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• Using NHibernate to map a nChar column to an enumerated type

  - by Morrislgn

  Hello Folks, I am trying to map a table frp, a SQL Server 2005 DB to a class which contains an enum: public class MyClass{ private YesNoOptional addressSetting; public YesNoOptional AddressSetting{ {get; set;} } } public enum YesNoOptional { Yes, No, Optional } This will dictate that one of three values is inserted into the corresponding column - 'Y', 'N', 'O'. This column is of type nchar(1). My mapping file is like so (addressSetting is the property which is causing the problem): <class name="IncidentDefinition" table="IR_INCIDENT_DEF" lazy="false" > <id name="Guid" column="INT_GUID" > <generator class="guid"></generator> </id> <property name="Reference" column="INT_REF" ></property> <property name="Description" column="INT_DESCRIPTION" ></property> <property name="AddressSetting" column="INT_ADDRESS_REQ" ></property> <property name="Active" column="INT_ACTIVE" type="YesNo"></property> <property name="PinDocId" column="INT_PIN_DOC_ID"></property> </class> Using the config above I get the following error: NHibernate.ADOException: could not initialize a collection: System.FormatException: Input string was not in a correct format.. If I try to map the enum using a custom type like so: <property name="AddressSetting" column="INT_ADDRESS_REQ" type="ML.Types.YesNoOptional, ML.Types" ></property> Error: System.FormatException: Input string was not in a correct format. Next, if I try using a specific type like so: <property name="AddressSetting" column="INT_ADDRESS_REQ" type="String" ></property> This error is generated: NHibernate.PropertyAccessException: The type System.String can not be assigned to a property of type System.ArgumentException: Object of type 'System.String' cannot be converted to type 'ML.Types.YesNoOptional'.. As a last resort I tried to specify the type as a char like so: <property name="AddressSetting" column="INT_ADDRESS_REQ" type="Char" ></property> This works a bit better, as it in it doesnt throw an error, however instead of returning the character from the table and mapping it to the enumerated type the ASCII value of the character is returned instead - so Y is represented by 89! I am hoping someone can explain what I am doing wrong and\or how why this is happening please? Thanks Morris

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• How to load a binary file(.bin) of size 6 MB in a varbinary(MAX) column of SQL Server 2005 database

  - by Feroz Khan

  How to load a binary file(.bin) of size 6 MB in a varbinary(MAX) column of SQL Server 2005 database using ADO in vc++ application. This is the code I am using to load the file which I used to load a .bmp file BOOL CSaveView::PutECGInDB(CString strFilePath, FieldPtr pFileData) { //Open File CFile fileImage; CFileStatus fileStatus; fileImage.Open(strFilePath,CFile::modeRead); fileImage.GetStatus(fileStatus); //Alocating memory for data ULONG nBytes = (ULONG)fileStatus.m_size; HGLOBAL hGlobal = GlobalAlloc(GPTR,nBytes); LPVOID lpData = GlobalLock(hGlobal); //Putting data into file fileImage.Read(lpData,nBytes); HRESULT hr; _variant_t varChunk; long lngOffset = 0; UCHAR chData; SAFEARRAY FAR *psa = NULL; SAFEARRAYBOUND rgsabound[1]; try { //Create a safe array to store the BYTES rgsabound[0].lLbound = 0; rgsabound[0].cElements = nBytes; psa = SafeArrayCreate(VT_UI1,1,rgsabound); while(lngOffset<(long)nBytes) { chData = ((UCHAR*)lpData)[lngOffset]; hr = SafeArrayPutElement(psa,&lngOffset,&chData); if(hr != S_OK) { return false; } lngOffset++; } lngOffset = 0; //Assign the safe array to a varient varChunk.vt = VT_ARRAY|VT_UI1; varChunk.parray = psa; hr = pFileData-AppendChunk(varChunk); if(hr != S_OK) { return false; } } catch(_com_error &e) { //get info from _com_error _bstr_t bstrSource(e.Source()); _bstr_t bstrDescription(e.Description()); _bstr_t bstrErrorMessage(e.ErrorMessage()); _bstr_t bstrErrorCode(e.Error()); TRACE("Exception thrown for classes generated by #import"); TRACE("\tCode= %08lx\n",(LPCSTR)bstrErrorCode); TRACE("\tCode Meaning = %s\n",(LPCSTR)bstrErrorMessage); TRACE("\tSource = %s\n",(LPCSTR)bstrSource); TRACE("\tDescription = %s\n",(LPCSTR)bstrDescription); } catch(...) { TRACE("Unhandle Exception"); } //Free Memory GlobalUnlock(lpData); return true; } But when I read the same file using Getchunk funcion it gives me all 0,s but the size of the file I get is same as the one uploaded. Your help will be highly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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• Possible uncommitted transactions causing "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired" erro

  - by Michael

  My application requires a user to log in and allows them to edit a list of things. However, it seems that if the same user always logs in and out and edits the list, this user will run into a "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired." error. I've read comments about increasing the timeout period but I've also read a comment about it possibly caused by uncommitted transactions. And I do have one going in the application. I'll provide the code I'm working with and there is an IF statement in there that I was a little iffy about but it seemed like a reasonable thing to do. I'll just go over what's going on here, there is a list of objects to update or add into the database. New objects created in the application are given an ID of 0 while existing objects have their own ID's generated from the DB. If the user chooses to delete some objects, their IDs are stored in a separate list of Integers. Once the user is ready to save their changes, the two lists are passed into this method. By use of the IF statement, objects with ID of 0 are added (using the Add stored procedure) and those objects with non-zero IDs are updated (using the Update stored procedure). After all this, a FOR loop goes through all the integers in the "removal" list and uses the Delete stored procedure to remove them. A transaction is used for all this. Public Shared Sub UpdateSomethings(ByVal SomethingList As List(Of Something), ByVal RemovalList As List(Of Integer)) Using DBConnection As New SqlConnection(conn) DBConnection.Open() Dim MyTransaction As SqlTransaction MyTransaction = DBConnection.BeginTransaction() Try For Each SomethingItem As Something In SomethingList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand() MyCommand.Connection = DBConnection If SomethingItem.ID > 0 Then MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Else MyCommand.CommandText = "AddSomething" End If MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters If MyCommand.CommandText = "UpdateSomething" Then .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = SomethingItem.ID End If .Add("@stuff", SqlDbType.Varchar).Value = SomethingItem.Stuff End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next For Each ID As Integer In RemovalList Using MyCommand As New SqlCommand("DeleteSomething", DBConnection) MyCommand.Transaction = MyTransaction MyCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure With MyCommand.Parameters .Add("@id", SqlDbType.Int).Value = ID End With MyCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() End Using Next MyTransaction.Commit() Catch ex As Exception MyTransaction.Rollback() 'Exception handling goes here End Try End Using End Sub There are three stored procedures used here as well as some looping so I can see how something can be holding everything up if the list is large enough. Other users can log in to the system at the same time just fine though. I'm using Visual Studio 2008 to debug and am using SQL Server 2000 for the DB.

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• Wondering why DisplayName attribute is ignored in LabelFor on an overridden property

  - by Lasse Krantz

  Hi, today I got confused when doing a couple of <%=Html.LabelFor(m=>m.MyProperty)%> in ASP.NET MVC 2 and using the [DisplayName("Show this instead of MyProperty")] attribute from System.ComponentModel. As it turned out, when I put the attribute on an overridden property, LabelFor didn't seem to notice it. However, the [Required] attribute works fine on the overridden property, and the generated errormessage actually uses the DisplayNameAttribute. This is some trivial examplecode, the more realistic scenario is that I have a databasemodel separate from the viewmodel, but for convenience, I'd like to inherit from the databasemodel, add View-only properties and decorating the viewmodel with the attributes for the UI. public class POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { public virtual string PleaseOverrideMe { get; set; } } public class EditModel : POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { [Required] [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] public override string PleaseOverrideMe { get { return base.PleaseOverrideMe; } set { base.PleaseOverrideMe = value; } } [Required] [DisplayName("This property exists only in EditModel")] public string NonOverriddenProp { get; set; } } The strongly typed ViewPage<EditModel> contains: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> The labels are then displayed as "PleaseOverrideMe" (not using the DisplayNameAttribute) and "This property exists only in EditModel" (using the DisplayNameAttribute) when viewing the page. If I post with empty values, triggering the validation with this ActionMethod: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(EditModel model) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(model); return View("Thanks"); } the <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> actually uses [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] attribute, and produces the default errortext "The This should be as label for please override me! field is required." Would some friendly soul shed some light on this?

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• POD global object initialization

  - by paercebal

  I've got bitten today by a bug. The following source can be copy/pasted (and then compiled) into a main.cpp file #include <iostream> // The point of SomeGlobalObject is for its // constructor to be launched before the main // ... struct SomeGlobalObject { SomeGlobalObject() ; } ; // ... // Which explains the global object SomeGlobalObject oSomeGlobalObject ; // A POD... I was hoping it would be constructed at // compile time when using an argument list struct MyPod { short m_short ; const char * const m_string ; } ; // declaration/Initialization of a MyPod array MyPod myArrayOfPod[] = { { 1, "Hello" }, { 2, "World" }, { 3, " !" } } ; // declaration/Initialization of an array of array of void * void * myArrayOfVoid[][2] = { { (void *)1, "Hello" }, { (void *)2, "World" }, { (void *)3, " !" } } ; // constructor of the global object... Launched BEFORE main SomeGlobalObject::SomeGlobalObject() { std::cout << "myArrayOfPod[0].m_short : " << myArrayOfPod[0].m_short << std::endl ; std::cout << "myArrayOfVoid[0][0] : " << myArrayOfVoid[0][0] << std::endl ; } // main... What else ? int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { return 0 ; } MyPod being a POD, I believed there would be no constructors. Only initialization at compile time. Thus, the global object SomeGlobalObject would have no problem to use the global array of PODs upon its construction. The problem is that in real life, nothing is so simple. On Visual C++ 2008 (I did not test on other compilers), upon execution myArrayOfPodis not initialized, even ifmyArrayOfVoid` is initialized. So my questions is: Are C++ compilers not supposed to initialize global PODs (including POD structures) at compilation time ? Note that I know global variable are evil, and I know that one can't be sure of the order of creation of global variables declared in different compilation units. The problem here is really the POD C-like initialization which seems to call a constructor (the default, compiler-generated one?). And to make everyone happy: This is on debug. On release, the global array of PODs is correctly initialized.

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• ASP.NET Web Service - how to handle special characters in strings?

  - by Vlorg

  To show this fundamental issue in .NET and the reason for this question, I have written a simple test web service with one method (EditString), and a consumer console app that calls it. They are both standard web service/console applications created via File/New Project, etc., so I won't list the whole code - just the methods in question: Web method: [WebMethod] public string EditString(string s, bool useSpecial) { return s + (useSpecial ? ((char)19).ToString() : ""); } [You can see it simply returns the string s if useSpecial is false. If useSpecial is true, it returns s + char 19.] Console app: TestService.Service1 service = new SCTestConsumer.TestService.Service1(); string response1 = service.EditString("hello", false); Console.WriteLine(response1); string response2 = service.EditString("hello", true); // fails! Console.WriteLine(response2); [The second response fails, because the method returns hello + a special character (ascii code 19 for argument's sake).] The error is: There is an error in XML document (1, 287) Inner exception: "'', hexadecimal value 0x13, is an invalid character. Line 1, position 287." A few points worth mentioning: The web method itself WORKS FINE when browsing directly to the ASMX file (e.g. http://localhost:2065/service1.asmx), and running the method through this (with the same parameters as in the console application) - i.e. displays XML with the string hello + char 19. Checking the serialized XML in other ways shows the special character is being encoded properly (the SERVER SIDE seems to be ok which is GOOD) So it seems the CLIENT SIDE has the issue - i.e. the .NET generated proxy class code doesn't handle special characters This is part of a bigger project where objects are passed in and out of the web methods - that contain string attributes - these are what need to work properly. i.e. we're de/serializing classes. Any suggestions for a workaround and how to implement it? Or have I completely missed something really obvious!!? Thanks in advance... PS. I've not had much luck with getting it to use CDATA tags (does .NET support these out of the box?).

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• RESTful issue with data access when using HTTP DELETE method ...

  - by Wilhelm Murdoch

  I'm having an issue accessing raw request information from PHP when accessing a script using the HTTP DELETE directive. I'm using a JS front end which is accessing a script using Ajax. This script is actually part of a RESTful API which I am developing. The endpoint in this example is: http://api.site.com/session This endpoint is used to generate an authentication token which can be used for subsequent API requests. Using the GET method on this URL along with a modified version of HTTP Basic Authentication will provide an access token for the client. This token must then be included in all other interactions with the service until it expires. Once a token is generated, it is passed back to the client in a format specified by an 'Accept' header which the client sends the service; in this case 'application/json'. Upon success it responds with an HTTP 200 Ok status code. Upon failure, it throws an exception using the HTTP 401 Authorization Required code. Now, when you want to delete a session, or 'log out', you hit the same URL, but with the HTTP DELETE directive. To verify access to this endpoint, the client must prove they were previously authenticated by providing the token they want to terminate. If they are 'logged in', the token and session are terminated and the service should respond with the HTTP 204 No Content status code, otherwise, they are greeted with the 401 exception again. Now, the problem I'm having is with removing sessions. With the DELETE directive, using Ajax, I can't seem to access any parameters I've set once the request hits the service. In this case, I'm looking for the parameter entitled 'token'. I look at the raw request headers using Firebug and I notice the 'Content-Length' header changes with the size of the token being sent. This is telling me that this data is indeed being sent to the server. The question is, using PHP, how the hell to I access parameter information? It's not a POST or GET request, so I can't access it as you normally would in PHP. The parameters are within the content portion of the request. I've tried looking in $_SERVER, but that shows me limited amount of headers. I tried 'apache_request_headers()', which gives me more detailed information, but still, only for headers. I even tried 'file_get_contents('php://stdin');' and I get nothing. How can I access the content portion of a raw HTTP request? Sorry for the lengthy post, but I figured too much information is better than too little. :)

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• JQuery - Adding Cells to Dynamic Tree Table

  - by BPotocki

  I can't quite wrap my head around this one... A table like the one below is spit out by a renderer from some XML. The XML it comes from has a variable depth. (Please point out if I'm using the rowspans in a horrific manner as well, I just came to this table with some experimentation). <table border="1"> <tr> <td rowspan="12">> 1</td> </tr> <tr> <td rowspan="3">1 > 2</td> </tr> <tr> <td>1 > 2 > 5</td> </tr> <tr> <td>1 > 2 > 6</td> </tr> <tr> <td rowspan="3">1 > 3</td> </tr> <tr> <td>1 > 3 > 7</td> </tr> <tr> <td>1 > 3 > 8</td> </tr> <tr> <td rowspan="3">1 > 4</td> </tr> <tr> <td>1 > 4 > 9</td> </tr> <tr> <td>1 > 4 > 10</td> </tr> </table> What I'm trying to accomplish in JQuery is this... User clicks cell "1 2" (which will have an ID). An item is dynamically added to the third level, but UNDER "1 2 6". What I could do is just add another row underneath "1 2" and increase the rowspan from "1 2", but the new cell would then appear out of order amongst "1 2 5" and "1 2 6". I don't really need the exact code to do this, just something to stop my head from spinning around this...Thanks!

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• input type="text" not clickable in a jcarousel (jQuery based carousel) element

  - by AkaiKen

  Hello ! I work on a website where almost all objects are in a jCarousel element : <div> <ul id="mycarousel"> <li>object 1</li> <li>object 2</li> </ul> </div> is the "written" code, and : <div class=" jcarousel-skin-tango"> <div class="jcarousel-container jcarousel-container-horizontal" style="display: block;"> <div class="jcarousel-prev jcarousel-prev-horizontal jcarousel-prev-disabled jcarousel-prev-disabled-horizontal" style="display: block;" disabled="true"></div> <div class="jcarousel-next jcarousel-next-horizontal" style="display: block;" disabled="false"></div> <div class="jcarousel-clip jcarousel-clip-horizontal"> <ul class=" jcarousel-list jcarousel-list-horizontal" id="mycarousel" style="width: 2853px; left: 0px;"> <li class="jcarousel-item jcarousel-item-horizontal jcarousel-item-1 jcarousel-item-1-horizontal" jcarouselindex="1" style="width: 307px;"> object 1 </li> <li class="jcarousel-item jcarousel-item-horizontal jcarousel-item-1 jcarousel-item-1-horizontal" jcarouselindex="1" style="width: 307px;"> object 2 </li> </ul> </div> </div> is the generated code (here it lacks the ultimate </div>, maybe a number of rows limitation ?). I'm sorry I can't provide a link, I work on a local server currently. It works perfectly =) but... my problem is : an <input type="text" /> won't be clickable in this environment. I tried the others type of input, radio, checkbox, file : works. But text does not. I can specify a value on my input (it's its purpose on my work : a search in a database for datas to be modified and reinjected in database). In fact, I can access to the text input by clicking-right in then left. But it's pretty 'unergonomic', and in my project it's unthinkable. Ah, and I tried to style this input with a style="z-index:1000;", no changes, I think it's not a CSS problem. Does anybody have an idea ? Thank you very much in advance.

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• Applying Domain Model on top of Linq2Sql entities

  - by Thomas

  I am trying to practice the model first approach and I am putting together a domain model. My requirement is pretty simple: UserSession can have multiple ShoppingCartItems. I should start off by saying that I am going to apply the domain model interfaces to Linq2Sql generated entities (using partial classes). My requirement translates into three database tables (UserSession, Product, ShoppingCartItem where ProductId and UserSessionId are foreign keys in the ShoppingCartItem table). Linq2Sql generates these entities for me. I know I shouldn't even be dealing with the database at this point but I think it is important to mention. The aggregate root is UserSession as a ShoppingCartItem can not exist without a UserSession but I am unclear on the rest. What about Product? It is defiently an entity but should it be associated to ShoppingCartItem? Here are a few suggestion (they might all be incorrect implementations): public interface IUserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } public IList<IShoppingCartItem> ShoppingCartItems{ get; set; } } public interface IShoppingCartItem { public Guid UserSessionId { get; set; } public int ProductId { get; set; } } Another one would be: public interface IUserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } public IList<IShoppingCartItem> ShoppingCartItems{ get; set; } } public interface IShoppingCartItem { public Guid UserSessionId { get; set; } public IProduct Product { get; set; } } A third one is: public interface IUserSession { public Guid Id { get; set; } public IList<IShoppingCartItemColletion> ShoppingCartItems{ get; set; } } public interface IShoppingCartItemColletion { public IUserSession UserSession { get; set; } public IProduct Product { get; set; } } public interface IProduct { public int ProductId { get; set; } } I have a feeling my mind is too tightly coupled with database models and tables which is making this hard to grasp. Anyone care to decouple?

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• How can I call VC# webservice methods without ArgumentException?

  - by Zarius

  Currently, I'm trying to write a small tray application that will show the status and provide control of a server-side application exposed over webservice. The webservice only has 3 operations: start, stop and status. When I call any of these operations in code, they throw an ArgumentException citing "An item with the same key has already been added". I am compiling the webservice on Visual C# Express 2008, and .NET 3.5. The Code: private TelnetConnClient Conn { get { return new TelnetConnClient(); } } private bool Connected //call webservice operations { get { return Conn.Status(); } set { if(value) Conn.Start(); else Conn.Stop(); } } The Stacktrace: A first chance exception of type 'System.ArgumentException' occurred in mscorlib.dll at System.ThrowHelper.ThrowArgumentException(ExceptionResource resource) at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.Insert(TKey key, TValue value, Boolean add) at System.ServiceModel.TransactionFlowAttribute.ApplyBehavior(OperationDescription description, BindingParameterCollection parameters) at System.ServiceModel.TransactionFlowAttribute.System.ServiceModel.Description.IOperationBehavior.AddBindingParameters(OperationDescription description, BindingParameterCollection parameters) at System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.AddBindingParameters(ServiceEndpoint endpoint, BindingParameterCollection parameters) at System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.BuildProxyBehavior(ServiceEndpoint serviceEndpoint, BindingParameterCollection& parameters) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelFactory.BuildChannelFactory(ServiceEndpoint serviceEndpoint) at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory.CreateFactory() at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory.OnOpening() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory.EnsureOpened() at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1.CreateChannel(EndpointAddress address, Uri via) at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1.CreateChannel() at System.ServiceModel.ClientBase`1.CreateChannel() at System.ServiceModel.ClientBase`1.CreateChannelInternal() at System.ServiceModel.ClientBase`1.get_Channel() at KordiaConnect.ferries.TelnetConnClient.Start() in C:\My Dropbox\Coding\RTF\KordiaConnect\KordiaConnect\Service References\ferries\Reference.cs:line 86 at coldshark.ferries.Main.set_Connected(Boolean value) in C:\My Dropbox\Coding\RTF\KordiaConnect\KordiaConnect\Main.cs:line 22 at coldshark.ferries.Main.<.ctor>b__0(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\My Dropbox\Coding\RTF\KordiaConnect\KordiaConnect\Main.cs:line 43 at System.Windows.Forms.NotifyIcon.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.NotifyIcon.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button) at System.Windows.Forms.NotifyIcon.WndProc(Message& msg) at System.Windows.Forms.NotifyIcon.NotifyIconNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.DebuggableCallback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.PeekMessage(MSG& msg, HandleRef hwnd, Int32 msgMin, Int32 msgMax, Int32 remove) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ComponentManager.System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.IMsoComponentManager.FPushMessageLoop(Int32 dwComponentID, Int32 reason, Int32 pvLoopData) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoopInner(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoop(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.Run() at coldshark.ferries.Main..ctor() in C:\My Dropbox\Coding\RTF\KordiaConnect\KordiaConnect\Main.cs:line 55 I can just call the webservice from the web interface, but this application will give me a handy status notification icon, and I'd really love to know why the out-of-the-box auto-generated code fails for no particular reason.

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• Static Javascript files not loaded in Express app

  - by Dave Long

  I have an express app that has a bunch of static javascript files that aren't being loaded even though they are registered in my app.js file. Even public scripts (like jQuery: http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.6.3/jquery.min.js) aren't processing. I can see the script tags in the generated html, but none of the functionality runs and I can't see the files loading in the web inspector. Here is the code that I have: app.js var express = require('express') var app = module.exports = express.createServer(); // Configuration var port = process.env.PORT || 3000; app.configure(function(){ app.set('views', __dirname + '/views'); app.set('view engine', 'jade'); app.use(express.bodyParser()); app.use(express.methodOverride()); app.use(app.router); app.use(express.static(__dirname + '/public')); }); app.configure('development', function(){ app.use(express.errorHandler({ dumpExceptions: true, showStack: true })); }); app.configure('production', function(){ app.use(express.errorHandler()); }); // Routes app.get('/manage/new', function(req, res){ res.render('manage/new', { title: 'Create a new widget' }); }) app.listen(port); console.log("Express server listening on port %d in %s mode", app.address().port, app.settings.env); /views/manage/layout.jade !!! 5 html(lang="en") head title= title link(rel="stylesheet", href="/stylesheets/demo.css") link(rel="stylesheet", href="/stylesheets/jquery.qtip.css") script(type="text/javascript", href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.6.3/jquery.min.js") body!= body script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/jquery.formalize.js") script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/jquery.form.js") script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/jquery.qtip.js") script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/formToWizard.js") script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/widget.js") /views/manage/new.jade h1= title div(style="float:left;") form(action="/manage/generate", method="post", enctype="multipart/form-data", name="create-widget") .errors fieldset legend Band / Album Information fieldset legend Social Networks fieldset legend Download All of my javascript files are stored in /public/javascripts and all of my static CSS files are being served up just fine. I'm not sure what I've done wrong.

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• OpenID and Iframes

  - by Phood

  hey guys, I'm having a little bit of trouble making OpenID work from within an iframe. basically I have some heavy handed content loaded on the main page and I want to build a log in system where the page doesn't need to be reloaded (and thus reload all of that content again). I fell in love with OpenID from using stack exchange websites, and have intergrated it relatively well into other projects. I feel to do what I want to do I would like to try and use an iframe (because new windows make me cry), however I have stumbled at some form of hurdle somewhere near the middle and for the life of me can't work out whats going on... basically I have a form in a jQuery generated DIV and openID form that seems to work to dynamically load an iframe. something along these lines: <script type="text/javascript"> contentboxs = 0; function contentbox() { if (contentboxs == 0){ $('#mainpage').append("<div id='contentbox'><div style='clear:both;' id='oritext'></div><div id='f_content'><iframe src ='' name='framedcontent' width='580' height='600' scrolling='false'></iframe></div></div>"); $('#f_content').hide(); contentboxs++; } else { $('#contentbox-wipe').remove(); $('#contentbox').remove(); contentboxs--; } } function loginpanel(){ contentbox(); if (contentboxs == 1){ $('#oritext').append("<form method='post' action='login.php' name='oidform' target='framedcontent'>Please Select your OpenID Provider: <br/><input type='text' name=\"id\" id='openidbox' /><br /><input type='submit' name='submit' value='Log In' onclick='loginsubmit();' ></form>"); } } function loginsubmit() { $('#oritext').html(''); $('#contentbox').animate({'height':'600px', 'width':'700px', 'margin-top' : '-300px', 'margin-left' : '-350px'},500, 'linear', function() { $('#f_content').show(); }); } </script> <a href='javascript:loginpanel();'>login</a> and as far as I can tell this all works fine. my problem comes in my re-direction to the openID remote sites (again doing it with JS along these lines:) echo("<div><p><center>Redirecting...</center></div>"); echo "<script type='text/javascript'> function delayer() { this.location = '".$url."' } setTimeout('delayer()', 3000) </script>"; sorry this is a bit long winded, but here is my problem (finally): this works fine for some of the OID sites that I have tried, but some are giving me problems: Google won't load at all, Yahoo and mySpace open fine in the iframe then instantly redirect the full window to the home page and the OID page respectively, and wordpress returns an error. I'm assuming that this is a counter measure put in place to stop me stealing login details (thats not what i'm trying to achieve btw, hence the preamble), and thats fair enough, but still bloody aggravating. is there any thing here that i'm doing retardedly, is there some way round this, and if neither of the above, is my only other options to create new windows or build my own login/registration. If you have got this far thank you very much for your time, and I hope you didn't mind too much the spelling mistakes.

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• Unable to execute stored Procedure using Java and JDBC on SQL server

  - by jwmajors81

  I have been trying to execute a MS SQL Server stored procedure via JDBC today and have been unsuccessful thus far. The stored procedure has 1 input and 1 output parameter. With every combination I use when setting up the stored procedure call in code I get an error stating that the stored procedure couldn't be found. I have provided the stored procedure I'm executing below (NOTE: this is vendor code, so I cannot change it). set ANSI_NULLS ON set QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROC [dbo].[spWCoTaskIdGen] @OutIdentifier int OUTPUT AS BEGIN DECLARE @HoldPolicyId int DECLARE @PolicyId char(14) IF NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM UniqueIdentifierGen (UPDLOCK) ) INSERT INTO UniqueIdentifierGen VALUES (0) UPDATE UniqueIdentifierGen SET CurIdentifier = CurIdentifier + 1 SELECT @OutIdentifier = (SELECT CurIdentifier FROM UniqueIdentifierGen) END The code looks like: CallableStatement statement = connection .prepareCall("{call dbo.spWCoTaskIdGen(?)}"); statement.setInt(1, 0); ResultSet result = statement.executeQuery(); I get the following error: SEVERE: Could not find stored procedure 'dbo.spWCoTaskIdGen'. I have also tried CallableStatement statement = connection .prepareCall("{? = call dbo.spWCoTaskIdGen(?)}"); statement.registerOutParameter(1, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); statement.registerOutParameter(2, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); statement.executeQuery(); The above results in: SEVERE: Could not find stored procedure 'dbo.spWCoTaskIdGen'. I have also tried: CallableStatement statement = connection .prepareCall("{? = call spWCoTaskIdGen(?)}"); statement.registerOutParameter(1, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); statement.registerOutParameter(2, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); statement.executeQuery(); The code above resulted in the following error: Could not find stored procedure 'spWCoTaskIdGen'. Finally, I should also point out the following: I have used the MS SQL Server Management Studio tool and have been able to successfully run the stored procedure. The sql generated to execute the stored procedure is provided below: GO DECLARE @return_value int, @OutIdentifier int EXEC @return_value = [dbo].[spWCoTaskIdGen] @OutIdentifier = @OutIdentifier OUTPUT SELECT @OutIdentifier as N'@OutIdentifier ' SELECT 'Return Value' = @return_value GO The code being executed runs with the same user id that was used in point #1 above. In the code that creates the Connection object I log which database I'm connecting to and the code is connecting to the correct database. Any ideas? Thank you very much in advance.

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• How can I import one Gradle script into another?

  - by Ant

  Hi all, I have a complex gradle script that wraps up a load of functionality around building and deploying a number of netbeans projects to a number of environments. The script works very well, but in essence it is all configured through half a dozen maps holding project and environment information. I want to abstract the tasks away into another file, so that I can simply define my maps in a simple build file, and import the tasks from the other file. In this way, I can use the same core tasks for a number of projects and configure those projects with a simple set of maps. Can anyone tell me how I can import one gradle file into another, in a similar manner to Ant's task? I've trawled Gradle's docs to no avail so far. Additional Info After Tom's response below, I thought I'd try and clarify exactly what I mean. Basically I have a gradle script which runs a number of subprojects. However, the subprojects are all Netbeans projects, and come with their own ant build scripts, so I have tasks in gradle to call each of these. My problem is that I have some configuration at the top of the file, such as: projects = [ [name:"MySubproject1", shortname: "sub1", env:"mainEnv", cvs_module="mod1"], [name:"MySubproject2", shortname: "sub2", env:"altEnv", cvs_module="mod2"] ] I then generate tasks such as: projects.each({ task "checkout_$it.shortname" << { // Code to for example check module out from cvs using config from 'it'. } }) I have many of these sort of task generation snippets, and all of them are generic - they entirely depend on the config in the projects list. So what I want is a way to put this in a separate script and import it in the following sort of way: projects = [ [name:"MySubproject1", shortname: "sub1", env:"mainEnv", cvs_module="mod1"], [name:"MySubproject2", shortname: "sub2", env:"altEnv", cvs_module="mod2"] ] import("tasks.gradle") // This will import and run the script so that all tasks are generated for the projects given above. So in this example, tasks.gradle will have all the generic task generation code in, and will get run for the projects defined in the main build.gradle file. In this way, tasks.gradle is a file that can be used by all large projects that consist of a number of sub-projects with Netbeans ant build files.

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• LINQ to SQL Could not find key member. Only fails on server.

  - by Adam Carr

  I have a scenario where I am inheriting from an abstract class in my partial linq to sql auto generated class implementation. My base abstract class has an abstract property called ID which I have flagged inside my LINQ to SQL model with the instance modifier override. This works fine locally without any issues. I have also done some development on another machine and it works fine there too (both in VS2008 and using Subversion). I am running CI with TeamCity and the build succeeds and deploys as desired. The problem is when the server tries to hit the database for the first time via the LINQ to SQL data context, it generates the following error. "Could not find key member 'Id' of key 'Id' on type 'CustomType'. The key may be wrong or the field or property on 'CustomType' has changed names." I have tried changing my configuration by not implementing the Id field in my base class but this still fails. Why does it work on both of my DEV machines but not on the server? I am using LINQ to SQL in another project that runs on this server just fine. FYI: LINQ to SQL, SQL 2008, .NET 3.5, SERVER 2008, IIS 7.0 UPDATE I have gone back and added the same table a second time in the same data model but without a base class and have then displayed the results from that table and got no errors. This tells me it has something to do with my base abstract class and the need to flag a property on one of my linq to sql model classes (that belongs to a key relationship) with the instance modifier of override. No answer to this yet but am getting closer. UPDATE I have fixed my issue by simply changing my approach to my problem but I am still interested in why this doesn't work. I created a new WinSrv2008 VPC and patched it, deployed a pre-built version of my site to it and still got the same error. I now assume the issue is like what the person said here, a dependency issue with VS2008. My question is what or what? Will install VS2008 on the VPC to see if it works after that.

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• Rails ActiveResource Associations

  - by brad

  I have some ARes models (see below) that I'm trying to use associations with (which seems to be wholly undocumented and maybe not possible but I thought I'd give it a try) So on my service side, my ActiveRecord object will render something like render :xml => @group.to_xml(:include => :customers) (see generated xml below) The models Group and Customers are HABTM On my ARes side, I'm hoping that it can see the <customers> xml attribute and automatically populate the .customers attribute of that Group object , but the has_many etc methods aren't supported (at least as far as I can tell) So I'm wondering how ARes does it's reflection on the XML to set the attributes of an object. In AR for instance I could create a def customers=(customer_array) and set it myself, but this doesn't seem to work in ARes. One suggestion I found for an "association" is the just have a method def customers Customer.find(:all, :conditions => {:group_id => self.id}) end But this has the disadvantage that it makes a second service call to look up those customers... not cool I'd like my ActiveResource model to see that the customers attribute in the XML and automatically populate my model. Anyone have any experience with this?? # My Services class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :groups end class Group < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :customer end # My ActiveResource accessors class Customer < ActiveResource::Base; end class Group < ActiveResource::Base; end # XML from /groups/:id?customers=true <group> <domain>some.domain.com</domain> <id type="integer">266</id> <name>Some Name</name> <customers type="array"> <customer> <active type="boolean">true</active> <id type="integer">1</id> <name>Some Name</name> </customer> <customer> <active type="boolean" nil="true"></active> <id type="integer">306</id> <name>Some Other Name</name> </customer> </customers> </group>

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• .NET Application broken on one PC, unhandleable exception

  - by Bobby

  Hello people. I have a .NET 2.0 application with nothing fancy in it. It worked until yesterday on every PC I installed or copied it to, no matter if 2.0, 3.0, 3.5 or 3.5 SP1 was installed, no matter if it was Win2000, XP or even Win7 (in total 100+ machines). Yesterday I did my normal installation procedure and wanted to start it one time to check if everything is working...and it wasn't. The program crashed hard leaving me with the uninformative "Do you wanna report this error?" dialog. The problem is an exception in the Main(String[] args) routine of my application. The event viewer is showing the following entry: Event Type: ErrorEvent Source: .NET Runtime 2.0 Error Reporting Event Category: None Event ID: 5000 Date: 05/05/2010 Time: 16:09:09 User: N/A Computer: myClientPC Description: EventType clr20r3, P1 apomenu.exe, P2 1.4.90.53, P3 4bdedea4, P4 system.configuration, P5 2.0.0.0, P6 4889de74, P7 1a6, P8 136, P9 ioibmurhynrxkw0zxkyrvfn0boyyufow, P10 NIL. Well...great information. After a lot of searching I finally was able to get further information about this exception (by adding a handler for UnhandledExceptions directly in My.MyApplication.New(), Application.Designer.vb): System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException Configuration system failed to initialize at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationSystem.EnsureInit(String configKey) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationSystem.PrepareClientConfigSystem(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationSystem.System.Configuration.Internal.IInternalConfigSystem.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.PrivilegedConfigurationManager.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Net.Configuration.SettingsSectionInternal.get_Section() at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.InitializeSockets() at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.get_SupportsIPv4() at Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase.get_HostName() at Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase.RegisterChannel(Boolean SecureChannel) at Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase.Run(String[] commandLine) at MyAppNameHere.My.MyApplication.Main(String[] Args) in 17d14f5c-a337-4978-8281-53493378c1071.vb:Line 81. And at this point I'm stuck...I'm out of ideas. I'm not using any kind of configuration system from the framework (no reference to System.Configuration, and there never was a MyAppnameHere.exe.config generated or distributed, nor have I seen this error before). I also found a bug report at Microsoft (Google Cache) about this bug (in another context, though). But as it seems, they won't even look at it. Every help is greatly appreciated! Edit: I'm using Visual Studio 2008 Prof.. Crash happens in Release- and Debug-Build on the client machine. Debugging the application directly on this machine is out of question I fear, 300+ Miles and they only have two computers to work with.

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• CustomListAdapter Problem in Android? Getting ClassCast Exception? How???

  - by Praveen Chandrasekaran

  i want to improve the list view's performance. this is the code for my getView method in my Adapter? public View getView(int arg0, View text_view_name, ViewGroup parent) { try { if (text_view_name == null) { text_view_name = mInflater.inflate( R.layout.bs_content_list_item1, null); text_view_name.setTag(R.id.text1_detail1, text_view_name .findViewById(R.id.text1_detail1)); text_view_name.setTag(R.id.text3_detail1, text_view_name .findViewById(R.id.text3_detail1)); text_view_name.setTag(R.id.eve_img_detail1, text_view_name .findViewById(R.id.eve_img_detail1)); } text1 = (TextView) text_view_name.getTag(R.id.text1_detail1); // text2 = (TextView) text_view_name.getTag(R.id.text2); text3 = (TextView) text_view_name.getTag(R.id.text3_detail1); img = (ImageView) text_view_name.getTag(R.id.eve_img_detail1); text1.setText(VAL1[arg0]); text3.setText(VAL3[arg0]); if (!mBusy) { img_value = new URL(VAL4[arg0]); mIcon11 = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(img_value.openConnection() .getInputStream()); img.setImageBitmap(mIcon11); text_view_name.setTag(R.id.eve_img_detail1, null); } else { img.setImageResource(R.drawable.icon); text_view_name.setTag(R.id.eve_img_detail1, text_view_name .findViewById(R.id.eve_img_detail1)); } } catch (Exception e) { name = "Exception in MultiLine_bar_details1 getView"; Log.v(TAG, name + e); } return text_view_name; } this is the code for scrollstatechanged method: public void onScrollStateChanged(AbsListView view, int scrollState) { switch (scrollState) { case OnScrollListener.SCROLL_STATE_IDLE: try { MultiLine_bar_details1.mBusy = false; int first = view.getFirstVisiblePosition(); int count = view.getCount(); for (int i = 0; i < count; i++) { ImageView t = (ImageView) view.getChildAt(i);// here getting the ClassCastException if (t.getTag(R.id.eve_img_detail1) != null) { MultiLine_bar_details1.img_value = new URL( MultiLine_bar_details1.VAL4[first + i]); MultiLine_bar_details1.mIcon11 = BitmapFactory .decodeStream(MultiLine_bar_details1.img_value .openConnection().getInputStream()); MultiLine_bar_details1.img.setImageBitmap(MultiLine_bar_details1.mIcon11); t.setTag(R.id.eve_img_detail1, null); } } } catch (Exception e) { Log.v(TAG, "Idle" + e); } // mStatus.setText("Idle"); break; case OnScrollListener.SCROLL_STATE_TOUCH_SCROLL: MultiLine_bar_details1.mBusy = true; break; case OnScrollListener.SCROLL_STATE_FLING: MultiLine_bar_details1.mBusy = true; break; } } getting the Exception in Idle state: 05-03 16:47:15.201: VERBOSE/BS_Bars(258): Idlejava.lang.ClassCastException: android.widget.LinearLayout this is very complicated for me to get the output properly. actually i have the listview with custom adapter. that icons makes the listview scroll very slow.i am getting the images for icons from the image urls. upto this(above code) i can improve the scroll performance of my list view. but the image icons are not proper in the corresponding order. its dynamically changing when i scroll the listview.. i refered the commonsware busy coder guide and this blog. My very Big question is "How can we access the single view in scrollstatechanged parameter AbsListView? " what is the problem in it? how to do it better? Any Idea?

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• Hibernate + Spring : cascade deletion ignoring non-nullable constraints

  - by E.Benoît

  Hello, I seem to be having one weird problem with some Hibernate data classes. In a very specific case, deleting an object should fail due to existing, non-nullable relations - however it does not. The strangest part is that a few other classes related to the same definition behave appropriately. I'm using HSQLDB 1.8.0.10, Hibernate 3.5.0 (final) and Spring 3.0.2. The Hibernate properties are set so that batch updates are disabled. The class whose instances are being deleted is: @Entity( name = "users.Credentials" ) @Table( name = "credentials" , schema = "users" ) public class Credentials extends ModelBase { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; /* Some basic fields here */ /** Administrator credentials, if any */ @OneToOne( mappedBy = "credentials" , fetch = FetchType.LAZY ) public AdminCredentials adminCredentials; /** Active account data */ @OneToOne( mappedBy = "credentials" , fetch = FetchType.LAZY ) public Account activeAccount; /* Some more reverse relations here */ } (ModelBase is a class that simply declares a Long field named "id" as being automatically generated) The Account class, which is one for which constraints work, looks like this: @Entity( name = "users.Account" ) @Table( name = "accounts" , schema = "users" ) public class Account extends ModelBase { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; /** Credentials the account is linked to */ @OneToOne( optional = false ) @JoinColumn( name = "credentials_id" , referencedColumnName = "id" , nullable = false , updatable = false ) public Credentials credentials; /* Some more fields here */ } And here is the AdminCredentials class, for which the constraints are ignored. @Entity( name = "admin.Credentials" ) @Table( name = "admin_credentials" , schema = "admin" ) public class AdminCredentials extends ModelBase { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; /** Credentials linked with an administrative account */ @OneToOne( optional = false ) @JoinColumn( name = "credentials_id" , referencedColumnName = "id" , nullable = false , updatable = false ) public Credentials credentials; /* Some more fields here */ } The code that attempts to delete the Credentials instances is: try { if ( account.validationKey != null ) { this.hTemplate.delete( account.validationKey ); } this.hTemplate.delete( account.languageSetting ); this.hTemplate.delete( account ); } catch ( DataIntegrityViolationException e ) { return false; } Where hTemplate is a HibernateTemplate instance provided by Spring, its flush mode having been set to EAGER. In the conditions shown above, the deletion will fail if there is an Account instance that refers to the Credentials instance being deleted, which is the expected behaviour. However, an AdminCredentials instance will be ignored, the deletion will succeed, leaving an invalid AdminCredentials instance behind (trying to refresh that instance causes an error because the Credentials instance no longer exists). I have tried moving the AdminCredentials table from the admin DB schema to the users DB schema. Strangely enough, a deletion-related error is then triggered, but not in the deletion code - it is triggered at the next query involving the table, seemingly ignoring the flush mode setting. I've been trying to understand this for hours and I must admit I'm just as clueless now as I was then.

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• Provisioning api jpa

  - by user268515

  Hi i tried the following code Appsprovisioning.java public void calluser() throws AppsForYourDomainExceptiion IOException, { for(UserEntry userEntry : retrieveAllUsers().getEntries()) { m[x]= userEntry.getTitle().getPlainText(); x++; } try { for(int i=0;i<x;i++) { String sd=m[i]; stud greeting1 = new stud(sd); em.persist(greeting1); System.out.println("jk"); } } finally { em.close(); } public UserFeed retrieveAllUsers()throws ,ServiceException, IOException{ userService = new UserService("Myapplication"); userService.setUserCredentials("[email protected]","xxxxxxxx"); URL retrieveUrl = new URL("https://www.google.com/a/feeds/montfortperungudi.edu.in/user/2.0/"); UserFeed allUsers = new UserFeed(); UserFeed currentPage; Link nextLink; do { currentPage = userService.getFeed(retrieveUrl, UserFeed.class); allUsers.getEntries().addAll(currentPage.getEntries()); nextLink = currentPage.getLink(Link.Rel.NEXT, Link.Type.ATOM); if (nextLink != null) { retrieveUrl = new URL(nextLink.getHref()); } } while (nextLink != null); return allUsers; } } Servlet.java public class servlet extends HttpServlet { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private static final Logger log = Logger.getLogger(servlet.class.getName()); // EntityManager em=null; AppsProvisioning aa=new AppsProvisioning(); public void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp)throws IOException { //em = EMFService.get().createEntityManager(); try { aa.calluser(); }catch(Exception e){ System.out.println("SEF "+e);} finally { // em.clear(); // em.close(); } } } Table Creation import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.Id; @Entity(name="stud") public class stud { @Id private String fathername; public stud(String fathername) {// TODO Auto-generated constructor stub this.fathername=fathername; } public void setFathername(String fathername) { this.fathername = fathername; } public String getFathername() { return fathername; } } I cant able to store all the users in the table.. Its returning Session out error.

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• Saxon XSLT-Transformation: How to change serialization of an empty tag from <x/> to <x></x>?

  - by Ben

  Hello folks! I do some XSLT-Transformation using Saxon HE 9.2 with the output later being unmarshalled by Castor 1.3.1. The whole thing runs with Java at the JDK 6. My XSLT-Transformation looks like this: <xsl:transform version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:ns="http://my/own/custom/namespace/for/the/target/document"> <xsl:output method="xml" encoding="UTF-8" indent="no" /> <xsl:template match="/"> <ns:item> <ns:property name="id"> <xsl:value-of select="/some/complicated/xpath" /> </ns:property> <!-- ... more ... --> </xsl:template> So the thing is: if the XPath-expression /some/complicated/xpath evaluates to an empty sequence, the Saxon serializer writes <ns:property/> instead of <ns:property></ns:property>. This, however, confuses the Castor unmarshaller, which is next in the pipeline and which unmarshals the output of the transformation to instances of XSD-generated Java-code. So my question is: How can I tell the Saxon-serializer to output empty tags not as standalone tags? Here is what I am proximately currently doing to execute the transformation: import net.sf.saxon.s9api.*; import javax.xml.transform.*; import javax.xml.transform.sax.SAXSource; // ... // read data XMLReader xmlReader = XMLReaderFactory.createXMLReader(); // ... there is some more setting up the xmlReader here ... InputStream xsltStream = new FileInputStream(xsltFile); InputStream inputStream = new FileInputStream(inputFile); Source xsltSource = new SAXSource(xmlReader, new InputSource(xsltStream)); Source inputSource = new SAXSource(xmlReader, new InputSource(inputStream)); XdmNode input = processor.newDocumentBuilder().build(inputSource); // initialize transformation configuration Processor processor = new Processor(false); XsltCompiler compiler = processor.newXsltCompiler(); compiler.setErrorListener(this); XsltExecutable executable = compiler.compile(xsltSource); Serializer serializer = new Serializer(); serializer.setOutputProperty(Serializer.Property.METHOD, "xml"); serializer.setOutputProperty(Serializer.Property.INDENT, "no"); serializer.setOutputStream(output); // execute transformation XsltTransformer transformer = executable.load(); transformer.setInitialContextNode(input); transformer.setErrorListener(this); transformer.setDestination(serializer); transformer.setSchemaValidationMode(ValidationMode.STRIP); transformer.transform(); I'd appreciate any hint pointing in the direction of a solution. :-) In case of any unclarity I'd be happy to give more details. Nightly greetings from Germany, Benjamin

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• Weighted round robins via TTL - possible?

  - by Joe Hopfgartner

  I currently use DNS round robin for load balancing, which works great. The records look like this (I have a ttl of 120 seconds) ;; ANSWER SECTION: orion.2x.to. 116 IN A 80.237.201.41 orion.2x.to. 116 IN A 87.230.54.12 orion.2x.to. 116 IN A 87.230.100.10 orion.2x.to. 116 IN A 87.230.51.65 I learned that not every ISP / device treats such a response the same way. For example some DNS servers rotate the addresses randomly or always cycle them through. Some just propagate the first entry, others try to determine which is best (regionally near) by looking at the ip address. However if the userbase is big enough (spreads over multiple ISPs etc) it balances pretty well. The discrepancies from highest to lowest loaded server hardly every exceeds 15%. However now I have the problem that I am introducing more servers into the systems, that not all have the same capacities. I currently only have 1gbps servers, but I want to work with 100mbit and also 10gbps servers too. So what I want is I want to introduce a server with 10 GBps with a weight of 100, a 1 gbps server with a weight of 10 and a 100 mbit server with a weight of 1. I used to add servers twice to bring more traffic to them (which worked nice. the bandwidth doubled almost.) But adding a 10gbit server 100 times to DNS is a bit rediculous. So I thought about using the TTL. If I give server A 240 seconds ttl and server B only 120 seconds (which is about about the minimum to use for round robin, as a lot of dns servers set to 120 if a lower ttl is specified.. so i have heard) I think something like this should occour in an ideal scenario: first 120 seconds 50% of requests get server A -> keep it for 240 seconds. 50% of requests get server B -> keep it for 120 seconds second 120 seconds 50% of requests still have server A cached -> keep it for another 120 seconds. 25% of requests get server A -> keep it for 240 seconds 25% of requests get server B -> keep it for 120 seconds third 120 seconds 25% will get server A (from the 50% of Server A that now expired) -> cache 240 sec 25% will get server B (from the 50% of Server A that now expired) -> cache 120 sec 25% will have server A cached for another 120 seconds 12.5% will get server B (from the 25% of server B that now expired) -> cache 120sec 12.5% will get server A (from the 25% of server B that now expired) -> cache 240 sec fourth 120 seconds 25% will have server A cached -> cache for another 120 secs 12.5% will get server A (from the 25% of b that now expired) -> cache 240 secs 12.5% will get server B (from the 25% of b that now expired) -> cache 120 secs 12.5% will get server A (from the 25% of a that now expired) -> cache 240 secs 12.5% will get server B (from the 25% of a that now expired) -> cache 120 secs 6.25% will get server A (from the 12.5% of b that now expired) -> cache 240 secs 6.25% will get server B (from the 12.5% of b that now expired) -> cache 120 secs 12.5% will have server A cached -> cache another 120 secs ... i think i lost something at this point but i think you get the idea.... As you can see this gets pretty complicated to predict and it will for sure not work out like this in practice. But it should definitely have an effect on the distribution! I know that weighted round robin exists and is just controlled by the root server. It just cycles through dns records when responding and returns dns records with a set propability that corresponds to the weighting. My DNS server does not support this, and my requirements are not that precise. If it doesnt weight perfectly its okay, but it should go into the right direction. I think using the TTL field could be a more elegant and easier solution - and it deosnt require a dns server that controls this dynamically, which saves resources - which is in my opinion the whole point of dns load balancing vs hardware load balancers. My question now is... are there any best prectices / methos / rules of thumb to weight round robin distribution using the TTL attribute of DNS records? Edit: The system is a forward proxy server system. The amount of Bandwidth (not requests) exceeds what one single server with ethernet can handle. So I need a balancing solution that distributes the bandwidth to several servers. Are there any alternative methods than using DNS? Of course I can use a load balancer with fibre channel etc, but the costs are rediciulous and it also increases only the width of the bottleneck and does not eliminate it. The only thing i can think of are anycast (is it anycast or multicast?) ip addresses, but I don't have the means to set up such a system.

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• VFS: file-max limit 1231582 reached

  - by Rick Koshi

  I'm running a Linux 2.6.36 kernel, and I'm seeing some random errors. Things like ls: error while loading shared libraries: libpthread.so.0: cannot open shared object file: Error 23 Yes, my system can't consistently run an 'ls' command. :( I note several errors in my dmesg output: # dmesg | tail [2808967.543203] EXT4-fs (sda3): re-mounted. Opts: (null) [2837776.220605] xv[14450] general protection ip:7f20c20c6ac6 sp:7fff3641b368 error:0 in libpng14.so.14.4.0[7f20c20a9000+29000] [4931344.685302] EXT4-fs (md16): re-mounted. Opts: (null) [4982666.631444] VFS: file-max limit 1231582 reached [4982666.764240] VFS: file-max limit 1231582 reached [4982767.360574] VFS: file-max limit 1231582 reached [4982901.904628] VFS: file-max limit 1231582 reached [4982964.930556] VFS: file-max limit 1231582 reached [4982966.352170] VFS: file-max limit 1231582 reached [4982966.649195] top[31095]: segfault at 14 ip 00007fd6ace42700 sp 00007fff20746530 error 6 in libproc-3.2.8.so[7fd6ace3b000+e000] Obviously, the file-max errors look suspicious, being clustered together and recent. # cat /proc/sys/fs/file-max 1231582 # cat /proc/sys/fs/file-nr 1231712 0 1231582 That also looks a bit odd to me, but the thing is, there's no way I have 1.2 million files open on this system. I'm the only one using it, and it's not visible to anyone outside the local network. # lsof | wc 16046 148253 1882901 # ps -ef | wc 574 6104 44260 I saw some documentation saying: file-max & file-nr: The kernel allocates file handles dynamically, but as yet it doesn't free them again. The value in file-max denotes the maximum number of file- handles that the Linux kernel will allocate. When you get lots of error messages about running out of file handles, you might want to increase this limit. Historically, the three values in file-nr denoted the number of allocated file handles, the number of allocated but unused file handles, and the maximum number of file handles. Linux 2.6 always reports 0 as the number of free file handles -- this is not an error, it just means that the number of allocated file handles exactly matches the number of used file handles. Attempts to allocate more file descriptors than file-max are reported with printk, look for "VFS: file-max limit reached". My first reading of this is that the kernel basically has a built-in file descriptor leak, but I find that very hard to believe. It would imply that any system in active use needs to be rebooted every so often to free up the file descriptors. As I said, I can't believe this would be true, since it's normal to me to have Linux systems stay up for months (even years) at a time. On the other hand, I also can't believe that my nearly-idle system is holding over a million files open. Does anyone have any ideas, either for fixes or further diagnosis? I could, of course, just reboot the system, but I don't want this to be a recurring problem every few weeks. As a stopgap measure, I've quit Firefox, which was accounting for almost 2000 lines of lsof output (!) even though I only had one window open, and now I can run 'ls' again, but I doubt that will fix the problem for long. (edit: Oops, spoke too soon. By the time I finished typing out this question, the symptom was/is back) Thanks in advance for any help. And another update: My system was basically unusable, so I decided I had no option but to reboot. But before I did, I carefully quit one process at a time, checking /proc/sys/fs/file-nr after each termination. I found that, predictably, the number of open files gradually went down as I closed things down. Unfortunately, it wasn't a large effect. Yes, I was able to clear up 5000-10000 open files, but there were still over 1.2 million left. I shut down just about everything. All interactive shells, except for the one ssh I left open to finish closing down, httpd, even nfs service. Basically everything in the process table that wasn't a kernel process, and there were still an appalling number of files apparently left open. After the reboot, I found that /proc/sys/fs/file-nr showed about 2000 files open, which is much more reasonable. Starting up 2 Xvnc sessions as usual, along with the dozen or so monitoring windows I like to keep open, brought the total up to about 4000 files. I can see nothing wrong with that, of course, but I've obviously failed to identify the root cause. I'm still looking for ideas, since I definitely expect it to happen again. And another update, the next day: I watched the system carefully, and discovered that /proc/sys/fs/file-nr showed a growth of about 900 open files per hour. I shut down the system's only NFS client for the night, and the growth stopped. Mind you, it didn't free up the resources, but it did at least stop consuming more. Is this a known bug with NFS? I'll be bringing the NFS client back online today, and I'll narrow it down further. If anyone is familiar with this behavior, feel free to jump in with "Yeah, NFS4 has this problem, go back to NFS3" or something like that.

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• Style list of divs as 2 column layout with css

  - by Anders Svensson

  I'm trying out ASP.NET MVC 2 by going through the "NerdDinner" tutorial. But apparently version 2 of MVC doesn't create a Details page the same as in the tutorial, and you get divs with css classes on them to style. However, I want to get the style where each label is followed on the same line with the field, and I can't do it, I get them on top of each other, or if I try using floats weird things happen (probably because I don't know exactly how to use it in this situation, where every other div should be on the same line). Here's the generated html for the Details page: <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div> <div class="display-label">DinnerID</div> <div class="display-field"><%: Model.DinnerID %></div> <div class="display-label">Title</div> <div class="display-field"><%: Model.Title %></div> <div class="display-label">EventDate</div> <div class="display-field"><%: String.Format("{0:g}", Model.EventDate) %></div> <div class="display-label">Description</div> <div class="display-field"><%: Model.Description %></div> <div class="display-label">HostedBy</div> <div class="display-field"><%: Model.HostedBy %></div> <div class="display-label">ContactPhone</div> <div class="display-field"><%: Model.ContactPhone %></div> <div class="display-label">Address</div> <div class="display-field"><%: Model.Address %></div> <div class="display-label">Country</div> <div class="display-field"><%: Model.Country %></div> <div class="display-label">Latitude</div> <div class="display-field"><%: String.Format("{0:F}", Model.Latitude) %></div> <div class="display-label">Longitude</div> <div class="display-field"><%: String.Format("{0:F}", Model.Longitude) %></div> <div class="display-label">IsValid</div> <div class="display-field"><%: Model.IsValid %></div> </div> </fieldset> How do I get the display-label and display-field for each "entry" to appear on the same line?

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