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  • How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

    - by olivehour
    I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

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  • Quick question regarding this issue, Why doesnt it print out the second value(converted second value

    - by sil3nt
    Quick question, What have I done wrong here. The purpose of this code is to get the input into a string, the input being "12 34", with a space in between the "12" and "32" and to convert and print the two separate numbers from an integer variable known as number. Why doesn't the second call to the function copyTemp, not produce the value 34?. I have an index_counter variable which keeps track of the string index and its meant to skip the 'space' character?? what have i done wrong? thanks. #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> int index_counter = 0; int number; void copyTemp(char *expr,char *temp); int main(){ char exprstn[80]; //as global? char tempstr[80]; gets(exprstn); copyTemp(exprstn,tempstr); printf("Expression: %s\n",exprstn); printf("Temporary: %s\n",tempstr); printf("number is: %d\n",number); copyTemp(exprstn,tempstr); //second call produces same output shouldnt it now produce 34 in the variable number? printf("Expression: %s\n",exprstn); printf("Temporary: %s\n",tempstr); printf("number is: %d\n",number); return 0; } void copyTemp(char *expr,char *temp){ int i; for(i = index_counter; expr[i] != '\0'; i++){ if (expr[i] == '0'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '1'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '2'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '3'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '4'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '5'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '6'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '7'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '8'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '9'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == ' '){ temp[i] = '\0'; sscanf(temp,"%d",&number); index_counter = i+1; //skips? } } // is this included here? temp[i] = '\0'; }

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  • Best way to run remote VBScript in ASP.net? WMI or PsExec?

    - by envinyater
    I am doing some research to find out the best and most efficient method for this. I will need to execute remote scripts on a number of Window Servers/Computers (while we are building them). I have a web application that is going to automate this task, I currently have my prototype working to use PsExec to execute remote scripts. This requires PsExec to be installed on the system. A colleague suggested I should use WMI for this. I did some research in WMI and I couldn't find what I'm looking for. I want to either upload the script to the server and execute it and read the results, or already have the script on the server and execute it and read the results. I would prefer the first option though! Which is more ideal, PsExec or WMI? For reference, this is my prototype PsExec code. This script is only executing a small script to get the Windows OS and Service Pack Info. Protected Sub windowsScript(ByVal COMPUTERNAME As String) ' Create an array to store VBScript results Dim winVariables(2) As String nameLabel.Text = Name.Text ' Use PsExec to execute remote scripts Dim Proc As New System.Diagnostics.Process ' Run PsExec locally Proc.StartInfo = New ProcessStartInfo("C:\Windows\psexec.exe") ' Pass in following arguments to PsExec Proc.StartInfo.Arguments = COMPUTERNAME & " -s cmd /C c:\systemInfo.vbs" Proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = True Proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True Proc.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False Proc.Start() ' Pause for script to run System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1500) Proc.Close() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2500) 'Allows the system a chance to finish with the process. Dim filePath As String = COMPUTERNAME & "\TTO\somefile.txt" 'Download file created by script on Remote system to local system My.Computer.Network.DownloadFile(filePath, "C:\somefile.txt") System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) ' Pause so file gets downloaded ''Import data from text file into variables textRead("C:\somefile.txt", winVariables) WindowsOSLbl.Text = winVariables(0).ToString() SvcPckLbl.Text = winVariables(1).ToString() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) ' ''Delete the file on server - we don't need it anymore Dim Proc2 As New System.Diagnostics.Process Proc2.StartInfo = New ProcessStartInfo("C:\Windows\psexec.exe") Proc2.StartInfo.Arguments = COMPUTERNAME & " -s cmd /C del c:\somefile.txt" Proc2.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = True Proc2.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True Proc2.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False Proc2.Start() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500) Proc2.Close() ' Delete file locally File.Delete("C:\somefile.txt") End Sub

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  • JQuery validation not working for checkbox group

    - by Chris Halcrow
    I'm having trouble getting JQuery validation to work with a set of checkboxes. I'm generating the checkboxes using an ASP.NET checkboxlist, and I've used JQuery to set the 'name' attribute to the same thing for each checkbox in the list. Here's the code that gets written to the browser. I'm setting the 'validate' attribute on the 1st checkbox to set the rule that at least one checkbox must be selected. The JQuery validation works for all other elements on the form, but not for the checkbox list. I'm also using a JQuery form wizard on the page which triggers validation for each 'page' of the form, so I don't have control over how the validation is called. <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Famine" name="hello[]" validate="required:true, minlength:1"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0">Famine</label> <br> <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Events Volunteer" name="hello[]"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1">Events Volunteer</label> Any ideas on what's going wrong? There are lots of examples of JQuery scripts that will do the validation, however I'm trying to avoid this as I'm generating the checkboxlist server side by a custom control so that it can be re-used across different pages that may or may not have JQuery enabled. I'm trying to enable the JQuery validation whilst being as unobtrusive as possible, so that pages will still work even if JQuery is disabled. Here are the relevant JQuery inclusions and JQuery initialisation script for the form wizard. I'm not using any initialisation code for JQuery validation: <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/bbq.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.wizard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#form1").formwizard({ validationEnabled: true, focusFirstInput: true }); }); </script>

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  • How can this PHP/FQL code be modified to increase the performance and usability?

    - by Kaoukkos
    I try to get some insights from the pages I am administrator on Facebook. What my code does, it gets the IDs of the pages I want to work with through mySQL. I did not include that part though.After this, I get the page_id, name and fan_count of each of those facebook IDs and are saved in fancounts[]. Using the IDs ( pages[] ) I get two messages max from each page. There may be no messages, there may be 1 or 2 messages max. Possibly I will increase it later. messages[] holds the messages of each page. I have two problems with it. It has a very slow performance I can't find a way to echo the data like this: ID - Name of the page - Fan Count Here goes the first message Here goes the second one //here is a break ID - Name of the page 2 - Fan Count Here goes the first message of page 2 Here goes the second one of page 2 My questions are, how can the code be modified to increase performance and show the data as above? I read about fql.multiquery. Can it be used here? Please provide me with code examples. Thank you $pages = array(); // I get the IDs I want to work with $pagesIds = implode(',', $pages); // fancounts[] holds the page_id, name and fan_count of the Ids I work with $fancounts = array(); $pagesFanCounts = $facebook->api("/fql", array( "q" => "SELECT page_id, name, fan_count FROM page WHERE page_id IN ({$pagesIds})" )); foreach ($pagesFanCounts['data'] as $page){ $fancounts[] = $page['page_id']."-".$page['name']."-".$page['fan_count']; } //messages[] holds from 0 to 2 messages from each of the above pages $messages = array(); foreach( $pages as $id) { $getMessages = $facebook->api("/fql", array( "q" => "SELECT message FROM stream WHERE source_id = '$id' LIMIT 2" )); $messages[] = $getMessages['data']; } // this is how I print them now but it does not give me the best output. ( thanks goes to Mark for providing me this code ) $count = min(count($fancounts),count($messages)); for($i=0; $i<$count; ++$i) { echo $fancounts[$i],'<br>'; foreach($messages[$i] as $msg) { echo $msg['message'],'<br>'; } }

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  • difference between calling javascript function on body load or directly from script.

    - by Abbas
    i am using a javascript where in i am creating multiple div (say 5) at runtime, using javascript function, all the divs contain some text, which is again set at runtime, now i want to disable all the divs at runtime and have the page numbers in the bottom, so that whenever user clicks on the page number only that div should get visible else other should get disable, i have created a function, which accepts parameter, as page number, i enable the div whose page number is clicked and using a for loop, i disable all the other divs, now here my problem is i have created two functions, 1st (for adding divs and disabling all the divs except 1st) and writing content to it, and other for enabling the div whose page number is clicked, and i have called the Adding div function on body onload; now first time when i run, page everthing goes well, but next time when i click on any of the page number, it just gets enabled and again that AddDiv function, runs and re-enables all the divs.. Please reply why this is happening and how should i resolve my issue... Below is my script, content for the div are coming using Json. <body onload="JsonScript();"> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function JsonScript() { var existingDiv = document.getElementById("form1"); var newAnchorDiv = document.createElement("div"); newAnchorDiv.id = "anchorDiv"; var list = { "Article": articleList }; for(var i=0; i < list.Article.length; i++) { var newDiv = document.createElement("div"); newDiv.id = "div"+(i+1); newDiv.innerHTML = list.Article[i].toString(); newAnchorDiv.innerHTML += "<a href='' onclick='displayMessage("+(i+1)+")'>"+(i+1)+"</a>&nbsp;"; existingDiv.appendChild(newDiv); existingDiv.appendChild(newAnchorDiv); } for(var j = 2; j < list.Article.length + 1; j ++) { var getDivs = document.getElementById("div"+j); getDivs.style.display = "none"; } } function displayMessage(currentId) { var list = {"Article" : articleList} document.getElementById("div"+currentId).style.display = 'block'; for(var i = 1; i < list.Article.length + 1; i++) { if (i != currentId) { document.getElementById("div"+i).style.display = 'none'; } } } </script> Thanks and Regards

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  • Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

    - by Volomike
    I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

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  • Looking for an Open Source Project in need of help

    - by hvidgaard
    Hi StackOverflow! I'm a CS student on well on my way to graduate. I have had a difficult time of finding relevant student jobs (they seems to be taken merely hours after the notice gets on the board) , so instead I'm looking for an open source project in need of help. I'm aware that I should choose one that I use, but I'm not aware of any OS-project that I use that needs help. That's why I'm asking you. I don't have any deep experience, but I here are some of my biggest projects so far: BitTorrent-ish client in Python (a subset of BitTorrent) HTTP 1.1 webserver in Java Compiler from a subset of Java to run on JRE Flash-framework project to model an iPad look and feel (not to run actual iPad programs) complete with an API for programs. Complete MySQL database for a booking system, with departure and arrival times, so you could only book valid tickets (with a Java frontend). I know, Java and languages like AS3 and C# feels natural per se, Python, and have done a fair bit of hacking around in C, but I don't feel very comfortable with it. Mostly I'm afraid to make a fuckup because I have such a high degree of control. I would like to think I'm well aware of good software design practices, but in reality what I do is ask myself "would I like to use/maintain this?", and I love to refactor my code because I see optimizations. I love algorithms and to make them run in the best possible time. I don't have any preferred domain to work in, but I wouldn't mind it to be graphics or math heavy. Ideally I'm looking for a project in C++ to learn the in's and out's of it, but I'm well aware that I don't know that language very well. I would like to have a mentor-like figure until I'm confident enough to stand on my own, not one to review all my code (I'm sure someone will to start with anyway), but to ask questions about the project and language in question. I do have a wife and two children, so don't expect me to put in 10+ hours every week. In return I can work on my own, I strive to program modular and maintainable code. Know how to read an API, use Google, StackOverflow and online resources in general. If you have any questions, shoot. I'm looking forward to your suggestions.

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  • Emails sent using Flex app are delayed

    - by user363825
    I'm currently building an application in Flex that utilizes SMTP Mailer to automatically send out emails to the user when a particular condition is satisfied. The application checks this condition every 30 seconds. The condition is satisfied based on new records being returned from a database table. The problem is as follows: When the condition is first satisfied, the email is delivered to the user with no issues. The second time the condition is satisfied, the email is not delivered. In the smtp logs, the delivery attempt appears to get hung up on the following line: 354 Start mail input; end with <CRLF>.<CRLF> No error codes are present in the smtp logs, but I do trace the following event from the SMTP Mailer class: [Event type="mailError" bubbles=false cancelable=false eventPhase=2] When the condition is satisfied a third time, the email that was not delivered when the condition was satisfied the previous time is now delivered, along with the email for this instance. This pattern then repeats itself, with the next email not being sent followed by two emails being sent simulatneously when the condition is met again. The smtp server being used is Windows 2003, on an internal network. The email is being sent to an outlook account hosted on an exchange server that is also on this internal network. Here is the actionscript code that creates the SMTPMailer object: public var testMail:SMTPMailer = null; public function alertNotify() { Security.loadPolicyFile("crossdomain.xml"); this.testMail = new SMTPMailer("myserver.ec.local",25); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.MAIL_SENT, onEmailEvent); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.MAIL_ERROR, onEmailError); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.DISCONNECTED, onEmailConn); this.testMail.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, onEmailError); } Here is the code that creates the email body and calls the method to send the email: public function alertUser(emailAC:ArrayCollection):void { trace ("In alertUser() before send, testMail.connected = " + testMail.connected.toString()); var testStr:String = " Key Location Event Type Comment Update Time "; for each (var event:rEntity in emailAC) { testStr = testStr + "" + event.key.toString() + "" + event.xml.address.toString() + " " + [email protected]() + "" + [email protected]() + "" + [email protected]() + "" + event.xml.attribute("update-time").toXMLString() + ""; } testStr = testStr + ""; testMail.flush(); testMail.sendHTMLMail("[email protected]","[email protected]","Event Notification",testStr); } Really not sure where the email that gets hung up is being stored until it is finally sent.... Any suggestions as to how to begin to remedy this issue would be much appreciated.

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  • asp.net custom templated datalist - throws argument out of range (index) on button press

    - by MrTortoise
    I have a class BaseTemplate public abstract class BaseTemplate : ITemplate This adds the controls, and provides abstract methods to implement in the inheriting class. The inheriting class then adds its html according to its data source and manages the data binding. this all works fine - I get the control appearing with properly parsed html. the problem is that the base class adds controls into the template that have their own CommandName arguments ... the idea is that the class that implements the custom templated dataList will provide the logic of setting the Selected and Edit Indexes. This class also manages the data binding etc. It sets all of the templates ont he datalist in the Init method (which was another cause of this exception). the exception gets throw when i hit one of these buttons .. but after the ItemCommand event is being processed. The stack trace does not include any references to my methods or objects which is why i am so stuck. The Exception Details Exception Details: System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Specified argument was out of the range of valid values. Parameter name: index The Stack Trace: [ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Specified argument was out of the range of valid values. Parameter name: index] System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.get_Item(Int32 index) +8665582 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataList.GetItem(ListItemType itemType, Int32 repeatIndex) +8667655 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataList.System.Web.UI.WebControls.IRepeatInfoUser.GetItemStyle(ListItemType itemType, Int32 repeatIndex) +11 System.Web.UI.WebControls.RepeatInfo.RenderVerticalRepeater(HtmlTextWriter writer, IRepeatInfoUser user, Style controlStyle, WebControl baseControl) +8640873 System.Web.UI.WebControls.RepeatInfo.RenderRepeater(HtmlTextWriter writer, IRepeatInfoUser user, Style controlStyle, WebControl baseControl) +27 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataList.RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter writer) +208 System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataList.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +30 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +163 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlContainerControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +32 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.Render(HtmlTextWriter output) +51 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +40 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.Page.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +29 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1266 This is driving me absolutley stark raving bonkers ... im talking cthulu style.

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  • Android Bluetooth Fails to Pair

    - by CaseyB
    I am having a problem getting my devices to pair in Android. If I go into the settings and pair them manually I can get them to connect using the following code: Server // Make sure the device it discoverable mServerSocket = mAdapter.listenUsingRfcommWithServiceRecord("Moo Productions Bluetooth Server", mUUID); mState = State.ACCEPTING; BluetoothSocket socket = mServerSocket.accept(); mServerSocket.close(); connected(socket); Client Set<BluetoothDevice> pairedDevices = mAdapter.getBondedDevices(); BluetoothSocket socket = null; // Search the list of paired devices for the right one for(BluetoothDevice device : pairedDevices) { try { mState = State.SEARCHING; socket = device.createRfcommSocketToServiceRecord(mUUID); mState = State.CONNECTING; socket.connect(); connected(socket); break; } catch (IOException e) { socket = null; continue; } } But if the devices hadn't already been paired it gets out of the foreach without connecting to a valid socket. In that case I start discovering. // If that didn't work, discover if(socket == null) { mState = State.SEARCHING; mReceiver = new SocketReceiver(); mContext.registerReceiver(mReceiver, new IntentFilter(BluetoothDevice.ACTION_FOUND)); mAdapter.startDiscovery(); } // ... Later ... private class SocketReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { if(BluetoothDevice.ACTION_FOUND.equals(intent.getAction())) { try { // Get the device and try to open a socket BluetoothDevice device = intent.getParcelableExtra(BluetoothDevice.EXTRA_DEVICE); BluetoothSocket socket = device.createRfcommSocketToServiceRecord(mUUID); mState = State.CONNECTING; socket.connect(); // This is our boy, so stop looking mAdapter.cancelDiscovery(); mContext.unregisterReceiver(mReceiver); connected(socket); } catch (IOException ioe) { ioe.printStackTrace(); } } } } But it will never find the other device. I never get a pairing dialog and when I step through I see that it discovers the correct device, but it fails to connect with this exception java.io.IOException: Service discovery failed. Any ideas as to what I'm missing?

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  • Monitoring UDP socket in glib(mm) eats up CPU time

    - by Gyorgy Szekely
    Hi, I have a GTKmm Windows application (built with MinGW) that receives UDP packets (no sending). The socket is native winsock and I use glibmm IOChannel to connect it to the application main loop. The socket is read with recvfrom. My problem is: this setup eats 25% percent CPU time on a 3GHz workstation. Can somebody tell me why? The application is idle in this case, and if I remove the UDP code, CPU usage drops down to almost zero. As the application has to perform some CPU intensive tasks, I could image better ways to spend that 25% Here are some code excerpts: (sorry for the printf's ;) ) /* bind */ void UDPInterface::bindToPort(unsigned short port) { struct sockaddr_in target; WSADATA wsaData; target.sin_family = AF_INET; target.sin_port = htons(port); target.sin_addr.s_addr = 0; if ( WSAStartup ( 0x0202, &wsaData ) ) { printf("WSAStartup failed!\n"); exit(0); // :) WSACleanup(); } sock = socket( AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, 0 ); if (sock == INVALID_SOCKET) { printf("invalid socket!\n"); exit(0); } if (bind(sock,(struct sockaddr*) &target, sizeof(struct sockaddr_in) ) == SOCKET_ERROR) { printf("failed to bind to port!\n"); exit(0); } printf("[UDPInterface::bindToPort] listening on port %i\n", port); } /* read */ bool UDPInterface::UDPEvent(Glib::IOCondition io_condition) { recvfrom(sock, (char*)buf, BUF_SIZE*4, 0, NULL, NULL); /* process packet... */ } /* glibmm connect */ Glib::RefPtr channel = Glib::IOChannel::create_from_win32_socket(udp.sock); Glib::signal_io().connect( sigc::mem_fun(udp, &UDPInterface::UDPEvent), channel, Glib::IO_IN ); I've read here in some other question, and also in glib docs (g_io_channel_win32_new_socket()) that the socket is put into nonblocking mode, and it's "a side-effect of the implementation and unavoidable". Does this explain the CPU effect, it's not clear to me? Whether or not I use glib to access the socket or call recvfrom() directly doesn't seem to make much difference, since CPU is used up before any packet arrives and the read handler gets invoked. Also glibmm docs state that it's ok to call recvfrom() even if the socket is polled (Glib::IOChannel::create_from_win32_socket()) I've tried compiling the program with -pg and created a per function cpu usage report with gprof. This wasn't usefull because the time is not spent in my program, but in some external glib/glibmm dll.

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  • SQL Server CTE referred in self joins slow

    - by Kharlos Dominguez
    Hello, I have written a table-valued UDF that starts by a CTE to return a subset of the rows from a large table. There are several joins in the CTE. A couple of inner and one left join to other tables, which don't contain a lot of rows. The CTE has a where clause that returns the rows within a date range, in order to return only the rows needed. I'm then referencing this CTE in 4 self left joins, in order to build subtotals using different criterias. The query is quite complex but here is a simplified pseudo-version of it WITH DataCTE as ( SELECT [columns] FROM table INNER JOIN table2 ON [...] INNER JOIN table3 ON [...] LEFT JOIN table3 ON [...] ) SELECT [aggregates_columns of each subset] FROM DataCTE Main LEFT JOIN DataCTE BananasSubset ON [...] AND Product = 'Bananas' AND Quality = 100 LEFT JOIN DataCTE DamagedBananasSubset ON [...] AND Product = 'Bananas' AND Quality < 20 LEFT JOIN DataCTE MangosSubset ON [...] GROUP BY [ I have the feeling that SQL Server gets confused and calls the CTE for each self join, which seems confirmed by looking at the execution plan, although I confess not being an expert at reading those. I would have assumed SQL Server to be smart enough to only perform the data retrieval from the CTE only once, rather than do it several times. I have tried the same approach but rather than using a CTE to get the subset of the data, I used the same select query as in the CTE, but made it output to a temp table instead. The version referring the CTE version takes 40 seconds. The version referring the temp table takes between 1 and 2 seconds. Why isn't SQL Server smart enough to keep the CTE results in memory? I like CTEs, especially in this case as my UDF is a table-valued one, so it allowed me to keep everything in a single statement. To use a temp table, I would need to write a multi-statement table valued UDF, which I find a slightly less elegant solution. Did some of you had this kind of performance issues with CTE, and if so, how did you get them sorted? Thanks, Kharlos

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  • JSF 2.0: Preserving component state across multiple views

    - by tlind
    The web application I am developing using MyFaces 2.0.3 / PrimeFaces 2.2RC2 is divided into a content and a navigation area. In the navigation area, which is included into multiple pages using templating (i.e. <ui:define>), there are some widgets (e.g. a navigation tree, collapsible panels etc.) of which I want to preserve the component state across views. For example, let's say I am on the home page. When I navigate to a product details page by clicking on a product in the navigation tree, my Java code triggers a redirect using navigationHandler.handleNavigation(context, null, "/detailspage.jsf?faces-redirect=true") Another way of getting to that details page would be by directly clicking on a product teaser that is shown on the home page. The corresponding <h:link> would lead us to the details page. In both cases, the expansion state of my navigation tree (a PrimeFaces tree component) and my collapsible panels is lost. I understand this is because the redirect / h:link results in the creation of a new view. What is the best way of dealing with this? I am already using MyFaces Orchestra in my project along with its conversation scope, but I am not sure if this is of any help here (since I'd have to bind the expansion/collapsed state of the widgets to a backing bean... but as far as I know, this is not possible). Is there a way of telling JSF which component states to propagate to the next view, assuming that the same component exists in that view? I guess I could need a pointer into the right direction here. Thanks! Update 1: I just tried binding the panels and the tree to a session-scoped bean, but this seems to have no effect. Also, I guess I would have to bind all child components (if any) manually, so this doesn't seem like the way to go. Update 2: Binding UI components to non-request scoped beans is not a good idea (see link I posted in a comment below). If there is no easier approach, I might have to proceed as follows: When a panel is collapsed or the tree is expanded, save the current state in a session-scoped backing bean (!= the UI component itself) The components' states are stored in a map. The map key is the component's (hopefully) unique, relative ID. I cannot use the whole absolute component path here, since the IDs of the parent naming containers might change if the view changes, assuming these IDs are generated programmatically. As soon as a new view gets constructed, retrieve the components' states from the map and apply them to the components. For example, in case of the panels, I can set the collapsed attribute to a value retrieved from my session-scoped backing bean.

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  • Help with C# program design implementation: multiple array of lists or a better way?

    - by Bob
    I'm creating a 2D tile-based RPG in XNA and am in the initial design phase. I was thinking of how I want my tile engine to work and came up with a rough sketch. Basically I want a grid of tiles, but at each tile location I want to be able to add more than one tile and have an offset. I'd like this so that I could do something like add individual trees on the world map to give more flair. Or set bottles on a bar in some town without having to draw a bunch of different bar tiles with varying bottles. But maybe my reach is greater than my grasp. I went to implement the idea and had something like this in my Map object: List<Tile>[,] Grid; But then I thought about it. Let's say I had a world map of 200x200, which would actually be pretty small as far as RPGs go. That would amount to 40,000 Lists. To my mind I think there has to be a better way. Now this IS pre-mature optimization. I don't know if the way I happen to design my maps and game will be able to handle this, but it seems needlessly inefficient and something that could creep up if my game gets more complex. One idea I have is to make the offset and the multiple tiles optional so that I'm only paying for them when needed. But I'm not sure how I'd do this. A multiple array of objects? object[,] Grid; So here's my criteria: A 2D grid of tile locations Each tile location has a minimum of 1 tile, but can optionally have more Each extra tile can optionally have an x and y offset for pinpoint placement Can anyone help with some ideas for implementing such a design (don't need it done for me, just ideas) while keeping memory usage to a minimum? If you need more background here's roughly what my Map and Tile objects amount to: public struct Map { public Texture2D Texture; public List<Rectangle> Sources; //Source Rectangles for where in Texture to get the sprite public List<Tile>[,] Grid; } public struct Tile { public int Index; //Where in Sources to find the source Rectangle public int X, Y; //Optional offsets }

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  • How to replace all id attributes of a child collection of complex types using jQuery in ASP.net MVC

    - by TJB
    Here's my situation: I'm writing an ASP.net MVC 1 website and I have a create/edit form that uses the default model binding to parse the form into a strongly typed complex object. The object I'm posting has a child collection of another complex type and the way I format my id's for the model binder is as follows: <div class="childContainer" > <!-- There's one of these for each property for each child collection item --> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].ChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].OtherChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <!-- ... --> </div> This gets rendered as <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> For each entry in the chlid collection. This collection is dynamically created in the form using jQuery, so entries can be added, removed etc. and whenever there's an operation on the collection I need to update the indexes so that it's bound correctly on the server side. What's the best way to replace all the html input id's when I'm updating the index within the child e.g. replace all [*] -- [N] where N is the correct index. using jQuery / JavaScript ? I have something coded now, but its buggy and I think there is a simpler solution. Also, if you have an easier way to identify the child collection I'll take any advice on that as well. Thanx!

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  • Howto access thread data outside a thread

    - by Quandary
    Question: I start the MS Text-to-speech engine in a thread, in order to avoid a crash on DLL_attach. It starts fine, and the text to speech engine gets initialized, but I can't access ISpVoice outside the thread. How can I access ISpVoice outside the thread ? It's a global variable after all... #include <windows.h> #include <sapi.h> #include "XPThreads.h" ISpVoice * pVoice = NULL; unsigned long init_engine_thread(void* param) { Sleep(5000); printf("lolthread\n"); //HRESULT hr = CoInitializeEx(NULL, COINIT_MULTITHREADED); HRESULT hr = CoInitialize(NULL); if(FAILED(hr) ) { MessageBox(NULL, TEXT("Failed To Initialize"), TEXT("Error"), 0); char buffer[2000] ; sprintf(buffer, "An error occured: 0x%08X.\n", hr); FILE * pFile = fopen ( "c:\\temp\\CoInitialize_dll.txt" , "w" ); fwrite (buffer , 1 , strlen(buffer) , pFile ); fclose (pFile); } else { printf("trying to create instance.\n"); //HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(CLSID_SpVoice, NULL, CLSCTX_ALL, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); //hr = CoCreateInstance(CLSID_SpVoice, NULL, CLSCTX_ALL, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); //HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(__uuidof(ISpVoice), NULL, CLSCTX_INPROC_SERVER, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(__uuidof(SpVoice), NULL, CLSCTX_ALL, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); if( SUCCEEDED( hr ) ) { printf("Succeeded\n"); hr = pVoice->Speak(L"The text to speech engine has been successfully initialized.", 0, NULL); } else { printf("failed\n"); MessageBox(NULL, TEXT("Failed To Create COM instance"), TEXT("Error"), 0); char buffer[2000] ; sprintf(buffer, "An error occured: 0x%08X.\n", hr); FILE * pFile = fopen ( "c:\\temp\\CoCreateInstance_dll.txt" , "w" ); fwrite (buffer , 1 , strlen(buffer) , pFile ); fclose (pFile); } } if(pVoice != NULL) { pVoice->Release(); pVoice = NULL; } CoUninitialize(); return NULL; } XPThreads* ptrThread = new XPThreads(init_engine_thread); BOOL APIENTRY DllMain( HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { switch (ul_reason_for_call) { case DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH: //init_engine(); LoadLibrary(TEXT("ole32.dll")); ptrThread->Run(); break; case DLL_THREAD_ATTACH: break; case DLL_THREAD_DETACH: break; case DLL_PROCESS_DETACH: break; } return TRUE; }

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  • Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

    - by LokiSinclair
    I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

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  • Mootools 1.2.4 delegation not working in IE8...?

    - by michael
    Hey there everybody-- So I have a listbox next to a form. When the user clicks an option in the select box, I make a request for the related data, returned in a JSON object, which gets put into the form elements. When the form is saved, the request goes thru and the listbox is rebuilt with the updated data. Since it's being rebuilt I'm trying to use delegation on the listbox's parent div for the onchange code. The trouble I'm having is with IE8 (big shock) not firing the delegated event. I have the following HTML: <div id="listwrapper" class="span-10 append-1 last"> <select id="list" name="list" size="20"> <option value="86">Adrian Franklin</option> <option value="16">Adrian McCorvey</option> <option value="196">Virginia Thomas</option> </select> </div> and the following script to go with it: window.addEvent('domready', function() { var jsonreq = new Request.JSON(); $('listwrapper').addEvent('change:relay(select)', function(e) { alert('this doesn't fire in IE8'); e.stop(); var status= $('statuswrapper').empty().addClass('ajax-loading'); jsonreq.options.url = 'de_getformdata.php'; jsonreq.options.method = 'post'; jsonreq.options.data = {'getlist':'<?php echo $getlist ?>','pkey':$('list').value}; jsonreq.onSuccess = function(rObj, rTxt) { status.removeClass('ajax-loading'); for (key in rObj) { status.set('html','You are currently editing '+rObj['cname']); if ($chk($(key))) $(key).value = rObj[key]; } $('lalsoaccomp-yes').set('checked',(($('naccompkey').value > 0)?'true':'false')); $('lalsoaccomp-no').set('checked',(($('naccompkey').value > 0)?'false':'true')); } jsonreq.send(); }); }); (I took out a bit of unrelated stuff). So this all works as expected in firefox, but IE8 refuses to fire the delegated change event on the select element. If I attach the change function directly to the select, then it works just fine. Am I missing something? Does IE8 just not like the :relay? Sidenote: I'm very new to mootools and javascripting, etc, so if there's something that can be improved code-wise, please let me know too.. Thanks!

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  • Detecting abuse for post rating system

    - by Steven smethurst
    I am using a wordpress plugin called "GD Star Rating" to allow my users to vote on stories that I post to one of my websites. http://everydayfiction.com/ Recently we have been having a lot of abuse of the system. Stories that have obviously been voted up artificially. "GD Star Rating" creates some detailed logs when a user votes on a story. Including; IP, Time of vote, and user_adgent, ect.. For example this story has 181 votes with an average of 5.7 http://www.everydayfiction.com/snowman-by-shaun-simon/ Most other stories only get around ~40 votes each day. At first I thought that the story got on to a social bookmarking site Digg, Stumbleupon ect... but after checking the logs I found that this story is getting the same amount of traffic that a normal story gets ~2k-3k. I checked if all the votes for this perpendicular story where coming from a the same IP address. I could see this happening if a user was at a school's computer lab using all their lab computers to vote up this story. Not one duplicate IP address in the log for this story. SELECT ip, COUNT(*) as count FROM wp_gdsr_votes_log WHERE id=3932 GROUP BY (ip ) ORDER BY count DESC Next I thought that a use might be using a proxy to vote up a story. I checked this by grouping all the browser user_agent together to see if there a single browser voting in a perpendicular way. At most 7 users where using a similar browser but voted sporadically (1-5), no evidence of wrong doing. SELECT user_agent, COUNT(*) as count FROM wp_gdsr_votes_log WHERE id=3932 GROUP BY ( user_agent) ORDER BY count DESC I check was to see if all the votes came in at a once. Maybe someone has a really interesting bot that can change the user_adgent and uses proxies, ect... At most 5 votes came with in 2 mins of each other. It doesn't seem to be any regularity on how people vote (IE a 5 vote does not come in once a min) SELECT * FROM wp_gdsr_votes_log WHERE id =3932 AND vote=5 ORDER BY wp_gdsr_votes_log.voted DESC The obvious solution to this problem is to force people to login before they are allowed to vote. But I would prefer to not have to go down that route unless it is absolutely necessary. I'm looking for suggestions on things to test for to detect the abuse.

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  • Connection hangs after time of inactivity

    - by Sinuhe
    In my application, Spring manages connection pool for database access. Hibernate uses these connections for its queries. At first glance, I have no problems with the pool: it works correctly with concurrent clients and a pool with only one connection. I can execute a lot of queries, so I think that I (or Spring) don't leave open connections. My problem appears after some time of inactivity (sometimes 30 minutes, sometimes more than 2 hours). Then, when Hibernate does some search, it lasts too much. Setting log4j level to TRACE, I get this logs: ... 18:27:01 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Retrieved value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@99abd7] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@7d2897] bound to thread [http-8080-Processor24] 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Found thread-bound Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@8878cd] for Hibernate transaction 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Using transaction object [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager$HibernateTransactionObject@1b2ffee] 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Creating new transaction with name [com.acjoventut.service.GenericManager.findByExample]: PROPAGATION_REQUIRED,ISOLATION_DEFAULT 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Preparing JDBC Connection of Hibernate Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@8878cd] 18:27:01 TRACE SessionImpl - setting flush mode to: AUTO 18:27:01 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - begin 18:27:01 DEBUG ConnectionManager - opening JDBC connection Here it gets frozen for about 2 - 10 minutes. But then continues: 18:30:11 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - current autocommit status: true 18:30:11 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - disabling autocommit 18:30:11 TRACE JDBCContext - after transaction begin 18:30:11 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Exposing Hibernate transaction as JDBC transaction [jdbc:oracle:thin:@212.31.39.50:30998:orcl, UserName=DEVELOP, Oracle JDBC driver] 18:30:11 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Bound value [org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.ConnectionHolder@843a9d] for key [org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource@7745fd] to thread [http-8080-Processor24] 18:30:11 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Initializing transaction synchronization ... After that, it works with no problems, until another period of inactivity. IMHO, it seems like connection pool returns an invalid/closed connection, and when Hibernate realizes that, ask another connection to the pool. I don't know how can I solve this problem or things I can do for delimiting it. Any help achieving this will be appreciate. Thanks. EDIT: Well, it finally was due a firewall rule. Database detects the connection is lost, but pool (dbcp or c3p0) not. So, it tries to query the database with no success. What is still strange for me is that timeout period is very variable. Maybe the rule is specially strange or firewall doesn't work correctly. Anyway, I have no access to that machine and I can only wait for an explanation. :(

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  • Gotchas INSERTing into SQLite on Android?

    - by paul.meier
    Hi friends, I'm trying to set up a simple SQLite database in Android, handling the schema via a subclass of SQLiteOpenHelper. However, when I query my tables, the columns I think I've inserted are never present. Namely, in SQLiteOpenHelper's onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) method, I use db.execSQL() to run CREATE TABLE commands, then have tried both db.execSQL and db.insert() to run INSERT commands on the tables I've just created. This appears to run fine, but when I try to query them I always get 0 rows returned (for debugging, the queries I'm running are simple SELECT * FROM table and checking the Cursor's getCount()). Anybody run into anything like this before? These commands seem to run on command-line sqlite3. Are they're gotchas that I'm missing (e.g. INSERTS must/must not be semicolon terminated, or some issue involving multiple tables)? I've attached some of the code below. Thanks for your time, and let me know if I can clarify further. @Override public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { db.execSQL("CREATE TABLE "+ LEVEL_TABLE +" (" + " "+ _ID +" INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT," + " level TEXT NOT NULL,"+ " rows INTEGER NOT NULL,"+ " cols INTEGER NOT NULL);"); db.execSQL("CREATE TABLE "+ DYNAMICS_TABLE +" (" + " level_id INTEGER NOT NULL," + " row INTEGER NOT NULL,"+ " col INTEGER NOT NULL,"+ " type INTEGER NOT NULL);"); db.execSQL("CREATE TABLE "+ SCORE_TABLE +" (" + " level_id INTEGER NOT NULL," + " score INTEGER NOT NULL,"+ " date_achieved DATE NOT NULL,"+ " name TEXT NOT NULL);"); this.enterFirstLevel(db); } And a sample of the insert code I'm currently using, which gets called in enterFirstLevel() (some values hard-coded just to get it running...): private void insertDynamic(SQLiteDatabase db, int row, int col, int type) { ContentValues values = new ContentValues(); values.put("level_id", "1"); values.put("row", Integer.toString(row)); values.put("col", Integer.toString(col)); values.put("type", Integer.toString(type)); db.insertOrThrow(DYNAMICS_TABLE, "col", values); } Finally, query code looks like this: private Cursor fetchLevelDynamics(int id) { SQLiteDatabase db = this.leveldata.getReadableDatabase(); try { String fetchQuery = "SELECT * FROM " + DYNAMICS_TABLE; String[] queryArgs = new String[0]; Cursor cursor = db.rawQuery(fetchQuery, queryArgs); Activity activity = (Activity) this.context; activity.startManagingCursor(cursor); return cursor; } finally { db.close(); } }

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  • LinearLayout as custom button, OnClickListener never called

    - by ohra
    I've been using the common Android Button with both icon (drawableTop) and text. It works really poorly if you want to have a non-standard size button, so I decided to make a custom button with a LinearLayout having the following layout: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" style="@style/ButtonHoloDark" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center" android:clickable="true" android:focusable="true" android:orientation="vertical" > <ImageView android:id="@+id/buttonIcon" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:duplicateParentState="true" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/buttonText" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:duplicateParentState="true" android:gravity="center" android:textColor="@color/white" /> </LinearLayout> The layout is used by a custom class: public class CustomIconButton extends LinearLayout { public CustomIconButton(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); setAttributes(context, attrs); LayoutInflater.from(context).inflate(R.layout.custom_icon_button, this, true); } ... But when I set an OnClickListener on my button in its parent layout it never gets called. I can only receive clicks if a set the listener to the ImageView and/or TextView. This leads to two possible effects when the button is clicked: The click is inside the ImageView or the TextView. The click is registered ok, but the buttons state drawable doesn't change i.e. it doesn't appear depressed. The click is inside the "empty area" of the button. The click is not registered, but the state drawable works ok. Neither of these is feasible. I've played around with the following attributes on the LinearLayout or its children, but none really seem to have any effect whether true or false: duplicateParentState clickable focusable There doesn't seem to be any reasonable way to get the LinearLayout parent receive clicks instead of its children. I've seen some possible solutions overriding dispatchTouchEvent or onInterceptTouchEvent on the custom component itself, but that really seems like a big mess if I have to start analyzing touch events to identify proper clicks. So OnClickListener on a LinearLayout with children = no go?

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  • How do I return clean JSON from a WCF Service?

    - by user208662
    I am trying to return some JSON from a WCF service. This service simply returns some content from my database. I can get the data. However, I am concerned about the format of my JSON. Currently, the JSON that gets returned is formatted like this: {"d":"[{\"Age\":35,\"FirstName\":\"Peyton\",\"LastName\":\"Manning\"},{\"Age\":31,\"FirstName\":\"Drew\",\"LastName\":\"Brees\"},{\"Age\":29,\"FirstName\":\"Tony\",\"LastName\":\"Romo\"}]"} In reality, I would like my JSON to be formatted as cleanly as possible. I believe (I may be incorrect), that the same collection of results, represented in clean JSON, should look like so: [{"Age":35,"FirstName":"Peyton","LastName":"Manning"},{"Age":31,"FirstName":"Drew","LastName":"Brees"},{"Age":29,"FirstName":"Tony","LastName":"Romo"}] I have no idea where the “d” is coming from. I also have no clue why the escape characters are being inserted. My entity looks like the following: [DataContract] public class Person { [DataMember] public string FirstName { get; set; } [DataMember] public string LastName { get; set; } [DataMember] public int Age { get; set; } public Person(string firstName, string lastName, int age) { this.FirstName = firstName; this.LastName = lastName; this.Age = age; } } The service that is responsible for returning the content is defined as: [ServiceContract(Namespace = "")] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] public class TestService { [OperationContract] [WebGet(ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] public string GetResults() { List<Person> results = new List<Person>(); results.Add(new Person("Peyton", "Manning", 35)); results.Add(new Person("Drew", "Brees", 31)); results.Add(new Person("Tony", "Romo", 29)); // Serialize the results as JSON DataContractJsonSerializer serializer = new DataContractJsonSerializer(results.GetType()); MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); serializer.WriteObject(memoryStream, results); // Return the results serialized as JSON string json = Encoding.Default.GetString(memoryStream.ToArray()); return json; } } How do I return “clean” JSON from a WCF service? Thank you!

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  • Nested Transaction issues within custom Windows Service

    - by pdwetz
    I have a custom Windows Service I recently upgraded to use TransactionScope for nested transactions. It worked fine locally on my old dev machine (XP sp3) and on a test server (Server 2003). However, it fails on my new Windows 7 machine as well as on 2008 Server. It was targeting 2.0 framework; I tried targeting 3.5 instead, but it still fails. The strange part is really in how it fails; no exception is thrown. The service itself merely times out. I added tracing code, and it fails when opening the connection for Database lookup #2 below. I also enabled tracing for System.Transactions; it literally cuts out partway while writing the block for the failed connection. We ran a SQL trace, but only the first lookup shows up. I put in code traces, and it gets to the trace the line before the second lookup, but nothing after. I've had the same experience hitting two different SQL servers (both are SQL 2005 running on Server 2003). The connection string is utilizing a SQL account (not Windows integration). All connections are against the same database in this case, but given the nature of the code it is being escalated to MSDTC. Here's the basic code structure: TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, options)) { // Database lookup #1 TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = Transaction.Current != null ? Transaction.Current.IsolationLevel : System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required, options)) { // Database lookup #2; fails on connection.Open() // Database save (never reached) scope.Complete();<br/> } scope.Complete();<br/> } My local firewall is disabled. The service normally runs using Network Service, but I also tried my user account (same results). The short of it is that I use the same general technique widely in my web applications and haven't had any issues. I pulled out the code and ran it fine within a local Windows Form application. If anyone has any additional debugging ideas (or, even better, solutions) I'd love to hear them.

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