayout]; _collectionView.dataSource = _collectionViewController; _collectionView.delegate = _collectionViewController; In the CollectionViewController I have setup an simple NSArray object and I show this one. This works as expected. But If I try to access the collectionview from the CollectionViewController via self.collectionview I am not able to access this one. I dont know what I have to do, to also connect the collectionview. I have build a sample ios-app it is available at: https://github.com/patricks/uicollectionview-problem The method - (void)outputSelectedCell in the UICollectionViewController always shows, that there is nothing selected… I hope you understand the problem.

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