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• running scala apps with java -jar

  - by paintcan

  Yo dawgs, I got some problems with the java. Check it out. sebastian@sebastian-desktop:~/scaaaaaaaaala$ java -cp /home/sebastian/.m2/repository/org/scala-lang/scala-library/2.8.0.RC3/scala-library-2.8.0.RC3.jar:target/scaaaaaaaaala-1.0.jar scaaalaaa.App Hello World! That's cool, right, but how bout this: sebastian@sebastian-desktop:~/scaaaaaaaaala$ java -cp /home/sebastian/.m2/repository/org/scala-lang/scala-library/2.8.0.RC3/scala-library-2.8.0.RC3.jar -jar target/scaaaaaaaaala-1.0.jar Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: scala/Application at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClassCond(ClassLoader.java:632) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:616) at java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java:141) at java.net.URLClassLoader.defineClass(URLClassLoader.java:283) at java.net.URLClassLoader.access$000(URLClassLoader.java:58) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:197) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248) at scaaalaaa.App.main(App.scala) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: scala.Application at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:202) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248) ... 13 more Wat the heck? Any idea why the first works and not the 2nd? How do I -jar my scala?? Thanks in advance bro.

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• printf and Console.WriteLine - problems with Console.SetOut?

  - by Matt Jacobsen

  i have a bunch of Console.WriteLines in my code that I can observe at runtime. I communicate with a native library that I also wrote. I'd like to stick some printf's in the native library and observe them too. I don't see them at runtime however. I've created a convoluted hello world app to demonstrate my problem. When the app runs, I can debug into the native library and see that the hello world is called. The output never lands in the textwriter though. Note that if the same code is run as a console app then everything works fine. C#: [DllImport("native.dll")] static extern void Test(); StreamWriter writer; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); writer = new StreamWriter(@"c:\output.txt"); writer.AutoFlush = true; System.Console.SetOut(writer); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Test(); } and the native part: __declspec(dllexport) void Test() { printf("Hello World"); } Despite my earlier ramblings (see edits) I actually think this is a problem in C# (or rather my understanding of it).

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• AJAX - querying a search engine and returning the number of results

  - by Moddy

  Right, so basically I need to query a selection of search engines in an AJAX app. As there is a number of different search engines - there's no search engine specific API I can use either. My main problem is getting the number of results returned by the search. So far, I have decided it is probably best to use a regexp from the returned search query HTML, and then convert the string of characters to an integer. However, this method just doesn't feel.. clean to me. It seems a bit rough around the edges and I think it could do with improving! I guess not being 100% confident with regular expressions doesn't help; but it just feels like it could be improved. Any ideas on how to implement this would be great cheers! It doesn't seem like that an exotic thing to do, so I was wondering if perhaps any of you guys have done this before and would have a few tips? Note: This is an AJAX app at the moment, but I may be re-writing this functionality in a different app soon - which won't be AJAX. I'm confident I can transfer any AJAX implementation to the other language though.

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• How to terminate all [grand]child processes using C# on WXP (and newer MSWindows)

  - by NVRAM

  Question: How can I determine all processes in the child's Process Tree to kill them? I have an application, written in C# that will: Get a set of data from the server, Spawn a 3rd party utility to process the data, then Return the results to the server. This is working fine. But since a run consumes a lot of CPU and may take as long as an hour, I want to add the ability to have my app terminate its child processes. Some issues that make the simple solutions I've found elsewhere are: My app's child process "A" (InstallAnywhere EXE I think) spawns the real processing app "B" (a java.exe), which in turns spawns more children "C1".."Cn" (most of which are also written in Java). There will likely be multiple copies of my application (and hence, multiple sets of its children) running on the same machine. The child process is not in my control so there might be some "D" processes in the future. My application must run on 32-bit and 64-bit versions of MSWindows. On the plus side there is no issue of data loss, a "clean" shutdown doesn't matter as long as the processes end fairly quickly.

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• Why do i get exc bad access in cases when object is not nil?

  - by DixieFlatline

  I have an app that receives remote notifications. My view controller that is shown after push has a tableview. App crashes very randomly (1 in 20 tries) at line setting frame: if (!myTableView) { NSLog(@"self.myTableView is nil"); } myTableView.frame=CGRectMake(0, 70, 320, 376); This only happens when i open the app, then open some other apps and then receive the push notification. I guess it has something to do with memory. I use ARC (ios 5). The strange thing is that nslog is not displayed, so tableview is not nil. Crash log: Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x522d580c Crashed Thread: 0 Thread 0 name: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Thread 0 Crashed: 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x352b1f7e objc_msgSend + 22 1 Foundation 0x37dc174c NSKVOPendingNotificationCreate + 216 2 Foundation 0x37dc1652 NSKeyValuePushPendingNotificationPerThread + 62 3 Foundation 0x37db3744 NSKeyValueWillChange + 408 4 Foundation 0x37d8a848 -[NSObject(NSKeyValueObserverNotification) willChangeValueForKey:] + 176 5 Foundation 0x37e0ca14 _NSSetPointValueAndNotify + 76 6 UIKit 0x312af25a -[UIScrollView(Static) _adjustContentOffsetIfNecessary] + 1890 7 UIKit 0x312cca54 -[UIScrollView setFrame:] + 548 8 UIKit 0x312cc802 -[UITableView setFrame:] + 182 9 POViO 0x000913cc -[FeedVC viewWillAppear:] (FeedVC.m:303) Dealloc is not called because it is not logged: - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"dealloc"); }

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• PHP-SDK too many redirects

  - by Roel Veldhuizen

  I'm using the PHP-SDK for Facebook and got the example to work on my localhost. However, when building a script on a server the script stays quite busy with redirecting from my script to facebook and back. (Error: Fout 310 (net::ERR_TOO_MANY_REDIRECTS):) It seems that many more people have got this issue (here, here, here, here). Though, I can't find a clear answer what goes wrong. Redirect to facebook (response 302): https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?client_id=166958180001271&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fdomain.com%2Fscripts%2FGateway.php%3Faction%3DAllowFacebookAccessAction%26app%3D14&state=0dbc178a375595da4751265a7147c01e#_=_ Redirect to mydomain (response 302): http://domain.com/scripts/Gateway.php?action=AllowFacebookAccessAction&app=14&state=0dbc178a375595da4751265a7147c01e&code=AQD-dTeyns0OWpGb_PzfHxUy2iRmpc1XgP6Q24DDRX8MiRTE10lV-b-aSNIlOLVHk576vRs3H8Pf9n0kGwU827MrkzUCUoQGFGEQBkkOJnCy9zb6hZs7TVBsKL2iSuZIhDjLsCOPeKy3zfb37Q6LGhtMICCdB_IQAvU0uRvAkSAX8tdVJ65PEv8imx-2yvLaMoGJleZwKogh7m03vlhV8hJk#_=_ Part of the code that creates this issue ... $facebook = new FacebookApi(array( 'appId' => $app->getProperty('apiKey'), 'secret' => $app->getProperty('secretKey'), )); $user = $facebook->getUser(); if (!$user) { header('location: ' . $facebook->getLoginUrl()); exit; } ... UPDATE: I ruled out that its a server setting. I was able to run the original example script on that server.

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• Need some advice on Core Data modeling strategy

  - by Andy

  I'm working on an iPhone app and need a little advice on modeling the Core Data schema. My idea is a utility that allows the user to speed-dial their contacts using user-created rules based on the time of day. In other words, I would tell the app that my wife is commuting from 6am to 7am, at work from 7am to 4pm, commuting from 4pm to 5pm, and home from 5pm to 6am, Monday through Friday. Then, when I tap her name in my app, it would select the number to dial based on the current day and time. I have the user interface nearly complete (thanks in no small part to help I've received here), but now I've got some questions regarding the persistent store. The user can select start- and stop-times in 5-minute increments. This means there are 2,016 possible "time slots" in week (7 days * 24 hours * 12 5-minute intervals per hour). I see a few options for setting this up. Option #1: One array of time slots, with 2,016 entries. Each entry would be a dictionary containing a contact identifier and an associated phone number to dial. I think this means I'd need a "Contact" entity to store the contact information, and a "TimeSlot" entity for each of the 2,016 possible time slots. Option #2: Each Contact has its own array of time slots, each with 2,016 entries. Each array entry would simply be a string indicating which phone number to dial. Option #3: Each Contact has a dictionary of time slots. An entry would only be added to the dictionary for time slots with an active rule. If a search for, say, time slot 1,299 (Friday 12:15pm) didn't find a key @"1299" in the dictionary, then a default number would be dialed instead. I'm not sure any of these is the "right" way or the "best" way. I'm not even sure I need to use Core Data to manage it; maybe just saving arrays would be simpler. Any input you can offer would be appreciated.

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• how to push different local git branches to heroku/master

  - by lsiden

  Heroku has a policy of ignoring all branches but 'master'. While I'm sure Heroku's designers have excellent reasons for for this policy (I'm guessing for storage and performance optimization), the consequence to me as a developer is that whatever local topic branch I may be working on, I would like an easy way to switch Heroku's master to that local topic branch and do a "git push heroku -f" to over-write master on Heroku. What I got from reading the "Pushing Refspecs" section of http://progit.org/book/ch9-5.html is git push -f heroku local-topic-branch:refs/heads/master What I'd really like is a way to set this up in the config file so that "git push heroku" always does the above, replacing local-topic-branch with the name of whatever my current branch happens to be. If anyone knows how to accomplish that, please let me know! The caveat for this, of course, is that this is only sensible if I am the only one who can push to that Heroku app/repository. A test or QA team might manage such a repository to try out different candidate branches, but they would have to coordinate so that they all agree on what branch they are pushing to it on any given day. Needless to say, it would also be a very good idea to have a separate remote repository (like Github) without this restriction for backing everything up to. I'd call that one "origin" and use "heroku" for Heroku so that "git push" always backs up everything to origin, and "git push heroku" pushes whatever branch I'm currently on to Heroku's master branch, overwriting it if necessary. Can anybody tell me if this would work? [remote "heroku"] url = [email protected]:my-app.git push = +refs/heads/*:refs/heads/master I'd like to hear from someone more experienced before I begin to experiment, although I suppose I could create a dummy app on Heroku and experiment with that. As for fetching, I don't really care if the Heroku repository is write-only. I still have a separate repository, like Github, for backup and cloning of all my work. Footnote: This question is similar to, but not quite the same as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1489393/good-git-deployment-using-branches-strategy-with-heroku

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• After rewrite Model sales/order_collection it works except in Admin section, why?

  - by latvian

  Hi, I rewrite the sales/order_collection Model or, perhaps, correctly said the Resource. I did that to add filter that filters orders by store_ids. Please see my post to see how i did it http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2426986/how-to-rewrite-collection My new model works and here is how i tested $path = '../magento'; require_once('app/Mage.php'); umask(0); $app = Mage::app('base','website'); $col = Mage::getResourceModel('sales/order_collection')->addAttributeToSelect('*'); echo "<br>Size of the colletion: ".$col->getSize(); This new Model filters and returns # of orders just like i want. It returns # of orders also when i run it inside any of my created modules, but not in Admin section then it returns 0 orders In Admin section the same line is called as above ( Mage::getResourceModel('sales/order_collection')-addA....) from Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Sales_Order_Grid class (line 50) . It can be initiated when going Admin-Sales-Orders. However, it is returning 0 orders instead of # of orders How is it that the new Model returns orders anywhere else but from Admin section? What is done differently in Admin section?..please help. I have spent hours and hours and any pointers will help Thank you, Margots

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• Sort on DataView does not work if DataTable has zero rows

  - by BigBlondeViking

  We have a WPF app that has a DataGrid insode a ListView. private DataTable table_; We do a bunch or dynamic column generation ( depending on the report we are showing ) We then do the a query and fill the DataTable row by row, this query may or may not have data.( not the problem, an empty grid is expected ) We set the ListView's ItemsSource to the DefaultView of the DataTable. lv.ItemsSource = table_.DefaultView; We then (looking at the user's pass usage of the app, set the sort on the column) Sort Method below: private void Sort(string sortBy, ListSortDirection direction) { var dataView = CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(lv.ItemsSource); dataView.SortDescriptions.Clear(); var sd = new SortDescription(sortBy, direction); dataView.SortDescriptions.Add(sd); dataView.Refresh(); } In the Zero DataTable rows scenario, the sort does not "hold"? and if we dynamically add rows they will not be in sorted order. If the DataTable has at-least 1 row when the sort is applied, and we dynamically add rows to the DataTable, the rows com in sorted correctly. I have built a standalone app that replicate this... It is an annoyance and I can add a check to see if the DataTable was empty, and re-sort... Anyone know whats going on here, and am I doing something wrong? FYI: What we based this off if comes from the MSDN as well: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms745786.aspx

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• Using Active Directory to authenticate users in a WWW facing website

  - by Basiclife

  Hi, I'm looking at starting a new web app which needs to be secure (if for no other reason than that we'll need PCI accreditation at some point). From previous experience working with PCI (on a domain), the preferred method is to use integrated windows authentication which is then passed all the way through the app to the database. This allows for better auditing as well as object-level permissions (ie an end user can't read the credit card table). There are advantages in that even if someone compromises the webserver, they won't be able to glean any additional information from the database. Also, the webserver isn't storing any database credentials (beyond perhaps a simple anonymous user with very few permissions) So, now I'm looking at the new web app which will be on the public internet. One suggestion is to have a Active Directory server and create windows accounts on the AD for each user of the site. These users will then be placed into the appropriate NT groups to decide which DB permissions they should have (and which pages they can access). ASP already provides the AD membership provider and role provider so this should be fairly simple to implement. There are a number of questions around this - Scalability, reliability, etc... and I was wondering if there is anyone out there with experience of this approach or, even better, some good reasons why to do it / not to do it. Any input appreciated Regards Basiclife

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• GDB not breaking on breakpoints set on object creation in C++

  - by Drew

  Hi all, I've got a c++ app, with the following main.cpp: 1: #include <stdio.h> 2: #include "HeatMap.h" 3: #include <iostream> 4: 5: int main (int argc, char * const argv[]) 6: { 7: HeatMap heatMap(); 8: printf("message"); 9: return 0; 10: } Everything compiles without errors, I'm using gdb (GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1346) (Fri Sep 18 20:40:51 UTC 2009)), and compiled the app with gcc (gcc version 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646) (dot 1)) with the commands "-c -g". When I add breakpoints to lines 7, 8, and 9, and run gdb, I get the following... (gdb) break main.cpp:7 Breakpoint 1 at 0x10000177f: file src/main.cpp, line 8. (gdb) break main.cpp:8 Note: breakpoint 1 also set at pc 0x10000177f. Breakpoint 2 at 0x10000177f: file src/main.cpp, line 8. (gdb) break main.cpp:9 Breakpoint 3 at 0x100001790: file src/main.cpp, line 9. (gdb) run Starting program: /DevProjects/DataManager/build/DataManager Reading symbols for shared libraries ++. done Breakpoint 1, main (argc=1, argv=0x7fff5fbff960) at src/main.cpp:8 8 printf("message"); (gdb) So, why of why, does anyone know, why my app does not break on the breakpoints for the object creation, but does break on the printf line? Drew J. Sonne.

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• ASP.NET 2.0 and COM Port Communication

  - by theaviator

  ASP.NET 2.0 and COM Port Communication Hello Guys, I have a managed DLL which communicates with the devices attached on COM/Serial ports. The desktop Winforms application sends requests on ports and receives/stores data in memory. In Winforms app I have added a reference to DLL and I am using the methods. This works well. Now, there is a situation where I need to show this data from serial/com port on a web-page. And also users should be able to send requests to the ports using this DLL. I have made a web app in ASP.NET (2.0). Added a reference to the DLL. I am able to use this DLL, the DLL communicates on the COM upon button click on web-page and also the response is shown on web page. However I am not happy with the approach and strongly feel that this is a bad approach. Also the development server crashes after 3 -4 requests. What is the best approach in this scenario. If I use a windows service then how would my ASP.net app will communicate with the Weindows service. Or can this be easily done using WCF. I have not used WCF any time nor any of .net remoting technique. Please suggest me the best architecture in this scenario. Thank you

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• How to configure outgoing connections from an SQL stored procedure?

  - by Peter Vestberg

  I am working on a .NET project which uses Microsoft SQL server. In this project, I need a CLR stored procedure (written in C#) that uses a remote web service. So, when the stored procedure is executed on the SQL server, it makes web service calls and thus sends packets to a remote location. The problem is that when executing the SP I get: "System.Net.WebException: The request failed with HTTP status 403: Forbidden." The database user has full permission, the deployed CLR assembly and SP are even marked "unsafe", I tried signing it etc., so any of that is not causing the problem. When I am executing the very same C# code, but from a simple console application instead of as a SP, it all works fine. So I started to suspect a network related problem and had a packet sniffer running when executing both the SP and the console app version. What I realized was that the packets sent out had different destination IP addresses: the console app sent the packets directly to the web service IP while the SP sent the packets to a proxy server we use in our company. Due to network policies the latter is not allowed and that explains the "403 Forbidden" exception. So my question boils down to this: How can I configure the SP/MS SQL server to NOT use that proxy? I want it to send the packets directly to the web service IP, just like the test console app. (again, the C# code is the same , so it's not a programming matter). I've disabled all proxy settings in Internet Explorer in case the SQL server inherits these settings or something. However, no luck. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Best regards, Peter

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• Iphone: TabView + TableView

  - by OneTrickPonySoft

  I think I'm missing something simple, but I can't figure out exactly what it is. I'm trying to set up an App with a UITabViewController, and one of the Tabs will have a UITableView and UISearchBar (but no Navigation Controller). I set up the UITabViewController with all the tabs in interface builder, and the views are in their own xib files. The xib file for the tab with the UITableView is set up and connected as follows. Stuff in the browser: File's owner (Class is my custom class that is a child of UITableViewController) view - View View (class UIView, reference view - File's owner) contains: UITableView (if i try and set references to the data source / delegate, the app breaks) UISearchBar (unconfigured at the moment) This setup displays all the items and doesn't lock up, but I can't assign a DataSource without it crashing when i try and load the tab with the UITableView. What should I do to get data into this table, either in IB or code? My ideas are as follows: Implement custom UITableView class, hook up to table view in IB or to custom tableviewcontroller in Xcode. Pound head or laptop against the wall until it works. Update: Here's the error the simulator pushes to the console when I connect the Tableview's data source and delegate to File Owner (who's class is my custom tableviewcontroller). 2/14/09 6:59:12 PM TabBarWillbeRight[33172] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '* -[UIViewController tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x523760'

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• Scripts to parse and download iTunes Connect and AppStore data

  - by bradhouse

  I'm looking for recommendations of a script or series of scripts that download and parse iTunes Connect sales data and AppStore comments, ratings and rankings data for a defined app. I'm also aware of solutions like: AppViz appsales-mobile iphone-stats Heartbeat.app I'm sure I'll find a few more with more searching. I can't help but feel there must be a really decent set of open source scripts out there to do this, given how many developers are now writing apps for the AppStore. Would be interested to hear any commercial offerings as well (although my personal preference is for open source, so I can at least see what it is doing with my iTunes Connect login credentials). To be clear, I'm really looking for something that hits all of the areas mentioned: App Store (per store) Comments Ratings Category/store rankings iTunes Connect The contents of the sales reports Analysis/graphs of the data is not necessary (but would be a nice to have I guess). I'm not really looking for something like AppSales Mobile above, I would like the raw data so I can do my own analysis and formatting. So far it looks like AppViz (listed above) is the best out there. Any suggestions on what is good/available or should I just go roll my own?

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• passing java mail message object from between applications

  - by jezhilvalan

  I'm using java mail api 1.4.1 to obtain new emails. Two classes are being used to obtain emails and then parsing it. "GetMail" class communicates with mail server(Gmail,yahoo etc) and obtains the message object. Then the message object is passed to yet another class "MailFormatter" class, which then parses the message object, obtains the email headers (From,To,Subject etc) and then it parses the Multipart content to obtain the main body and attachments.Since both "Mail getting" and "Mail formatting" process are very resource intensive, these classes are going to be implemented as separate web applications.This application is going to monitor new emails for numerous email ids.If these ("GetMail" and "MailFormatter") are implemented as separate web applications, how can I pass the message object from "GetMail" app to "MailFormatter" app ? Is there a way through which I can persist the obtained message object in a certain location (a location which is common to both "GetMail" and "MailFormatter" applications), so that "GetMail" can persist the message object in that location, and then "MailFormatter" app can read "Message" objects from that location and carry out the parsing process. Message objects cannot be serialized. If they cannot be serialized how can I persist the state of java mail message object? please do help me to resolve this issue.

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• Problems in getting data from CFStreamCreatePairWithSocketToHost

  - by gkedmi

  Hi I'm building an iPhoe app with a socket to a PC app , I need to get an image from this PC app. It's my first time using "CFStreamCreatePairWithSocketToHost".After I establish the socket with "NSOperation" I call CFStreamClientContext streamContext = {0, self, NULL, NULL, NULL}; BOOL success = CFReadStreamSetClient(myReadStream, kMyNetworkEvents,MyStreamCallBack,&streamContext); CFReadStreamScheduleWithRunLoop(myReadStream, CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), kCFRunLoopDefaultMode); then I call CFWriteStreamWrite(myWriteStream, &writeBuffer, 3); // Open read stream. if (!CFReadStreamOpen(myReadStream)) { // Notify error } . . . while(!cancelled && !finished) { SInt32 result = CFRunLoopRunInMode(kCFRunLoopDefaultMode, 0.25, NO); if (result == kCFRunLoopRunStopped || result == kCFRunLoopRunFinished) { break; } if (([NSDate timeIntervalSinceReferenceDate] - _lastRead) MyConnectionTimeout) { // Call timed out cancelled = YES; break; } // Also handle stream status CFStreamStatus status = CFReadStreamGetStatus(myReadStream); } and then when I get "kCFStreamEventHasBytesAvailable" I use while (CFReadStreamHasBytesAvailable(myReadStream)) { CFReadStreamRead(myReadStream, readBuffer, 1000); //and buffer the the bytes } It's unpredictable , sometimes I get the whole picture , sometime I got just part of it , and I can't understand what make the different. can someone has an idea what is wrong here? thanks

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• Running multiple applications in STM32 flash

  - by Richard

  Hey! I would like to have two applications in my STM32 flash, one is basically a boot and the other the 'main' application. I have figured out how to load each of them into different areas of flash, and after taking a memory dump everything looks like it is in the right place. So when I do a reset it loads the boot, all the boot does at the moment is jump to the application. Debugging the boot, this all appears to work correctly. However the problems arrives after i've made the jump to the application, it just executes one instruction (assembly) and then jumps back to the boot. It should stay in the application indefinitely. My question is then, where should I 'jump' to in the app? It seems that there are a few potential spots, such as the interrupt vectors, the reset handler, the main function of the app. Actually I've tried all of those with no success. Hopefully that makes sense, i'll update the question if not. thanks for your help! Richard Updates: I had a play around in the debugger and manually changed the program counter to the main of the application, and well that worked a charm, so it makes me think there is something wrong with my jump, why doesn't the program counter keep going after the jump? Actually it seems to be the PSR, the 'T' gets reset on the jump, if I set that again after the jump it continues on with the app as I desire Ok found a solution, seems that you need to have the PC LSB set to 1 when you do a branch or it falls into the 'ARM' mode (32 bit instruction instead of 16 bit instructions like in the 'thumb' mode. Quite an obscure little problem, thanks for letting me share it with you!

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• SubViewTwoController undeclared (first use in this function) (obj-c)

  - by benny

  Ahoy hoy everyone :) Here is a list of links. You will need it when reading the post. I am a newbie to Objective-C and try to learn it for iPhone-App-Development. I used the tutorial linked in the link list to create a standard app with a simple basic Navigation. This app contains a "RootView" that is displayed at startup. The startup screen itself contains three elements wich all link to SubViewOne. I have got it to work this far. So what i want to change is to make the second element link to SubViewTwo. When i "Build and Go" it, i get the following errors: RootViewController.m: SubViewTwoController *subViewTwoController = [[SubViewTwoController alloc] init]; // SubViewTwoController undeclared (first use in this function) and in SubViewTwoController.m [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; // Releases the view if it doesn't have a superview no superclass declared in @interface for ´SubViewTwoController´ and the same thing after - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; I think you will also need the header files, so here they are! RootViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController { IBOutlet NSMutableArray *views; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet NSMutableArray *views; @end SubViewOneController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface SubViewOneController : UIViewController { IBOutlet UILabel *label; IBOutlet UIButton *button; } @property (retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UILabel *label; @property (retain,nonatomic) IBOutlet UIButton *button; - (IBAction) OnButtonClick:(id) sender; @end and SubViewTwoController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface SubViewTwo : UIViewController { IBOutlet NSMutableArray *views; } @end I would be really great if you would leave your ideas with a short explanation. Thanks a lot in advance! benny

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• How to switch from Core Data automatic lightweight migration to manual?

  - by Jaanus

  My situation is similar to this question. I am using lightweight migration with the following code, fairly vanilla from Apple docs and other SO threads. It runs upon app startup when initializing the Core Data stack. NSDictionary *options = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption, [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption, nil]; NSError *error = nil; NSString *storeType = nil; if (USE_SQLITE) { // app configuration storeType = NSSQLiteStoreType; } else { storeType = NSBinaryStoreType; } persistentStoreCoordinator = [[NSPersistentStoreCoordinator alloc] initWithManagedObjectModel:[self managedObjectModel]]; // the following line sometimes crashes on app startup if (![persistentStoreCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:storeType configuration:nil URL:[self persistentStoreURL] options:options error:&error]) { // handle the error } For some users, especially with slower devices, I have crashes confirmed by logs at the indicated line. I understand that a fix is to switch this to manual mapping and migration. What is the recipe to do that? The long way for me would be to go through all Apple docs, but I don't recall there being good examples and tutorials specifically for schema migration.

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• Multiple forms on a single page

  - by normalocity

  I've got an app that's in invite-only beta right now. Problem is, I can't get the invite system to work. :( On my root page there's a login form (which works just fine), and I'm trying to add a "request invite" form on the same page. I started doing it by putting the form for InviteRequest (ActiveRecord) inside a partial, in the "views" folder for "InviteRequest". The app is definitely calling this partial, but I'm getting the following error: NoMethodError in User_sessions#new Showing app/views/invite_request/_new.html.erb where line #2 raised: undefined method `invite_requests_path' for #<ActionView::Base:0x25b3248> Extracted source (around line #2): 1: <% @invite_request = InviteRequest.new() %> 2: <% form_for @invite_request do |ir| %> 3: <%= ir.label :email %> 4: <%= ir.text_field :email %> 5: <% end %> I also read through the "Multiple Models in a Form" section of my trusty copy of "Agile Web Development with Rails", about maybe doing this with a "fieldset" tag, but not sure if this is the right approach. Thx.

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• Quick MEF + SL4 question

  - by Tom Allen

  I'm working on an app in the Silverlight 4 RC and i'm taking the oppertunity to learn MEF for handling plugin controls. I've got it working in a pretty basic manor, but it's not exactly tidy and I know there is a better way of importing multiple xap's. Essentially, in the App.xaml of my host app, I've got the following telling MEF to load my xap's: AggregateCatalog catalog = new AggregateCatalog(); DeploymentCatalog c1 = new DeploymentCatalog(new Uri("TestPlugInA.xap", UriKind.Relative)); DeploymentCatalog c2 = new DeploymentCatalog(new Uri("TestPlugInB.xap", UriKind.Relative)); catalog.Catalogs.Add(c1); catalog.Catalogs.Add(c2); CompositionHost.Initialize(catalog); c1.DownloadAsync(); c2.DownloadAsync(); I'm sure I'm not using the AggregateCatalog fully here and I need to be able to load any xap's that might be in the directory, not just hardcoding Uri's obviously.... Also, in the MainPage.xaml.cs in the host I have the following collection which MEF puts the plugin's into: [ImportMany(AllowRecomposition = true)] public ObservableCollection<IPlugInApp> PlugIns { get; set; } Again, this works, but I'm pretty sure I'm using ImportMany incorrectly.... Finally, the MainPage.xaml.cs file implements IPartImportsSatisfiedNotification and I have the following for handling the plugin's once loaded: public void OnImportsSatisfied() { sp.Children.Clear(); foreach (IPlugInApp plugIn in PlugIns) { if (plugIn != null) sp.Children.Add(plugIn.GetUserControl()); } } This works, but it seems filthy that it runs n times (n being the number of xap's to load). I'm having to call sp.Children.Clear() as if I don't, when loading the 2 plugin's, my stack panel is populated as follows: TestPlugIn A TestPlugIn A TestPlugIn B I'm clearly missing something here. Can anyone point out what I should be doing? Thanks!

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• VS2010: "Select Resource" dialog & resx location

  - by Dav

  Got two issues with the VS2010 / VS2008 select resource dialog - the one that appears when you want to add an image to a button in a WinForms app for example. Give me my files back! It only seems to see the default project resources file (Properties\Resources.resx), and resx files in project root (say MyProject\famfamfam.resx). We have quite a few icons all over the app, and because some of them come from different icon sets (like famfamfam), and some are related to this project only we'd like to keep them separate. For that same reason (keeping solution neat & tidy) we want to store these extra resource files in the Resources folder (eg. Resources\famfamfam.resx). However, we'd also like to keep using the Select Resource dialog :-) Because it does not see the 'extra' resource files, we're having to select a 'fake' icon now (from the global Resources.resx file) and then manually change that to reference the right icon in .Designer.cs. As you can imagine, this is a pain. Stop modifying my files! Second issue is a bit more annoying. We use the excellent MultiLang add-in for Visual Studio to globalize our app. It stores its translations in MultiLang.resx & MultiLang.XY.resx files in the project root, where XY is a language code, eg. .cs.resx for Czech. These have to be set to No code generation access modifier. What Select Resource seems to be doing is set all .resx files it can find to Internal. Exec summary Is there a way to convince Select Resource dialog to look for extra .resx files anywhere besides the project root? Is there any way to stop it from modifying the access modifier of the resources it does see (other than file a bug with MS)? Thanks in advance for any suggestions!

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• How can a program be detected as running?

  - by ryeguy

  I have written a program that is sort of an unofficial, standalone plugin for an application. It allows customers to get a service that is a lower priced alternative then the vendor-owned one. My program is not illegal, against any kind of TOS, and is certainly not a virus, adware, or anything like that. That being said, the vendor of course is not happy about me taking his competition, and is trying to block my application from running. He has already tried some tactics to stop people from running my app alongside his. He makes it so if it is detected, his app throws a fake error. First, he checked to see if my program was running by looking for an open window with the right title. I countered this by randomizing the program title at startup. Next, he looked for the running process name. I countered this by making the app copy itself when it is started as [random string].exe and then running that. Anyways, my question is this: what else can he do to detect if my program running? I know that you can read window text (ie status bar, labels). I'm prepared to counter this by replacing the labels with images (ugh, any other way?). But what else is there? Can you detect what .dlls a program has loaded? If so, could this be solved by randomizing the dll names before loading them? I know that it's possible to get a program's signature in memory and track it that way (like a virus scanner), but the chances of him doing that probably aren't good because that sounds pretty advanced. Even though this is kinda crappy of him to be doing, its kind of fun. It's like a nerdy fist fight. EDIT: When I said it's a plugin, that is just the (incorrect) term I used. It's a standalone EXE. The "API" between my program and the other is mine is simply entering data into the controls (like textboxes, etc).

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