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  • Nginx + Passenger running a RoR app is returning 401 when 302 is expected

    - by DBruns
    I've got a RoR app running on Passenger on top of Nginx. I'm using devise for my authentication method and have a link that gets sent in an email to users that requires authentication to view. If a user clicks the link from Outlook, and IE is the default browser, IE makes an HTTP request using the following headers: GET http://www.company.com/custom_layouts/108 HTTP/1.1 Accept: */* Accept-Language: en-us User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E) Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Connection: Keep-Alive Host: www.company.com Returning: HTTP/1.1 401 Unauthorized Content-Type: /; charset=utf-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Connection: keep-alive Status: 401 X-Powered-By: Phusion Passenger (mod_rails/mod_rack) 2.2.15 WWW-Authenticate: Basic realm="Application" Cache-Control: no-cache X-UA-Compatible: IE=Edge,chrome=1 Set-Cookie: _vxwer_session=[sessionstr]; path=/; HttpOnly X-Runtime: 0.011918 Server: nginx/0.7.67 + Phusion Passenger 2.2.15 (mod_rails/mod_rack) 31 You need to sign in or sign up before continuing. 0 When the exact same URL is typed into the address bar, it does this: GET http://www.company.com/custom_layouts/108 HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/jpeg, application/x-ms-application, image/gif, application/xaml+xml, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-xbap, application/vnd.ms-excel, application/vnd.ms-powerpoint, application/msword, */* Accept-Language: en-US User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E) Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Connection: Keep-Alive Host: www.company.com Returning: HTTP/1.1 302 Found Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Connection: keep-alive Status: 302 X-Powered-By: Phusion Passenger (mod_rails/mod_rack) 2.2.15 Location: http://www.company.com/users/sign_in Cache-Control: no-cache X-UA-Compatible: IE=Edge,chrome=1 Set-Cookie: _xswer_session=[session_info_here]; path=/; HttpOnly X-Runtime: 0.010798 Server: nginx/0.7.67 + Phusion Passenger 2.2.15 (mod_rails/mod_rack) 6f <html><body>You are being <a href="http://www.company.com/users/sign_in">redirected</a>.</body></html> 0 I expect them to return the same thing regardless.

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  • Windows Server 2008 Software Raid 5 - Data integrity issues

    - by Fopedush
    I've got a server running Windows Server 2008 R2, with a (windows native) software raid-5 array. The array consists of 7x 1TB Western Digital RE3 and RE4 drives. I have offline backups of this array. The problem is this: I noticed a few days ago after copying a large file to the disk that there was an integrity issue with that file - it was a ~12GB file that I had downloaded via uTorrent. After moving it to the raid array, I used uTorrent to relocate the download location, and performed a re-check so I could seed it from that location. The recheck found that only 6308/6310 chunks of the copied file were intact. My next step was to write a quick powershell script that would copy files to the array, while performing a SHA1 hash of the original and resultant files and comparing them. Smaller files (100-1000MB) copied over just fine. When I started copying larger data (~15GB), I found that the hash check failed about 2/3rds of the time. The corrupt files had very, very small inconsistencies - less than .01%. I further eliminated the possibility of networking or client issues by placing this large file on the C:\ of the server, and copying it repeatedly from there to the array, seeing similar results. Copying the data via explorer, powershell, or the standard windows command prompt yield the same results. None of the copies fail or report any problems. The raid array itself is listed as healthy in disk management. After a few experiments, I shut down the server and ran memtest overnight. No errors were detected. A basic run of chkdsk found no problems, but I did not use the /R flag, as I was unsure how that might affect a software raid-5 volume. I next ran Crystal Disk Info to check the smart data on the drives - but found that CDI only detected 5 out of 7 of the disks in the array. I have no idea why. Nevertheless, CDI shows the following "caution" flags on a single one of the drives: 05 199 199 140 000000000001 Reallocated Sectors Count C5 200 200 __0 000000000001 Current Pending Sector Count Which is a little bit alarming, but I don't really know what to do with the information. I hardly feel like one reallocated sector could be causing this. At this point, I'm looking for some guidance on what to do next. I need to determine the cause of this issue, but I'm hesitant to run chkdsk /R or any bootable disk health checkers because I'm afraid they might break the array. I've considered triggering a re-sync of the array, but I'm not actually sure how to do that without doing something silly like manually dropping a disk and then restoring it. Any advice that could help me ferret out the precise cause of this issue would be greatly appreciated.

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  • LdapErr: DSID-0C0903AA, data 52e: authenticating against AD '08 with pam_ldap

    - by Stefan M
    I have full admin access to the AD '08 server I'm trying to authenticate towards. The error code means invalid credentials, but I wish this was as simple as me typing in the wrong password. First of all, I have a working Apache mod_ldap configuration against the same domain. AuthType basic AuthName "MYDOMAIN" AuthBasicProvider ldap AuthLDAPUrl "ldap://10.220.100.10/OU=Companies,MYCOMPANY,DC=southit,DC=inet?sAMAccountName?sub?(objectClass=user)" AuthLDAPBindDN svc_webaccess_auth AuthLDAPBindPassword mySvcWebAccessPassword Require ldap-group CN=Service_WebAccess,OU=Groups,OU=MYCOMPANY,DC=southit,DC=inet I'm showing this because it works without the use of any Kerberos, as so many other guides out there recommend for system authentication to AD. Now I want to translate this into pam_ldap.conf for use with OpenSSH. The /etc/pam.d/common-auth part is simple. auth sufficient pam_ldap.so debug This line is processed before any other. I believe the real issue is configuring pam_ldap.conf. host 10.220.100.10 base OU=Companies,MYCOMPANY,DC=southit,DC=inet ldap_version 3 binddn svc_webaccess_auth bindpw mySvcWebAccessPassword scope sub timelimit 30 pam_filter objectclass=User nss_map_attribute uid sAMAccountName pam_login_attribute sAMAccountName pam_password ad Now I've been monitoring ldap traffic on the AD host using wireshark. I've captured a successful session from Apache's mod_ldap and compared it to a failed session from pam_ldap. The first bindrequest is a success using the svc_webaccess_auth account, the searchrequest is a success and returns a result of 1. The last bindrequest using my user is a failure and returns the above error code. Everything looks identical except for this one line in the filter for the searchrequest, here showing mod_ldap. Filter: (&(objectClass=user)(sAMAccountName=ivasta)) The second one is pam_ldap. Filter: (&(&(objectclass=User)(objectclass=User))(sAMAccountName=ivasta)) My user is named ivasta. However, the searchrequest does not return failure, it does return 1 result. I've also tried this with ldapsearch on the cli. It's the bindrequest that follows the searchrequest that fails with the above error code 52e. Here is the failure message of the final bindrequest. resultcode: invalidcredentials (49) 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C0903AA, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 52e, v1772 This should mean invalid password but I've tried with other users and with very simple passwords. Does anyone recognize this from their own struggles with pam_ldap and AD? Edit: Worth noting is that I've also tried pam_password crypt, and pam_filter sAMAccountName=User because this worked when using ldapsearch. ldapsearch -LLL -h 10.220.100.10 -x -b "ou=Users,ou=mycompany,dc=southit,dc=inet" -v -s sub -D svc_webaccess_auth -W '(sAMAccountName=ivasta)' This works using the svc_webaccess_auth account password. This account has scan access to that OU for use with apache's mod_ldap.

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  • I want to virtualize my workstation (Tier 1), Looking for Bare Metal Hypervisor for consumer grade components

    - by Chase Florell
    I find myself in this similar bind at least once a year. The bind whereby I'm either upgrading a motherboard, or an OS hard drive. It drives me crazy to have to reinstall Windows, Visual Studio, all my addins, reconfigure my settings etc... every single time. I have a layout and I like and I want to stick with it. My question is... Is there a Bare Metal Hypervisor on the market that will enable me to virtualize my consumer grade workstation? I really want to avoid Host/Client virtualization. Bare Metal is definitely a better way to go for my needs. Is this a good approach, or am I going to suffer some other undesirable side effects by doing this? Clarification My machine has very limited purposes. My primary use is Visual Studio 2010 Professional where I develop ASP.NET MVC Web Applications. The second piece of software that I use (that's system intensive) is Photoshop CS3. Beyond that, my applications are limited to Outlook, Internet Explorer, Firefox, Opera, Chrome, LinqPad, and various other (small) apps. Beyond this, I'm considering working on a node.js project and might run ubuntu on the same hypervisor if possible. System Specs: Gigabyte Motherboard Intel i7 920 12 GB Ram basic 500GB 7200RPM HDD for OS 4 VelociRaptors in Raid 1/0 for build disk Dual GTS250 (512MB) Graphics cards (non SLI) for quad monitors On a side note I also wouldn't be opposed to an alternative suggestion if the limitations are too great. I could install the ESXi (or Zen Server) on my box, and build a separate "thin client" to RDP into the virtual machine. It appears as though RDP supports dual monitors. Edit (Dec 9, 2011) It's been nearly a year since I first asked this question. Since then, there have been a lot of great strides in Hypervisor technology... AND MokaFive is now released for corporate use. I'd love to dig into this question a little more and find out if there is a solid BareMetal Hypervisor for workstations running consumer grade components (IE: not Dell, HP, Lenovo, Etc).

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  • Trouble creating FTP in Server 2008

    - by Saariko
    I have been trying to create an FTP server on my new Server 2008. I have been following both (very detailed and highly published here guides) For setting up using IIS Manager http://learn.iis.net/page.aspx/321/configure-ftp-with-iis-7-manager-authentication/ and For anonymous FTP http://www.trainsignaltraining.com/windows-server-2008-ftp-iis7 I am able to log as an anonymous user. My need is to use a named user, so I need to use the IIS Manager. I get error 530 when trying to log as a user. Connected to 127.0.0.1. 220 Microsoft FTP Service User (127.0.0.1:(none)): ftpmanager 331 Password required for ftpmanager. Password: 530-User cannot log in. Win32 error: Logon failure: unknown user name or bad password. Error details: Filename: Error: 530 End Login failed. ftp> I can not learn from this message anything. My password is set to: 1234 (so I don't think I make a mistake here - testing purposes only ofc) Thank you. Note - I went over other posts on SE that I read, and couldn't get the result: IIS7 Windows Server 2008 FTP -> Response: 530 User cannot log in. FTP Error 530, User cannot log in, home directory inaccessible. Having trouble setting up FTP server on Windows Server 2008 EDIT I think I found some errors with the physical path. Going to Basic settings, and Test Connection on the physical path, gave me the following error: The server is configured to use pass-through authentication with a built-in account to access the specified physical path. However, IIS Manager cannot verify whether the built-in account has access. Make sure that the application pool identity has Read access to the physical path. If this server is joined to a domain, and the application pool identity is NetworkService or LocalSystem, verify that \$ has Read access to the physical path. Then test these settings again. I am not sure which/whom should get access to the Root folder !? I want to point out, I managed to login with a domain user (change authorization and authentication methods) but this is NOT the requested solution. I checked to make sure that the FTP, folders, access is working properly. I am bit lost here. ==== More tries: I have enabled another Allow rule for ALL Users. I still get the same error. It seems that it doesn't matter if i use a correct or wrong password, I still get Error 530.

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  • How can I create an appointment on a shared Outlook calendar

    - by roryhewitt
    This isn't as basic a question as it may seem. Hence all the descriptive text... I and my team use Outlook 2007. I have my own personal calendar and also I share a calendar with others in my team (which is mainly used to notify everyone of vacations etc.). The others in my team are NOT technical people. I would like to create a shortcut or template that any of us can use to create an appointment in the shared calendar. My initial though was to create a new appointment, but rather than actually put it in the calendar, I would save it as an Outlook Template (.oft) file. Once created, I would send this to my team and tell them to put it in their Templates file and put a shortcut on their desktop. Then, if they want to put a vacation in the shared calendar, they just double-click on the shortcut, change the dates etc. and then save & close it. However, when I do that, it doesn't save the fact that it's an appointment on the shared calendar - it just adds the appointment to the team member's personal calendar. There doesn't seem to be a way to specify a calendar in the template. I've also tried this by saving the template as a .ics or .vcs file, with no better luck. Additionally, if a team member adds an appointment to the shared calendar, other 'sharees' aren't notified, unless the appointment is actually created as a meeting and the other sharees are explicitly invited. I found this online (http://office.microsoft.com/en-us/outlook-help/keep-everyone-informed-about-time-away-from-the-office-HA010209819.aspx) which APPEARS to say that what I want to do isn't built in functionality (since it shows a bunch of steps to go through. I'd PREFER not to have to add this stuff to everyone else's personal calendar directly. So... Is this possible to do, natively (i.e. directly in Outlook)? Would a Sharepoint calendar make more sense and allow this functionality? Is there a way to do what I want which will allow the other team members to be notified? Like I said, I'm looking for as simple an interface as possible - these people aren't going to want to do much more than open something and change dates. Additionally, they're probably not going to have any fancy software on their PC's, although they will be up to date with Java and (maybe) .NET frameworks. Also, before anyone gets funny, yes, this has to work with Outlook 2007, as it's a corporate standard - we're not able to change that, even though e.g. Google Calendar would do this wonderfully. Obviously if this functionality is available in Outlook 2010, then fantastic - we might be able to upgrade. Thanks!

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  • Triple (3) Monitors under Linux

    - by widgisoft
    I have a 3 monitor setup (each 1680x1050) via an Nvidia NVS440 (2 GPUs, 2 outputs per GPU totalling 4 outputs); this works fine under Windows XP,7 but caused considerable headaches under Linux (Ubuntu 9.04). I had previously used an XFX 9600GT and the onboard XFX 9300GS to produce the same result but the card was noisy and power hungry and I was hoping that there was some magical switch in the NVS4400 that got rid of this annoying problem - turns out the NVS440 is just 2 cards on one physical PCB :-p (I searched the net high and low for people using this card under Linux but found nothing, if anything the card uses less power and is fan less so I was to benefit from it either way) Anyway, using either set up there were 5 solutions available: Have 3 separate X instances, all un joined Have 3 separate X instances, adjoined by Xinerama Have 2 separate X instances - One using twin-view, both adjoined by Xinerama Have 2 separate X instances - One using twin-view but no Xinerama Have a single Twin-view setup and leave the 3rd screen unplugged :-p The 4rd option, using 2 separate X instances and twinview (but no xinerama) was the best balance in terms of performance and usability but caused 2 really annoying issues You couldn't control (without altering the shortcuts) which screen an application opened onto - and once it was opened you couldn't move it to another screen without opening up terminal and forcing it to move Nvidia's overriding or falsifying of Xinerama breaks and the 2 screens joined by Twin view behave like a single huge screen causing popups to open in the middle of both screens and maximising of windows stretches to the width of the first 2 screens Firefox can only run one instance as the same user so having multiple firefox windows requires at least 2 users The second option "feels" like the right option, but OpenGL is basically disabled and playing any sort of game or even running anything graphical causes a huge performance drop and instability - even trying to run a basic emulator for gba or gens just causes the system to fall over. It works just enough to stare at your desktop and do nothing but as soon as you start doing some work - opening windows, dragging things around - running multiple copies of firefox it just really feels slow. The last open, only going dual screen works perfectly and everything performs as required, full GPU acceleration - two logical screen spaces - perfect, just make it work across GPUs like windows! :-p Anyway, I know RandR was supposed to pick up the slack when it would introduced GPU objects of sorts to allow multiple GPUs to be stitched together to create one huge desktop at a much deeper layer than Xinerama. I was wondering if this has now been fixed (I noticed X server 1.7 is out) and whether anyone has got it running successfully? Again, my requirements are: One huge desktop to drag any window across Maximising of windows to each screen (as XP does) Running fullscreen apps on the primary screen and disabling the mouse from moving onto the others or on all 3 stretched Finally as a side note; I am aware of the Matrox triple (and dual) head splitter but even the price they go for on eBay is more than I can afford atm, my argument: I shouldn't have to buy extra hardware to get something to work on Linux when it's something that's existed in the windows world for a long time (can you tell I don't get on with X :-p); If I had the cash I'd have bought the latest version of this box already (the new version finally supports large resolutions as the displays I have 1680x1050 each).

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  • A proper way to create non-interactive accounts?

    - by AndreyT
    In order to use password-protected file sharing in a basic home network I want to create a number of non-interactive user accounts on a Windows 8 Pro machine in addition to the existing set of interactive accounts. The users that corresponds to those extra accounts will not use this machine interactively, so I don't want their accounts to be available for logon and I don't want their names to appear on welcome screen. In older versions of Windows Pro (up to Windows 7) I did this by first creating the accounts as members of "Users" group, and then including them into "Deny logon locally" list in Local Security Policy settings. This always had the desired effect. However, my question is whether this is the right/best way to do it. The reason I'm asking is that even though this method works in Windows 8 Pro as well, it has one little quirk: interactive users from "User" group are still able to see these extra user names when they go to the Metro screen and hit their own user name in the top-right corner (i.e. open "Sign out/Lock" menu). The command list that drops out contains "Sign out" and "Lock" commands as well as the names of other users (for "switch user" functionality). For some reason that list includes the extra users from "Deny logon locally" list. It is interesting to note that this happens when the current user belongs to "Users" group, but it does not happen when the current user is from "Administrators". For example, let's say I have three accounts on the machine: "Administrator" (from "Administrators", can logon locally), "A" (from "Users", can logon locally), "B" (from "Users", denied logon locally). When "Administrator" is logged in, he can only see user "A" listed in his Metro "Sign out/Lock" menu, i.e. all works as it should. But when user "A" is logged in, he can see both "Administrator" and user "B" in his "Sign out/Lock" menu. Expectedly, in the above example trying to switch from user "A" to user "B" by hitting "B" in the menu does not work: Windows jumps to welcome screen that lists only "Administrator" and "A". Anyway, on the surface this appears to be an interface-level bug in Windows 8. However, I'm wondering if going through "Deny logon locally" setting is the right way to do it in Windows 8. Is there any other way to create a hidden non-interactive user account?

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  • Echo 404 directly from nginx to improve performance

    - by user64204
    I am in charge of production servers serving static content for a website. Those servers are constantly being crawled by bots looking for potential exploits (which isn't that much of a problem security-wise because no application can be reached behind the web server) but generates thousands of 404 per day, sometimes per hour. I am looking into ways of blocking those requests but it's tricky (you want to make sure you don't block legitimate traffic and these bots are becoming more and more clever at looking like they're legit) and is going to take me a while to find an acceptable solution. In the meantime I would like to reduce the performance impact of serving those 404 pages. Indeed we're using nginx which by default is configured to serve it's 404 page from the disk (This can be changed using the error_page directive but in the end the 404 will either have to be served from disk or from another external source (e.g. upstream application which would be worst)) which isn't ideal. I ran a test with ab on my local machine with a basic configuration: in one case I echo a message directly from nginx so the disk isn't touched at all, in the other case I hit a missing page and nginx serves its 404 from disk. server { # [...] the default nginx stuff location / { } location /this_page_exists { echo "this page was found"; } } Here are the test results (my laptop has Intel(R) Core(TM) i7-2670QM + SSD in case you're wondering why they are so high): $ ab -n 500000 -c 1000 http://localhost/this_page_exists Requests per second: 25609.16 [#/sec] (mean) $ ab -n 500000 -c 1000 http://localhost/this_page_doesnt_exists Requests per second: 22905.72 [#/sec] (mean) As you can see, returning a value with echo is 11% ((25609-22905)÷22905×100) faster than serving the 404 page from disk. Accordingly I would like to echo a simple 404 Page not Found string from nginx. I tried many things so far but they all failed, essentially the idea was this: location / { try_files $uri @not_found; } location @not_found { echo "404 - Page not found"; } The problem is that as soon as the echo directive is used, the http response code is set to 200. I tried changing that by doing error_page 200 = 400 but that breaks the configuration. How can I serve a 404 page directly from nginx? (without hacking the source which may be might next step)

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  • Wifi randomly drops on Windows 8 laptop

    - by JosiahS
    First of all, I did a lot of research on this problem, and I wasn't able to come to any helpful conclusion. I've finally decided that I need advice from those who might know where to look. So don't let me down. :P I used to have an older Windows 7 laptop, which worked great for basic office and web browsing. However, I wanted something that would play actual modern games. So I recently bought a Sager NP8235 with the Intel Wireless-AC 7260 wifi card, and installed Windows 8 Pro on it. And ever since, I've been having problems with the wifi. Generally, what happens is if I leave the laptop on but inactive for an extended amount of time (I've estimated it around an hour to two), the wifi will start dropping randomly. If I happened to have a download going at the time, it usually causes the download to fail. Or, if I put the laptop to sleep overnight, the next morning I usually have to restart the computer because the wifi device apparently stops working (it literally won't turn on). Also, and most frustrating, whenever I'm on a video chat (like Skype), after about ten minutes, the connection will start lagging like crazy, until it forces Skype to end the call. After that, I usually have to disable and reenable the wifi to get it working again. I know it isn't our internet, because all the other computers in our house (~8) don't have any issues. Even the old Windows 7 laptop (connected also over wifi) works just fine, scoring the normal ~3Mbps average on speedtest.net (yes, I know our internet is slow, we live out in the country). Additionally, when I connect the Sager directly to the router via ethernet, the internet instantly starts working just great. Like I said, I've done a lot of googling to figure out what's going on, and I haven't been able to find anything that worked for me. Is it Windows 8 conflicting with the Wifi drivers? As of this writing, I have the Intel drivers v16.1.5.2 installed (without the extra Intel software). Or is it our router? It's a TP-Link TL-WR841ND, set to the default settings. The Sager is currently being assigned to a static IP, if that makes any difference. And yet, the old windows 7 laptop has a much more stable connection than the Sager. Anyone have any ideas? At this point, I'd appreciate even knowing what the problem is.

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  • Troubleshooting Network Speeds -- The Age Old Inquiry

    - by John K
    I'm looking for help with what I'm sure is an age old question. I've found myself in a situation of yearning to understand network throughput more clearly, but I can't seem to find information that makes it "click" We have a few servers distributed geographically, running various versions of Windows. Assuming we always use one host (a desktop) as the source, when copying data from that host to other servers across the country, we see a high variance in speed. In some cases, we can copy data at 12MB/s consistently, in others, we're seeing 0.8 MB/s. It should be noted, after testing 8 destinations, we always seem to be at either 0.6-0.8MB/s or 11-12 MB/s. In the building we're primarily concerned with, we have an OC-3 connection to our ISP. I know there are a lot of variables at play, but I guess I was hoping the experts here could help answer a few basic questions to help bolster my understanding. 1.) For older machines, running Windows XP, server 2003, etc, with a 100Mbps Ethernet card and 72 ms typical latency, does 0.8 MB/s sound at all reasonable? Or do you think that slow enough to indicate a problem? 2.) The classic "mathematical fastest speed" of "throughput = TCP window / latency," is, in our case, calculated to 0.8 MB/s (64Kb / 72 ms). My understanding is that is an upper bounds; that you would never expect to reach (due to overhead) let alone surpass that speed. In some cases though, we're seeing speeds of 12.3 MB/s. There are Steelhead accelerators scattered around the network, could those account for such a higher transfer rate? 3.) It's been suggested that the use SMB vs. SMB2 could explain the differences in speed. Indeed, as expected, packet captures show both being used depending on the OS versions in play, as we would expect. I understand what determines SMB2 being used or not, but I'm curious to know what kind of performance gain you can expect with SMB2. My problem simply seems to be a lack of experience, and more importantly, perspective, in terms of what are and are not reasonable network speeds. Could anyone help impart come context/perspective?

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  • Wireless Network suddenly cant connect after Windows update

    - by vinir
    UPDATE: As my patience started to end, the laptop started to display symptoms of other malfunctions, so I ended up returning it to Asus and actually had the price of the laptop back in store credit. I did not solve the problem per se, but as I don't have the notebook and the screen, the keyboard, the touchpad and other parts were malfunctioning, I can safely assume that it was put to rest. I don't know how to behave when my question isn't actually answered, but was "solved", so I placed this over here. Anyone that knows how to end this topic, I would appreciate the heads up. Thanks for everything, everyone, it's nice to see that this topic in the community was active even when all this time had passed. vinir So I bought an ASUS K43E notebook earlier this year and built a wireless conection to link it to. It worked great for the first weeks, but then I updated my Windows 7 Home Basic with the daily updates; After that my home network couldn't be reached no matter what I did. I have linux on dual boot on the same notebook and it can connect to my home wireless network flawlessly. I have a hunch that it's somehow related to the Network Profile settings. I have noticed my network was set as "Home network", but after the system updates I got changed to "Public". Now I can't connect to it to change the profile settings. My Atheros Network adapter is updated to the latest driver (march 2012), and I still can't connect. The funny thing is that the same thing happened to my mother's notebook, as it has the same Network Adapter, Atheros AR9285, as I recall it. I managed to fix it on my mother's computer by using an specific network LSP and profiling reset that was available through her notebook's antivirus program, avast! Internet Security. I can't get that to work on my notebook, but I suspect that some related tool might just make it work too. So the question is: how to modify a network's profile and settings that were stored in my notebook? I can't connect to the specific network on Windows, as stated before.

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  • A Windows Update Prevented Live Discs From Working?

    - by user88311
    First off I'll state my system specs. Acer Aspire M1100 Windows Vista Home Basic 32bit OEM 2 Gigs of DDR2 ram 160Gig hard drive 2.7Ghz AMD Athlon 64 processor ATI Radeon X1250 Graphics card A few days ago my computer did automatic updates and updated windows defender to KB915597 (Definition 1.135.415.0), After which when shutting down and starting up I would receive BSOD with the information BUGCODE_USE_DRIVER and 0x000000FE (0x00000008, 0x00000006, 0x00000006, 0x877330000) upon where my computer would not start up with any USB devices plugged in and it always require me to run startup repair before it started. Upon when I first started it up and was able to fully boot windows, I had no use of the mouse so I was unable to install the fix that the windows solutions center brought up on my screen, so I restarted again and installed the fix hoping it would cease the problem, it did not. Upoon starting up after installing the fix and restarting I was confronted with the BSOD 0x000000FE (0x00000008, 0x00000006, 0x00000006, 0x83291000) at which I found the startup repair could not fix the problem and I restored, as I most like should have in the first place. After going through that I read that simply installing the latest defender version from the microsoft site had fixed this problem for others, so I did that, to find I still received the BSOD's. So in a attempt to find a fix to the problem I went to the microsoft answers site to try to find a way to fix the problem, there I was told to simply disable defender and reboot to see if that fixed the problem, upon doing this my computer would no longer even startup, when I boot normally I get to just when the loading screen finishes and then my computer restarts and when I run startup repair, it runs for about 15 seconds and then my computer restarts as well. I have tried running ubuntu live discs in order to simply access the drive and simply copy and paste the 2 month old physical backup I have of my C drive to the C drive, but whenever I run the live OS when it gets to the end of the load screen and is about to boot, the computer again restarts, yet if I put in a gparted disc, I am able to boot it fully, although it does not give me access to the file system just partition managing and when I attempt to access the internet through it, the computer once again restarts. So my question is, how could the update and what has happened prevent me from running the live OS's properly?

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  • Asterisk server firewall script allows 2-way audio from incoming calls, but not on outgoing?

    - by cappie
    I'm running an Asterisk PBX on a virtual machine directly connected to the Internet and I really want to prevent script kiddies, l33t h4x0rz and actual hackers access to my server. The basic way I protect my calling-bill now is by using 32 character passwords, but I would much rather have a way to protect The firewall script I'm currently using is stated below, however, without the established connection firewall rule (mentioned rule #1), I cannot receive incoming audio from the target during outgoing calls: #!/bin/bash # first, clean up! iptables -F iptables -X iptables -t nat -F iptables -t nat -X iptables -t mangle -F iptables -t mangle -X iptables -P INPUT ACCEPT iptables -P FORWARD DROP # we're not a router iptables -P OUTPUT ACCEPT # don't allow invalid connections iptables -A INPUT -m state --state INVALID -j DROP # always allow connections that are already set up (MENTIONED RULE #1) iptables -A INPUT -m state --state RELATED,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT # always accept ICMP iptables -A INPUT -p icmp -j ACCEPT # always accept traffic on these ports #iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 22 -j ACCEPT # always allow DNS traffic iptables -A INPUT -p udp --sport 53 -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -p udp --dport 53 -j ACCEPT # allow return traffic to the PBX iptables -A INPUT -p udp -m udp --dport 50000:65536 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -p udp -m udp --dport 10000:20000 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -p udp --destination-port 5060:5061 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --destination-port 5060:5061 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -m multiport -p udp --dports 10000:20000 iptables -A INPUT -m multiport -p tcp --dports 10000:20000 # IP addresses of the office iptables -A INPUT -s 95.XXX.XXX.XXX/32 -j ACCEPT # accept everything from the trunk IP's iptables -A INPUT -s 195.XXX.XXX.XXX/32 -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -s 195.XXX.XXX.XXX/32 -j ACCEPT # accept everything on localhost iptables -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT # accept all outgoing traffic iptables -A OUTPUT -j ACCEPT # DROP everything else #iptables -A INPUT -j DROP I would like to know what firewall rule I'm missing for this all to work.. There is so little documentation on which ports (incoming and outgoing) asterisk actually needs.. (return ports included). Are there any firewall/iptables specialists here that see major problems with this firewall script? It's so frustrating not being able to find a simple firewall solution that enabled me to have a PBX running somewhere on the Internet which is firewalled in such a way that it can ONLY allows connections from and to the office, the DNS servers and the trunk(s) (and only support SSH (port 22) and ICMP traffic for the outside world). Hopefully, using this question, we can solve this problem once and for all.

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  • Paying great programmers more than average programmers

    - by Kelly French
    It's fairly well recognized that some programmers are up to 10 times more productive than others. Joel mentions this topic on his blog. There is a whole blog devoted to the idea of the "10x productive programmer". In years since the original study, the general finding that "There are order-of-magnitude differences among programmers" has been confirmed by many other studies of professional programmers (Curtis 1981, Mills 1983, DeMarco and Lister 1985, Curtis et al. 1986, Card 1987, Boehm and Papaccio 1988, Valett and McGarry 1989, Boehm et al 2000). Fred Brooks mentions the wide range in the quality of designers in his "No Silver Bullet" article, The differences are not minor--they are rather like the differences between Salieri and Mozart. Study after study shows that the very best designers produce structures that are faster, smaller, simpler, cleaner, and produced with less effort. The differences between the great and the average approach an order of magnitude. The study that Brooks cites is: H. Sackman, W.J. Erikson, and E.E. Grant, "Exploratory Experimental Studies Comparing Online and Offline Programming Performance," Communications of the ACM, Vol. 11, No. 1 (January 1968), pp. 3-11. The way programmers are paid by employers these days makes it almost impossible to pay the great programmers a large multiple of what the entry-level salary is. When the starting salary for a just-graduated entry-level programmer, we'll call him Asok (From Dilbert), is $40K, even if the top programmer, we'll call him Linus, makes $120K that is only a multiple of 3. I'd be willing to be that Linus does much more than 3 times what Asok does, so why wouldn't we expect him to get paid more as well? Here is a quote from Stroustrup: "The companies are complaining because they are hurting. They can't produce quality products as cheaply, as reliably, and as quickly as they would like. They correctly see a shortage of good developers as a part of the problem. What they generally don't see is that inserting a good developer into a culture designed to constrain semi-skilled programmers from doing harm is pointless because the rules/culture will constrain the new developer from doing anything significantly new and better." This leads to two questions. I'm excluding self-employed programmers and contractors. If you disagree that's fine but please include your rationale. It might be that the self-employed or contract programmers are where you find the top-10 earners, but please provide a explanation/story/rationale along with any anecdotes. [EDIT] I thought up some other areas in which talent/ability affects pay. Financial traders (commodities, stock, derivatives, etc.) designers (fashion, interior decorators, architects, etc.) professionals (doctor, lawyer, accountant, etc.) sales Questions: Why aren't the top 1% of programmers paid like A-list movie stars? What would the industry be like if we did pay the "Smart and gets things done" programmers 6, 8, or 10 times what an intern makes? [Footnote: I posted this question after submitting it to the Stackoverflow podcast. It was included in episode 77 and I've written more about it as a Codewright's Tale post 'Of Rockstars and Bricklayers'] Epilogue: It's probably unfair to exclude contractors and the self-employed. One aspect of the highest earners in other fields is that they are free-agents. The competition for their skills is what drives up their earning power. This means they can not be interchangeable or otherwise treated as a plug-and-play resource. I liked the example in one answer of a major league baseball team trying to field two first-basemen. Also, something that Joel mentioned in the Stackoverflow podcast (#77). There are natural dynamics to shrink any extreme performance/pay ranges between the highs and lows. One is the peer pressure of organizations to pay within a given range, another is the likelyhood that the high performer will realize their undercompensation and seek greener pastures.

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  • Stored proc running 30% slower through Java versus running directly on database

    - by James B
    Hi All, I'm using Java 1.6, JTDS 1.2.2 (also just tried 1.2.4 to no avail) and SQL Server 2005 to create a CallableStatement to run a stored procedure (with no parameters). I am seeing the Java wrapper running the same stored procedure 30% slower than using SQL Server Management Studio. I've run the MS SQL profiler and there is little difference in I/O between the two processes, so I don't think it's related to query plan caching. The stored proc takes no arguments and returns no data. It uses a server-side cursor to calculate the values that are needed to populate a table. I can't see how the calling a stored proc from Java should add a 30% overhead, surely it's just a pipe to the database that SQL is sent down and then the database executes it....Could the database be giving the Java app a different query plan?? I've posted to both the MSDN forums, and the sourceforge JTDS forums (topic: "stored proc slower in JTDS than direct in DB") I was wondering if anyone has any suggestions as to why this might be happening? Thanks in advance, -James (N.B. Fear not, I will collate any answers I get in other forums together here once I find the solution) Java code snippet: sLogger.info("Preparing call..."); stmt = mCon.prepareCall("SP_WB200_POPULATE_TABLE_limited_rows"); sLogger.info("Call prepared. Executing procedure..."); stmt.executeQuery(); sLogger.info("Procedure complete."); I have run sql profiler, and found the following: Java app : CPU: 466,514 Reads: 142,478,387 Writes: 284,078 Duration: 983,796 SSMS : CPU: 466,973 Reads: 142,440,401 Writes: 280,244 Duration: 769,851 (Both with DBCC DROPCLEANBUFFERS run prior to profiling, and both produce the correct number of rows) So my conclusion is that they both execute the same reads and writes, it's just that the way they are doing it is different, what do you guys think? It turns out that the query plans are significantly different for the different clients (the Java client is updating an index during an insert that isn't in the faster SQL client, also, the way it is executing joins is different (nested loops Vs. gather streams, nested loops Vs index scans, argh!)). Quite why this is, I don't know yet (I'll re-post when I do get to the bottom of it) Epilogue I couldn't get this to work properly. I tried homogenising the connection properties (arithabort, ansi_nulls etc) between the Java and Mgmt studio clients. It ended up the two different clients had very similar query/execution plans (but still with different actual plan_ids). I posted a summary of what I found to the MSDN SQL Server forums as I found differing performance not just between a JDBC client and management studio, but also between Microsoft's own command line client, SQLCMD, I also checked some more radical things like network traffic too, or wrapping the stored proc inside another stored proc, just for grins. I have a feeling the problem lies somewhere in the way the cursor was being executed, and it was somehow giving rise to the Java process being suspended, but why a different client should give rise to this different locking/waiting behaviour when nothing else is running and the same execution plan is in operation is a little beyond my skills (I'm no DBA!). As a result, I have decided that 4 days is enough of anyone's time to waste on something like this, so I will grudgingly code around it (if I'm honest, the stored procedure needed re-coding to be more incremental instead of re-calculating all data each week anyway), and chalk this one down to experience. I'll leave the question open, big thanks to everyone who put their hat in the ring, it was all useful, and if anyone comes up with anything further, I'd love to hear some more options...and if anyone finds this post as a result of seeing this behaviour in their own environments, then hopefully there's some pointers here that you can try yourself, and hope fully see further than we did. I'm ready for my weekend now! -James

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  • HttpWebRequest: How to find a postal code at Canada Post through a WebRequest with x-www-form-enclos

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I'm currently writing some tests so that I may improve my skills with the Internet interaction through Windows Forms. One of those tests is to find a postal code which should be returned by Canada Post website. My default URL setting is set to: http://www.canadapost.ca/cpotools/apps/fpc/personal/findByCity?execution=e4s1 The required form fields are: streetNumber, streetName, city, province The contentType is "application/x-www-form-enclosed" EDIT: Please consider the value "application/x-www-form-encoded" instead of point 3 value as the contentType. (Thanks EricLaw-MSFT!) The result I get is not the result expected. I get the HTML source code of the page where I could manually enter the information to find the postal code, but not the HTML source code with the found postal code. Any idea of what I'm doing wrong? Shall I consider going the XML way? Is it first of all possible to search on Canada Post anonymously? Here's a code sample for better description: public static string FindPostalCode(ICanadadianAddress address) { var postData = string.Concat(string.Format("&streetNumber={0}", address.StreetNumber) , string.Format("&streetName={0}", address.StreetName) , string.Format("&city={0}", address.City) , string.Format("&province={0}", address.Province)); var encoding = new ASCIIEncoding(); byte[] postDataBytes = encoding.GetBytes(postData); request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(DefaultUrlSettings); request.ImpersonationLevel = System.Security.Principal.TokenImpersonationLevel.Anonymous; request.Container = new CookieContainer(); request.Timeout = 10000; request.ContentType = contentType; request.ContentLength = postDataBytes.LongLength; request.Method = @"post"; var senderStream = new StreamWriter(request.GetRequestStream()); senderStream.Write(postDataBytes, 0, postDataBytes.Length); senderStream.Close(); string htmlResponse = new StreamReader(request.GetResponse().GetResponseStream()).ReadToEnd(); return processedResult(htmlResponse); // Processing the HTML source code parsing, etc. } I seem stuck in a bottle neck in my point of view. I find no way out to the desired result. EDIT: There seems to have to parameters as for the ContentType of this site. Let me explain. There's one with the "meta"-variables which stipulates the following: meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="application/xhtml+xml, text/xml, text/html; charset=utf-8" And another one later down the code that is read as: form id="fpcByAdvancedSearch:fpcSearch" name="fpcByAdvancedSearch:fpcSearch" method="post" action="/cpotools/apps/fpc/personal/findByCity?execution=e1s1" enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded" My question is the following: With which one do I have to stick? Let me guess, the first ContentType is to be considered as the second is only for another request to a function or so when the data is posted? EDIT: As per request, the closer to the solution I am is listed under this question: WebRequest: How to find a postal code using a WebRequest against this ContentType=”application/xhtml+xml, text/xml, text/html; charset=utf-8”? Thanks for any help! :-)

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  • Problems with multiple setIntervals running simultaneously

    - by Roel V.
    Hello, My first post here. I want to make a horizontal menu with submenu's sliding down on mouseover. I know I could use jQuery but this is to practice my javascript skills. I use the following code: var up = new Array() var down = new Array() var submenustart function titleover(headmenu, inter) { submenu = headmenu.lastChild up[inter] = window.clearInterval(up[inter]) down[inter] = window.setInterval("slidedown(submenu)",1) } function slidedown(submenu) { if(submenu.offsetTop < submenustart) { submenu.style.top = submenu.offsetTop + 1 + "px" } } function titleout(headmenu, inter) { submenu = headmenu.lastChild down[inter] = window.clearInterval(down[inter]) up[inter] = window.setInterval("slideup(submenu)", 1) } function slideup(submenu) { if(submenu.offsetTop > submenustart - submenu.clientHeight + 1) { submenu.style.top = submenu.offsetTop - 1 + "px" } } The variable submenustart gets appointed a value in another function which is not relevant for my question. HTML looks like this: <table class="hoofding" id="hoofding"> <tr> <td onmouseover="titleover(this, 0)" onmouseout="titleout(this, 0)"><a href="#" class="hoofdinglink" id="hoofd1">AAAA</a> <table class="menu"> <tr><td><a href="...">1111</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a href="...">2222</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a href="...">3333</a></td></tr> </table></td> <td onmouseover="titleover(this, 1)" onmouseout="titleout(this, 1)"><a href="#" class="hoofdinglink">BBBB</a> <table class="menu"> <tr><td><a href="...">1111</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a href="...">2222</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a href="...">3333</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a href="...">4444</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a href="...">5555</a></td></tr> </table></td> ... </tr> </table> What happens is the following: If I go over and out (for ex) menu A it works fine. If i go now over menu B the interval applied to A is now applied to B. There are now 2 interval functions applied to B. The one originally for A and a new one triggered by the mouseover on B. If I would go to A all the intervals are now applied to A. I have been searching for hours but and I am completely stuck. Thanks in advance.

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  • WPF: Updating visibility of controls not updating the screen

    - by Brad McBride
    I will preface this by stating that I am new to WPF programming and may be making multiple errors. Any insight that can be provided to help me improve in my skills are greatly appreciated. I am working with a WPF application and am looping through a list of objects that contain properties that describe a document that should be built on the fly and automatically printed. I am attempting to display a small grid in the interface that shows the document being built before it is printed. This serves two purposes: one, it allows the user to see work being done by the application. Two, it renders the items on the screen so that I can then have something to actually print since WPF appears to not be able to load an image for printing dynamicaly without displaying it on the screen. In my code, I am setting the various elements in the grid and setting the visibility to visible. However, the UI is not updating and the printed document doesn't look as intended since the image never shows up on the screen. Here is the XAML that I have set up <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="Black"> <Grid Name="previewGrid" Grid.Row="1" Grid.Column="1" Background="White" Visibility="Hidden"> <Canvas Name="pageCanvas" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center"> <Grid Name="pageGrid" Width="163" Height="211"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="81.5"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="81.5"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Name="copyright" TextAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Bottom"></TextBlock> <Image Name="pageImage" Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center"></Image> </Grid> </Canvas> .....canvas for pages 2-4 not shown but structure is the same as for pageGrid..... </Grid> </Grid> </Window> Here is the code behind that is supposed to set the elements. previewGrid.Visibility = Windows.Visibility.Visible pageURI = New Uri(pageCollection(i).iamgeURL, UriKind.Absolute) pageGrid.Visibility = Windows.Visibility.Visible bmp.BeginInit() bmp.StreamSource = getCachedURLStream(cardURI) bmp.EndInit() pageImage.Source = bmp copyright.Text = copyrightText cardPreviewGrid.UpdateLayout() ' More code that prints the visual element pageGrid previewGrid.Visibility = Windows.Visibility.Hidden The code in codebehind loops through a number of times depending on how many different documents the user prints. Basically it builds a visual element for a page, prints an XPS version of it and then builds the next page and prints it, etc. Once all pages have been processed, the job is actually sent to the printer. The only purpose of this application is to let the user print these documents so there is not other task that they can do in the application while the documents print. I thought that putting this task in a background thread would help to update the UI but since I am trying to manipulate items directly on the UI thread it would appear that this option won't work for me. What am I doing wrong here and how can I improve the code so that I can get the behavior that I am trying to achieve?

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  • How to use JQuery to set the value of 2 html form select elements depending on the value of another

    - by Chris Stevenson
    My Javascript and JQuery skills are poor at best and this is ** I have the following three elements in a form : <select name="event_time_start_hours"> <option value="blank" disabled="disabled">Hours</option> <option value="blank" disabled="disabled">&nbsp;</option> <option value="01">1</option> <option value="02">2</option> <option value="03">3</option> <option value="04">4</option> <option value="05">5</option> <option value="06">6</option> <option value="07">7</option> <option value="08">8</option> <option value="09">9</option> <option value="10">10</option> <option value="11">11</option> <option value="12">12</option> <option value="midnight">Midnight</option> <option value="midday">Midday</option> </select> <select name="event_time_start_minutes"> <option value="blank" disabled="disabled">Minutes</option> <option value="blank" disabled="disabled">&nbsp;</option> <option value="00">00</option> <option value="15">15</option> <option value="30">30</option> <option value="45">45</option> </select> <select name="event_time_start_ampm"> <option value="blank" disabled="disabled">AM / PM</option> <option value="blank" disabled="disabled">&nbsp;</option> <option value="am">AM</option> <option value="pm">PM</option> </select> Quite simply, when either 'midnight' or 'midday' is selected in "event_time_start_hours", I want the values of "event_time_start_minutes" and "event_time_start_ampm" to change to "00" and "am" respectively. My VERY poor piece of Javascript says this so far : $(document).ready(function() { $('#event_time_start_hours').change(function() { if($('#event_time_start_hours').val('midnight')) { $('#event_time_start_minutes').val('00'); } }); }); ... and whilst I'm not terribly surprised it doesn't work, I'm at a loss as to what to do next. I want to do this purely for visual reasons for the user as when the form submits I ignore the "minutes" and "am/pm". I'm trying to decide whether it would be best to change the selected values, change the selected values and then disable the element or hide them altogether. However, without any success in getting anything to happen at all I haven't been able to try the different approaches to see what feels right. I've ruled out the obvious things like a duplicate element ID or simply not linking to JQuery. Thank you.

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  • Problems with multiple setIntervals running simultaniously

    - by Roel V.
    Hello, My first post here. I want to make a horizontal menu with submenu's sliding down on mouseover. I know I could use jQuery but this is to practice my javascript skills. I use the following code: var up = new Array() var down = new Array() var submenustart function titleover(headmenu, inter) { submenu = headmenu.lastChild up[inter] = window.clearInterval(up[inter]) down[inter] = window.setInterval("slidedown(submenu)",1) } function slidedown(submenu) { if(submenu.offsetTop < submenustart) { submenu.style.top = submenu.offsetTop + 1 + "px" } } function titleout(headmenu, inter) { submenu = headmenu.lastChild down[inter] = window.clearInterval(down[inter]) up[inter] = window.setInterval("slideup(submenu)", 1) } function slideup(submenu) { if(submenu.offsetTop > submenustart - submenu.clientHeight + 1) { submenu.style.top = submenu.offsetTop - 1 + "px" } } The variable submenustart gets appointed a value in another function which is not relevant for my question. HTML looks like this: <table class="hoofding" id="hoofding"> <tr> <td onmouseover="titleover(this, 0)" onmouseout="titleout(this, 0)"><a href="#" class="hoofdinglink" id="hoofd1">AAAA</a> <table class="menu"> <tr><td><a href="...">1111</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a href="...">2222</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a href="...">3333</a></td></tr> </table></td> <td onmouseover="titleover(this, 1)" onmouseout="titleout(this, 1)"><a href="#" class="hoofdinglink">BBBB</a> <table class="menu"> <tr><td><a href="...">1111</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a href="...">2222</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a href="...">3333</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a href="...">4444</a></td></tr> <tr><td><a href="...">5555</a></td></tr> </table></td> ... </tr> </table> What happens is the following: If I go over and out (for ex) menu A it works fine. If i go now over menu B the interval applied to A is now applied to B. There are now 2 interval functions applied to B. The one originally for A and a new one triggered by the mouseover on B. If I would go to A all the intervals are now applied to A. I have been searching for hours but and I am completely stuck. Thanks in advance.

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  • How do you read from a file into an array of struct?

    - by Thomas.Winsnes
    I'm currently working on an assignment and this have had me stuck for hours. Can someone please help me point out why this isn't working for me? struct book { char title[25]; char author[50]; char subject[20]; int callNumber; char publisher[250]; char publishDate[11]; char location[20]; char status[11]; char type[12]; int circulationPeriod; int costOfBook; }; void PrintBookList(struct book **bookList) { int i; for(i = 0; i < sizeof(bookList); i++) { struct book newBook = *bookList[i]; printf("%s;%s;%s;%d;%s;%s;%s;%s;%s;%d;%d\n",newBook.title, newBook.author, newBook.subject, newBook.callNumber,newBook.publisher, newBook.publishDate, newBook.location, newBook.status, newBook.type,newBook.circulationPeriod, newBook.costOfBook); } } void GetBookList(struct book** bookList) { FILE* file = fopen("book.txt", "r"); struct book newBook[1024]; int i = 0; while(fscanf(file, "%s;%s;%s;%d;%s;%s;%s;%s;%s;%d;%d", &newBook[i].title, &newBook[i].author, &newBook[i].subject, &newBook[i].callNumber,&newBook[i].publisher, &newBook[i].publishDate, &newBook[i].location, &newBook[i].status, &newBook[i].type,&newBook[i].circulationPeriod, &newBook[i].costOfBook) != EOF) { bookList[i] = &newBook[i]; i++; } /*while(fscanf(file, "%s;%s;%s;%d;%s;%s;%s;%s;%s;%d;%d", &bookList[i].title, &bookList[i].author, &bookList[i].subject, &bookList[i].callNumber, &bookList[i].publisher, &bookList[i].publishDate, &bookList[i].location, &bookList[i].status, &bookList[i].type, &bookList[i].circulationPeriod, &bookList[i].costOfBook) != EOF) { i++; }*/ PrintBookList(bookList); fclose(file); } int main() { struct book *bookList[1024]; GetBookList(bookList); } I get no errors or warnings on compile it should print the content of the file, just like it is in the file. Like this: OperatingSystems Internals and Design principles;William.S;IT;741012759;Upper Saddle River;2009;QA7676063;Available;circulation;3;11200 Communication skills handbook;Summers.J;Accounting;771239216;Milton;2010;BF637C451;Available;circulation;3;7900 Business marketing management:B2B;Hutt.D;Management;741912319;Mason;2010;HF5415131;Available;circulation;3;1053 Patient education rehabilitation;Dreeben.O;Education;745121511;Sudbury;2010;CF5671A98;Available;reference;0;6895 Tomorrow's technology and you;Beekman.G;Science;764102174;Upper Saddle River;2009;QA76B41;Out;reserved;1;7825 Property & security: selected essay;Cathy.S;Law;750131231;Rozelle;2010;D4A3C56;Available;reference;0;20075 Introducing communication theory;Richard.W;IT;714789013;McGraw-Hill;2010;Q360W47;Available;circulation;3;12150 Maths for computing and information technology;Giannasi.F;Mathematics;729890537;Longman;Scientific;1995;QA769M35G;Available;reference;0;13500 Labor economics;George.J;Economics;715784761;McGraw-Hill;2010;HD4901B67;Available;circulation;3;7585 Human physiology:from cells to systems;Sherwood.L;Physiology;707558936;Cengage Learning;2010;QP345S32;Out;circulation;3;11135 bobs;thomas;IT;701000000;UC;1006;QA7548;Available;Circulation;7;5050 but when I run it, it outputs this: OperatingSystems;;;0;;;;;;0;0 Internals;;;0;;;;;;0;0 and;;;0;;;;;;0;0 Design;;;0;;;;;;0;0 principles;William.S;IT;741012759;Upper;41012759;Upper;;0;;;;;;0;0 Saddle;;;0;;;;;;0;0 River;2009;QA7676063;Available;circulation;3;11200;lable;circulation;3;11200;;0;;;;;;0;0 Communication;;;0;;;;;;0;0 Thanks in advance, you're a life saver

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  • Anyone willing to help out a javascript n00b? :-)

    - by Splynx
    Since I am asking for a lot, and know it, the following is a wall of text for those who might show some interest and want to know a little before offering their help to me. First a little about my level of programming skills, and a little about what I ask for. Where I'm at: I am not totally new to Javascript, and have dabbled a little with PHP earlier - well have dabbled a lot with PHP in fact, but never got good at it because I program alone. And I have until now never used forums to get help etc. other that searching to see if anyone else had my problem before and what the solution was. So I am not a intuitive or talented programmer, I'm more of a very maticulate programmer and you would be surprised how far you can get with if else... (ok that's a joke hehe). My solutions are usually (I am guessing here) not the best ones - and slow I take it, and the code is usually too long and I have to look up most of the stuff I use (really a lot of it is not done in "freehand"). I have a LOT of experience with HTML and CSS, and have always done well formed markup, as well as I am really into x-browsing and always require that my work validates when it's done. I also worry about optimizing a lot, and work with sprites for images, minimize the number of http requests etc, using H1,H2 etc. where it is logically correct, as well as use the correct elements and not just div span or p it... So because I am a workhorse and very maticulate I can actually pull off some quite "advanced" features, but it's always the basics that bite me in the end. Not fully understanding the syntax and so on usually gives me problems. Have recently discovered jQuery - wich is a lot of fun.... But I want to use it for the DOM node manipulation/handling only. As I mentioned I worry about optimizing, and jQuery used for everything seems... well not optimal, it strikes me as doing it yourself when possible is faster than accesing another script that may take a whole lot of other considerations into perspective when handling your variables and objects (and I am just guessing here since I as explained know nothing). So thats where I'm at... As mentioned I just started with javascript for "real" so I do not have much to show, but at the end of my WOT you can see two unfinisheded scripts I have made so you can see where I'm at roughly - just check out the URL without the /feedback.html for the second example (I am only allowed to post 1 link since I am also a SO n00b) (and for those rushing over to a validation service, remember I wrote "when it's done"...) What I ask for: I am figuring this... I have a piece of code I am working on at the moment, and this little project has taught me a whole lot already, and I have "grown" a lot as a javascript programmer. If I add a whole lot of comments to the script, and explain what it is intended to do, will you then show me where: I am writing incorrect code - making mistakes Where/how my code could be more optimal Where I am just simply being a muppet The code I want to use as the background for the tuition is the one here http://projects.1000monkeys.dk/feedback.html Use firebug and have a quick look see...

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  • C++ std::vector problems

    - by Faur Ioan-Aurel
    For 2 days i tried to explain myself some of the things that are happening in my c++ code,and i can't get a good explanation.I must say that i'm more a java programmer.Long time i used quite a bit the C language but i guess Java erased those skills and now i'm hitting a wall trying to port a few classes from java to c++. So let's say that we have this 2 classes: class ForwardNetwork { protected: ForwardLayer* inputLayer; ForwardLayer* outputLayer; vector<ForwardLayer* > layers; public: void ForwardNetwork::getLayers(std::vector< ForwardLayer* >& result ) { for(int i= 0 ;i< layers.size(); i++){ ForwardLayer* lay = dynamic_cast<ForwardLayer*>(this->layers.at(i)); if(lay != NULL) result.push_back(lay); else cout << "Layer at#" << i << " is null" << endl; } } void ForwardNetwork::addLayer ( ForwardLayer* layer ) { if(layer != NULL) cout << "Before push layer is not null" << endl; //setup the forward and back pointer if ( this->outputLayer != NULL ) { layer->setPrevious ( this->outputLayer ); this->outputLayer->setNext ( layer ); } //update the input layer and outputLayer variables if ( this->layers.size() == 0 ) this->inputLayer = this->outputLayer = layer; else this->outputLayer = layer; //push layer in vector this->layers.push_back ( layer ); for(int i = 0; i< layers.size();i++) if(layers[i] != NULL) cout << "Check::Layer[" << i << "] is not null!" << endl; } }; Second class: class Backpropagation : public Train { public: Backpropagation::Backpropagation ( FeedForwardNetwork* network ){ this->network = network; vector<FeedforwardLayer*> vec; network->getLayers(vec); } }; Now if i add from main() some layers into network via addLayer(..) method it's all good.My vector is just as it should.But after i call Backpropagation() constructor with a network object ,when i enter getLayers(), some of my objects from vector have their address set to NULL(they are randomly chosen:for example if i run my app once with 3 layer's into vector ,the first object from vector is null.If i run it second time first 2 objects are null,third time just first object null and so on). Now i can't explain why this is happening.I must say that all the objects that should be in vector they also live inside the network and they are not NULL; This happens everywhere after i done with addLayer() so not just in the getLayers(). I cant get a good grasp to this problem.I thought first that i might modify my vector.But i can't find such thing. Also why if the reference from vector is NULL ,the reference that lives inside ForwardNetwork as a linked list (inputLayer and outputLayer) is not NULL? I must ask for your help.Please ,if you have some advices don't hesitate! PS: as compiler i use g++ part of gcc 4.6.1 under ubuntu 11.10

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  • How do I maximize code coverage?

    - by naivedeveloper
    Hey all, the following is a snippet of code taken from the unix ptx utility. I'm attempting to maximize code coverage on this utility, but I am unable to reach the indicated portion of code. Admittedly, I'm not as strong in my C skills as I used to be. The portion of code is indicated with comments, but it is towards the bottom of the block. if (used_length == allocated_length) { allocated_length += (1 << SWALLOW_REALLOC_LOG); block->start = (char *) xrealloc (block->start, allocated_length); } Any help interpreting the indicated portion in order to cover that block would be greatly appreciated. /* Reallocation step when swallowing non regular files. The value is not the actual reallocation step, but its base two logarithm. */ #define SWALLOW_REALLOC_LOG 12 static void swallow_file_in_memory (const char *file_name, BLOCK *block) { int file_handle; /* file descriptor number */ struct stat stat_block; /* stat block for file */ size_t allocated_length; /* allocated length of memory buffer */ size_t used_length; /* used length in memory buffer */ int read_length; /* number of character gotten on last read */ /* As special cases, a file name which is NULL or "-" indicates standard input, which is already opened. In all other cases, open the file from its name. */ bool using_stdin = !file_name || !*file_name || strcmp (file_name, "-") == 0; if (using_stdin) file_handle = STDIN_FILENO; else if ((file_handle = open (file_name, O_RDONLY)) < 0) error (EXIT_FAILURE, errno, "%s", file_name); /* If the file is a plain, regular file, allocate the memory buffer all at once and swallow the file in one blow. In other cases, read the file repeatedly in smaller chunks until we have it all, reallocating memory once in a while, as we go. */ if (fstat (file_handle, &stat_block) < 0) error (EXIT_FAILURE, errno, "%s", file_name); if (S_ISREG (stat_block.st_mode)) { size_t in_memory_size; block->start = (char *) xmalloc ((size_t) stat_block.st_size); if ((in_memory_size = read (file_handle, block->start, (size_t) stat_block.st_size)) != stat_block.st_size) { error (EXIT_FAILURE, errno, "%s", file_name); } block->end = block->start + in_memory_size; } else { block->start = (char *) xmalloc ((size_t) 1 << SWALLOW_REALLOC_LOG); used_length = 0; allocated_length = (1 << SWALLOW_REALLOC_LOG); while (read_length = read (file_handle, block->start + used_length, allocated_length - used_length), read_length > 0) { used_length += read_length; /* Cannot cover from this point...*/ if (used_length == allocated_length) { allocated_length += (1 << SWALLOW_REALLOC_LOG); block->start = (char *) xrealloc (block->start, allocated_length); } /* ...to this point. */ } if (read_length < 0) error (EXIT_FAILURE, errno, "%s", file_name); block->end = block->start + used_length; } /* Close the file, but only if it was not the standard input. */ if (! using_stdin && close (file_handle) != 0) error (EXIT_FAILURE, errno, "%s", file_name); }

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