Search Results

Search found 13788 results on 552 pages for 'instance caging'.

Page 436/552 | < Previous Page | 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443  | Next Page >

• Avoiding Duplicate Data in DB (for use with Rails)

  - by ants

  I have five tables that I am trying to get to work nicely together but may need some help. I have three main tables: accounts members and roles. With two join tables account_members and account_member_roles. The accounts and members table are joined by account_members (fk account_id and member_id) table. The other 2 tables are the problem (roles and account_member_roles). A member of an account can have more than one role and I have the account_member_roles (fk account_member_id and role_id) table joining the account_members join table and the roles table. That seems logical but can you have a relationship with a join table? What I'd like to be able to do is when creaeting an account, for instance, I would like @account.save to include the roles and update the account_member_roles table neatly ..... but through the account_members join table. I've tried ..... accept_nested_attributes_for :members, :account_member_roles in the account.rb but I get ..... ActiveRecord::HasManyThroughCantAssociateThroughHasManyReflection (Cannot modify association 'Account#account_member_roles' because the source reflection class 'AccountMemberRole' is associated to 'AccountMember' via :has_many.) upon trying to save a record. Any advice on how I should approach this? CIA -ants

  Read the article

• C# COM Cross Thread problem

  - by user364676

  Hi, we're developing a software to control a scientific measuring device. it provides a COM-Interface defines serveral functions to set measurement parameters and fires an event when it measured data. in order to test our software, i'm implementing a simulation of that device. the com-object runs a loop which periodically fires the event. another loop in the client app should now setup up the com-simulator using the given functions. i created a class for measuring parameters which will be instanciated when setting up a new measurement. // COM-Object public class MeasurementParams { public double Param1; public double Param2; } public class COM_Sim : ICOMDevice { public MeasurementParams newMeasurement; IClient client; public int NewMeasurement() { newMeasurment = new MeasurementParam(); } public int SetParam1(double val) { // why is newMeasurement null when method is called from client loop newMeasurement.Param1 = val; } void loop() { while(true) { // fire event client.HandleEvent; } } } public class Client : IClient { ICOMDevice server; public int HandleEvent() { // handle this event server.NewMeasurement(); server.SetParam1(0.0); } void loop() { while(true) { // do some stuff... server.NewMeasurement(); server.SetParam1(0.0); } } } both of the loops run in independent threads. when server.NewMeasurement() is called, the object on the server is set to a new instance. but in the next function, the object is null again. do the same when handling the server-event, it works perfectly, because the method runs in the servers thread. how to make it work from client-thread as well. as the client is meant to be working with the real device, i cannot modify the interfaces given by the manufactor. also i need to setup measurements independent from the event-handler, which will be fired not regulary. i assume this problem related to multithreaded-COM behavior but i found nothing on this topic.

  Read the article

• Why this method does not use any properties of the object?

  - by Roman

  Here I found this code: import java.awt.*; import javax.swing.*; public class FunWithPanels extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { FunWithPanels frame = new FunWithPanels(); frame.doSomething(); } void doSomething() { Container c = getContentPane(); JPanel p1 = new JPanel(); p1.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); p1.add(new JButton("A"), BorderLayout.NORTH); p1.add(new JButton("B"), BorderLayout.WEST); JPanel p2 = new JPanel(); p2.setLayout(new GridLayout(3, 2)); p2.add(new JButton("F")); p2.add(new JButton("G")); p2.add(new JButton("H")); p2.add(new JButton("I")); p2.add(new JButton("J")); p2.add(new JButton("K")); JPanel p3 = new JPanel(); p3.setLayout(new BoxLayout(p3, BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); p3.add(new JButton("L")); p3.add(new JButton("M")); p3.add(new JButton("N")); p3.add(new JButton("O")); p3.add(new JButton("P")); c.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); c.add(p1, BorderLayout.CENTER); c.add(p2, BorderLayout.SOUTH); c.add(p3, BorderLayout.EAST); pack(); setVisible(true); } } I do not understand how "doSomething" use the fact that "frame" is an instance of the class JFrame. It is not clear to me because there is no reference to "this" in the code for the method "doSomething".

  Read the article

• What is the best way to get an audio file duration in Android?

  - by Gilead

  Hi! I'm using a SoundPool [ 1 ] to play audio clips in my app. All is fine but I need to know when the clip playback has finished. At the moment I track it in my app by obtaining the duration of each clip using a MediaPlayer [ 2 ] instance. That works fine but it looks wasteful to load each file twice, just to get the duration. I could roughly calculate the duration myself knowing the length of the file (available from the AssetFileDescriptor [ 3 ]) but I'd still need to know the sample rate and the number of channels. I see two potential solutions to that problem: Figuring out when a clip has finished playing (doesn't seem to be possible with SoundClip). Having a class which could load just the header of an audio file and give me the sample rate/number of channels (and, ideally, the sample count to get the exact duration). Any suggestions? Thanks, Max The code I'm using at the moment (works fine but is rather heavy for the purpose): String[] fileNames = ... MediaPlayer mp = new MediaPlayer(); for (String fileName : fileNames) { AssetFileDescriptor d = context.getAssets().openFd(fileName); mp.reset(); mp.setDataSource(d.getFileDescriptor(), d.getStartOffset(), d.getLength()); mp.prepare(); int duration = mp.getDuration(); // ... } On a side note, this question has already been asked [ 4 ] but got no answers.

  Read the article

• backbone marionette - displaying a view in a layout region which has already been rendered

  - by Justin Wyllie

  I have something like this: //render the layout Layout.layout = new Layout.Screen(); MyApp.SomeRegion.show(Layout.layout); //render a view into it var mView = new CompositeView({collection: data}); Layout.layout.SomeRegion.show(mView); That all works fine. The layout has 3 regions. The above has rendered a view into one of them. Now, later, I want (in response to some user interaction) to render another view into one of the other regions. So I try: var mView2 = new CompositeView({collection: data}); Layout.layout.SomeOtherRegion.show(mView); But 'SomeOtherRegion' no longer exists on Layout.layout. I looked at this in Firebug. In the first case Layout.layout has my three regions defined on it. In the second case, not. Though they are still there in the regions object. This is the same layout instance. It looks like once a layout has been rendered you cannot render into it again? There must be a way. Nb. I don't want to re-render the layout. I hope that makes sense --Justin Wyllie

  Read the article

• Most efficient way to combine two objects in C#

  - by Dested

  I have two objects that can be represented as an int, float, bool, or string. I need to perform an addition on these two objects with the results being the same thing c# would produce as a result. For instance 1+"Foo" would equal the string "1Foo", 2+2.5 would equal the float 5.5, and 3+3 would equal the int 6 . Currently I am using the code below but it seems like incredible overkill. Can anyone simplify or point me to some way to do this efficiently? private object Combine(object o, object o1) { float left = 0; float right = 0; bool isInt = false; string l = null; string r = null; if (o is int) { left = (int)o; isInt = true; } else if (o is float) { left = (float)o; } else if (o is bool) { l = o.ToString(); } else { l = (string)o; } if (o1 is int) { right = (int)o1; } else if (o is float) { right = (float)o1; isInt = false; } else if (o1 is bool) { r = o1.ToString(); isInt = false; } else { r = (string)o1; isInt = false; } object rr; if (l == null) { if (r == null) { rr = left + right; } else { rr = left + r; } } else { if (r == null) { rr = l + right; } else { rr = l + r; } } if (isInt) { return Convert.ToInt32(rr); } return rr; }

  Read the article

• How to add custom header to ASMX web service call using jquery?

  - by Mike

  I have a web service with the following contract: POST /Service/service.asmx HTTP/1.1 Host: xxx.xxx.xxx Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length SOAPAction: "xxx.xxx.xxx/Service/Method" <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Header> <Request xmlns="xxx.xxx.xxx/Service/"> <transactiontype>string</transactiontype> <username>string</username> <password>string</password> </Request> </soap:Header> <soap:Body> <Method xmlns="xxx.xxx.xxx/Service/"> <xml>xml</xml> </Method> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> And I am trying to call the service using jquery. This is my code: $.ajax({ url: serverUrl + 'Method', type: "POST", dataType: "xml", data: { xml: "xml" }, beforeSend: function (req) { req.setRequestHeader('Header', '<Request xmlns="xxx.xxx.xxx/Service/">' +'<transactiontype>4</transactiontype>' +'<agencyName>name</agencyName>' +'<username>user</username>' +'<password>pass</password>' +'</Request>'); }, success: function (data) { alert(data.text); }, error: function (request, status, errorThrown) { alert(status); } }); However, the header content is not passed to the web service? How would I go about passing the header credentials to my web service call?

  Read the article

• How to deserialize an element as an XmlNode?

  - by mackenir

  When using Xml serialization in C#, I want to deserialize a part of my input XML to an XmlNode. So, given this XML: <Thing Name="George"> <Document> <subnode1/> <subnode2/> </Document> </Thing> I want to deserialize the Document element to an XmlNode. Below is my attempt which given the XML above, sets Document to the 'subnode1' element rather than the 'Document' element. How would I get the code to set the Document property to the Document element? using System; using System.IO; using System.Xml; using System.Xml.Serialization; [Serializable] public class Thing { [XmlAttribute] public string Name {get;set;} public XmlNode Document { get; set; } } class Program { static void Main() { const string xml = @" <Thing Name=""George""> <Document> <subnode1/> <subnode2/> </Document> </Thing>"; var s = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Thing)); var thing = s.Deserialize(new StringReader(xml)) as Thing; } } However, when I use an XmlSerializer to deserialize the XML above to an instance of Thing, the Document property contains the child element 'subnode1', rather than the 'doc' element. How can I get the XmlSerializer to set Document to an XmlNode containing the 'doc' element.

  Read the article

• Communication between EJB3 Instances (JEE inter-bean communication) possible?

  - by Hank

  I'm designing a part of a JEE6 application, consisting of EJB3 beans. Part of the requirements are multiple parallel (say a few hundred) long running (over days) database hunts. Individual hunts have different search parameters (start time, end time, query filter). Parameters may get changed over time. Currently I'm thinking of the following: SearchController (Stateless Session Bean) formulates a set of search parameters, sends it off to a SearchListener via JMS SearchListener (Message Driven Bean) receives search parameters, instantiates a SearchWorker with the parameters SearchWorker (SLSB) hunts repeatedly through the database; when it finds something, the result is sent off via JMS, and the search continues; when the given 'end-time' has reached, it ends What I'm wondering now: Is there a problem, with EJB3 instances running for days? (Other than that I need to be able to deal with container restarts...) How do I know how many and which EJB instances of SearchWorker are currently running? Is it possible to communicate with them individually (similar to sending a System V signal to a unix process), e.g. to send new parameters, to end an instance, etc..

  Read the article

• SQL Server 2000 intermittent connection exceptions on production server - specific environment probl

  - by StickyMcGinty

  We've been having intermittent problems causing users to be forcibly logged out of out application. Our set-up is ASP.Net/C# web application on Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition with SQL Server 2000 on the back end. We've recently performed a major product upgrade on our client's VMWare server (we have a guest instance dedicated to us) and whereas we had none of these issues with the previous release the added complexity that the new upgrade brings to the product has caused a lot of issues. We are also running SQL Server 2000 (build 8.00.2039, or SP4) and the IIS/ASP.NET (.Net v2.0.50727) application on the same box and connecting to each other via a TCP/IP connection. Primarily, the exceptions being thrown are: System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Cannot find table 0. System.ArgumentException: Column 'password' does not belong to table Table. [This exception occurs in the log in script, even though there is clearly a password column available] System.InvalidOperationException: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. [This one is occurring very regularly] System.InvalidOperationException: This SqlTransaction has completed; it is no longer usable. System.ApplicationException: ExecuteReader requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is connecting. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. And just today, for the first time: System.Web.UI.ViewStateException: Invalid viewstate. We have load tested the app using the same number of concurrent users as the production server and cannot reproduce these errors. They are very intermittent and occur even when there are only 8/9/10 user connections. My gut is telling me its ASP.NET - SQL Server 2000 connection issues.. We've pretty much ruled out code-level Data Access Layer errors at this stage (we've a development team of 15 experienced developers working on this) so we think its a specific production server environment issue.

  Read the article

• Spaced repetition (SRS) for learning

  - by Fredrik Johansson

  A client has asked me to add a simple spaced repeition algorithm (SRS) for an onlinebased learning site. But before throwing my self into it, I'd like to discuss it with the community. Basically the site asks the user a bunch of questions (by automatically selecting say 10 out of 100 total questions from a database), and the user gives either a correct or incorrect answer. The users result are then stored in a database, for instance: userid questionid correctlyanswered dateanswered 1 123 0 (no) 2010-01-01 10:00 1 124 1 (yes) 2010-01-01 11:00 1 125 1 (yes) 2010-01-01 12:00 Now, to maximize a users ability to learn all answers, I should be able to apply an SRS algorithm so that a user, next time he takes the quiz, receives questions incorrectly answered more often; than questions answered correctly. Also, questions that are previously answered incorrectly, but recently often answered correctly should occur less often. Have anyone implemented something like this before? Any tips or suggestions? Theese are the best links I've found: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spaced_repetition http://www.mnemosyne-proj.org/principles.php http://www.supermemo.com/english/ol/sm2.htm

  Read the article

• Can I use a property placeholder with Spring EL?

  - by David Easley

  Before upgrading to Spring 3 I had this in my applicationContext.xml file: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse}" /> </bean> where ${validateRequest) and ${validateRequest) refer to properties that may or may not be defined in my properties file. In Spring 2, if these proeprties were not present in the properties file the setters on the bean were not called and so the defaults hard-coded in PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor were used. After upgrading to Spring 3, it seems the behaviour is different: If the properties are not present in the properties file I get the following exception: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'annotationMapping' defined in class path resource [com/northgateis/pole/ws/applicationContext-ws.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'validateRequest' at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.processProperties(PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.java:272) at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyResourceConfigurer.postProcessBeanFactory(PropertyResourceConfigurer.java:75) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:640) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:615) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:405) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.createWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:272) I tried dabbling with Spring EL but the following doesn't seem to work: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest?:true}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse?:false}" /> </bean> The value after the Elvis operator is always used, even when the properties are defined in the proeprties file. Interesting that the syntax is accepted. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Fluent NHibernate automap a HasManyToMany using a generic type

  - by zulkamal

  I have a bunch of domain entities that can be keyword tagged (a Tag is also an entity.) I want to do a normal many-to-many (Tag - TagReview <- Review) table relationship but I don't want to have to create a new concrete relationship on both the Entity and Tag every single time I add a new entity. I was hoping to do a generic based Tag and do this: // Tag public class Tag<T> { public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IList<T> Entities { get; set; } public Tag() { Entities = new List<T>(); } } // Review public class Review { public virtual string Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual string Content { get; set; } public virtual IList<Tag<Review>> Tags { get; set; } public Review() { Tags = new List<Tag<Review>>(); } } Unfortunately I get an exception: ----> System.ArgumentException : Cannot create an instance of FluentNHibernate.Automapping.AutoMapping`1[Example.Entities.Tag`1[T]] because Type.ContainsGenericParameters is true. I anticipate there will be maybe 5-10 entities so mapping normally would be ok but is there a way to do something like this?

  Read the article

• In .NET, What Is Fastest Way to Initialize Multi-Dimensional Array to Non-Default Value

  - by AMissico

  How do I initialize a multi-dimensional array of a primitive type as fast as possible? I am stuck with using multi-dimensional arrays. My problem is performance. The following routine initializes a 100x100 array in approx. 500 ticks. Removing the int.MaxValue initialization results in approx. 180 ticks just for the looping. Approximately 100 ticks to create the array without looping and without initializing to int.MaxValue. Routines similiar to this are called a few tens-of-thousands to several million times. I am open to suggestions on how to optimize this non-default initialization of an array. One idea I had is to use a smaller primitive type when available. For instance, using byte instead of int, saves 100 ticks. I would be happy with this, but I am hoping that I don't have to change the primitive data type. public int[,] CreateArray(Size size) { int[,] array = new int[size.Width, size.Height]; for (int x = 0; x < size.Width; x++) { for (int y = 0; y < size.Height; y++) { array[x, y] = int.MaxValue; } } return array; }

  Read the article

• Migrating MOSS 2007 from SQL 2000 to SQL 2005 - Addendum

  - by lunacrescens

  This is a continuation of an earlier question I had about moving the databases for a MOSS 2007 installation from SQL 2000 to SQL 2005. Here's the URL for the original question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/254517/migrating-moss-2007-from-sql-2000-to-sql-2005 In my test environment, I've successfully moved the databases to the SQL 2005 test machine and things appear to be working fine. But, on the "Servers in Farm" page of the Central Admin | Operations, it still shows the old (i.e. SQL 2000) server as the Configuration Database Server. Also, it shows the old config database as being the Configuration Database. I know that the SQL2000 server and old config database (that are showing on this page) are NOT being used, because we've deactived the SQL instance in SQL2000. I've tried "removing" the server, and get a message about "Uninstalling SharePoint products and technologies" being the better route. So, I disconnected from the test databases, uninstalled SharePoint from the test WFE server, and reinstalled it. That didn't do anything. Before uninstalling/reinstalling I also tried simply rerunning the SharePoint Configuration wizard, and that didn't do anything either. Does anyone know how to update the Config Server and Config Database on the "Servers in Farm" page after having moved the Config and Content DBs? Is there something I'm missing or overlooking? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Change select's class based on selected option's class

  - by Alasdair

  I have a page that contains numerous <select> elements. What I'm trying to achieve is to ensure that if a <select>'s selected <option> has a class called italic, then the <select> then has the italic class added (i.e. jQuery.addClass('italic')). If it doesn't, then the italic class is removed from the <select> to ensure other <option> elements are displayed correctly (i.e. jQuery.removeClass('italic')). What I'm noticing with most of my attempts is that either all the <select> have the italic class or that the italic class isn't being removed accordingly. Since I'm unsure my choice in selectors and callback logic are particularly sound or good practice in this instance (as I've been frustratingly trying to make it work) I've decided not to include the code I used in previous attempts. Instead, refer to this small HTML & CSS example: .italic { font-style: italic; } <select id="foo" name="foo" size="1" <option value="NA" selected="selected" - Select - </option <option value="1"Bar</option <option value="2"Fu</option <option value="3"Baz</option </select Also, I am aware that not all browsers support CSS styling of <select> and <option>. The related J2EE web application will only ever be accessed via Firefox under a controlled environment.

  Read the article

• Assign a unique client ID to each <rich:dataTable /> row?

  - by Dolph Mathews

  I'm relatively new to working with the UI in Seam, so I'm hoping there is something simple I can replace the three instances of UNIQUE_ID with in the following example (such as #{object.uniqueId}). The goal is to have a <rich:dataTable /> wherein each row has the ability to show/hide a <rich:modalPanel /> with more details about the particular object instance. <rich:dataTable var="object" value="#{bean.myObject}"> <rich:column> <h:outputText value="#{object.summary}" /> </rich:column> <rich:column> <a onclick="Richfaces.showModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Show Details in ModalPanel</a> <a4j:form> <rich:modalPanel id="UNIQUE_ID" > <a onclick="Richfaces.hideModalPanel('UNIQUE_ID');" href="#">Hide This ModalPanel</a> <h:outputText value="#{object.details}" /> </rich:modalPanel> </a4j:form> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> If I only had one link/modalPanel pair, this would obviously be trivial, but I don't know what to do within the scope of the <rich:dataTable />'s iteration. Also, in case it complicates things further, the page will also contain many <rich:dataTable />'s, each implementing this behavior.

  Read the article

• Updating multiple divs w/ RJS/AJAX

  - by bgadoci

  I am successfully using RJS to implement AJAX on a page.replace.html create.js.rjs. I am attempting to update two locations instead of one and after watching Ryan Bates Railscast I am very close (I think) but have a problem in the syntax of my /views/likes/create.js.rjs file. Here is the situation: located at /views/likes/create.js.rjs is the following code: page.replace_html "votes_#{ @site.id }", :partial => @like page.replace_html "counter", 10 - (@question.likes.count :conditions => {:user_id => current_user.id}) page[@like].visual_effect :highlight My problem lies in the second line. The div "counter" displays the following code in the /views/question/show.html.erb page: <div id="counter"> You have <%= 10 - (@question.likes.count :conditions => {:user_id => current_user.id}) %> votes remaining for this question </div> From watching the screen cast I believe that my error has to do w/ the syntax of the second line. Specifically he mentions that you cannot use a local instance variable but not sure how to make the change. Thoughts?

  Read the article

• Understanding an interesting array update/replace function

  - by dave

  I'm a PHP amateur. This array function is an adaption of a function I noticed while reading this article. I thought this was an interesting type of array function, but I have a question about the way it works. my_func( array( 'sky' => 'blue' ) ); function my_func( array $settings = array() ) { $settings = $settings + array( 'grass'=>'green','sky'=>'dark' ); print_r( $settings ) ; // outputs: Array ( [sky] => blue [grass] => green ) } but..................... my_func( array( 'sky' => 'blue' ) ); function my_func( array $settings = array() ) { $settings = array( 'clock'=>'time' ) ; $settings = $settings + array( 'grass'=>'green','sky'=>'dark' ); print_r( $settings ) ; // outputs: Array ( [clock] => time [grass] => green [sky] => dark ) } Why does [sky] not equal 'blue' in the second instance? Thanks.

  Read the article

• how to push a string address to stack with assembly, machine code

  - by Yigit

  Hi all, I am changing minesweeper.exe in order to have an understanding of how code injection works. Simply, I want the minesweeper to show a message box before starting. So, I find a "cave" in the executable and then define the string to show in messagebox and call the messagebox. Additionally of course, I have to change the value at module entry point of the executable and first direct it to my additional code, then continue its own code. So at the cave what I do; "hello starbuck",0 push 0 //arg4 of MessageBoxW function push the address of my string //arg3, must be title push the address of my string //arg2, must be the message push 0 //arg1 call MessageBoxW ... Now since the memory addresses of codes in the executable change everytime it is loaded in the memory, for calling the MessageBoxW function, I give the offset of the address where MessageBoxW is defined in Import Address Table. For instance, if MessageBoxW is defined at address1 in the IAT and the instruction just after call MessageBoxW is at address2 instead of writing call MessageBoxW, I write call address2 - address1. So my question is, how do I do it for pushing the string's address to the stack? For example, if I do these changes via ollydbg, I give the immediate address of "hello starbuck" for pushing and it works. But after reloading the executable or starting it outside of ollydbg, it naturally fails, since the immediate addresses change. Thanks in advance, Yigit.

  Read the article

• Why use bin2hex when inserting binary data from PHP into MySQL?

  - by Atli

  I heard a rumor that when inserting binary data (files and such) into MySQL, you should use the bin2hex() function and send it as a HEX-coded value, rather than just use mysql_real_escape_string on the binary string and use that. // That you should do $hex = bin2hex($raw_bin); $sql = "INSERT INTO `table`(`file`) VALUES (X'{$hex}')"; // Rather than $bin = mysql_real_escape_string($raw_bin); $sql = "INSERT INTO `table`(`file`) VALUES ('{$bin}')"; It is supposedly for performance reasons. Something to do with how MySQL handles large strings vs. how it handles HEX-coded values However, I am having a hard time confirming this. All my tests indicate the exact oposite; that the bin2hex method is ~85% slower and uses ~24% more memory. (I am testing this on PHP 5.3, MySQL 5.1, Win7 x64 - Using a farily simple insert loop.) For instance, this graph shows the private memory usage of the mysqld process while the test code was running: Does anybody have any explainations or reasources that would clarify this? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Where is the error in this code.

  - by basit74

  Hello, Here is my code snippt. But the code is breaking after inner for loop. But getting no error message. Any idea? Thanks. var lastnames = document.getElementsByClassName('box_nachname'); var firstnames = document.getElementsByClassName('box_vorname'); var teilnehmer = document.getElementsByClassName('select'); observers = []; // iterate over nachname array. for (var i = 0; i < lastnames.length; i++) { // Create an observer instance. observers[i] = new Observer(); // Subscribe oberser object. for(idx in teilnehmer) { if(teilnehmer[idx].id.split("_")[0].toLowerCase() !== "zl") { var anynum = function(element) { observers[i].subscribe(element, updateTeilnehmerSelectbox); }(teilnehmer[idx]); } } //on blur the Observer fire the updated info to all the subscribers. var anynumNachname = function(j, element, value, observer) { cic.addEvent(lastnames[j], 'blur', observer.fire(element, value)); } (i, lastnames[i], lastnames[i].value, observers[i]); cic.addEvent(firstnames[i], 'blur', function(element, value, observer) {observer.fire(element, value)}(lastnames[i], lastnames[i].value, observers[i])); }

  Read the article

• Email Collector / Implementation

  - by Tian

  I am implementing a simple RoR webpage that collect emails from visitors and store them as objects. I'm using it as a mini-project to try RoR and BDD. I can think of 3 features for Cucumber: 1. User submits a valid email address 2. User submits an existing email address 3. User submits an invalid email My question is, for scenarios 2 and 3, is it better to handle this via the controller? or as methods in a class? Perhaps something that throws errors if an instance is instantiated in sceanrio 2 or 3? Implementation is below, love to hear some code reviews in addition to answers to questions above. Thanks! MODEL: class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessor :email end VIEW: <h1>Welcome To My Experiment</h1> <p>Find me in app/views/welcome/index.html.erb</p> <%= flash[:notice] %> <% form_for @contact, :url => {:action => "index"} do |f| %> <%= f.label :email %><br /> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= submit_tag 'Submit' %> <% end %> CONTROLLER: class WelcomeController < ApplicationController def index @contact = Contact.new unless params[:contact].nil? @contact = Contact.create!(params[:contact]) flash[:notice] = "Thank you for your interest, please check your mailbox for confirmation" end end end

  Read the article

• Can a standalone ruby script (windows and mac) reload and restart itself?

  - by user30997

  I have a master-workers architecture where the number of workers is growing on a weekly basis. I can no longer be expected to ssh or remote console into each machine to kill the worker, do a source control sync, and restart. I would like to be able to have the master place a message out on the network that tells each machine to sync and restart. That's where I hit a roadblock. If I were using any sane platform, I could just do: exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and be done. However, I did the following test: p Process.pid sleep 1 exec('ruby', __FILE__) ...and on Windows, I get one ruby instance for each call to exec. None of them die until I hit ^C on the window in question. On every platform I tried this on, it is executing the new version of the file each time, which I have verified this by making simple edits to the test script while the test marched along. The reason I'm printing the pid is to double-check the behavior I'm seeing. On windows, I am getting a different pid with each execution - which I would expect, considering that I am seeing a new process in the task manager for each run. The mac is behaving correctly: the pid is the same for every system call and I have verified with dtrace that each run is trigging a call to the execve syscall. So, in short, is there a way to get a windows ruby script to restart its execution so it will be running any code - including itself - that has changed during its execution? Please note that this is not a rails application, though it does use activerecord.

  Read the article

• WPF XAML references not resolved via myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()

  - by WPF-it

  I have a WPF container application (with ContentControl host) and a containee application (UserControl). Both are oblivious of each other. Only one XML config file holds the string dllpath of the containee's DLL and full namespace name of the ViewModelClass inside the containee. A generic code in container resolves containee's assembly (Assembly.LoadFrom(dllpath)) and creates the viewmodel's instance using Activator.CreateInstance(vmType). when this viewmodel is hosted inside the ContentControl of the container, and relevant vierwmodel specific ResourceDictionary is added to ContentControl.Resources.MergedDictionaries of the content control of container, so the view loads fine. Now my containee has to host the WPF DataGrid using assembly reference of WPFToolkit.dll from my local C:\Lib folder. The Copy Local reference to the WPFToolkit.dll is added to the .csproj file of the containee's project and its only referred in the UserControl.XAML using its XAML namepsace. This way my bin\debug folder in my containee application, gets the WPFToolkit.dll copied. XAML: xmlns:Controls="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Windows.Controls;assembly=WPFToolkit" <Controls:DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding AssetList}" ... /> Issue: The moment the ViewModel (i.e. the containee's usercontrol) tries to load itself I get this error. "Cannot find type 'Microsoft.Windows.Controls.DataGrid'. The assembly used when compiling might be different than that used when loading and the type is missing." Hence I tried to load the referenced assemblies of the containee's assembly (myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()) before the viewmodel is hosted. But WPFToolkit isnt there in that list of assemblies! Strange thing is I have another dll referred called Logger.dll in the containee codebase but this one is implemented using C# code behind. So I get its reference correctly resolved in myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(). So does that mean BAML references of assemblies are never resolvable by GetReferencedAssemblies?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443  | Next Page >