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  • Why is partial specialziation of a nested class template allowed, while complete isn't?

    - by drhirsch
    template<int x> struct A { template<int y> struct B {};. template<int y, int unused> struct C {}; }; template<int x> template<> struct A<x>::B<x> {}; // error: enclosing class templates are not explicitly specialized template<int x> template<int unused> struct A<x>::C<x, unused> {}; // ok So why is the explicit specialization of a inner, nested class (or function) not allowed, if the outer class isn't specialiced too? Strange enough, I can work around this behaviour if I only partially specialize the inner class with simply adding a dummy template parameter. Makes things uglier and more complex, but it works. Note: I need this feature for recursive templates of the inner class for a set of the outer class. To make things even more complicate, in reality I only need a template function instead of the inner class. But partial specialization of functions is generally disallowed somewhere else in the standard ^^

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  • Javascript functions Math.round(num) vs num.toFixed(0) and browser inconsistencies

    - by eft
    Edit: To clarify, the problem is how to round a number to the nearest integer. i.e. 0.5 should round to 1 and 2.5 shoud round to 3. Consider the following code: <html><head></head><body style="font-family:courier"> <script> for (var i=0;i<3;i++){ var num = i + 0.50; var output = num + " " + Math.round(num) + " " + num.toFixed(0); var node = document.createTextNode(output); var pElement = document.createElement("p"); pElement.appendChild(node); document.body.appendChild(pElement); } </script> </body></html> In Opera 9.63 I get: 0.5 1 0 1.5 2 2 2.5 3 2 In FF 3.03 I get: 0.5 1 1 1.5 2 2 2.5 3 3 In IE 7 I get: 0.5 1 0 1.5 2 2 2.5 3 3 Note the bolded results. Does this mean that toFixed(0) should be avoided?

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  • How Can I ReWrite flat link to a dynamic link and preserve the Query string?

    - by jeremysawesome
    Hello All, I am wanting to rewrite a url like: http://my.project/mydomain.com/ANY_NUMBER_OF_CATEGORIES/designer/4/designer-name/page.html to this: http://my.projects/mydomain.com/ANY_NUMBER_OF_CATEGORIES/page.html?designer=4 I would like to use mod-rewrite to accomplish this. Things to note: Any number of categories can be between 'mydomain.com/' and '/designer'. For instance the url could be http://my.project/mydomain.com/designer/4/designer-name/page.html or it could be http://my.project/mydomain.com/tops/shirts/small/designer/4/designer-name/page.html A query string may be provided in the original url that needs to be preserved in the rewritten url. For example url provided could be: http://my.project/mydomain.com/designer/4/designer-name/page.html?color=red&type=shirt Given the url above the resulting url would need to be: http://my.projects/mydomain.com/page.html?designer=4&color=red&type=shirt The order of the query string does not matter. The 'designer=4' part could come before or after the rest of the query string. I'm new to .htaccess and re-writes so any examples and or explanations would be greatly appreciated. Thank you very much.

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  • URL equals and checking Internet access

    - by James P.
    On http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/api/java/net/URL.html it states that: Compares this URL for equality with another object. If the given object is not a URL then this method immediately returns false. Two URL objects are equal if they have the same protocol, reference equivalent hosts, have the same port number on the host, and the same file and fragment of the file. Two hosts are considered equivalent if both host names can be resolved into the same IP addresses; else if either host name can't be resolved, the host names must be equal without regard to case; or both host names equal to null. Since hosts comparison requires name resolution, this operation is a blocking operation. Note: The defined behavior for equals is known to be inconsistent with virtual hosting in HTTP. According to this, equals will only work if name resolution is possible. Since I can't be sure that a computer has internet access at a given time, should I just use Strings to store addresses instead? Also, how do I go about testing if access is available when requested?

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  • Performance of VIEW vs. SQL statement

    - by Matt W.
    I have a query that goes something like the following: select <field list> from <table list> where <join conditions> and <condition list> and PrimaryKey in (select PrimaryKey from <table list> where <join list> and <condition list>) and PrimaryKey not in (select PrimaryKey from <table list> where <join list> and <condition list>) The sub-select queries both have multiple sub-select queries of their own that I'm not showing so as not to clutter the statement. One of the developers on my team thinks a view would be better. I disagree in that the SQL statement uses variables passed in by the program (based on the user's login Id). Are there any hard and fast rules on when a view should be used vs. using a SQL statement? What kind of performance gain issues are there in running SQL statements on their own against regular tables vs. against views. (Note that all the joins / where conditions are against indexed columns, so that shouldn't be an issue.) EDIT for clarification... Here's the query I'm working with: select obj_id from object where obj_id in( (select distinct(sec_id) from security where sec_type_id = 494 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) and sec_obj_id in ( select obj_id from object where obj_ot_id in (select of_ot_id from obj_form left outer join obj_type on ot_id = of_ot_id where ot_app_id = 87 and of_id in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 493 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) ) and of_usage_type_id = 131 ) ) ) ) or (obj_ot_id in (select of_ot_id from obj_form left outer join obj_type on ot_id = of_ot_id where ot_app_id = 87 and of_id in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 493 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) ) and of_usage_type_id = 131 ) and obj_id not in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 494) )

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  • SQL query recursion for a web-like structure

    - by MickeyD
    I have a table here, named "Foo". The data is set up something like this. ID TableReference DataId0 DataId1 DataId2 -- -------------- ------- ------- ------- 1 Prize 3 4 5 2 Prize 4 5 NULL 3 Cash 1 NULL NULL 4 Prize 8 NULL 12 5 Foo 2 3 NULL 6 Cash 8 1 10 7 Foo 5 1 2 Etc. The data is horribly set up, I know, but I didn't set it up that way. :) I'm only dealing with the after effect. I'm trying to come up with a way to essentially "flatten" the table; that is, to display all the data to a point where the table "Foo" does not reference itself. I'm trying to figure out a sql query that I can do to get there. Usually when I deal with recursion, I have (or can establish) parent IDs and set it up that way, but for this table there are seemingly multiple child and parent IDs creating a web-like structure instead of a hierarchy. So I'm at a loss where to even begin to write a sql query for something like this. Note: There is no infinite looping (where one Foo points to another Foo, which points back to the original Foo) from what I've found. Using t-sql. Thanks for any assistance, if at all possible.

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  • Managing multiple customer databases in ASP.NET MVC application

    - by Robert Harvey
    I am building an application that requires separate SQL Server databases for each customer. To achieve this, I need to be able to create a new customer folder, put a copy of a prototype database in the folder, change the name of the database, and attach it as a new "database instance" to SQL Server. The prototype database contains all of the required table, field and index definitions, but no data records. I will be using SMO to manage attaching, detaching and renaming the databases. In the process of creating the prototype database, I tried attaching a copy of the database (companion .MDF, .LDF pair) to SQL Server, using Sql Server Management Studio, and discovered that SSMS expects the database to reside in c:\program files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL.1\MSSQL\DATA\MyDatabaseName.MDF Is this a "feature" of SQL Server? Is there a way to manage individual databases in separate directories? Or am I going to have to put all of the customer databases in the same directory? (I was hoping for a little better control than this). NOTE: I am currently using SQL Server Express, but for testing purposes only. The production database will be SQL Server 2008, Enterprise version. So "User Instances" are not an option.

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  • DRYing up Rails Views with Nested Resources

    - by viatropos
    What is your solution to the problem if you have a model that is both not-nested and nested, such as products: a "Product" can belong_to say an "Event", and a Product can also just be independent. This means I can have routes like this: map.resources :products # /products map.resources :events do |event| event.resources :products # /events/1/products end How do you handle that in your views properly? Note: this is for an admin panel. I want to be able to have a "Create Event" page, with a side panel for creating tickets (Product), forms, and checking who's rsvp'd. So you'd click on the "Event Tickets" side panel button, and it'd take you to /events/my-new-event/tickets. But there's also a root "Products" tab for the admin panel, which could list tickets and other random products. The 'tickets' and 'products' views look 90% the same, but the tickets will have some info about the event it belongs to. It seems like I'd have to have views like this: products/index.haml products/show.haml events/products/index.haml events/products/show.haml But that doesn't seem DRY. Or I could have conditionals checking to see if the product had an Event (@product.event.nil?), but then the views would be hard to understand. How do you deal with these situations? Thanks so much.

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  • Firefox extension: How to inject javascript into page and run it?

    - by el griz
    I'm writing a Firefox extension to allow users to annotate any page with text and/or drawings and then save an image of the page including the annotations. Use cases would be clients reviewing web pages, adding feedback to the page, saving the image of this and emailing it back to the web developer or testers taking annotated screenshots of GUI bugs etc. I wrote the annotation/drawing functionality in javascript before developing the extension. This script adds a <canvas> element to the page to draw upon as well as a toolbar (in a <div>) that contains buttons (each <canvas> elements) for the different draw tools e.g. line, box, ellipse, text, etc. This works fine when manually included in a page. I now need a way for the extension to: Inject this script into any page including pages I don't control. This needs to occur when the user invokes the extension, which can be after the page has loaded. Once injected the init() function in this script that adds the canvas and toolbar elements etc. needs to be run somehow, but I can't determine how to call this from the extension. Note that once injected I don't need this script to interact with the extension (as the extension just takes a screenshot of the entire document (and removes the added page elements) when the user presses the save button in the extension chrome).

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  • Confused about UIView frame property

    - by slowfungus
    I'm building a prototype iPad app that draws diagrams. I have the following view hierarchy: UIView UIScrollView DiagramView : UIView TabBar NavigationBar And a UIViewController subclass holding all that together. Before drawing the diagram the first time I calculate the dimensions of the diagram, and set the DiagramView frame to that size, and the content size of the scrollview as well. -(void)recalculateBounds { [renderer diagram:diagram shouldDraw:NO]; SQXRect diagramRect = SQXMakeRect(0.0,0.0,[diagram bounds].size.width,[diagram bounds].size.height); self.frame = diagramRect; [(UIScrollView*)[self superview] setContentSize:diagramRect.size]; } I should disclose that the frame is being set to about 1500 x 3500 which i know is ridiculous. I just want to focus on some other parts of the app before I get into optimizing the render code. This works beautifully, except that the rect being passed to drawRect is not the size that I set, and my drawing is getting clipped at the bottom. Its close the size i set, but bigger in width, and shorter in height. Also of note, is the fact that if I force the frame to be much bigger than what I know the diagram needs, then the drawRect:rect is big enough, and no clipping occurs. Of course this has me wondering if the frame size needs to take into account some other screen real estate like the toolbars but my reading of the docs tells me the frame is in superview coordinates, which would be the scrollview so I reckon I need to worry about such things. Any idea what is causing this discrepancy?

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  • Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

    - by Ahmad
    Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

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  • Runing bcdedit from python in Windows 2008 SP2

    - by Lee-Man
    I do not know windows well, so that may explain my dilemma ... I am trying to run bcdedit in Windows 2008R2 from Python 2.6. My Python routine to run a command looks like this: def run_program(cmd_str): """Run the specified command, returning its output as an array of lines""" dprint("run_program(%s): entering" % cmd_str) cmd_args = cmd_str.split() subproc = subprocess.Popen(cmd_args, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE, shell=True) (outf, errf) = (subproc.stdout, subproc.stderr) olines = outf.readlines() elines = errf.readlines() if Options.debug: if elines: dprint('Error output:') for line in elines: dprint(line.rstrip()) if olines: dprint('Normal output:') for line in olines: dprint(line.rstrip()) errf.close() outf.close() res = subproc.wait() dprint('wait result=', res) return (res, olines) I call this function thusly: (res, o) = run_program('bcdedit /set {current} MSI forcedisable') This command works when I type it from a cmd window, and it works when I put it in a batch file and run it from a command window (as Administrator, of course). But when I run it from Python (as Administrator), Python claims it can't find the command, returning: bcdedit is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file Also, if I trying running my batch file from Python (which works from the command line), it also fails. I've also tried it with the full path to bcdedit, with the same results. What is it about calling bcdedit from Python that makes it not found? Note that I can call other EXE files from Python, so I have some level of confidence that my Python code is sane ... but who knows. Any help would be most appreciated.

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  • HTML + CSS: fixed background image and body width/min-width (including fiddle)

    - by insertusernamehere
    So, here is my problem. I'm kinda stuck at the moment. I have a huge background image and content in the middle with those attributes: content is centered with margin auto and has a fixed width the content is related to the image (like the image is continued within the content) this relation is only horizontally (vertically scrolling moves everything around) This works actually fine (I'm only talking desktop, not mobile here :) ) with a position fixed on the huge background image. The problem that occurs is the following: When I resize the window to "smaller than the content" the background image gets it width from the body instead of the viewport. So the relation between content and image gets lost. Now I have this little JavaScript which does the trick, but this is of course some overhead I want to avoid: $(window).resize(function(){ img.css('left', (body.width() - img.width()) / 2 ); }); This works with a fixed positioned image, but can get a litty jumpy while calculating. I also tried things like that: <div id="test" style=" position: absolute; z-index: 0; top: 0; left: 0; width: 100%: height: 100%; background: transparent url(content/dummy/brand_backgroud_1600_1.jpg) no-repeat fixed center top; "></div> But this gets me back to my problem described. Is there any "script-less", elegant solution for this problem? UPDATE: now with Fiddle The one I'm trying to solve: http://jsfiddle.net/insertusernamehere/wPmrm/ The one with Javascript that works: http://jsfiddle.net/insertusernamehere/j5E8z/ NOTE The image size is always fixed. The image never gets scaled by the browser. In the JavaScript example it get's blown. So don't care about the size.

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  • Qt4Dotnet on Mac OS X

    - by Tony
    Hello everyone. I'm using Qt4Dotnet project in order to port application originally written in C# on Linux and Mac. Port to Linux hasn't taken much efforts and works fine. But Mac (10.4 Tiger) is a bit more stubborn. The problem is: when I try to start my application it throws an exception. Exception states that com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer is unable to find all necessary ibraries. QtJambi library initializer uses java.library.path VM environment variable. This variable includes current working directory. I put all necessary libraries in a working directory. When I try to run the application from MonoDevelop IDE, initializer is able to load one library, but the other libraries are 'missing': An exception was thrown by the type initializer for com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer --- java.lang.RuntimeException: Loading library failed, progress so far: No 'qtjambi-deployment.xml' found in classpath, loading libraries via 'java.library.path' Loading library: 'libQtCore.4.dylib'... - using 'java.library.path' - ok, path was: /Users/chin/test/bin/Debug/libQtCore.4.dylib Loading library: 'libqtjambi.jnilib'... - using 'java.library.path' Both libQtCore.4.dylib and libqtjambi.jnilib are in the same directory. When I try to run it from the command prompt, the initializer is unable to load even libQtCore.4.dylib. I'm using Qt4Dotnet v4.5.0 (currently the latest) with QtJambi v4.5.2 libraries. This might be the source of the problem, but I'm neither able to compile Qt4Dotnet v4.5.2 by myself nor to find QtJambi v4.5.0 libraries. Project's page states that some sort of patch should be applied to QtJambi's source code in order to be compatible with Mono framework, but this patch hasn't been released yet. Without this patch application crashes in a strange manner (other than library seek fault). I must note that original QtJambi loads all necessary libraries perfectly, so it might be issues of IKVM compiler used to translate QtJambi into .Net library. Any suggestions how can I overcome this problem?

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  • How do you test a command object in a grails controller integration test?

    - by egervari
    I'm new to grails. How do I test a form command object to make sure that it's working? Here's some setup code in a test. When I try to do it, I get the following exceptions: Error occurred creating command object. org.codehaus.groovy.grails.web.servlet.mvc.exceptions.ControllerExecutionException: Error occurred creating command object. at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) .... Caused by: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: password for class: project.user.RegistrationForm Possible solutions: password Here is my test case. As you can see, I set "password" on the params map... void testSaveWhenDataIsCorrect() { controller.params.emailAddress = "[email protected]" controller.params.password = "secret" controller.params.confirmPassword = "secret" controller.save() assertEquals "success", redirectArgs.view ... } Here's the controller action, that adds the command object as a closure parameter: def save = { RegistrationForm form -> if(form.hasErrors()) { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } else { def user = new User(form.properties) user.password = form.encryptedPassword if(user.save()) { redirect(action: "success") } else { render view: "create", model: [form: form] } } } Here's the command object itself... and note that it DOES have a "password" field... class RegistrationForm { def springSecurityService String emailAddress String password String confirmPassword String getEncryptedPassword() { springSecurityService.encodePassword(password) } static constraints = { emailAddress(blank: false, email: true) password(blank: false, size:4..10) confirmPassword(blank: false, validator: { password != confirmPassword }) } } I'm totally lost in the non-intuitive way to do controllers... Please help.

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  • OO - inheritance vs. decoration problem

    - by Karel J
    Hi all, I have an OOP-related question. I have an interface, say: class MyInterface { public int getValue(); } In my project, this interface is implemented by 7 implementations: class MyImplementation1 implements MyInterface { ... } ... class MyImplementation7 implements MyInterface { ... } These implementations are used by several different modules. For some modules, the behaviour of the MyInterface must be adjusted slightly. Let's that it must return the value of the implementator + 1 (for the sake of example). I solved this by creating a little decorator: class MyDifferentInterface implements MyInterface { private MyInterface i; public MyDifferentInterface(MyInterface i) { this.i = i; } public int getValue() { return i.getValue() + 1; } } This does the job. Here is my problem: one of the modules doesn't accept an MyInterface parameter, but MyImplementation4 directly. The reason for this is that this module needs specific behaviour of MyImplementation4, which are not covered by the interface MyInterface on itself. But, and here comes the difficulty, this module must also work on the modified version of MyImplementation4. That is, getValue() must return +1; What is the best way to solve this? I fail to come up with a solution which does not include lots of code duplicates. Please note that although the example above is pretty small and simple, the interface and the decorator is quite large and complicated. Thanks a lot all.

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  • Need cause for: double dialer icon in Recents when ACTION_CALL is intercepted and re-sent

    - by Emmanuel
    Note that this happens on Android version 2.1 update1 and 2.2. This seems gone in later versions. Of course I would like to know the workaround. But if there are none, at least if this is a known bug, please provide with a link to the bug. I would also accept the source code fix info or diff where this was fixed. I have an application that intercepts an outgoing call, asks a question to the user, and then depending on the answer it could re-send the call. This works fine. But then when you go to the Recents (hold the Home key) there are two slightly different dialer icons there: one from the dialer application, and a second one for the resending of the call action: This means when you click on the first icon, it opens the dialer. But when you click on the second one, it redials the last number. I tried using android:excludeFromRecents="true" for all my activities. I also tried Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_EXCLUDE_FROM_RECENTS when I start the call action. No luck.

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  • How to Perform Continues Iteration over Shared Dictionary in Multi-threaded Environment

    - by Mubashar Ahmad
    Dear Gurus. Note Pls do not tell me regarding alternative to custom session, Pls answer only relative to the Pattern Scenario I have Done Custom Session Management in my application(WCF Service) for this I have a Dictionary shared to all thread. When a specific function Gets called I add a New Session and Issue SessionId to the client so it can use that sessionId for rest of his calls until it calls another specific function, which terminates this session and removes the session from the Dictionary. Due to any reason Client may not call session terminator function so i have to implement time expiration logic so that i can remove all such sessions from the memory. For this I added a Timer Object which calls ClearExpiredSessions function after the specific period of time. which iterates on the dictionary. Problem: As this dictionary gets modified every time new client comes and leaves so i can't lock the whole dictionary while iterating over it. And if i do not lock the dictionary while iteration, if dictionary gets modified from other thread while iterating, Enumerator will throw exception on MoveNext(). So can anybody tell me what kind of Design i should follow in this case. Is there any standard pattern available.

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  • Static files in (Java) App Engine not accessible.

    - by fiXedd
    The example documentation says that you simply need to place your files in war/ (or a subdirectory) and they should be accessible from the host (as long as they aren't JSPs or in WEB-INF). For example, if you place foo.css in war/ then you should be able to access it at http://localhost:8080/foo.css. However, this isn't working for me at all. NONE of my static files are accessible. The docs on appengine-web.xml say that you can also specifically denote certain types as static. I've tried this as well and it makes no difference. Am I missing something obvious? UPDATE: Turns out one of the mappings in my web.xml was a little too aggressive. The following was the culprit: <servlet> <servlet-name>Main</servlet-name> <servlet-class>MainServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Main</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> It seems that it was grabbing everything that wasn't grabbed be one of the other rules, which I don't understand because there was no * on the end of the url-pattern. It also seems to be directly contradictory to the documentation that says: Note: Static files, files that are served verbatim to users such as images, CSS or JavaScript, are handled separately from paths mentioned in the deployment descriptor. A request for a URL path that matches a path to a file in the WAR that's considered a static file will serve the file, regardless of servlet and filter mappings in the deployment descriptor. You can exclude files from those treated as static files using the appengine-web.xml file. So, how can I have a rule that matches the base of my domain (eg. http://www.example.com/) and still allows the static files to filter through?

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  • alternative to #include within namespace { } block

    - by Jeff
    Edit: I know that method 1 is essentially invalid and will probably use method 2, but I'm looking for the best hack or a better solution to mitigate rampant, mutable namespace proliferation. I have multiple class or method definitions in one namespace that have different dependencies, and would like to use the fewest namespace blocks or explicit scopings possible but while grouping #include directives with the definitions that require them as best as possible. I've never seen any indication that any preprocessor could be told to exclude namespace {} scoping from #include contents, but I'm here to ask if something similar to this is possible: (see bottom for explanation of why I want something dead simple) // NOTE: apple.h, etc., contents are *NOT* intended to be in namespace Foo! // would prefer something most this: namespace Foo { #include "apple.h" B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } #include "banana.h" int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } #include "blueberry.h" void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // over this: #include "apple.h" #include "banana.h" #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // or over this: #include "apple.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "banana.h" namespace Foo { int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo My real problem is that I have projects where a module may need to be branched but have coexisting components from the branches in the same program. I have classes like FooA, etc., that I've called Foo::A in the hopes being able to branch less painfully as Foo::v1_2::A, where some program may need both a Foo::A and a Foo::v1_2::A. I'd like "Foo" or "Foo::v1_2" to show up only really once per file, as a single namespace block, if possible. Moreover, I tend to prefer to locate blocks of #include directives immediately above the first definition in the file that requires them. What's my best choice, or alternatively, what should I be doing instead of hijacking the namespaces?

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  • This web site needs a different Google Maps API key. A new key can be generated at http://code.googl

    - by MJI
    I'm not a developer. I have no domain, nor wish to have one at the time. Rather I'm just a regular person who likes to upload photos to some photo related sites. My uploading process constantly gets interrupted by one of these annoying API errors. I get it at least two times, one when I click the page to upload, and also right after it has uploaded. It also pops up if I go to edit a photo or delete it. This interrupts my browsing experience until I click okay. I just want a fix for the annoying without having to register for a key. I tried before and it required a web domain. I rather not have to create a domain and go through such hoops just to fix this. Is there a solution for this problem that doesn't require registration? Another thing to note: I have used two computers. One has the message pop-up and the other doesn't. What is different about the two computers?

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  • floating point equality in Python and in general

    - by eric.frederich
    I have a piece of code that behaves differently depending on whether I go through a dictionary to get conversion factors or whether I use them directly. The following piece of code will print 1.0 == 1.0 -> False But if you replace factors[units_from] with 10.0 and factors[units_to ] with 1.0 / 2.54 it will print 1.0 == 1.0 -> True #!/usr/bin/env python base = 'cm' factors = { 'cm' : 1.0, 'mm' : 10.0, 'm' : 0.01, 'km' : 1.0e-5, 'in' : 1.0 / 2.54, 'ft' : 1.0 / 2.54 / 12.0, 'yd' : 1.0 / 2.54 / 12.0 / 3.0, 'mile' : 1.0 / 2.54 / 12.0 / 5280, 'lightyear' : 1.0 / 2.54 / 12.0 / 5280 / 5.87849981e12, } # convert 25.4 mm to inches val = 25.4 units_from = 'mm' units_to = 'in' base_value = val / factors[units_from] ret = base_value * factors[units_to ] print ret, '==', 1.0, '->', ret == 1.0 Let me first say that I am pretty sure what is going on here. I have seen it before in C, just never in Python but since Python in implemented in C we're seeing it. I know that floating point numbers will change values going from a CPU register to cache and back. I know that comparing what should be two equal variables will return false if one of them was paged out while the other stayed resident in a register. Questions What is the best way to avoid problems like this?... In Python or in general. Am I doing something completely wrong? Side Note This is obviously part of a stripped down example but what I'm trying to do is come with with classes of length, volume, etc that can compare against other objects of the same class but with different units. Rhetorical Questions If this is a potentially dangerous problem since it makes programs behave in an undetermanistic matter, should compilers warn or error when they detect that you're checking equality of floats Should compilers support an option to replace all float equality checks with a 'close enough' function? Do compilers already do this and I just can't find the information.

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  • Division by zero: Undefined Behavior or Implementation Defined in C and/or C++ ?

    - by SiegeX
    Regarding division by zero, the standards say: C99 6.5.5p5 - The result of the / operator is the quotient from the division of the first operand by the second; the result of the % operator is the remainder. In both operations, if the value of the second operand is zero, the behavior is undefined. C++03 5.6.4 - The binary / operator yields the quotient, and the binary % operator yields the remainder from the division of the first expression by the second. If the second operand of / or % is zero the behavior is undefined. If we were to take the above paragraphs at face value, the answer is clearly Undefined Behavior for both languages. However, if we look further down in the C99 standard we see the following paragraph which appears to be contradictory(1): C99 7.12p4 - The macro INFINITY expands to a constant expression of type float representing positive or unsigned infinity, if available; Do the standards have some sort of golden rule where Undefined Behavior cannot be superseded by a (potentially) contradictory statement? Barring that, I don't think it's unreasonable to conclude that if your implementation defines the INFINITY macro, division by zero is defined to be such. However, if your implementation does not define such a macro, the behavior is Undefined. I'm curious what the consensus on this matter for each of the two languages. Would the answer change if we are talking about integer division int i = 1 / 0 versus floating point division float i = 1.0 / 0.0 ? Note (1) The C++03 standard talks about the library which includes the INFINITY macro.

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  • Use different configurations with Simple Injection

    - by Ruben.Canton
    I'm using the library "Simple Injector" (http://simpleinjector.codeplex.com) and it looks cool and nice. But after building a configuration and use it, now I want to know how to change from one configuration to another. Scenario: Let's imagine I've set up a configuration in the Global Asax and I have the public and global Container there. Now I want to make some tests and I want them to use mock classes so I want to change the configuration. I can, of course, build another configuration and assign it to the global Container created by default, so that every time I run a test the alternative configuration will be set. But on doing that and though I'm in development context the Container is changed for everyone, even for normal requests. I know I'm testing in this context and that shouldn't matter, but I have the feeling that this is not the way for doing this... and I wonder how to change from one configuration to another in the correct way. Note: At Simple Injector documentation says that you can ask questions in stackoverflow so that's why I'm here. =P PD: I'm new in this IoC and DI world so try to be easy with me when explaining it :)

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  • Type result with Ternary operator in C#

    - by Vaccano
    I am trying to use the ternary operator, but I am getting hung up on the type it thinks the result should be. Below is an example that I have contrived to show the issue I am having: class Program { public static void OutputDateTime(DateTime? datetime) { Console.WriteLine(datetime); } public static bool IsDateTimeHappy(DateTime datetime) { if (DateTime.Compare(datetime, DateTime.Parse("1/1")) == 0) return true; return false; } static void Main(string[] args) { DateTime myDateTime = DateTime.Now; OutputDateTime(IsDateTimeHappy(myDateTime) ? null : myDateTime); Console.ReadLine(); ^ } | } | // This line has the compile issue ---------------+ On the line indicated above, I get the following compile error: Type of conditional expression cannot be determined because there is no implicit conversion between '< null ' and 'System.DateTime' I am confused because the parameter is a nullable type (DateTime?). Why does it need to convert at all? If it is null then use that, if it is a date time then use that. I was under the impression that: condition ? first_expression : second_expression; was the same as: if (condition) first_expression; else second_expression; Clearly this is not the case. What is the reasoning behind this? (NOTE: I know that if I make "myDateTime" a nullable DateTime then it will work. But why does it need it? As I stated earlier this is a contrived example. In my real example "myDateTime" is a data mapped value that cannot be made nullable.)

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