Search Results

Search found 14131 results on 566 pages for 'note'.

Page 439/566 | < Previous Page | 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446  | Next Page >

• tomcat wont start up on linux machine

  - by David

  hi, im new to linux but after spending the day i have got linux running. installed java and tomcat. my goal is host my app with this linux box i've just set up. i know it all works fine from my windows based machine but it is my laptop so i'm planning this as my dedicated server. following many many forums i've now got tomcat 7 installed. however i cannot get it to start. changing to the tomcat directory and "./startup.sh" i get output Using CATALINA_BASE: /usr/local/tomcat Using CATALINA_HOME: /usr/local.tomcat Using CATALINA_TMPDIR: /usr/local/tomcat/temp Using JRE_HOME: usr/lib/jvm/java-6-sun/ Using CLASSPATH: /usr/local/tomcat/bin/bootstrap.jar:/usr/local.tomcat/bin/c\tomcat-juli.jar thats the end of theoutput. however localhost:8080 is not up. and in the tomcat log file is the error "eval: 1: usr/lib/jvm/java-6-sun//bin/java: not found" hopfully there is some expert here who can help me with this problem. please note that im a novice when it comes to linux. thankyou oh and my version of linux is Ubuntu 10.04 LTS - the Lucid Lynx

  Read the article

• How to use ID selector after jQuery html()

  - by user555617

  It's amazing to try to understand why the function alert("hello") is not generated after clicking more than once... There is some method to do this function is executed? Note that doesn't work after update using html() involving id "press" in button. Any idea? See: http://jsbin.com/atuqu3 JavaScript: $(document).ready(function (){ $("#press").click(function() { $("#relation-states").html('<select id="state" name="state"> <option value="Texas">Texas</option> </select><button id="press" type="button" title="" aria-haspopup="true" style="width: 175px;"><span>Select an item</span></button>');; alert("hello"); }); }); HTML: <div id="relation-states"> <select id="state" name="state"> <option value="New York">New York</option> </select> <button id="press" type="button" title="" aria-haspopup="true" style="width: 175px;"><span>Select an item</span></button> </div>

  Read the article

• how to programatically compare permissions of login/user in sql server 2005

  - by titanium

  There's a login/user in SQL Server who is having a problem importing accounts in production server. I don't have an idea what method he is doing this. According to the one importing, this import is working fine in development server. But when he did the same import in production it is giving him errors. Below are the errors he is getting for each accounts. 2009-06-05 18:01:05.8254 ERROR [engine-1038] Task [1038:00001 - Members]: Step 1.0 [<Insert step description>]: Task.RunStep(): StoreRow has failed 2009-06-05 18:01:05.9035 ERROR [engine-1038] Task [1038:00001 - Members]: Step 1.0 [<Insert step description>]: Task.RunStep(): StoreRow exception: Exception caught while storing Data. [Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]'ACCOUNT1' is not a valid login or you do not have permission. Please note that 'ACCOUNT1' is not the real account name. I just changed it for security reason. Using SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS), I viewed/checked the permissions of the user/login who is performing the import from development server and production for comparison. I found no difference. My question is: Is there a way to programmatically query permissions in server and database level of a particular login/user so I can compare/contrast for any differences?

  Read the article

• Pointers and Addresses in C

  - by Mohit

  #include "stdio.h" main() { int i=3,*x; float j=1.5,*y; char k='c',*z; x=&i; y=&j; z=&k; printf("\nAddress of x= %u",x); printf("\nAddress of y= %u",y); printf("\nAddress of z= %u",z); x++; y++;y++;y++;y++; z++; printf("\nNew Address of x= %u",x); printf("\nNew Address of y= %u",y); printf("\nNew Address of z= %u",z); printf("\nNew Value of i= %d",i); printf("\nNew Value of j= %f",j); printf("\nNew Value of k= %c\n",k); } Output: Address of x= 3219901868 Address of y= 3219901860 Address of z= 3219901875 New Address of x= 3219901872 New Address of y= 3219901876 New Address of z= 3219901876 New Value of i= 3 New Value of j= 1.500000 New Value of k= c The new address of variable y and z are same. How can two variables have same address and et have different values? Note: I used gcc compiler on Ubuntu 9.04

  Read the article

• Generating ul from array with php fails

  - by Toni Michel Caubet

  Given a $files array I am trying to generate a list, like this: <ul class=""> <? for($i=0;$i < count($files); $i++) { $text = str_replace("http://domain.com/files/uploads/", "", $files[$i]); $file = $files[$i]; $notme = sesion()>0 && $obj['id'] != sesion(); ?> <li> <a target="_blank" href="<?=$file?>"><?=$text?></a> <? if($notme){ ?> <span class="add_to_files" data-file="<?=$file?>">Agregar al gestor</span> <? } ?> </li> <? } ?> </ul> This is the output: Please note how the span html is wrong, <ul class=""> <li> <a href="http://domain.com/files/uploads/388400967232883.jpg" target="_blank">388400967232883.jpg</a> <span target="_blank" href="http://domain.com/files/uploads/388400967232883.jpg" url"="" data-file="&lt;a class=" class="add_to_files">http://domain.com/files/uploads/388400967232883.jpg"&gt;Agregar al gestor</span> </li> </ul> Any idea why?

  Read the article

• How to Populate a 'Tree' structure 'Declaratively'

  - by mackenir

  I want to define a 'node' class/struct and then declare a tree of these nodes in code in such a way that the way the code is formatted reflects the tree structure, and there's not 'too much' boiler plate in the way. Note that this isn't a question about data structures, but rather about what features of C++ I could use to arrive at a similar style of declarative code to the example below. Possibly with C++0X this would be easier as it has more capabilities in the area of constructing objects and collections, but I'm using Visual Studio 2008. Example tree node type: struct node { string name; node* children; node(const char* name, node* children); node(const char* name); }; What I want to do: Declare a tree so its structure is reflected in the source code node root = node("foo", [ node("child1"), node("child2", [ node("grand_child1"), node("grand_child2"), node("grand_child3" ]), node("child3") ]); NB: what I don't want to do: Declare a whole bunch of temporary objects/colls and construct the tree 'backwards' node grandkids[] = node[3] { node("grand_child1"), node("grand_child2"), node("grand_child3" }; node kids[] = node[3] { node("child1"), node("child2", grandkids) node("child3") }; node root = node("foo", kids);

  Read the article

• Insert not working

  - by user1642318

  I've searched evreywhere and tried all suggestions but still no luck when running the following code. Note that some code is commented out. Thats just me trying different things. SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection("Data Source=URB900-PC\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=usersSQL;Integrated Security=True"); string password = PasswordTextBox.Text; string email = EmailTextBox.Text; string firstname = FirstNameTextBox.Text; string lastname = SurnameTextBox.Text; //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@UserName", username); //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Password", password); //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Email", email); //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@FirstName", firstname); //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@LastName", lastname); command.Parameters.Add("@UserName", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@UserName"].Value = username; command.Parameters.Add("@Password", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@Password"].Value = password; command.Parameters.Add("@Email", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@Email"].Value = email; command.Parameters.Add("@FirstName", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@FirstName"].Value = firstname; command.Parameters.Add("@LasttName", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@LasttName"].Value = lastname; SqlCommand command2 = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO users (UserName, Password, UserEmail, FirstName, LastName)" + "values (@UserName, @Password, @Email, @FirstName, @LastName)", connection); connection.Open(); command2.ExecuteNonQuery(); //command2.ExecuteScalar(); connection.Close(); When I run this, fill in the textboxes and hit the button I get...... Must declare the scalar variable "@UserName". Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

  - by user251660

  We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

  Read the article

• C++ member template for boost ptr_vector

  - by Ivan

  Hi there, I'm trying to write a container class using boost::ptr_vector. Inside the ptr_vector I would like to include different classes. I'm trying to achieve that using static templates, but so far I'm not able to do that. For example, the container class is class model { private: boost::ptr_vector<elem_type> elements; public: void insert_element(elem_type *a) { element_list.push_back(a); } }; and what I'm trying to achieve is be able to use different elem_type classes. The code below doesn't satisfy my requirements: template <typename T>class model { private: boost::ptr_vector<T> elements; public: void insert_element(T *a) { element_list.push_back(a); } }; because when I initialize the container class I can only use one class as template: model <elem_type_1> model_thing; model_thing.insert_element(new elem_type_1) but not elem_type_2: model_thing.insert_element(new elem_type_2)//error, of course It is possible to do something like using templates only on the member? class model { private: template <typename T> boost::ptr_vector<T> elements; public: void insert_element(T *a) { element_list.push_back(a); } }; //wrong So I can call the insert_element on the specific class that I want to insert? Note that I do not want to use virtual members. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Two Objects created with the same Address in Flex

  - by James

  Hi, I have an issue in flex which is causing a bit of a headache! I am adding objects to an ArrayCollection but in doing so, another ArrayCollection is also picking up these changes even though there is no binding occurring. I can see from the debug that the two ACs have the same address but for the life of me can't figure out why. I have two Array Collections: model.index.rows //The main array collection model.index.holdRows //The array collection that imitates the above This phantom data binding occurs only for the first iteration in the loop and for all others it will just write it the once. The reason this is proving troublesome is that it creates duplicate entries in my datagrid. public override function handleMessage(message:IMessage):void { super.handleMessage(message); if (message is IndexResponse) { var response:IndexResponse = message as IndexResponse; model.index.rows.removeAll(); model.index.indexIsEmpty = response.nullIndex; if (model.index.indexIsEmpty !== true) { //Update the index model from the response. Note: each property of the row object will be shown in the UI as a column in the grid response.index.forEach(function(entry:EntryData, i:int, a:Array):void { var row:Object = { fileID: entry.fileID, dadName: entry.dadName }; entry.tags.forEach(function(tag:Tag, i:int, a:Array):void { row[tag.name] = tag.value; }); model.index.rows.addItem(row); }); if(model.index.indexForNetworkView == true){ model.index.holdRows.source = model.index.holdRows.source.concat(model.index.rows.source); model.index.indexCounter++; model.index.indexForNetworkView = false; controller.indexController.showNetwork(model.index.indexCounter); } model.index.rows.refresh(); controller.networkController.show(); } } Has anyone else who has encountered something simillar propose a solution?

  Read the article

• How do I insert null fields with Perl's DBD::Pg?

  - by User1

  I have a Perl script inserting data into Postgres according to a pipe delimited text file. Sometimes, a field is null (as expected). However, Perl makes this field into an empty string and the Postgres insert statement fails. Here's a snippet of code: use DBI; #Connect to the database. $dbh=DBI-connect('dbi:Pg:dbname=mydb','mydb','mydb',{AutoCommit=1,RaiseError=1,PrintError=1}); #Prepare an insert. $sth=$dbh-prepare("INSERT INTO mytable (field0,field1) SELECT ?,?"); while (<){ #Remove the whitespace chomp; #Parse the fields. @field=split(/\|/,$_); print "$_\n"; #Do the insert. $sth-execute($field[0],$field[1]); } And if the input is: a|1 b| c|3 EDIT: Use this input instead. a|1|x b||x c|3|x It will fail at b|. DBD::Pg::st execute failed: ERROR: invalid input syntax for integer: "" I just want it to insert a null on field1 instead. Any ideas? EDIT: I simplified the input at the last minute. The old input actually made it work for some reason. So now I changed the input to something that will make the program fail. Also note that field1 is a nullable integer datatype.

  Read the article

• Comparison of Java and .NET technologies/frameworks

  - by Paul Sasik

  I work in a shop that is a mix of mostly Java and .NET technologists. When discussing new solutions and architectures we often encounter impedance in trying to compare the various technologies, frameworks, APIs etc. in use between the two camps. It seems that each camp knows little about the other and we end up comparing apples to oranges and forgetting about the bushels. While researching the topic I found this: Java -- .Net rough equivalents It's a nice list but it's not quite exhaustive and is missing the key .NET 3.0 technologies and a few other tidbits. To complete that list: what are the near/rough equivalents (or a combination of technologies) in Java to the following in .NET? WCF WPF Silverlight = JavaFx WF = jBMP (Java Business Process Management) Generics Lambda expressions = lambdaJ project or Closures Linq (not Linq-to-SQL) ...have i missed anything else? Note that I omitted technologies that are already covered in the linked article. I would also like to hear feedback on whether the linked article is accurate. Thanks. (Will CW if requested.)

  Read the article

• Rationale of C# iterators design (comparing to C++)

  - by macias

  I found similar topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56347/iterators-in-c-stl-vs-java-is-there-a-conceptual-difference Which basically deals with Java iterator (which is similar to C#) being unable to going backward. So here I would like to focus on limits -- in C++ iterator does not know its limit, you have by yourself compare the given iterator with the limit. In C# iterator knows more -- you can tell without comparing to any external reference, if the iterator is valid or not. I prefer C++ way, because once having iterator you can set any iterator as a limit. In other words if you would like to get only few elements instead of entire collection, you don't have to alter the iterator (in C++). For me it is more "pure" (clear). But of course MS knew this and C++ while designing C#. So what are the advantages of C# way? Which approach is more powerful (which leads to more elegant functions based on iterators). What do I miss? If you have thoughts on C# vs. C++ iterators design other than their limits (boundaries), please also answer. Note: (just in case) please, keep the discussion strictly technical. No C++/C# flamewar.

  Read the article

• Packages name conflicting with getters and setters?

  - by MrKishi

  Hello, folks. So, I've came across this compilation error a while ago.. As there's an easy fix and I didn't find anything relevant at the time, I eventually let it go. I just remembered it and I'm now wondering if this is really part of the language grammar (which I highly doubt) or if it's a compiler bug. I'm being purely curious about this -- it doesn't really affect development, but it would be nice to see if any of you have seen this already. package view { import flash.display.Sprite; public class Main extends Sprite { private var _view:Sprite = new Sprite(); public function Main() { this.test(); } private function test():void { trace(this.view.x, this.view.y); //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property x through a reference with static type view:Main. //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property y through a reference with static type view:Main. //Note that I got this due to the package name. //It runs just fine if I rename the package or getter. } public function get view():Sprite { return this._view; } } }

  Read the article

• Jquery autocomplete with Dynamic input box.?

  - by Kaps Hasija

  I have done so much R & D for Jquery Auto complete, I found some result but not as much i needed. I am giving you code which are currently i am using . <input type="text" value="|a" name="completeMe" id="Subject" />// This input box will created by Dynamic using forloop // My Jquery Code $(function () { $("#Subject").autocomplete({ source: '/Cataloging/Bib/GetSubject', minLength: 1, select: function (event, ui) { // Do something with "ui.item.Id" or "ui.item.Name" or any of the other properties you selected to return from the action } }); }); // My Action Method public ActionResult GetSubject(string term) { term = term.Substring(2, term.Length-2); return Json(db.BibContents.Where(city => city.Value.StartsWith(term)).Select(city => city.Value), JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); } // My code is running with static input but while creating Dynamic I need to use live event but i don't know how can i use Live Event with this code. NOTE: I am using static value of input "|a" after rendering on action i am removing that first two char to make proper search from database. Thanks

  Read the article

• CALayer Border is appearing above subview (Z-order related, I think)

  - by kurisukun

  I have searched but could not find the reason for this behavior. I have a UIButton whose image I am setting. Here is how the button should appear. Note that this is just a photoshop of the intended button design: Essentially, it is a square custom UIButton with a white border and a little surrounding shadow. In the upper right corner, there is a "X" mark, that will be added programmatically as a subview. Here is the screenshot of the button within the actual app. At this point, I have only added a shadow and the X mark as a subview: How, when I try to add the white border, here is what it looks like: It seems that the white border is appearing above the X mark sublayer. I don't know why. Here is the code that I am using: // selectedPhotoButton is the UIButton with UIImage set earlier // At this point, I am adding in the shadow [selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowColor:[[UIColor lightGrayColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOffset: CGSizeMake(1.0f, 1.0f)]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowRadius:0.5f]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setShadowOpacity:1.0f]; // Now add the white border [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] CGColor]]; [[selectedPhotoButton layer] setBorderWidth:2.0]; // Now add the X mark subview UIImage *deleteImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"nocheck_photo.png"]; UIImageView *deleteMark = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(53, -5, 27, 27)]; deleteMark.contentMode = UIViewContentModeScaleAspectFit; [deleteMark setImage:deleteImage]; [selectedPhotoButton addSubview:deleteMark]; [deleteMark release]; I don't understand why the border is appearing above the deleteMark subview. Is there any way to get the intended effect? Thank you!

  Read the article

• How to post only a specific ASCX partial instead of the whole page

  - by Hallaghan

  I've got an ASPX page rendering a search ascx page which in turn will fill a grid on the main ASPX page. Aside that, I've also got an ascx page which uploads files, like this: <form method="post" action="<%= Url.Action("UploadFile") %>" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <fieldset> <input type="file" name="file" id="file" /> <%=Html.ButtonSubmit("Upload") %> </fieldset></form> Here's the problem: imagine I have searched for a single entry to be displayed on the grid. The grid displays this single entry and after wards, I upload a file and press the button "Upload". The whole page gets posted and the content in the grid is lost, now displaying all the results available. What could I do to prevent this from happening, maintaining the grid state (we're not using ViewState) or otherwise not posting back the whole page but only the ascx with the file upload? Note: I'm new to MVC.

  Read the article

• Performing measures within the execution of a c++ code every t milliseconds

  - by user506901

  Given a while loop and the function ordering as follows: int k=0; int total=100; while(k<total){ doSomething(); if(approx. t milliseconds elapsed) { measure(); } ++k; } I want to perform 'measure' every t-th milliseconds. However, since 'doSomething' can be close to the t-th millisecond from the last execution, it is acceptable to perform the measure after approximately t milliseconds elapsed from the last measure. My question is: how could this be achieved? One solution would be to set timer to zero, and measure it after every 'doSomething'. When it is withing the acceptable range, I perform measures, and reset. However, I'm not which c++ function I should use for such a task. As I can see, there are certain functions, but the debate on which one is the most appropriate is outside of my understanding. Note that some of the functions actually take into account the time taken by some other processes, but I want my timer to only measure the time of the execution of my c++ code (I hope that is clear). Another thing is the resolution of the measurements, as pointed out below. Suppose the medium option of those suggested.

  Read the article

• Open Maps app from Code : Where to find the "Current Location"?

  - by Simon

  I am opening Maps app to show directions from user's Current Location to a destination coordinate, from my code. I am using the following code to open the Maps app. I am calling this code when a button is pressed. - (void)showDirectionsToHere { CLLocationCoordinate2D currentLocation = [self getCurrentLocation]; // LINE 1 NSString* url = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"http://maps.google.com/maps?saddr=%f,%f&daddr=%f,%f", destCoordinate.latitude + 0.1, destCoordinate.longitude, destCoordinate.latitude, destCoordinate.longitude];//8.3, 12.1 [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:url]]; } Here [self getCurrentLocation] in LINE 1 uses CLLocationManager to determine the Current Location and returns the value. Note: I have not yet implemented the LINE1. I've just planned to do in that way. My question is, Is this a good practice to calculate the Current Location, at the time the Maps app is called? [self getCurrentLocation] will retrun the Current Location before openURL gets called? I have to determine the Current Location well before opening the Maps app? I am little bit confused about these things. Kindly guide me. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Disabling browser print options (headers, footers, margins) from page?

  - by Anthony

  I have seen this question asked in a couple of different ways on SO and several other websites, but most of them are either too specific or out-of-date. I'm hoping someone can provide a definitive answer here without pandering to speculation. Is there a way, either with CSS or javascript, to change the default printer settings when someone prints within their browser? And of course by "prints from their browser" I mean some form of HTML, not PDF or some other plug-in reliant mime-type. Please note: If some browsers offer this and others don't (or if you only know how to do it for some browsers) I welcome browser-specific solutions. Similarly, if you know of a mainstream browser that has specific restrictions against EVER doing this, that is also helpful, but some fairly up-to-date documentation would be appreciated. (simply saying "that goes against XYZ's security policy" isn't very convincing when XYZ has made significant changes in said policy in the last three years). Finally, when I say "change default print settings" I don't mean forever, just for my page, and I am referring specifically to print margins, headers, and footers. I am very aware that CSS offers the option of changing the page orientation as well as the page margins. One of the many struggles is with Firefox. If I set the page margins to 1 inch, it ADDS this to the half inch it already puts into place. I very much want to reduce the usage of PDFs on my client's site, but the infringement on presentation (as well as the lack of reliability) are their main concern.

  Read the article

• How to efficiently implement a strategy pattern with spring ?

  - by Anth0

  I have a web application developped in J2EE 1.5 with Spring framework. Application contains "dashboards" which are simple pages where a bunch of information are regrouped and where user can modify some status. Managers want me to add a logging system in database for three of theses dashboards. Each dashboard has different information but the log should be traced by date and user's login. What I'd like to do is to implement the Strategy pattern kind of like this : interface DashboardLog { void createLog(String login, Date now); } // Implementation for one dashboard class PrintDashboardLog implements DashboardLog { Integer docId; String status; void createLog(String login, Date now){ // Some code } } class DashboardsManager { DashboardLog logger; String login; Date now; void createLog(){ logger.log(login,now); } } class UpdateDocAction{ DashboardsManager dbManager; void updateSomeField(){ // Some action // Now it's time to log dbManagers.setLogger = new PrintDashboardLog(docId, status); dbManagers.createLog(); } } Is it "correct" (good practice, performance, ...) to do it this way ? Is there a better way ? Note :I did not write basic stuff like constructors and getter/setter.

  Read the article

• Application Code Redesign to reduce no. of Database Hits from Performance Perspective

  - by Rachel

  Scenario I want to parse a large CSV file and inserts data into the database, csv file has approximately 100K rows of data. Currently I am using fgetcsv to parse through the file row by row and insert data into Database and so right now I am hitting database for each line of data present in csv file so currently database hit count is 100K which is not good from performance point of view. Current Code: public function initiateInserts() { //Open Large CSV File(min 100K rows) for parsing. $this->fin = fopen($file,'r') or die('Cannot open file'); //Parsing Large CSV file to get data and initiate insertion into schema. while (($data=fgetcsv($this->fin,5000,";"))!==FALSE) { $query = "INSERT INTO dt_table (id, code, connectid, connectcode) VALUES (:id, :code, :connectid, :connectcode)"; $stmt = $this->prepare($query); // Then, for each line : bind the parameters $stmt->bindValue(':id', $data[0], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':code', $data[1], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectid', $data[2], PDO::PARAM_INT); $stmt->bindValue(':connectcode', $data[3], PDO::PARAM_INT); // Execute the statement $stmt->execute(); $this->checkForErrors($stmt); } } I am looking for a way wherein instead of hitting Database for every row of data, I can prepare the query and than hit it once and populate Database with the inserts. Any Suggestions !!! Note: This is the exact sample code that I am using but CSV file has more no. of field and not only id, code, connectid and connectcode but I wanted to make sure that I am able to explain the logic and so have used this sample code here. Thanks !!!

  Read the article

• NHibernate + Cannot insert the value NULL into...

  - by mybrokengnome

  I've got a MS-SQL database with a table created with this code CREATE TABLE [dbo].[portfoliomanager]( [idPortfolioManager] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY, [name] [varchar](45) NULL ) so that idPortfolioManager is my primary key and also auto-incrementing. Now on my Windows WPF application I'm using NHibernate to help with adding/updating/removing/etc. data from the database. Here is the class that should be connecting to the portfoliomanager table namespace PortfolioManager { [Class(Table="portfoliomanager",NameType=typeof(PortfolioManagerClass))] public class PortfolioManagerClass { [Id(Name = "idPortfolioManager")] [Generator(1, Class = "identity")] public virtual int idPortfolioManager { get; set; } [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Property(Name = "name")] public virtual string name { get; set; } public PortfolioManagerClass() { } } } and some short code to try and insert something PortfolioManagerClass portfolio = new PortfolioManagerClass(); Portfolio.name = "Brad's Portfolios"; The problem is, when I try running this, I get this error: {System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'idPortfolioManager', table 'PortfolioManagementSystem.dbo.portfoliomanager'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated... with an outer exception of {"could not insert: [PortfolioManager.PortfolioManagerClass][SQL: INSERT INTO portfoliomanager (name) VALUES (?); select SCOPE_IDENTITY()]"} I'm hoping this is the last error I'll have to solve with NHibernate just to get it to do something, it's been a long process. Just as a note, I've also tried setting Class="native" and unsaved-value="0" with the same error. Thanks! Edit: Ok removing the 1, from Generator actually allows the program to run (not sure why that was even in the samples I was looking at) but it actually doesn't get added to the database. I logged in to the server and ran the sql server profiler tool and I never see the connection coming through or the SQL its trying to run, but NHibernate isn't throwing an error anymore. Starting to think it would be easier to just write SQL statements myself :(

  Read the article

• Populating PDF Fields using FDFACX

  - by NWilliams

  I was recently asked to preform some updates to an existing PDF document. The changes required were completed using Adobe Designer (the only tool I have available to me). These changes included alignment, and new text. Note that there were fillable form fields on the forms, and they were left untouched. The saved version of the form was then put into our ASP.NET application, which pre-populates the form fields were applicable (things like name, address etc... things we have in our database). For some reason, the new form does not populate. I've confirmed that the form fields have the correct names, that the actual file (the pdf) that is being pre-populated has the same permissions as others that are working. There are no errors thrown, and no difference in a step through with a working form and a non-working form. This is a legacy project and I have no real experience with the PDF populator they are using ... FDFACX .NET? And can't find a lot of info on it online. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Why does my simple event handling example not work?

  - by njreed

  I am trying to make a simple event handler. (Note, I'm not trying to implement a full-blown publish/subscribe model; I'm just interested in why my example doesn't work as I think it should) var myObj = (function () { var private = "X"; function triggerEvent(eventName) { if (this[eventName]) { this[eventName](); } } // Setter / Getter function getProp() { return private; } function setProp(value) { private = value; triggerEvent("onPropChange"); } // Public API return { // Events "onPropChange": null, // Fires when prop value is changed // Methods "getProp": getProp, "setProp": setProp }; })(); // Now set event handler myObj.onPropChange = function () { alert("You changed the property!"); }; myObj.setProp("Z"); // --> Nothing happens. Wrong // Why doesn't my alert show? I set the onPropChange property of my object to a simpler handler function but it is not being fired. I have debugged this and it seems that in triggerEvent the variable this is referencing the global window object. I thought it should reference myObj (which is what I need). Can someone explain the error in my thinking and how I correct this? Help much appreciated. jsFiddle here

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446  | Next Page >