Search Results

Search found 14142 results on 566 pages for 'missing symbols'.

Page 439/566 | < Previous Page | 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446  | Next Page >

  • How do I stop cpan from reconfiguring each time? + More

    - by Leonard
    I'm running on a Mac (version 10.6.3) and am struggling to understand what is going on with my Perl installation. I let the system do a copy from my previous mac, and I appear to have a second perl installed, which appears earlier in my path. I can't tell (or remember) if I might have installed it with fink, macports or CPAN or what. type -a cpan cpan is /opt/local/bin/cpan cpan is /usr/bin/cpan I'm seeing two oddities. (To start with!) When I run cpan, and let it configure in ~lcuff/.cpan, each time I run it, it wants to reconfigure, giving the message: Sorry, we have to rerun the configuration dialog for CPAN.pm due to some missing parameters... Also, when I try to install File::Find::Rule (so I can list my CPAN modules, per the FAQ) I end up with an error message that I can't decipher or Google a solution for: Use of inherited AUTOLOAD for non-method Digest::SHA::shaopen() is deprecated at /opt/local/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/Digest/SHA.pm line 55. Catching error: "Can't locate auto/Digest/SHA/shaopen.al in \@INC (\@INC contains: /sw/lib/perl5 /sw/lib/perl5/darwin /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl/5.8.9 /opt/local/lib/perl5/site_perl /opt/local/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level /opt/local/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.9 /opt/local/lib/perl5/vendor_perl /opt/local/lib/perl5/5.8.9/darwin-2level /opt/local/lib/perl5/5.8.9 /Users/lcuff) at /opt/local/lib/perl5/vendor_perl/5.8.9/darwin-2level/Digest/SHA.pm line 55\cJ" at /opt/local/lib/perl5/5.8.9/CPAN.pm line 359 CPAN::shell() called at /opt/local/bin/cpan line 198

    Read the article

  • jQuery offset() not working in some browsers, on some computers

    - by Peter Di Cecco
    I have a problem positioning an element in certain browsers. I'm using the jQuery autocomplete found here. The div containing autocomplete values should be directly under the text box, and line up perfectly. The code sets the css left property of the div by using the left property generated by $(textbox).offset(); After un-packing the code to try and fix my problem, I get this: var a = $(textbox).offset(); element.css({ width: typeof e.width == "string" || e.width > 0 ? e.width : $(textbox).width(), top: a.top + textbox.offsetHeight, left: a.left }).show(); This seems like it should work, and it does work in Firefox. It doesn't work in IE8, Chrome. The top position is always correct, but the sometimes the div is too far to the left, or too far to the right. On different computers (all with Windows XP), it works in IE8... how can this be? I've also tested it on my Mac, OS 10.5. It works in Firefox, but not Safari. I've disabled plug-ins, changed screen resolutions, re-sized windows... It just inconsistently works in some places sometimes. Can anyone think of something I'm missing?

    Read the article

  • Dismissing UIImagePickerController from UITabBarController

    - by Dave
    I have a tab bar application whereby one tab uses a navigation controller to move through a series of views. On the final view, there is a button to add a photo, which presents a UIImagePickerController. So far, so good - however when I finish picking the image, or cancel the operation, the previous view is loaded, but without the tab bar. I'm sure I'm missing something elementary, but any suggestions on how to properly release the UIImagePickerController would be much appreciated. The code is as follows: ImagePickerViewController *aController = [[ImagePickerViewController alloc]; initWithNibName:@"ImagePickerViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release]; //viewDidLoad self.window = [[[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]] autorelease]; imagePickerController = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; imagePickerController.delegate = self; if([UIImagePickerController isSourceTypeAvailable: UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera]){ imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; } else { imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; } [window addSubview:imagePickerController.view]; //ImagePickerViewController imagePickerControllerDidCancel - FinalViewController is the last view in the stack controlled by a navigation controller which contains the button to present the UIImagePickerController [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; FinalViewController *aController = [[FinalViewController alloc initWithNibName:@"FinalViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [picker presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release];

    Read the article

  • WPF compile error "IDictionary must have a Key attribute"

    - by the empirical programmer
    I've created control styles I want to use among multiple xaml pages in my WPF app. To do this I created a Resources.xaml and added the styles there. Then in my pages I add this code <Grid.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="pack://application:,,,/SampleEventTask;component/Resources.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Grid.Resources> On two pages this works fine, but on the 3rd page I get a compile error that says: All objects added to an IDictionary must have a Key attribute or some other type of key associated with them. If I add a key to this, as such ResourceDictionary x:Key="x", then the compile error goes but on running the app it errors finding the style. I can make the compile error go away and have the app run by just moving original (no key specified) "ResourceDictionary" xaml from the top level Grid into a contained Grid on that page. But I don't understand what is going on here. Any suggestions as to what the problem is, I'm just missing something or doing something incorrectly. Is there a better way to share styles? thanks

    Read the article

  • zend_captcha always fails isValid()

    - by Grant Collins
    Hi, I've got an issue with Zend_Captcha always returning false when the page is submitted and the captcha's isValid() method is being called. It's driving my nuts because this as far as I am concerned should work. I start by declaring this at the top of the action function of the controller $captcha = new Zend_Captcha_Image('captcha', array( 'captcha' => array( 'name' => 'graduatesignupcaptcha', 'wordlen' => 6, 'font' => $this->config->captcha->font, 'imgDir' => $baseUrl.'/images/captcha/', 'imgUrl' => $this->config->webserver->name.'/images/captcha/', ) ) ); $captcha->setHeight(80) ->setTimeout(300); I do usual form validation and that all works, however it is when I come to validate that the value entered into form for the captcha it always returns false. //next we check the captcha text to ensure that the form is a person not a script $captchaText = $form->getElement('captchainput')->getValue(); $captchaId = $form->getElement('captchaid')->getValue(); //$captchaSession = new Zend_Session_Namespace('Zend_Form_Captcha_'.$captchaId); $captchaArray = array( 'id' => $captchaId, 'input' => $captchaText ); if(!$captcha->isValid($captchaArray)){ $log->log(implode(",",$captcha->getErrors()), Zend_Log::DEBUG); $form->getElement('captchainput')->setErrors(array('messages' => 'Bad security code')); $formFailed = true; } I've check to ensure that the id that I am getting and storing as a hidden element in my form match the image that is being generated but no matter what I do this always fails. Am I missing something simple here?? Or is there a better way of dealing with this?? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Qt 5.3 OpenGL - vertex buffer object drawing using the core profile

    - by user3700881
    Im using Qt 5.3 to create a QWindow to do some basic rendering stuff. The QWindow is declared like this: class OpenGLWindow : public QWindow, protected QOpenGLFunctions_3_3_Core { Q_OBJECT ... } It is initialized in the constructor: OpenGLWindow::OpenGLWindow(QWindow *parent) : QWindow(parent) { QSurfaceFormat format; format.setVersion(3,3); format.setProfile(QSurfaceFormat::CoreProfile); this->setSurfaceType(OpenGLSurface); this->setFormat(format); this->create(); _context = new QOpenGLContext; _context->setFormat(format); _context->create(); _context->makeCurrent(this); this->initializeOpenGLFunctions(); ... } And that's the rendering code: void OpenGLWindow::render() { if(!isExposed()) return; _context->makeCurrent(this); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glUseProgram(_shaderProgram); glBindBuffer(GL_ARRAY_BUFFER, _positionBufferObject); glEnableVertexAttribArray(0); glVertexAttribPointer(0, 4, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, 0); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLES, 0, 3); glDisableVertexAttribArray(0); glUseProgram(0); _context->swapBuffers(this); } I am trying to draw a simple triangle using a vertex and fragment shader. The problem is that the triangle is not showing up when the core profile is set. Only when I set the OpenGL version to 2.0 or when I use the compatibility profile, it shows up. From my point of view that doesn't make any sense because I am not using fixed functionality at all. What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • How can I do batch image processing with ImageJ in Java or clojure?

    - by Robert McIntyre
    I want to use ImageJ to do some processing of several thousand images. Is there a way to take any general imageJ plugin and apply it to hundreds of images automatically? For example, say I want to take my thousand images and apply a polar transformation to each--- A polar transformation plugin for ImageJ can be found here: http://rsbweb.nih.gov/ij/plugins/polar-transformer.html Great! Let's use it. From: [http://albert.rierol.net/imagej_programming_tutorials.html#How%20to%20automate%20an%20ImageJ%20dialog] I find that I can apply a plugin using the following: (defn x-polar [imageP] (let [thread (Thread/currentThread) options ""] (.setName thread "Run$_polar-transform") (Macro/setOptions thread options) (IJ/runPlugIn imageP "Polar_Transformer" ""))) This is good because it suppresses the dialog which would otherwise pop up for every image. But running this always brings up a window containing the transformed image, when what I want is to simply return the transformed image. The stupidest way to do what I want is to just close the window that comes up and return the image which it was displaying. Does what I want but is absolutely retarded: (defn x-polar [imageP] (let [thread (Thread/currentThread) options ""] (.setName thread "Run$_polar-transform") (Macro/setOptions thread options) (IJ/runPlugIn imageP "Polar_Transformer" "") (let [return-image (IJ/getImage)] (.hide return-image) return-image))) I'm obviously missing something about how to use imageJ plugins in a programming context. Does anyone know the right way to do this? Thanks, --Robert McIntyre

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework - Foreign key constraints not added for inherited entity

    - by Tri Q
    Hello, It appears to me that a strange phenomenon is occurring with inherited entities (TPT) in EF4. I have three entities. 1. Asset 2. Property 3. Activity Property is a derived-type of Asset. Property has many activities (many-to-many) When modeling this in my EDMX, everything seems fine until I try to insert a new Property into the database. If the property does not contain any Activity, it works, but all hell breaks loose when I add some new activities to the new Property. As it turns out after 2 days of crawling the web and fiddling around, I noticed that in the EF store (SSDL) some of the constraints between entities were not picked up during the update process. Property_Activity table which links properties and activities show only one constraint FK_Property_Activity_Activity but FK_Property_Activity_Property was missing. I knew this is an Entity Framework anomoly because when I switched the relationship in the database to: Asset <-- Asset_Activity <-- Activity After an update, all foreign key constraints are picked up and the save is successful, with or without activities in the new property. Is this intended or a bug in EF? How do I get around this problem? Should I abandon inheritance altogether?

    Read the article

  • PHP - Database schema: version control, branching, migrations.

    - by Billiam
    I'm trying to come up with (or find) a reusable system for database schema versioning in php projects. There are a number of Rails-style migration projects available for php. http://code.google.com/p/mysql-php-migrations/ is a good example. It uses timestamps for migration files, which helps with conflicts between branches. General problem with this kind of system: When development branch A is checked out, and you want to check out branch B instead, B may have new migration files. This is fine, migrating to newer content is straight forward. If branch A has newer migration files, you would need to migrate downwards to the nearest shared patch. If branch A and B have significantly different code bases, you may have to migrate down even further. This may mean: Check out B, determine shared patch number, check out A, migrate downwards to this patch. This must be done from A since the actual applied patches are not available in B. Then, checkout branch B, and migrate to newest B patch. Reverse process again when going from B to A. Proposed system: When migrating upwards, instead of just storing the patch version, serialize the whole patch in database for later use, though I'd probably only need the down() method. When changing branches, compare patches that have been run to patches that are available in the destination branch. Determine nearest shared patch (or oldest difference, maybe) between db table of run patches and patches in destination branch by ID or hash. Could also look for new or missing patches that are buried under a number of shared patches between the two branches. Automatically merge down to the nearest shared patch, using the db table stored down() methods, and then merge up to the branche's latest patch. My question is: Is this system too crazy and/or fraught with consequences to bother developing? My experience with database schema versioning is limited to PHP autopatch, which is an up()-only system requiring filenames with sequential IDs.

    Read the article

  • CLLocationDistance NaN

    - by Kaspa
    Hi, I'm trying to calculate a distance between two sets of coordinate points in an iPhone application on the fly using - (CLLocationDistance)getDistanceFrom:(const CLLocation *)location I saw that I started getting NaN's in strange places, thus investigated the matter up close, with the following hardcoded values. CLLocationDistance testDistance; placeLocation = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:12.236533 longitude:11.011419]; userLocation = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:12.236533 longitude:11.011419]; testDistance = [userLocation getDistanceFrom:placeLocation]; if(isnan(testDistance)) NSLog(@"ISNaN!"); [placeLocation release]; [userLocation release]; The above gets called multiple times, and in some situations the testDistance is NaN. I fear I'm missing something very simple here. Anyone have any idea? UPDATE 1: Ok, so I've moved the above code into a new project (put everything in the app delegate), looped it for 100 times and all is fine. This thus suggests that the problem is project related, but this helps very little... since all the variables are in the scope of 1 function. THE SOLUTION: OK, this seems to be a simulator bug. The same code build runs perfectly fine on the device. Case solved.

    Read the article

  • Updating a Minimum spanning tree when a new edge is inserted

    - by Lynette
    Hello, I've been presented the following problem in University: Let G = (V, E) be an (undirected) graph with costs ce = 0 on the edges e € E. Assume you are given a minimum-cost spanning tree T in G. Now assume that a new edge is added to G, connecting two nodes v, tv € V with cost c. a) Give an efficient algorithm to test if T remains the minimum-cost spanning tree with the new edge added to G (but not to the tree T). Make your algorithm run in time O(|E|). Can you do it in O(|V|) time? Please note any assumptions you make about what data structure is used to represent the tree T and the graph G. b)Suppose T is no longer the minimum-cost spanning tree. Give a linear-time algorithm (time O(|E|)) to update the tree T to the new minimum-cost spanning tree. This is the solution I found: Let e1=(a,b) the new edge added Find in T the shortest path from a to b (BFS) if e1 is the most expensive edge in the cycle then T remains the MST else T is not the MST It seems to work but i can easily make this run in O(|V|) time, while the problem asks O(|E|) time. Am i missing something? By the way we are authorized to ask for help from anyone so I'm not cheating :D Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • CakePHP belongsTo relationship with a variable 'model' field.

    - by gomezuk
    I've got a problem with a belongsTo relationship in CakePHP. I've got an "Action" model that uses the "actions" table and belongs to one of two other models, either "Transaction" or "Tag". The idea being that whenever a user completes a transaction or adds a tag, the action model is created to keep a log of it. I've got that part working, whenever a Transaction or Tag is saved, the aftersave() method also adds an Action record. The problem comes when I try to do a find('all') on the Action model, the related Transaction or Tag record is not being returned. actions: id model model_id created I thought I could use the "conditions" parameter in the belongsTo relationship like this: <?php class Action extends AppModel { var $name = 'Action'; var $actsAs = array('Containable'); var $belongsTo = array( 'Transaction' => array( 'foreignKey' => 'model_id', 'conditions' => array("Action.model"=>"Transaction") ), 'User' => array( 'fields' => array('User.username') ), 'Recommendation' => array( 'conditions' => array("Action.model"=>"Recommendation"), 'foreignKey' => 'model_id' ) ); } ?> But that doesn't work. Am I missing something here, are my relationships wrong (I suspect so)? After Googling this problem I cam across something called Polymorphic Behaviour but I'm not sure this will help me.

    Read the article

  • Matlab and .net problem with character string function input

    - by Peter
    I have a MATLAB function that I've compiled into a .net library. The function is a simple one that takes a character array as an input and a numeric array as output: function insert = money(dateLimit) .. insert = [1 2]; The function works fine when no function arguments are specified (a default argument is provided inside the function) Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim output = sf.money() As soon as an argument is specified .net complains. I'm thinking this should be easy and has been done before but searching through MATLAB documentation doesn't offer much help. Here's what I've tried. The sf.money() overload for the function with arguments is (numArgsOut as Integer, argsOut as MWArray, argsIn as MWArray) and hence that's what I've tried. What am I missing? Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim inputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWCharArray Dim dateLimitString As String = "some string" inputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWCharArray(dateLimitString) Dim outputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWNumericArray outputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWNumericArray() sf.money(1, outputArgs, inputArgs) Gives System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, Int32 numArgsIn, MWArray[] argsIn) at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn) at SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder.money(Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn)

    Read the article

  • [Perl] Testing for EAGAIN / EWOULDBLOCK on a recv

    - by Robert S. Barnes
    I'm testing a socket to see if it's still open: my $dummy = ''; my $ret = recv($sock, $dummy, 1, MSG_DONTWAIT | MSG_PEEK); if (!defined $ret || (length($dummy) == 0 && $! != EAGAIN && $! != EWOULDBLOCK )) { logerr("Broken pipe? ".__LINE__." $!"); } else { # socket still connected, reuse logerr(__LINE__.": $!"); return $sock; } I'm passing this code a socket I know for certain is open and it's always going through the first branch and logging "Broken pipe? 149 Resource temporarily unavailable". I don't understand how this is happening since "Resource temporarily unavailable" is supposed to correspond to EAGAIN as far as I know. I'm sure there must be something simple I'm missing. And yes, I know this is not a full proof way to test and I account for that.

    Read the article

  • How to mock the Request.ServerVariables using MOQ for ASP.NET MVC?

    - by melaos
    hi guys, i'm just learning to put in unit testing for my asp.net mvc when i came to learn about the mock and the different frameworks there is out there now. after checking SO, i found that MOQ seems to be the easiest to pick up. as of now i'm stuck trying to mock the Request.ServerVariables, as after reading this post, i've learned that it's better to abstract them into property. as such: /// <summary> /// Return the server port /// </summary> protected string ServerPort { get { return Request.ServerVariables.Get("SERVER_PORT"); } } But i'm having a hard time learning how to properly mock this. I have a home controller ActionResult function which grabs the user server information and proceed to create a form to grab the user's information. i tried to use hanselman's mvcmockhelpers class but i'm not sure how to use it. this is what i have so far... [Test] public void Create_Redirects_To_ProductAdded_On_Success() { FakeViewEngine engine = new FakeViewEngine(); HomeController controller = new HomeController(); controller.ViewEngine = engine; MvcMockHelpers.SetFakeControllerContext(controller); controller.Create(); var results = controller.Create(); var typedResults = results as RedirectToRouteResult; Assert.AreEqual("", typedResults.RouteValues["action"], "Wrong action"); Assert.AreEqual("", typedResults.RouteValues["controller"], "Wrong controller"); } Questions: As of now i'm still getting null exception error when i'm running the test. So what am i missing here? And if i use the mvcmockhelpers class, how can i still call the request.verifyall function to ensure all the mocking are properly setup?

    Read the article

  • Properly using Log4r in Ruby Application

    - by Spencer
    I must really be missing something obvious, but I'm having trouble with general use of Log4r in my Ruby application. I am able to log without issue, but the overhead seems clunky the way I have it setup. I'm basically passing the full path to a filename to log in each class in my application. The ruby script that is called pulls the log file from one of the arguments in ARGV which is then passed around and set in each class that I call in ruby. In each class I use the patternFormatter to insert the class/file name into the log statement. Is there a better way to make this work? It feels like no matter what I think of will require something to be passed to each class in my ruby application. I could set the log file in a yaml configuration file instead, but then I would be passing around the configuration file to each class as well. Any advice? If this doesn't make sense I could try and post some more specific code samples to further explain what I mean. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why do I have to unserialize this serialized value twice?

    - by 55skidoo
    What am I doing wrong here? I'm serializing a value, storing it in a database (table bb_meta), retrieving it... OK so far... but then I have to unserialize it twice. Shouldn't I be able to just unserialize once? This seems to work, but I'm wondering what point about serialization I'm missing here. //check database to see if user has ever visited before. $querystring = $bbdb->prepare( "SELECT `meta_value` FROM `$bbdb->meta` WHERE `object_type` = %s AND `object_id` = %s AND `meta_key` = %s LIMIT 1", $bbtype, $bb_this_thread, $bbuser ); $bb_last_visits = $bbdb->get_row($querystring, OBJECT); //if $bb_last_visits is empty, add time() as the metavalue using bb_update_meta if (empty($bb_last_visits)) { $first_visit = time(); echo 'serialized first visit: ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized = serialize(array($bb_this_thread => $first_visit)); bb_update_meta( $bb_this_thread, $bbuser, $bb_this_visit_time_serialized, $bbtype ); //add to database, bb_meta table echo '$bb_last_visits was empty. Setting first visit time as ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized . '<br>'; } else { //else, test by unserializing the data for use. echo 'last visit time already set: '; echo $bb_last_visits->meta_value; echo '<br>'; //fatal error - echo 'unserialized: ' . $bb_last_visits_unserialized = unserialize($bb_last_visits[0]->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'unserialize: ' . $unserialized_visits = unserialize($bb_last_visits->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'hmm, need to unserialize again??: '; echo $unserialized_unserialized_visits = unserialize($unserialized_visits); echo '<br>'; echo 'hey look, it\'s an array value I can finally use now. phew: ' . $unserialized_unserialized_visits[$bb_this_thread]; }

    Read the article

  • Qt - no such signal error

    - by bullettime
    I'm trying to trigger a signal when a double click happens in one of the draggable widgets on the fridge magnets example. Here's the changes I made to the example source: DragLabel: class DragLabel : public QLabel { public: DragLabel(const QString &text, QWidget *parent); QString labelText() const; public slots: void testSlot(){qDebug()<<"testSlot";} //<-- implemented this slot protected: void mouseDoubleClickEvent(QMouseEvent *ev){emit testSignal();} //<-- overriden this method private: QString m_labelText; signals: void testSignal(); //<-- added this signal }; The only thing I changed in the implementation file is adding connect(this,SIGNAL(testSignal()),this,SLOT(testSlot())); to DragLabel's constructor. Trying to compile the project resulted in 'undefined reference to `DragLabel::testSignal()' and 'collect2: ld returned 1 exit status' errors. When I comment out the call to the signal, it compiles and runs, but gives off 'Object::connect: No such signal QLabel::testSignal() in draglabel.cpp' warning in the application output. Apparently testSignal() isn't being recognized as a signal. What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • How to group data changes by operation with MySQL triggers

    - by Jan-Henk
    I am using triggers in MySQL to log changes to the data. These changes are recorded on a row level. I can now insert an entry in my log table for each row that is changed. However, I also need to record the operation to which the changes belong. For example, a delete operation like "DELETE * FROM table WHERE type=x" can delete multiple rows. With the trigger I can insert an entry for each deleted row into the log table, but I would like to also provide a unique identifier for the operation as a whole, so that the log table looks something like: log_id operation_id tablename fieldname oldvalue newvalue 1 1 table id 1 null 2 1 table type a null 3 1 table id 2 null 4 1 table type a null 5 2 table id 3 null 6 2 table type b null 7 2 table id 4 null 8 2 table type b null Is there a way in MySQL to identify the higher level operation to which the row changes belong? Or is this only possible by means of application level code? In the future it would also be nice to be able to record the transaction to which an operation belongs. Another question is if it is possible to capture the actual SQL query, besides using the query log. I don't think so myself, but maybe I am missing something. It is of course possible to capture these at the application level, but the goal is to keep intrusions to the application level code as minimal as possible. When this is not possible with MySQL, how is this with other database systems? For the current project it is not an option to use something other than MySQL, but it would be nice to know for future projects.

    Read the article

  • Configure WebLogic MDB to listen to Foreing AMQ Server

    - by eliel.lobo
    I'm trying to create an MDB(EJB 3.0) on WebLogic 10.3.5. to listen to a Queue in an external AMQ server. but after much work and combination of tutorials i get the followin error when deployin on WwebLogic. [EJB:015027]The Message-Driven EJB is transactional but JMS connection factory referenced by the JNDI name: ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory is not a JMS XA connection factory. Here is a brief of the work i have done: I have added the corresponding libraries to my WLS classpath (following thos tuturial http://amadei.com.br/blog/index.php/connecting-weblogic-and-activemq) and I have created the corresponding JMS Modules as indicated in the tutorial. As connection factory I have used ActiveMQConnectionFactory initially and ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory later, I also ignome the jms. notation an just put plain names as testQueue. Then create a simple MDB whit the following structure. I explicitly defined "connectionFactoryJndiName" property because otherwise it assumes a WebLogic connection factory which is not found an then raises an error. @MessageDriven( activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destination", propertyValue = "testQueue"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "connectionFactoryJndiName", propertyValue = "ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory") }, mappedName = "testQueue") public class ROMELReceiver implements MessageListener { /** * Default constructor. */ public ROMELReceiver() { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } /** * @see MessageListener#onMessage(Message) */ public void onMessage(Message message) { System.out.println("Message received"); } } At this point I'm stuck with the error mentioned above. Even though I use ActiveMQXAConnectionFactory instead of simply ActiveMQConnectionFactory, JNDI resources tree in web logic server shows org.apache.activemq.ActiveMQConnectionFactory as class for my configured connection factory. am i missing something? or is this just a completely wrong way to connect WebLogic whith AMQ? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Retrive data from two tables in asp.net mvc using ADO.Net Entity Framework

    - by user192972
    Please read my question carefully and reply me. I have two tables as table1 and table2. In table1 i have columns as AddressID(Primary Key),Address1,Address2,City In table2 i have columns as ContactID(Primary Key),AddressID(Foriegn Key),Last Name,First Name. By using join operation i can retrive data from both the tables. I created a Model in my MVC Application.I can see both the tables in enitity editor. In the ViewData folder of my solution explorer i created two class as ContactViewData.cs and SLXRepository.cs In the ContactViewData.cs i have following code public IEnumerable<CONTACT> contacts { get; set; } In the SLXRepository.cs i have following code public IEnumerable<CONTACT> GetContacts() { var contact = ( from c in context.CONTACT join a in context.ADDRESS on c.ADDRESSID equals a.ADDRESSID select new { a.ADDRESS1, a.ADDRESS2, a.CITY, c.FIRSTNAME, c.LASTNAME } ); return contact; } I am getting the error in return type Cannot implicitly convert type 'System.Linq.IQueryable' to 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?)

    Read the article

  • jQuery HOW TO?? pass additional parameters to success callback for $.ajax call ?

    - by dotnetgeek
    Hello jQuery Ninjas! I am trying, in vain it seems, to be able to pass additional parameters back to the success callback method that I have created for a successful ajax call. A little background. I have a page with a number of dynamically created textbox / selectbox pairs. Each pair having a dynamically assigned unique name such as name="unique-pair-1_txt-url" and name="unique-pair-1_selectBox" then the second pair has the same but the prefix is different. In an effort to reuse code, I have crafted the callback to take the data and a reference to the selectbox. However when the callback is fired the reference to the selectbox comes back as 'undefined'. I read here that it should be doable. I have even tried taking advantage of the 'context' option but still nothing. Here is the script block that I am trying to use: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $j = jQuery.noConflict(); function getImages(urlValue, selectBox) { $j.ajax({ type: "GET", url: $j(urlValue).val(), dataType: "jsonp", context: selectBox, success:function(data){ loadImagesInSelect(data, $j(this)) } , error:function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(xhr.status); alert(thrownError); } }); } function loadImagesInSelect(data, selectBox) { //var select = $j('[name=single_input.<?cs var:op_unique_name ?>.selImageList]'); var select = selectBox; select.empty(); $j(data).each(function() { var theValue = $j(this)[0]["@value"]; var theId = $j(this)[0]["@name"]; select.append("<option value='" + theId + "'>" + theValue + "</option>"); }); select.children(":first").attr("selected", true); } From what I have read, I feel I am close but I just cant put my finger on the missing link. Please help in your typical ninja stealthy ways. TIA

    Read the article

  • Comparing two date ranges within the same table

    - by Danny Herran
    I have a table with sales per store as follows: SQL> select * from sales; ID ID_STORE DATE TOTAL ---------- -------- ---------- -------------------------------------------------- 1 1 2010-01-01 500.00 2 1 2010-01-02 185.00 3 1 2010-01-03 135.00 4 1 2009-01-01 165.00 5 1 2009-01-02 175.00 6 5 2010-01-01 130.00 7 5 2010-01-02 135.00 8 5 2010-01-03 130.00 9 6 2010-01-01 100.00 10 6 2010-01-02 12.00 11 6 2010-01-03 85.00 12 6 2009-01-01 135.00 13 6 2009-01-02 400.00 14 6 2009-01-07 21.00 15 6 2009-01-08 45.00 16 8 2009-01-09 123.00 17 8 2009-01-10 581.00 17 rows selected. What I need to do is to compare two date ranges within that table. Lets say I need to know the differences in sales between 01 Jan 2009 to 10 Jan 2009 AGAINST 01 Jan 2010 to 10 Jan 2010. I'd like to build a query that returns something like this: ID_STORE_A DATE_A TOTAL_A ID_STORE_B DATE_B TOTAL_B ---------- ---------- --------- ---------- ---------- ------------------- 1 2010-01-01 500.00 1 2009-01-01 165.00 1 2010-01-02 185.00 1 2009-01-02 175.00 1 2010-01-03 135.00 1 NULL NULL 5 2010-01-01 130.00 5 NULL NULL 5 2010-01-02 135.00 5 NULL NULL 5 2010-01-03 130.00 5 NULL NULL 6 2010-01-01 100.00 6 2009-01-01 135.00 6 2010-01-02 12.00 6 2009-01-02 400.00 6 2010-01-03 85.00 6 NULL NULL 6 NULL NULL 6 2009-01-07 21.00 6 NULL NULL 6 2009-01-08 45.00 6 NULL NULL 8 2009-01-09 123.00 6 NULL NULL 8 2009-01-10 581.00 So, even if there are no sales in one range or another, it should just fill the empty space with NULL. So far, I've come up with this quick query, but I the "dates" from sales to sales2 sometimes are different in each row: SELECT sales.*, sales2.* FROM sales LEFT JOIN sales AS sales2 ON (sales.id_store=sales2.id_store) WHERE sales.date >= '2010-01-01' AND sales.date <= '2010-01-10' AND sales2.date >= '2009-01-01' AND sales2.date <= '2009-01-10' ORDER BY sales.id_store ASC, sales.date ASC, sales2.date ASC What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Template with constant expression: error C2975 with VC++2008

    - by Arman
    Hello, I am trying to use elements of meta programming, but hit the wall with the first trial. I would like to have a comparator structure which can be used as following: intersect_by<ID>(L1.data, L2.data, "By ID: "); intersect_by<IDf>(L1.data, L2.data, "By IDf: "); Where: struct ID{};// Tag used for original IDs struct IDf{};// Tag used for the file position //following Boost.MultiIndex examples template<typename Tag,typename MultiIndexContainer> void intersect_by( const MultiIndexContainer& L1,const MultiIndexContainer& L2,std::string msg, Tag* =0 /* fixes a MSVC++ 6.0 bug with implicit template function parms / ) { / obtain a reference to the index tagged by Tag */ const typename boost::multi_index::index<MultiIndexContainer,Tag>::type& L1_ID_index= get<Tag>(L1); const typename boost::multi_index::index<MultiIndexContainer,Tag>::type& L2_ID_index= get<Tag>(L2); std::set_intersection( L1_ID_index.begin(), L1_ID_index.end(), L2_ID_index.begin(), L2_ID_index.end(), std::inserter(s, s.begin()), strComparator() // Here I get the C2975 error ); } template<int N> struct strComparator; template<> struct strComparator<0>{ bool operator () (const particleID& id1, const particleID& id2) const { return id1.ID struct strComparator<1{ bool operator () (const particleID& id1, const particleID& id2) const { return id1.IDf }; What I am missing? kind regards Arman.

    Read the article

  • How to modify the style of jQuery DatePicker's disabled dates?

    - by Clay
    Given this page: http://jqueryui.com/demos/datepicker/#min-max And viewing its source: http://jqueryui.com/themeroller/css/parseTheme.css.php I can change the following line (using Chrome's inspect element feature) and see those changes reflected: .ui-state-disabled, .ui-widget-content .ui-state-disabled { opacity: .35; filter:Alpha(Opacity=35); background-image: none; } However, if I try to override my own test page with something like... .ui-state-disabled, .ui-widget-content .ui-state-disabled { opacity: .99 !important; filter:Alpha(Opacity=99) !important; background-image: none !important; color:Red !important; } ...I do not see my changes reflected in the calendar. I can make other changes in my own test page and those are reflected for other classes in the datepicker. So, I'm not having any kind of path issue to the .js or .css files. What am I missing here? UPDATE/SOLUTION Firebug to the rescue...this took care of my styling needs: .ui-datepicker-week-end{color: #c0c0c0 !important;} div#ui-datepicker-div.ui-datepicker{color: #c0c0c0;} div#ui-datepicker-div.ui-datepicker:hover{cursor: default important;} .ui-datepicker-calendar th{color: #222222 !important;}

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446  | Next Page >