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  • Check mail attachment

    - by comii
    Hi! I am using vb.net to display email from outlook express! Everything work fine but when some message has attachment, i can not display message that email has attachment! This is my code: Private Sub LoginButton_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles LoginButton.Click Dim oItem Dim i As Integer Dim Message As MAPI.Message Dim items As String() = New String(6) {} ' Items are the sender name,subject and date and read/unread value Dim PrSenderEmail, PrBodyEmail Session = CreateObject("MAPI.Session") ' we use a session object of MAPI Component Session.Logon(ProfileName:=Me.UserId.Text, ProfilePassword:=Me.Password.Text) Session.MAPIOBJECT = Session.MAPIOBJECT ' Folder = CObj(Session.Inbox) ' choose the folder Application = CreateObject("Outlook.Application") Namespace1 = Application.GetNamespace("MAPI") Namespace1.Logon() ' for getting the sender name and avoid security validation of Outlook/Exchange server 2003 ' we are using the "Redemption" component sItem = CreateObject("Redemption.SafeMailItem") Cursor.Current = Cursors.WaitCursor ' show we're busy doing the sort ListInbox.BeginUpdate() ' Notify that update begins ListInbox.Items.Clear() i = 0 ' first email message is 0 For Each Message In Folder.Messages Try i = i + 1 ' increment to the next email message 'get e-mail from the Inbox, can be any other item oItem = Application.Session.GetDefaultFolder(6).Items(i) ' GetDefaultFolder(6) refers to Inbox sItem.Item = oItem 'sItem is an object of Redemption COM and is used to get the senders name items(0) = sItem.SenderName() Catch items(0) = "error" End Try Dim objApp As Outlook.Application = New Outlook.Application 'Get Mapi NameSpace Dim objNS As Outlook.NameSpace = objApp.GetNamespace("MAPI") Dim oMsg As Outlook.MailItem Dim pp As String Dim b As Integer Dim objAttachment As Outlook.Attachment pp = Message.StoreID items(1) = Message.Subject items(2) = Message.TimeReceived items(4) = Message.Subject items(5) = Message.Size Dim objInbox As Outlook.MAPIFolder = objNS.GetDefaultFolder(Outlook.OlDefaultFolders.olFolderInbox) Dim objItems As Outlook.Items = objInbox.Items items(5) = Message.Size.ToString / 1000 & "kb" If Message.Unread = True Then items(3) = "unread" Else items(3) = "read" End If ListInbox.Items.Add(New ListViewItem(items)) Next ListInbox.EndUpdate() ' Notify that update ends Cursor.Current = Cursors.Default End If End Sub How I can display message that email has attachment?

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  • does actionscript addChild require a display object first

    - by touB
    I'm trying to move away from mxml to actionsctipt. I have a <s:Rect> that I've created and set its properties, but having trouble adding it. var aRect:Rect = new Rect(); //set properties like aRect.x, aRect.y, aRect.width, aRect.height //tried adding it various ways addChild(aRect); Application.addChild(aRect); Application.application.addChild(aRect); stage.addChild(aRect); But I keep getting the error 1067: Implicit coercion of a value of type spark.primitives:Rect to an unrelated type flash.display:DisplayObject Originally in the mxml, it was right inside <s:Application> not nested inside anything <s:Application> <s:Rect id="aRect" x="10" y="10" width="15%" height="15%"> //then fill code here, removed for readability </s:Rect> </s:Application> What's the deal, I thought actionscript would be nicer than mxml.

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  • Problem with cruise control and visual svn

    - by Andrew
    Hi Wonder if anyone can help, I am experiencing a strange issue with my configuration of cruisecontrol.net and visual svn. I am setting the current ccnet.config <sourcecontrol type="svn"> <trunkUrl>https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk</trunkUrl> <executable>C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe</executable> <username>test</username> <password>test</password> <workingDirectory>D:\Development\Build\application\</workingDirectory> </sourcecontrol> <publishers> <xmllogger/> </publishers> <modificationDelaySeconds>10</modificationDelaySeconds> </project> When I run this I expect it to go to https://bladerunner.azullo.local:8443/svn/application/trunk, however i get the following ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.CruiseControlException: Source control operation failed: svn: OPTIONS of 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk': could not connect to server (http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080) . Process command: C:\Program Files (x86)\VisualSVN Server\bin\svn.exe update D:\Development\build\application\ --username test --password ** --no-auth-cache --non-interactive at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.ProcessSourceControl.Execute(ProcessInfo processInfo) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.Sourcecontrol.Svn.UpdateSource(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Build(IIntegrationResult result) at ThoughtWorks.CruiseControl.Core.IntegrationRunner.Integrate(IntegrationRequest request) So for some reason it goes to 'http://bladerunner.azullo.local:8080/svn/application/trunk' If I remove the username and password elements in the ccnet.config. It goes to the correct url. I dont understand this behaviour. I have configured visual svn with a certificate using Active directory Certificate Services, if this was the problem I would expect it to show an error regarding the certificate instead of changing the url. I have cleared our state etc Any Ideas

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  • Copy folders when copying list items from source to destination

    - by iHeartDucks
    Hi, This is my code to copy files in a list from source to destination. Using the code below I am only able to copy files but not folders. Any ideas on how can I copy the folders and the files within those folders? using (SPSite objSite = new SPSite(URL)) { using (SPWeb objWeb = objSite.OpenWeb()) { SPList objSourceList = null; SPList objDestinationList = null; try { objSourceList = objWeb.Lists["Source"]; } catch(Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine("Error opening source list"); Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } try { objDestinationList = objWeb.Lists["Destination"]; } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine("Error opening destination list"); Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } string ItemURL = string.Empty; if (objSourceList != null && objDestinationList != null) { foreach (SPListItem objSourceItem in objSourceList.Items) { ItemURL = string.Format(@"{0}/Destination/{1}", objDestinationList.ParentWeb.Url, objSourceItem.Name); objSourceItem.CopyTo(ItemURL); objSourceItem.UnlinkFromCopySource(); } } } } Thanks

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  • iPhone and Core Data: how to retain user-entered data between updates?

    - by Shaggy Frog
    Consider an iPhone application that is a catalogue of animals. The application should allow the user to add custom information for each animal -- let's say a rating (on a scale of 1 to 5), as well as some notes they can enter in about the animal. However, the user won't be able to modify the animal data itself. Assume that when the application gets updated, it should be easy for the (static) catalogue part to change, but we'd like the (dynamic) custom user information part to be retained between updates, so the user doesn't lose any of their custom information. We'd probably want to use Core Data to build this app. Let's also say that we have a previous process already in place to read in animal data to pre-populate the backing (SQLite) store that Core Data uses. We can embed this database file into the application bundle itself, since it doesn't get modified. When a user downloads an update to the application, the new version will include the latest (static) animal catalogue database, so we don't ever have to worry about it being out of date. But, now the tricky part: how do we store the (dynamic) user custom data in a sound manner? My first thought is that the (dynamic) database should be stored in the Documents directory for the app, so application updates don't clobber the existing data. Am I correct? My second thought is that since the (dynamic) user custom data database is not in the same store as the (static) animal catalogue, we can't naively make a relationship between the Rating and the Notes entities (in one database) and the Animal entity (in the other database). In this case, I would imagine one solution would be to have an "animalName" string property in the Rating/Notes entity, and match it up at runtime. Is this the best way to do it, or is there a way to "sync" two different databases in Core Data?

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  • Flex special characters not embedding

    - by Hanpan
    Hi, I am using the following code to embed Arial into my application: [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='regular', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Bold.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='bold', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_BOLD:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Italic.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='regular',fontStyle="italic", unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_ITALIC:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Bold Italic.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='bold',fontStyle="italic", unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_ITALIC_BOLD:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Unicode.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='regular', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_UNICODE:Class; It's working fine for foreign characters, but no special characters (copyright, trademark, euro sign etc) are working. Can anyone help? I've checked my unicode ranges, they should work fine!

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  • Factory Method Pattern clarification

    - by nettguy
    My understanding of Factory Method Pattern is (Correct me if i am wrong) Factory Method Pattern "Factory Method allow the client to delegates the product creation (Instance Creation) to the subclass". There are two situation in which we can go for creating Factory Method pattern. (i) When the client is restricted to the product (Instance) creation. (ii) There are multiple products available.But a decision to be made which product instance need to be returned. If you want to create Abstract Method pattern You need to have abstract product Concrete Product Factory Method to return the appropriate product. Example : public enum ORMChoice { L2SQL, EFM, LS, Sonic } //Abstract Product public interface IProduct { void ProductTaken(); } //Concrete Product public class LinqtoSql : IProduct { public void ProductTaken() { Console.WriteLine("OR Mapping Taken:LinqtoSql"); } } //concrete product public class Subsonic : IProduct { public void ProductTaken() { Console.WriteLine("OR Mapping Taken:Subsonic"); } } //concrete product public class EntityFramework : IProduct { public void ProductTaken() { Console.WriteLine("OR Mapping Taken:EntityFramework"); } } //concrete product public class LightSpeed : IProduct { public void ProductTaken() { Console.WriteLine("OR Mapping Taken :LightSpeed"); } } public class Creator { //Factory Method public IProduct ReturnORTool(ORMChoice choice) { switch (choice) { case ORMChoice.EFM:return new EntityFramework(); break; case ORMChoice.L2SQL:return new LinqtoSql(); break; case ORMChoice.LS:return new LightSpeed(); break; case ORMChoice.Sonic:return new Subsonic(); break; default: return null; } } } **Client** Button_Click() { Creator c = new Creator(); IProduct p = c.ReturnORTool(ORMChoice.L2SQL); p.ProductTaken(); } Is my understanding of Factory Method is correct?

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  • How to configure outgoing connections from an SQL stored procedure?

    - by Peter Vestberg
    I am working on a .NET project which uses Microsoft SQL server. In this project, I need a CLR stored procedure (written in C#) that uses a remote web service. So, when the stored procedure is executed on the SQL server, it makes web service calls and thus sends packets to a remote location. The problem is that when executing the SP I get: "System.Net.WebException: The request failed with HTTP status 403: Forbidden." The database user has full permission, the deployed CLR assembly and SP are even marked "unsafe", I tried signing it etc., so any of that is not causing the problem. When I am executing the very same C# code, but from a simple console application instead of as a SP, it all works fine. So I started to suspect a network related problem and had a packet sniffer running when executing both the SP and the console app version. What I realized was that the packets sent out had different destination IP addresses: the console app sent the packets directly to the web service IP while the SP sent the packets to a proxy server we use in our company. Due to network policies the latter is not allowed and that explains the "403 Forbidden" exception. So my question boils down to this: How can I configure the SP/MS SQL server to NOT use that proxy? I want it to send the packets directly to the web service IP, just like the test console app. (again, the C# code is the same , so it's not a programming matter). I've disabled all proxy settings in Internet Explorer in case the SQL server inherits these settings or something. However, no luck. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Best regards, Peter

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  • .net Globalization and ResourceManager

    - by Andrew Bullock
    I've got a console app and i need to globalize some of the hardcoded message strings. I've got two assemblies: MyProgram.Console (Console app) MyProgram.Core (class lib) In MyProgram.Core I've made a Language.en-GB.resx and set it as an Embedded Resource. In the resource I've created a key/value pair: "SomeKey" : "SomeValue" When I build my application I get: bin/MyProgram.Console.exe bin/MyProgram.Core.dll bin/en-BG/MyProgram.Core.resources.dll How do I address these resource key/values? Currently I'm trying this from a class within MyProgram.Core: var mgr = new ResourceManager(GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()); mgr.GetString("SomeKey", new Culture("en-GB")); But I keep getting: System.Resources.MissingManifestResourceException: Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture or the neutral culture. Make sure "MyProgram.Core.resources" was correctly embedded or linked into assembly "MyProgram.Core" at compile time, or that all the satellite assemblies required are loadable and fully signed. What am I doing wrong? I've tried every combination I can think of for the baseName argument to the ResourceManagers ctor. Thanks

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  • Error // Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] // when running 'rails server'

    - by madphill
    Background info: I'm using GIT to get a repository of a project with Ruby files in it. The project lives in my SITES folder under home directory on my Mac. I have Ruby: 1.8.7 I have just upgraded Rails to: 3.0.3 All I am trying to accomplish is to be able to render localhost.com:3000 in my browser of the GIT project i've already downloaded so I can work on it locally. I ran the command 'rails server' and was returned the message below:: Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/bin/ruby -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository Runtime options: -f, [--force] # Overwrite files that already exist -s, [--skip] # Skip files that already exist -p, [--pretend] # Run but do not make any changes -q, [--quiet] # Supress status output Rails options: -h, [--help] # Show this help message and quit -v, [--version] # Show Rails version number and quit Description: The 'rails new' command creates a new Rails application with a default directory structure and configuration at the path you specify. Example: rails new ~/Code/Ruby/weblog This generates a skeletal Rails installation in ~/Code/Ruby/weblog. See the README in the newly created application to get going.

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  • How do I lookup a JNDI Datasource from outside a web container?

    - by masotime
    I have the following environment set up: Java 1.5 Sun Application Server 8.2 Oracle 10 XE Struts 2 Hibernate I'm interested to know how I can write code for a Java client (i.e. outside of a web application) that can reference the JNDI datasource provided by the application server. The ports for the Sun Application Server are all at their defaults. There is a JNDI datasource named jdbc/xxxx in the server configuration, but I noticed that the Hibernate configuration for the web application uses the name java:comp/env/jdbc/xxxx instead. Most of the examples I've seen so far involve code like Context ctx = new InitialContext(); ctx.lookup("jdbc/xxxx"); But it seems I'm either using the wrong JNDI name, or I need to configure a jndi.properties or other configuration file to correctly point to a listener? I have appserv-rt.jar from the Sun Application Server which has a jndi.properties inside of it, but it does not seem to help. There's a similar question here, but it doesn't give any code / refers to having iBatis obtain the JNDI Datasource automatically: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/39053/accessing-datasource-from-outside-a-web-container-through-jndi

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  • How to deploy RSWebParts.cab manually?

    - by denni
    I'm using the SSRS 2005 Web parts to display my reports in a MOSS 2007 SP1 Portal. I have successfully installed the Web parts in my development, testing, and UAT servers using the following command: stsadm -o addwppack -filename path/to/RSWebParts.cab. But when I tried running the same command in the production server, it will give me the following error: This solution contains no resources scoped for a Web application and cannot be deployed to a particular Web application. I know I usually will get this kind of error message when I tried to deploy my custom solutions having no Web application resources (such as web.config entries) to a specific Web application. But this is not my custom solution, it is an out-of-the-box SSRS Web part and it does have resources scoped to a Web application. I tried to even use different combination of the command by providing the -url, -globalinstall, and -force switches but it still give the same error. The configuration of the 4 servers are exactly the same, both from software and hardware perspectives. All other features are working properly on the production server. I even tried to extract the cab file manually to the bin folder of my Web application, then modify the Web.config manually to include the SafeControl element (copied from the manifest.xml inside the cab file). But it gave me an error saying it couldn't find the resources file. Even though, I extracted the whole file, including the resource files in the bin folder. Is there anyone who can help me resolve the problem? Thanks a lot.

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  • PHP/Java Bridge - Access Java objects in PHP

    - by Omer Hassan
    I have a Red5 application which defines some public Java methods. When I start the server, an object of the application class gets created. I am trying to call the public methods of the application class from PHP using the existing instance of the Java application class. So here's my Java application: public class App extends org.red5.server.adapter.ApplicationAdapter { public boolean appStart(IScope app) { // This method gets called when the application starts // and an object of this App class is created. return true; } // This is the method I would like to call from PHP. public void f() { } } From PHP, I would like to get access to the App object that is created and call the method f() on it. I have tried playing around with this thing called "context". So in the Java method App.appStart(), I did this: // Save a reference to this App object to be retrieved later in PHP. new PhpScriptContextFactory().getContext().put("x", this); And in PHP, I tried to access the saved object like this: require_once("http://localhost:5080/JavaBridge/java/Java.inc"); var_dump(java_is_null(java_context()->get("x"))); Unfortunately, the java_is_null() function in PHP returns true. I also tried saving the App object in a static variable of App class but when I access that variable in PHP, its value is null.

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  • IIS 7.5 can't access file from managed code

    - by Bob
    I am working on a project that is click-once deployed from an IIS 7.5 web server. After installing the parent application (i.e. setting up the IIS site) I am able to hit the url for the click-once app's config file from a remote box. HOWEVER, when I attempt to do the same thing from my app (and the stub app below), I get a 401 Unauthorized. What is the difference between hitting the URL from IE, and from a .NET app? The file and directory itself have full control granted to everyone on the webserver at the moment, and I am an admin on the box. We are using Windows Authentication with NTLM only. Thanks, -Bob Here is the stub app that produces the 401 - Unauthorized when on the doc.Load() line. I can hit the same URL successfully from IE and open the file... static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("Config Test"); string filename = "http://dev-rs/myClient/myClickOnce/myApp.config.xml"; Console.WriteLine(filename); XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(filename); Console.WriteLine("Loaded"); Console.WriteLine("Inner Text : " + doc.InnerText); }

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  • JQuery Deferred - Adding to the Deferred contract

    - by MgSam
    I'm trying to add another asynchronous call to the contract of an existing Deferred before its state is set to success. Rather than try and explain this in English, see the following pseudo-code: $.when( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 1 done.') jqXhr.pipe( $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 2 done.'); }, }) ); }, }), $.ajax({ url: someUrl, data: data, async: true, success: function (data, textStatus, jqXhr) { console.log('Call 3 done.'); }, }) ).then(function(){ console.log('All done!'); }); Basically, Call 2 is dependent on the results of Call 1. I want Call 1 and Call 3 to be executed in parallel. Once all 3 calls are complete, I want the All Done code to execute. My understanding is that Deferred.pipe() is supposed to chain another asynchronous call to the given deferred, but in practice, I always get Call 2 completing after All Done. Does anyone know how to get jQuery's Deferred to do what I want? Hopefully the solution doesn't involve ripping the code apart into chunks any further. Thanks for any help.

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  • How to store a public key in a machine-level RSA key container

    - by Andrew Kimball
    I'm having a problem using a machine level RSA key container when storing only the public key of a public/private key pair. The following code creates a public/private pair and extracts the public key from that pair. The pair and the public key are stored in separate key containers. The keys are then obtained from those key containers at which point they should be the same as the keys going into the containers. The code works when CspProviderFlags.UseDefaultKeyContainer is specified for CspParameters.Flags (i.e. the key read back out from the PublicKey container is the same), but when CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore is specified for CspParameters.Flags the key read back from PublicKey is different. Why is the behaviour different, and what do I need to do differently to retrieve the public key from a machine-level RSA key container? var publicPrivateRsa = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(new CspParameters() { KeyContainerName = "PublicPrivateKey", Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore //Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseDefaultKeyContainer } ) { PersistKeyInCsp = true, }; var publicRsa = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(new CspParameters() { KeyContainerName = "PublicKey", Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore //Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseDefaultKeyContainer } ) { PersistKeyInCsp = true }; //Export the key. publicRsa.ImportParameters(publicPrivateRsa.ExportParameters(false)); Console.WriteLine(publicRsa.ToXmlString(false)); Console.WriteLine(publicPrivateRsa.ToXmlString(false)); //Dispose those two CSPs. using (publicRsa) { publicRsa.Clear(); } using (publicPrivateRsa) { publicRsa.Clear(); } publicPrivateRsa = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(new CspParameters() { KeyContainerName = "PublicPrivateKey", Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore //Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseDefaultKeyContainer } ); publicRsa = new RSACryptoServiceProvider(new CspParameters() { KeyContainerName = "PublicKey", Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseMachineKeyStore //Flags = CspProviderFlags.UseDefaultKeyContainer } ); Console.WriteLine(publicRsa.ToXmlString(false)); Console.WriteLine(publicPrivateRsa.ToXmlString(false)); using (publicRsa) { publicRsa.Clear(); } using (publicPrivateRsa) { publicRsa.Clear(); }

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  • Is "Server not found" error related to Activclient?

    - by Kent
    Users are getting sporadic "Server not found" errors after idling in the browser. We have a HTTPS web application (Apache/Tomcat) using NSS for authentication on the server. The error occurs when a user opens the application and later lets it sit idle/untouched for 15 minutes. When they try to access the application they can get a "Server not found" error. Users use CAC cards with ActivClient software and our web application uses the certificates for authentication and authorization. We have been able to recreate the problem but have been unable to diagnose it. In recreating the problem the server is getting a series of "Unable to find the certificate or key necessary for authentication" errors in the NSS log associated with the browser error. These erros don't occur until the user tries to access the idle application. When the application is idle for 15 minutes the PIN is not requested yet the PIN Cache timeout in ActivClient is set at 15 minutes. All our server side timeout parameters are set to hours not minutes. IE 6 is our browser and NSS is using TLS. We have tried modifying "SetEnvIf User-Agent ".MSIE." ssl-unclean-shutdown" with no improvement. I understand that the PIN cache timeout and SSL session don't have a 1:1 relationship but the timing is suspicious. Can't find anything in the windows error logs that indicates a problem (security logs are not accessible to us). Any suggestions as to how to identify the cause of the problem would be appreciated.

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  • Multiple table relationships in Zend Help

    - by Zogi
    Hi Guys I have been doing some DB mapping to link two tables to no avail. Everytime I run the code I get the following error: Message: File "Role.php" does not exist or class "Role" was not found in the file Stack trace: #0 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Db\Table\Row\Abstract.php(867): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->_getTableFromString('Role') #1 C:\wamp\www\uw\application\models\admin\User.php(56): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->findDependentRowset('Role') #2 C:\wamp\www\uw\application\controllers\AdminController.php(110): Application_Model_Admin_User->getUsers() #3 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): AdminController->usersAction() #4 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action->dispatch('usersAction') #5 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #6 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #7 C:\wamp\www\zend\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #8 C:\wamp\www\uwi\public\index.php(26): Zend_Application->run() #9 {main} Code & DB below: application/models/admin/User.php class Application_Model_Admin_User extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'user'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Role'); public function getUsers() { $rows = $this->fetchAll($this->select()->where('active = ?', 1)); $rows1 = $rows->current(); $rows2 = $rows1->findDependentRowset('Role'); return $rows2; } } application/models/admin/Role.php class Application_Model_Admin_Role extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'role'; protected $_referenceMap = array ( 'Role' => array( 'columns' => array('id'), 'refTableClass' => 'User', 'refColumns' => array('role_id') ); } DB tables CREATE TABLE role ( id integer auto_increment NOT NULL, name varchar(120), PRIMARY KEY(id) ); CREATE TABLE user ( id integer auto_increment NOT NULL, username varchar(120), PRIMARY KEY(id), FOREIGN KEY(role_id) REFERENCES role(id) );

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  • Compilation Error: "The modifier 'public' is not valid for this item" while creating public method o

    - by Lalit
    I am getting this error while creating public method on a class for explicitly implementing the interface. I have the workaround: by removing the explicit implementation of PrintName Method, But surprised why i am getting this error. Can anyone explain the error. Code for Library: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace Test.Lib1 { public class Customer : i1 { public string i1.PrintName() //Error Here... { return this.GetType().Name + " called from interface i1"; } } public interface i1 { string PrintName(); } interface i2 { string PrintName(); } } Code for Console Test Application: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using Test.Lib1; namespace ca1.Test { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Customer customer = new Customer(); Console.WriteLine(customer.PrintName()); //i1 i1o = new Customer(); //Console.WriteLine(i1o.printname()); //i2 i2o = new Customer(); //Console.WriteLine(i2o.printname()); } } }

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  • Where should you put 3rd party .NET dlls when using git submodules to avoid duplication

    - by Tim Abell
    I have two .NET library projects in Visual Studio 2008 that both make use of the MySql Connector for .NET (MySql.Data.dll). These libraries are then in turn both used by a .NET command line application which also uses the Connector. The library projects are pulled in to the application's solution as git submodules and referenced by project in Visual Studio. I'm looking for the most effective strategy for storing and referencing the MySql Connector library. I have tried having the MySql.Data.dll checked in to all three projects (in their root folder), this was problematic when one project changed to a newer version of the connector dll. Although each project had its own version of the dll, only one was packaged into the resultant application leading to an API mismatch which was hard to pin down. This has put me off this approach. I have tried having the command line application reference the connector dll that is held in a submodule, however this only removes the possibility of version mismatches when there is only one submodule rather than two as in this case. I am contemplating putting the dll in the global assembly cache (GAC) of all machines that need to build or use the application, but I'm wary of not having all dependencies for an application available in source control.

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  • python VTE Terminal weirdness

    - by mykhal
    i'm trying to use the terminal from python VTE binding (python-vte from debian squeeze) as a virtual terminal emulator (just for ANSI/control chars text processing) in interactive python console, everything looks (almost) all right: >>> import vte >>> term = vte.Terminal() >>> term.feed("a\nb") >>> print repr(term.get_text(lambda *a: True).rstrip()) 'a\n b' however, launching this code (little modified) as python script, different result is yielded: $ python vte_wiredness_1.py '' strangely enough, pasting the code back into the (new) interactive python session also yields empty string: >>> import vte >>> term = vte.Terminal() >>> term.feed("a\nb") >>> print repr(term.get_text(lambda *a: True).rstrip()) '' >>> first thing caming on my mind was that the only difference between the two cases is the timing - there had to be some delay before get_text. unfortunately, preluding get_text with some seconds sleep did not help then i thought it has something to do with X window environment. but the results are the same pure linux console (with some warning on missing graphics). i wonder what causes such an unpredictable behavior (interactive console - pasted vs typed, and it's not the delay.. ant the interactive console has nothing to do with the vte terminal object.. i guess) can someone explain what is happening? is it possible to use the VTE Term such way? that the "b" letter in the output is preceded by the space, is another strangeness (all consecutive lines are preceded by more spaces.. looks like I have to send carriage return before the string.) (the lambda *a: True get_text method argument i'm using is a dummy callback, it's is some SlotSelectedCallback.. for its explanation i'd be grateful as well :) )

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  • javascript pausing consistently. How do I find what is causing it to pause?

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a fairly ajax heavy site and I'm trying to tune the performance. I have a function that runs between 20 & 200 times, depending on the user. I'm outputting the time the function takes to execute via console.time in firefox. The function takes about 4-6ms to complete. The strange thing is that on my larger test with 200 or runs through that function, it runs through the first 31, then seems to pause for almost a second before completing the last 170 or so. However, that 'pause' doesn't show up in the console.time logs, and I'm not running any other functions, and the object that gets passed to the function looks the same as all other objects that get passed in. The function is called like this for (var s in thisGroup.events){ showEvent(thisGroup.events[s]) } so, I don't see how or why it would suddenly pause near the beginning. but only pause once and then continue through. The pause ALWAYS happens on the 31st time through the function. I've taken a close look at the 'thisGroup.events[s]' that it is being run through, and it looks like this for #31 "eventId":"5106", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"70","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"6:00 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"5", "durationTime":"5:00", "note":"", "desc":"event" The event immediately after the pause, #32 looks like this "eventId":"5111", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"71","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"6:00 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"5", "durationTime":"5:00", "note":"", "desc":"event" another event that runs through no problem looks like this "eventId":"5113", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"72","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"4:30 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"6.5", "durationTime":"6:30", "note":"", "desc":"event" From the console outputs, it doesn't appear as there is anything hanging or taking up time in the function itself, as the console.time for each event including #31,32 is 4ms. Another strange thing here is that the total time running the for loop across the entire object is coming out as 1014ms which is right for 200 events at 4-6ms each. Any suggestions on how to find this 'pause'? I find it very interesting that it is consistently happening between #31 & #32 only!

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  • How can I reuse .NET resources in multiple executables?

    - by Brandon
    I have an existing application that I'm supposed to take and create a "mini" version of. Both are localized apps and we would like to reuse the resources in the main application as is. So, here's the basic structure of my apps: MainApplication.csproj /Properties/Resources.resx /MainUserControl.xaml (uses strings in Properties/Resources.resx) /MainUserControl.xaml.cs MiniApplication.csproj link to MainApplication/Properties/Resources.resx link to MainApplication/MainUserControl.xaml link to MainApplication/MainUserControl.xaml.cs MiniApplication.xaml (tries to use MainUserControl from MainApplication link) So, in summary, I've added the needed resources and user control from the main application as links in the mini application. However, when I run the mini application, I get the following exception. I'm guessing it's having trouble with the different namespaces, but how do I fix? Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture or the neutral culture. Make sure \"MainApplication.Properties.Resources.resources\" was correctly embedded or linked into assembly \"MiniApplication\" at compile time, or that all the satellite assemblies required are loadable and fully signed. FYI, I know I could put the user control in a user control library but the problem is that the mini application needs to have a small footprint. So, we only want to include what we need.

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  • Win32 DLL importing issues (DllMain)

    - by brady
    I have a native DLL that is a plug-in to a different application (one that I have essentially zero control of). Everything works just great until I link with an additional .lib file (links my DLL to another DLL named ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll). This file contains some additional API from the parent application that I would like to utilize. I haven't even written any code to use any of the functions exported but just linking in this new DLL is causing problems. Specifically I get the following error when I attempt to run the program: The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000025). Clock on OK to terminate the application. I believe I have read somewhere that this is typically due to a DllMain function returning FALSE. Also, the following message is written to the standard output: ERROR: Memory allocation attempted before component initialization I am almost 100% sure this error message is coming from the application and is not some type of Windows error. Looking into this a little more (aka flailing around and flipping every switch I know of) I linked with /MAP turned on and found this in the resulting .map file: 0001:000af220 ??3@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0220 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af226 ??2@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b0226 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af22c ??_U@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b022c f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af232 ??_V@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0232 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll If I undecorate those names using "undname" they give the following (same order): void __cdecl operator delete(void * __ptr64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new(unsigned __int64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new[](unsigned __int64) void __cdecl operator delete[](void * __ptr64) I am not sure I understand how anything from ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll can exist within this .map file or why my DLL is even attempting to load ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll if I don't have any code that references this DLL. Can anyone help me put this information together and find out why this isn't working? For what it's worth I have confirmed via "dumpbin" that the parent application imports the same DLL (ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll), so it is being loaded no matter what. I have also tried delay loading this DLL in my DLL but that did not change the results.

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  • Facebook Open Graph - post to all approved users feeds.

    - by simnom
    Hi, I'm struggling to get to grips with posting a feed item to all the members of an approved application. Within the application settings for the user it is stating that the application has permission to post to the wall but I can only achieve this if that user is currently logged in to facebook. Obviously I would like this to function so that any items I uploaded are posted to all the members of the application at any one time. I am using the Facebook PHP SDK from http://github.com/facebook/php-sdk/ and currrently my code is as follows: require 'src/facebook.php'; //Generates access token for this transaction $accessToken = file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=MyAppId&client_secret=MySecret"); //Gets the full user details as an object $contents = json_decode(file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/SomeUserId?scope=publish_stream&" . $accessToken)); print_r($contents); if ($facebook->api('/' . $contents->id . '/feed', 'POST', array( 'title' => 'New and Improved, etc - 12/03/2010', 'link' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/news/2010/03/12/new-and-improved--etc', 'picture' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/userfiles/image/etc-booking.jpg', 'scope' => 'publish_stream' ) )==TRUE) { echo "message posted"; } else { echo "message failed"; } The output from $contents shows the expected user details but nothing relating to the permissions for my application. Am I missing a trick here? Then using the $facebook-api() function I am receiving a #200 - Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action. This is driving me a little potty as I suspect I'm missing something straightforward with the authorisation but what? Many thanks in advance for an assistance offered.

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