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• jcarousel not getting drawn inside a hidden div

  - by zoom_pat277

  I am struggling since hrs on this one now. I am using a div to populate a ul/li list and then draw a jcarousel out of it. So this works fine $('#mycarousel').jcarousel(); everything works fine as expected... but here is the scenario. the div inside which I have ul/li items could be hidden by the click of another button. When the div is hidden, and I resize the browser window...the jcaraousel also attempts to redraw itself... but since it is hidden, it is not able to draw it properly. and everyting is jumbled up in the list (if I click the button again to make it visible)... but again if I resize the window now (the jumbled up jcarousel is NOT hidden now)... it redraws itself correctly... I was wondering to get hold of the jcarousel instance and reload itself as soon as the button is clicked to make the div visible (the way it resizes itself when it is visible and window is resized) to get hold of the jcarousel.. I am using JQuery('#mycarousel').data('jcarousel') and it is returned as null. Anybody has any idea on this one?

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• how to push a string address to stack with assembly, machine code

  - by Yigit

  Hi all, I am changing minesweeper.exe in order to have an understanding of how code injection works. Simply, I want the minesweeper to show a message box before starting. So, I find a "cave" in the executable and then define the string to show in messagebox and call the messagebox. Additionally of course, I have to change the value at module entry point of the executable and first direct it to my additional code, then continue its own code. So at the cave what I do; "hello starbuck",0 push 0 //arg4 of MessageBoxW function push the address of my string //arg3, must be title push the address of my string //arg2, must be the message push 0 //arg1 call MessageBoxW ... Now since the memory addresses of codes in the executable change everytime it is loaded in the memory, for calling the MessageBoxW function, I give the offset of the address where MessageBoxW is defined in Import Address Table. For instance, if MessageBoxW is defined at address1 in the IAT and the instruction just after call MessageBoxW is at address2 instead of writing call MessageBoxW, I write call address2 - address1. So my question is, how do I do it for pushing the string's address to the stack? For example, if I do these changes via ollydbg, I give the immediate address of "hello starbuck" for pushing and it works. But after reloading the executable or starting it outside of ollydbg, it naturally fails, since the immediate addresses change. Thanks in advance, Yigit.

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• Loading a class file immediately AFTER startup

  - by Striker

  We have a few war files deployed inside an ear file. Some of the war files have a class that caches static data from our PLM system in singletons. Since some of the classes take several minutes to load we use the load-on-startup in the web.xml to load them ahead of time. This all works fine until we attempt to re-deploy the application on our production servers. (WebLogic 10.3) We get an exception from our PLM API about a dll already being loaded. Our PLM vendor has confirmed that this is a problem and stated that they don't support using the load-on-startup. This is also a huge problem on our development boxes where we have redeploy the app all the time. Most of us, when we're not working on one of the apps that uses a cache, have them commented out. Obviously we can't do that for the production servers. Right now we transfer the ear to the production server, deploy it in the console, wait for it to crash, shut the app server instance down and then start it up again. We need to find a way around this... One suggestion was to create a servlet that we can call after the server boots that will load the various caches. While this will work I'm looking for something a bit cleaner. Is there anyway to detect once the server started and then fire off the methods? Thanks.

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• Colour manipulation of custom tags in niceEdit HTML editor ( JS / DOM )

  - by Chris

  Hi, I would like to be able to highlight, during typing and in real time, certain custom tags in the format #tag_name# within the text of a nicEdit instance ( http://nicedit.com/ ). My current attempt to implement as close to this as possible revolves around using the blur event of the editor to highlight the tags once the editor loses focus. I then use the following logic to wrap the tags in a span with a highlight class.. htmlEditor.addEvent( "blur", function( ) { str = nicEditors.findEditor( "html_content" ).getContent( ); // Remove existing spans first, leaving just the tag ( this could mess up if the html has been edited directly ) str = str.replace( /(<span class=\"highlight\">)(.[^<]+)(<\/span>)/gi, "$2" ); // Then wrap all instances of a particular tag with the highlight span str = str.replace( /#tag_name#/gi, "<span class='highlight'>#tag_name#</span>" ); nicEditors.findEditor( "html_content" ).setContent( str ); }); This is not ideal as my actual text now contains unwanted spans ( I only want the highlighting for the user's input experience, not to be saved to the database ). Obviously I could remove the spans before saving the text but the whole system is currently open to errors ( If the html is directly edited then other text may get highlighted etc ). What I would like to know is.. Is there any way to directly change the colour of the tags in the editor or DOM without using a mechanism such as this? Perhaps a way of colouring the text in memory rather than changing the HTML ? Any ideas ? Regards Chris P

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• Can I use a property placeholder with Spring EL?

  - by David Easley

  Before upgrading to Spring 3 I had this in my applicationContext.xml file: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse}" /> </bean> where ${validateRequest) and ${validateRequest) refer to properties that may or may not be defined in my properties file. In Spring 2, if these proeprties were not present in the properties file the setters on the bean were not called and so the defaults hard-coded in PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor were used. After upgrading to Spring 3, it seems the behaviour is different: If the properties are not present in the properties file I get the following exception: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'annotationMapping' defined in class path resource [com/northgateis/pole/ws/applicationContext-ws.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'validateRequest' at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.processProperties(PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.java:272) at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyResourceConfigurer.postProcessBeanFactory(PropertyResourceConfigurer.java:75) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:640) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:615) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:405) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.createWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:272) I tried dabbling with Spring EL but the following doesn't seem to work: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest?:true}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse?:false}" /> </bean> The value after the Elvis operator is always used, even when the properties are defined in the proeprties file. Interesting that the syntax is accepted. Any suggestions?

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• WPF XAML references not resolved via myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()

  - by WPF-it

  I have a WPF container application (with ContentControl host) and a containee application (UserControl). Both are oblivious of each other. Only one XML config file holds the string dllpath of the containee's DLL and full namespace name of the ViewModelClass inside the containee. A generic code in container resolves containee's assembly (Assembly.LoadFrom(dllpath)) and creates the viewmodel's instance using Activator.CreateInstance(vmType). when this viewmodel is hosted inside the ContentControl of the container, and relevant vierwmodel specific ResourceDictionary is added to ContentControl.Resources.MergedDictionaries of the content control of container, so the view loads fine. Now my containee has to host the WPF DataGrid using assembly reference of WPFToolkit.dll from my local C:\Lib folder. The Copy Local reference to the WPFToolkit.dll is added to the .csproj file of the containee's project and its only referred in the UserControl.XAML using its XAML namepsace. This way my bin\debug folder in my containee application, gets the WPFToolkit.dll copied. XAML: xmlns:Controls="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Windows.Controls;assembly=WPFToolkit" <Controls:DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding AssetList}" ... /> Issue: The moment the ViewModel (i.e. the containee's usercontrol) tries to load itself I get this error. "Cannot find type 'Microsoft.Windows.Controls.DataGrid'. The assembly used when compiling might be different than that used when loading and the type is missing." Hence I tried to load the referenced assemblies of the containee's assembly (myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()) before the viewmodel is hosted. But WPFToolkit isnt there in that list of assemblies! Strange thing is I have another dll referred called Logger.dll in the containee codebase but this one is implemented using C# code behind. So I get its reference correctly resolved in myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(). So does that mean BAML references of assemblies are never resolvable by GetReferencedAssemblies?

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• NHibernate: how to handle entity-based validation using session-per-request pattern, without control

  - by Seth Petry-Johnson

  What is the best way to do entity-based validation (each entity class has an IsValid() method that validates its internal members) in ASP.NET MVC, with a "session-per-request" model, where the controller has zero (or limited) knowledge of the ISession? Here's the pattern I'm using: Get an entity by ID, using an IFooRepository that wraps the current NH session. This returns a connected entity instance. Load the entity with potentially invalid data, coming from the form post. Validate the entity by callings its IsValid() method. If valid, call IFooRepository.Save(entity). Otherwise, display error message. The session is currently opened when the request begins and flushed when the request ends. Since my entity is connected to a session, flushing the session attempts to save the changes even if the object is invalid. What's the best way to keep validation logic in the entity class, limit controller knowledge of NH, and avoid saving invalid changes at the end of a request? Option 1: Explicitly evict on validation failure, implicitly flush: if the validation fails, I could manually evict the invalid object in the action method. If successful, I do nothing and the session is automatically flushed. Con: error prone and counter-intuitive ("I didn't call .Save(), why are my invalid changes being saved anyways?") Option 2: Explicitly flush, do nothing by default: By default I can dispose of the session on request end, only flushing if the controller indicates success. I'd probably create a SaveChanges() method in my base controller that sets a flag indicating success, and then query this flag when closing the session at request end. Pro: More intuitive to troubleshoot if dev forgets this step [relative to option 1] Con: I have to call IRepository.Save(entity)' and SaveChanges(). Option 3: Always work with disconnected objects: I could modify my repositories to return disconnected/transient objects, and modify the Repo.Save() method to re-attach them. Pro: Most intuitive, given that controllers don't know about NH. Con: Does this defeat many of the benefits I'd get from NH?

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• NSMutableDictionary with UIButton* as keys - iPhone development

  - by Alejandro A.

  Hi, I'm new to iPhone development and I have a question that may have a very simple answer. I am trying to add buttons to a view and these buttons are associated with a custom class that I defined. When I add the buttons to the view, I would like to know what class these buttons correspond to. This is because when I press the button, I need to get some information about the class, but the receiver of the message is another class. I couldn't find information about an error that I'm getting on the web. The problem I have is that I'm trying to create an NSMutableDictionary where the keys are of type UIButton* and the values are of my custom type: // create button for unit UIButton* unitButton = [[UIButton alloc] init]; [sourceButtonMap setObject:composite forKey:unitButton]; Of course, the sourceButtonMap is defined in the class and initialized in the init function as sourceButtonMap = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; The error I get when I try to add the key-value pair is: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton copyWithZone:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3931e90' Is this happening because I can't store UIButton* as keys? Can anyone point me why I'm getting this error? Thank you all, aa

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• Child sProc cannot reference a Local temp table created in parent sProc

  - by John Galt

  On our production SQL2000 instance, we have a database with hundreds of stored procedures, many of which use a technique of creating a #TEMP table "early" on in the code and then various inner stored procedures get EXECUTEd by this parent sProc. In SQL2000, the inner or "child" sProc have no problem INSERTing into #TEMP or SELECTing data from #TEMP. In short, I assume they can all refer to this #TEMP because they use the same connection. In testing with SQL2008, I find 2 manifestations of different behavior. First, at design time, the new "intellisense" feature is complaining in Management Studio EDIT of the child sProc that #TEMP is an "invalid object name". But worse is that at execution time, the invoked parent sProc fails inside the nested child sProc. Someone suggested that the solution is to change to ##TEMP which is apparently a global temporary table which can be referenced from different connections. That seems too drastic a proposal both from the amount of work to chase down all the problem spots as well as possible/probable nasty effects when these sProcs are invoked from web applications (i.e. multiuser issues). Is this indeed a change in behavior in SQL2005 or SQL2008 regarding #TEMP (local temp tables)? We skipped 2005 but I'd like to learn more precisely why this is occuring before I go off and try to hack out the needed fixes. Thanks.

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• Updating multiple divs w/ RJS/AJAX

  - by bgadoci

  I am successfully using RJS to implement AJAX on a page.replace.html create.js.rjs. I am attempting to update two locations instead of one and after watching Ryan Bates Railscast I am very close (I think) but have a problem in the syntax of my /views/likes/create.js.rjs file. Here is the situation: located at /views/likes/create.js.rjs is the following code: page.replace_html "votes_#{ @site.id }", :partial => @like page.replace_html "counter", 10 - (@question.likes.count :conditions => {:user_id => current_user.id}) page[@like].visual_effect :highlight My problem lies in the second line. The div "counter" displays the following code in the /views/question/show.html.erb page: <div id="counter"> You have <%= 10 - (@question.likes.count :conditions => {:user_id => current_user.id}) %> votes remaining for this question </div> From watching the screen cast I believe that my error has to do w/ the syntax of the second line. Specifically he mentions that you cannot use a local instance variable but not sure how to make the change. Thoughts?

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• Email Collector / Implementation

  - by Tian

  I am implementing a simple RoR webpage that collect emails from visitors and store them as objects. I'm using it as a mini-project to try RoR and BDD. I can think of 3 features for Cucumber: 1. User submits a valid email address 2. User submits an existing email address 3. User submits an invalid email My question is, for scenarios 2 and 3, is it better to handle this via the controller? or as methods in a class? Perhaps something that throws errors if an instance is instantiated in sceanrio 2 or 3? Implementation is below, love to hear some code reviews in addition to answers to questions above. Thanks! MODEL: class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessor :email end VIEW: <h1>Welcome To My Experiment</h1> <p>Find me in app/views/welcome/index.html.erb</p> <%= flash[:notice] %> <% form_for @contact, :url => {:action => "index"} do |f| %> <%= f.label :email %><br /> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= submit_tag 'Submit' %> <% end %> CONTROLLER: class WelcomeController < ApplicationController def index @contact = Contact.new unless params[:contact].nil? @contact = Contact.create!(params[:contact]) flash[:notice] = "Thank you for your interest, please check your mailbox for confirmation" end end end

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• BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly alternative to avoid ambiguous properties of derived classes

  - by JoeBilly

  I'am looking for a solution to access 'flatten' (lowest) properties values of a class and its derived via reflection by property names. ie access either Property1 or Property2 from the ClassB or ClassC type : public class ClassA { public virtual object Property1 { get; set; } public object Property2 { get; set; } } public class ClassB : ClassA { public override object Property1 { get; set; } } public class ClassC : ClassB { } Using simple reflection works until you have virtual properties that are overrired (ie Property1 from ClassB). Then you get a AmbiguousMatchException because the searcher don't know if you want the property of the main class or the derived. Using BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly avoid the AmbiguousMatchException but unoverrided virtual properties or derived classes properties are ommited (ie Property2 from ClassB). Is there an alternative to this poor workaround : // Get the main class property with the specified propertyName PropertyInfo propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName, BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Static); // If not found, get the property wherever it is if (propertyInfo == null) propertyInfo = _type.GetProperty(propertyName); Furthermore, this workaround not resolve the reflection of 2nd level properties : getting Property1 from ClassC and AmbiguousMatchException is back. My thoughts : I have no choice except loop... Erk... ?? I'am open to Emit, Lambda (is the Expression.Call can handle this?) even DLR solution. Thanks !

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• How to deserialize an element as an XmlNode?

  - by mackenir

  When using Xml serialization in C#, I want to deserialize a part of my input XML to an XmlNode. So, given this XML: <Thing Name="George"> <Document> <subnode1/> <subnode2/> </Document> </Thing> I want to deserialize the Document element to an XmlNode. Below is my attempt which given the XML above, sets Document to the 'subnode1' element rather than the 'Document' element. How would I get the code to set the Document property to the Document element? using System; using System.IO; using System.Xml; using System.Xml.Serialization; [Serializable] public class Thing { [XmlAttribute] public string Name {get;set;} public XmlNode Document { get; set; } } class Program { static void Main() { const string xml = @" <Thing Name=""George""> <Document> <subnode1/> <subnode2/> </Document> </Thing>"; var s = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Thing)); var thing = s.Deserialize(new StringReader(xml)) as Thing; } } However, when I use an XmlSerializer to deserialize the XML above to an instance of Thing, the Document property contains the child element 'subnode1', rather than the 'doc' element. How can I get the XmlSerializer to set Document to an XmlNode containing the 'doc' element.

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• How do you implement a good profanity filter?

  - by Ben Throop

  Many of us need to deal with user input, search queries, and situations where the input text can potentially contain profanity or undesirable language. Oftentimes this needs to be filtered out. Where can one find a good list of swear words in various languages and dialects? Are there APIs available to sources that contain good lists? Or maybe an API that simply says "yes this is clean" or "no this is dirty" with some parameters? What are some good methods for catching folks trying to trick the system, like a$$, azz, or a55? Bonus points if you offer solutions for PHP. :) Edit: Response to answers that say simply avoid the programmatic issue: I think there is a place for this kind of filter when, for instance, a user can use public image search to find pictures that get added to a sensitive community pool. If they can search for "penis", then they will likely get many pictures of, yep. If we don't want pictures of that, then preventing the word as a search term is a good gatekeeper, though admittedly not a foolproof method. Getting the list of words in the first place is the real question. So I'm really referring to a way to figure out of a single token is dirty or not and then simply disallow it. I'd not bother preventing a sentiment like the totally hilarious "long necked giraffe" reference. Nothing you can do there. :)

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• UITableView madness

  - by kesrut

  Hello, I'm new to iPhone application development. I'm trying to understand how to use UITableView. I'm wrote simple code: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 1 ; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *MyIdentifier = @"MyIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:MyIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:MyIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = @"Hello"; return cell; } UITable shows content, but if i'm drag table contents my application terminates. You can see video: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TucTVJVhSD0 I tried to everything with array: - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 1 ; } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [hello count] ; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *MyIdentifier = @"MyIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:MyIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:MyIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = [hello objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:NO]; NSLog(@"Selected") ; } - (void) awakeFromNib { hello = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:@"hello", @"world", @"end", nil]; } // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; } Content is shown and if I'm selecting item i'm getting: [Session started at 2010-03-16 19:21:48 +0200.] 2010-03-16 19:21:52.295 ViewTest[1775:207] * -[ViewTestViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3911ec0 I'm total new to iPhone programming. And as i see everything i do - i'm just getting application terminated ..

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• How do I setup NInject? (i.e.

  - by Greg

  Hi, I'm getting confused in the doco how I should be setting up Ninject. I'm seeing different ways of doing it, some v2 versus v1 confusion probably included... Question - What is the best way in my WinForms application to set things up for NInject (i.e. what are the few lines of code required). I'm assuming this would go into the MainForm Load method. In other words what code do I have to have prior to getting to: Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); I have the following code, so effectively I just want to get clarification on the setup and bind code that would be required in my MainForm.Load() to end up with a concrete Samurai instance? internal interface IWeapon { void Hit(string target); } class Sword : IWeapon { public void Hit(string target) { Console.WriteLine("Chopped {0} clean in half", target); } } class Samurai { private IWeapon _weapon; [Inject] public Samurai(IWeapon weapon) { _weapon = weapon; } public void Attack(string target) { _weapon.Hit(target); } } thanks

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• Which single IoC/DI container would you recommend using and why?

  - by Rob G

  I'm asking this question because it's a good way to gauge how the community at large feels about the various containers/frameworks and why. Also, whilst my expertise may lie in .Net development, I am very interested in which frameworks are popular (and why) in other languages. If I feel the need to start digging into Java for instance, then I'd like to hit the ground running with good (comfortable) knowledge that I'm starting in the right direction. Does Ruby even need one with all its magnificent dynamicism? I have my own opinions on the .Net front, and will probably add my own personal favourite in an answer below, but I'm interested in all languages and opinions here. With all that in mind, could you please state only one IoC/DI framework that you use and recommend with the language of choice (Java/Ruby/.Net/Smalltalk etc.) and your reasoning for your choice, and if someone has already answered your particular flavour, then you can just vote it up and add comments to it so that anyone looking for advice in future and see which frameworks are more than likely to work for them once they read your reasoning. I'm hoping that over time, the best ones will bubble up to the top. I realise that this question doesn't have only one correct answer, so I won't be choosing one - the community will decide which framework gets the most votes and why. Of course, if you really feel strongly opposed to a particular brand, you could take the reputation hit and vote it down too, and this question can serve as a true wiki-style entry for research into this field. Remember, only one IoC per answer you write please - if you feel the need to promote two frameworks, then write two answers with your reasoning inside for each choice - then others in the community can agree or disagree with you.

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• Migrating MOSS 2007 from SQL 2000 to SQL 2005 - Addendum

  - by lunacrescens

  This is a continuation of an earlier question I had about moving the databases for a MOSS 2007 installation from SQL 2000 to SQL 2005. Here's the URL for the original question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/254517/migrating-moss-2007-from-sql-2000-to-sql-2005 In my test environment, I've successfully moved the databases to the SQL 2005 test machine and things appear to be working fine. But, on the "Servers in Farm" page of the Central Admin | Operations, it still shows the old (i.e. SQL 2000) server as the Configuration Database Server. Also, it shows the old config database as being the Configuration Database. I know that the SQL2000 server and old config database (that are showing on this page) are NOT being used, because we've deactived the SQL instance in SQL2000. I've tried "removing" the server, and get a message about "Uninstalling SharePoint products and technologies" being the better route. So, I disconnected from the test databases, uninstalled SharePoint from the test WFE server, and reinstalled it. That didn't do anything. Before uninstalling/reinstalling I also tried simply rerunning the SharePoint Configuration wizard, and that didn't do anything either. Does anyone know how to update the Config Server and Config Database on the "Servers in Farm" page after having moved the Config and Content DBs? Is there something I'm missing or overlooking? Thanks.

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• Avoiding Duplicate Data in DB (for use with Rails)

  - by ants

  I have five tables that I am trying to get to work nicely together but may need some help. I have three main tables: accounts members and roles. With two join tables account_members and account_member_roles. The accounts and members table are joined by account_members (fk account_id and member_id) table. The other 2 tables are the problem (roles and account_member_roles). A member of an account can have more than one role and I have the account_member_roles (fk account_member_id and role_id) table joining the account_members join table and the roles table. That seems logical but can you have a relationship with a join table? What I'd like to be able to do is when creaeting an account, for instance, I would like @account.save to include the roles and update the account_member_roles table neatly ..... but through the account_members join table. I've tried ..... accept_nested_attributes_for :members, :account_member_roles in the account.rb but I get ..... ActiveRecord::HasManyThroughCantAssociateThroughHasManyReflection (Cannot modify association 'Account#account_member_roles' because the source reflection class 'AccountMemberRole' is associated to 'AccountMember' via :has_many.) upon trying to save a record. Any advice on how I should approach this? CIA -ants

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• Understanding an interesting array update/replace function

  - by dave

  I'm a PHP amateur. This array function is an adaption of a function I noticed while reading this article. I thought this was an interesting type of array function, but I have a question about the way it works. my_func( array( 'sky' => 'blue' ) ); function my_func( array $settings = array() ) { $settings = $settings + array( 'grass'=>'green','sky'=>'dark' ); print_r( $settings ) ; // outputs: Array ( [sky] => blue [grass] => green ) } but..................... my_func( array( 'sky' => 'blue' ) ); function my_func( array $settings = array() ) { $settings = array( 'clock'=>'time' ) ; $settings = $settings + array( 'grass'=>'green','sky'=>'dark' ); print_r( $settings ) ; // outputs: Array ( [clock] => time [grass] => green [sky] => dark ) } Why does [sky] not equal 'blue' in the second instance? Thanks.

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• How can I add the column data type after adding the column headers to my datatable?

  - by Kevin

  Using the code below (from a console app I've cobbled together), I add seven columns to my datatable. Once this is done, how can I set the data type for each column? For instance, column 1 of the datatable will have the header "ItemNum" and I want to set it to be an Int. I've looked at some examples on thet 'net, but most all of them show creating the column header and column data type at once, like this: loadDT.Columns.Add("ItemNum", typeof(Int)); At this point in my program, the column already has a name. I just want to do something like this (not actual code): loadDT.Column[1].ChangeType(typeof(int)); Here's my code so far (that gives the columns their name): // get column headings for datatable by reading first line of csv file. StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(@"c:\load_forecast.csv"); headers = sr.ReadLine().Split(','); foreach (string header in headers) { loadDT.Columns.Add(header); } Obviously, I'm pretty new at this, but trying very hard to learn. Can someone point me in the right direction? Thanks!

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• How to run White + SL4 UATs through TeamCity?

  - by Duncan Bayne

  After experiencing a series of unpleasant issues with TFS, including source code orruption and project management inflexibility, we (meaning the project team of which I'm a part) have decided to move from TFS 2010 to TeamCity + SVN + V1. I've managed to get our MSTest component and unit tests running as part of every build. However, our UATs are failing, and I was hoping for some advice from the TeamCity community as to best practices w.r.t. running web servers and interacting with the desktop. Each of our UAT fixtures starts a web server to host the site, like this: public static void StartWebServer() { var pathToSite = @"C:\projects\myproject\FrontEnd\MyProject.FrontEnd.Web"; var webServer = new Process { StartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo { Arguments = string.Format("/port:9150 /path:\"{0}\"", pathToSite), FileName = @"C:\Program Files (x86)\Common Files\microsoft shared\DevServer\10.0\WebDev.WebServer40.EXE" } }; webServer.Start(); } Needless to say, this doesn't work when running through TeamCity, as the pathToSite value is different each time. I'm hoping there is a way of determining the path into which the the code is checked out prior to building? That would allow me to point the web server at the right place. The other issue is that our UATs use White to drive the Silverlight UI through an instance of Internet Explorer: _browserWindow = InternetExplorer.Launch("http://localhost:9150/index.html#/Home", "Home - Windows Internet Explorer"); _document = _browserWindow.SilverlightDocument; I've ensured that the TeamCity service is granted the ability to interact with the desktop, and I've set the build agent machine up to log in automatically (an open session is a pre-requisite for White to work properly). Is that all I need to do or are there additional steps required?

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• What is the header of an array in .NET

  - by Thomas

  Hi all, I have a little bit seen the representation of an array in memory with Windbg and SOS plugin. Here it is the c# : class myobj{ public int[] arr; } class Program{ static void Main(string[] args){ myobj o = new myobj(); o.arr = new int[7]; o.arr[0] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[1] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[2] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[3] = 0xFFFFFF; o.arr[4] = 0xFFFFFF; } } I break at final of Main, and I observ : 0:000> !clrstack -l OS Thread Id: 0xc3c (0) ESP EIP 0015f0cc 0043d1cf test.Program.Main(System.String[]) LOCALS: 0x0015f0d8 = 0x018a2f58 0:000 !do 0x018a2f58 Name: test.myobj MethodTable: 0026309c EEClass: 00261380 Size: 12(0xc) bytes (C:\Users\admin\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\test\test\bin\Debug\test.exe) Fields: MT Field Offset Type VT Attr Value Name 01324530 4000001 4 System.Int32[] 0 instance 018a2f64 tab 0:000 dd 018a2f64 018a2f64 01324530 00000007 00ffffff 00ffffff 018a2f74 00ffffff 00ffffff 00ffffff 00000000 018a2f84 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2f94 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fa4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fb4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fc4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 018a2fd4 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 I can see that the header contains the size of the array (00000007) but my question is : what is the value 01324530 ? Thanks !

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• Why this method does not use any properties of the object?

  - by Roman

  Here I found this code: import java.awt.*; import javax.swing.*; public class FunWithPanels extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { FunWithPanels frame = new FunWithPanels(); frame.doSomething(); } void doSomething() { Container c = getContentPane(); JPanel p1 = new JPanel(); p1.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); p1.add(new JButton("A"), BorderLayout.NORTH); p1.add(new JButton("B"), BorderLayout.WEST); JPanel p2 = new JPanel(); p2.setLayout(new GridLayout(3, 2)); p2.add(new JButton("F")); p2.add(new JButton("G")); p2.add(new JButton("H")); p2.add(new JButton("I")); p2.add(new JButton("J")); p2.add(new JButton("K")); JPanel p3 = new JPanel(); p3.setLayout(new BoxLayout(p3, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); p3.add(new JButton("L")); p3.add(new JButton("M")); p3.add(new JButton("N")); p3.add(new JButton("O")); p3.add(new JButton("P")); c.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); c.add(p1, BorderLayout.CENTER); c.add(p2, BorderLayout.SOUTH); c.add(p3, BorderLayout.EAST); pack(); setVisible(true); } } I do not understand how "doSomething" use the fact that "frame" is an instance of the class JFrame. It is not clear to me because there is no reference to "this" in the code for the method "doSomething".

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• Most efficient way to combine two objects in C#

  - by Dested

  I have two objects that can be represented as an int, float, bool, or string. I need to perform an addition on these two objects with the results being the same thing c# would produce as a result. For instance 1+"Foo" would equal the string "1Foo", 2+2.5 would equal the float 5.5, and 3+3 would equal the int 6 . Currently I am using the code below but it seems like incredible overkill. Can anyone simplify or point me to some way to do this efficiently? private object Combine(object o, object o1) { float left = 0; float right = 0; bool isInt = false; string l = null; string r = null; if (o is int) { left = (int)o; isInt = true; } else if (o is float) { left = (float)o; } else if (o is bool) { l = o.ToString(); } else { l = (string)o; } if (o1 is int) { right = (int)o1; } else if (o is float) { right = (float)o1; isInt = false; } else if (o1 is bool) { r = o1.ToString(); isInt = false; } else { r = (string)o1; isInt = false; } object rr; if (l == null) { if (r == null) { rr = left + right; } else { rr = left + r; } } else { if (r == null) { rr = l + right; } else { rr = l + r; } } if (isInt) { return Convert.ToInt32(rr); } return rr; }

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