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  • Loading Modules in Angular

    - by SL Dev
    I'm new to AngularJS. In my efforts to learn, I've relied on the AngularJS tutorials. Now, I'm trying to build an app using the AngularSeed project template. I'm trying to make my project as modular as possible. For that reason, my controllers are broken out into several files. Currently, I have the following: /app index.html login.html home.html javascript app.js loginCtrl.js homeCtrl.js my app.js file has the following: 'use strict'; var app = angular.module('site', ['ngRoute']); app.config(function($routeProvider, $locationProvider) { $locationProvider.html5Mode(true); $routeProvider.when('/login', {templateUrl: 'app/login.html', controller:'loginCtrl'}); $routeProvider.when('/home', {templateUrl: 'app/home.html', controller:'homeCtrl'}); $routeProvider.otherwise({redirectTo: '/login'}); }); my loginCtrl.js file is very basic at the moment. It only has: 'use strict'; app.controller('loginCtrl', function loginCtrl($scope) { } ); My homeCtrl.js is almost the same, except for the name. It looks like the following: 'use strict'; app.controller('homeCtrl', function homeCtrl($scope) { } ); My index.html file is the angularSeed index-async.html file. However, when I load the dependencies, I have the following: // load all of the dependencies asynchronously. $script([ 'http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/angularjs/1.2.0-rc.3/angular.min.js', 'http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/angularjs/1.2.0-rc.3/angular-route.min.js', 'javascript/app.js', 'javascript/loginCtrl.js', 'javascript/homeCtrl.js' ], function() { // when all is done, execute bootstrap angular application angular.bootstrap(document, ['site']); }); My problem is, sometimes my app works and sometimes it doesn't. It's almost like something gets loaded before something else. Occasionally, I receive this error. Other times, I get an error in the console window that says: 'Uncaught ReferenceError: app is not defined' in loginCtrl.js. Sometimes it happens with homeCtrl.js. What am I doing wrong? It feels like I need to have my controllers in a module and pass that module in my app.config in the app.js file. However, a) I'm not sure if that allowed and b) I'm not sure how to do it.

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  • .Net Entity Framework SaveChanges is adding without add method

    - by tmfkmoney
    I'm new to the entity framework and I'm really confused about how savechanges works. There's probably a lot of code in my example which could be improved, but here's the problem I'm having. The user enters a bunch of picks. I make sure the user hasn't already entered those picks. Then I add the picks to the database. var db = new myModel() var predictionArray = ticker.Substring(1).Split(','); // Get rid of the initial comma. var user = Membership.GetUser(); var userId = Convert.ToInt32(user.ProviderUserKey); // Get the member with all his predictions for today. var memberQuery = (from member in db.Members where member.user_id == userId select new { member, predictions = from p in member.Predictions where p.start_date == null select p }).First(); // Load all the company ids. foreach (var prediction in memberQuery.predictions) { prediction.CompanyReference.Load(); } var picks = from prediction in predictionArray let data = prediction.Split(':') let companyTicker = data[0] where !(from i in memberQuery.predictions select i.Company.ticker).Contains(companyTicker) select new Prediction { Member = memberQuery.member, Company = db.Companies.Where(c => c.ticker == companyTicker).First(), is_up = data[1] == "up", // This turns up and down into true and false. }; // Save the records to the database. // HERE'S THE PART I DON'T UNDERSTAND. // This saves the records, even though I don't have db.AddToPredictions(pick) foreach (var pick in picks) { db.SaveChanges(); } // This does not save records when the db.SaveChanges outside of a loop of picks. db.SaveChanges(); foreach (var pick in picks) { } // This saves records, but it will insert all the picks exactly once no matter how many picks you have. //The fact you're skipping a pick makes no difference in what gets inserted. var counter = 1; foreach (var pick in picks) { if (counter == 2) { db.SaveChanges(); } counter++; } There's obviously something going on with the context I don't understand. I'm guessing I've somehow loaded my new picks as pending changes, but even if that's true I don't understand I have to loop over them to save changes. Can someone explain this to me?

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  • properies profile when writing word file

    - by avani-nature
    Hai frnds i am new to php i am having following problems in my coding... 1.Actually i am opening word document with com object and storing it in textarea. 2.when content gets opened in textarea i am editing that content and saving the document 3.actually when i edited that file and done save after that if i open word document then file properties-custom the old content getting removed i wannt to retain that even if i edited the word document..please do the needful i am using below code <?php $filename = 'C:/xampp/htdocs/mts/sites/default/files/a.doc'; //echo $filename; if(isset($_REQUEST['Save'])){ $somecontent = stripslashes($_POST['somecontent']); // Let's make sure the file exists and is writable first. if (is_writable($filename)) { // In our example we're opening $filename in append mode. // The file pointer is at the bottom of the file hence // that's where $somecontent will go when we fwrite() it. if (!$handle = fopen($filename, 'w')) { echo "Cannot open file ($filename)"; exit; } // Write $somecontent to our opened fi<form action="" method="get"></form>le. if (fwrite($handle, $somecontent) === FALSE) { echo "Cannot write to file ($filename)"; exit; } echo "Success, wrote ($somecontent) to file ($filename) <a href=".$_SERVER['PHP_SELF']."> - Continue - "; fclose($handle); } else { echo "The file $filename is not writable"; } } else{ // get contents of a file into a string $handle = fopen($filename, "r"); $somecontent = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); $word = new COM("word.application") or die ("Could not initialise MS Word object."); $word->Documents->Open(realpath("$filename")); // Extract content. $somecontent = (string) $word->ActiveDocument->Content; //echo $somecontent; $word->ActiveDocument->Close(false); $word->Quit(); $word = null; unset($word); fclose($handle); } ?> <h6>Edit file --------><? $filenam=explode("/",$filename);$filename=$filename[7]; echo $filename ;?></h6> <form name="form1" method="post" action=""> <p> <textarea name="somecontent" cols="100" rows="20"><? echo $somecontent ;?></textarea> </p> <div style='padding-left:250px;'><input type="submit" name="Save" value="Save"></div> </p> </form> <? } ?>

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  • How do I use a custom #theme function to a fieldset in a drupal module?

    - by Rob Crowell
    I have a module that builds a form that includes a fieldset. Instead of using the <legend> element to render the fieldset title, I want to place this content in a <div> element instead. But I want to change the behavior only for the form returned by my module, so I don't want to place any new functionality into my theme's template.php file. In mymod.module I have defined: // custom rendering function for fieldset elements function theme_mymod_fieldset($element) { return 'test'; } // implement hook_theme function mymod_theme() { return array( 'mymod_fieldset' => array('arguments' => array('element' => NULL)), 'mymod_form' => array('arguments' => array()) ); } // return a form that is based on the 'Basic Account Info' category of the user profile function mymod_form() { // load the user's profile global $user; $account = user_load($user->uid); // load the profile form, and then edit it $form_state = array(); $form = drupal_retrieve_form('user_profile_form', $form_state, $account, 'Basic Account Info'); // set the custom #theme function for this fieldset $form['Basic Account Info']['#theme'] = 'mymod_fieldset'; // more form manipulations // ... return $form; } When my page gets rendered, I expected to see the fieldset representing 'Basic Account Info' to be wholly replaced by my test message 'test'. Instead what happens is that the <fieldset> and <legend> elements are rendered as normal, but with the body of the fieldset replaced by the test message instead, like this: <fieldset> <legend>Basic Account Info</legend> test </fieldset> Why doesn't my #theme function have the chance to replace the entire <fieldset> element? If I wrap a textfield in this function instead, I am able to completely replace the <input> element along with its label. Furthermore, if I provide an override in my site's template.php for theme_fieldset, it works as expected and I am able to completely replace the <fieldset>, so I know it is possible. What's different about providing #theme functions to fieldsets inside a module?

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  • Measure width() with jQuery after DOM refresh

    - by o_O Tync
    My script dynamically creates a <ul> width left-floating <li>s inside: it's a paginator. Afterwards, the script measures width of all <li>s and summs them up. The problem is that after the nodes are injected into the document — the browser refreshed DOM and applies CSS styles which takes a while. It has a negative effect on my script: when these operations are not complete before I measure the width — my script gets a wrong value. If I perform the measure in a second — everything is ok. The thing I'm looking for is a way to detect the moment when the <ul> is fully drawn, styles applied and the width has stabilizes. Or at least a way to detect every dimensions changes. Of course I can use setTimeout(..., 100) but it's ugly and I guess — not a solution at all. If there's a way to detect width stabilization — I would do the measuring right after it to get the correct values. HTML code generated by the DOM <div> <ul> <li><a href="...">1</a></li> <li><a href="...">2</a></li> .... </ul> </div> P.S. Why I need this. My paginator's left-floating <li> items tend to move to the next line when the <ul> tries to become wider than the page itself. Even though most of <li>s are invisible because of parent <div>'s width restriction: div { width: 500px; overflow: hidden; } div ul { width: 100%; white-space: nowrap; } div ul li { display: block; float: left; } they still go down unless I specify the actual summed width of the <ul> with the script.

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  • Help with C# program design implementation: multiple array of lists or a better way?

    - by Bob
    I'm creating a 2D tile-based RPG in XNA and am in the initial design phase. I was thinking of how I want my tile engine to work and came up with a rough sketch. Basically I want a grid of tiles, but at each tile location I want to be able to add more than one tile and have an offset. I'd like this so that I could do something like add individual trees on the world map to give more flair. Or set bottles on a bar in some town without having to draw a bunch of different bar tiles with varying bottles. But maybe my reach is greater than my grasp. I went to implement the idea and had something like this in my Map object: List<Tile>[,] Grid; But then I thought about it. Let's say I had a world map of 200x200, which would actually be pretty small as far as RPGs go. That would amount to 40,000 Lists. To my mind I think there has to be a better way. Now this IS pre-mature optimization. I don't know if the way I happen to design my maps and game will be able to handle this, but it seems needlessly inefficient and something that could creep up if my game gets more complex. One idea I have is to make the offset and the multiple tiles optional so that I'm only paying for them when needed. But I'm not sure how I'd do this. A multiple array of objects? object[,] Grid; So here's my criteria: A 2D grid of tile locations Each tile location has a minimum of 1 tile, but can optionally have more Each extra tile can optionally have an x and y offset for pinpoint placement Can anyone help with some ideas for implementing such a design (don't need it done for me, just ideas) while keeping memory usage to a minimum? If you need more background here's roughly what my Map and Tile objects amount to: public struct Map { public Texture2D Texture; public List<Rectangle> Sources; //Source Rectangles for where in Texture to get the sprite public List<Tile>[,] Grid; } public struct Tile { public int Index; //Where in Sources to find the source Rectangle public int X, Y; //Optional offsets }

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  • iPhone memory management

    - by Prazi
    I am newbie to iPhone programming. I am not using Interface Builder in my programming. I have some doubt about memory management, @property topics in iPhone. Consider the following code @interface LoadFlag : UIViewController { UIImage *flag; UIImageView *preview; } @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImageView *preview; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImage *flag; @implementation @synthesize preview; @synthesize flag; - (void)viewDidLoad { flag = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; NSLog(@"Preview: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 0 but shouldn't it be 1 as I am retaining it in @property in interface file preview=[[UIImageView alloc]init]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 1 preview.frame=CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 100.0f, 100.0f); preview.image = flag; [self.view addSubview:preview]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 2 [preview release]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 1 } When & Why(what is the need) do I have to set @property with retain (in above case for UIImage & UIImageView) ? I saw this statement in many sample programs but didn't understood the need of it. When I declare @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImageView *preview; statement the retain Count is 0. Why doesn't it increase by 1 inspite of retaining it in @property. Also when I declare [self.view addSubview:preview]; then retain Count increments by 1 again. In this case does the "Autorelease pool" releases for us later or we have to take care of releasing it. I am not sure but I think that the Autorelease should handle it as we didn't explicitly retained it so why should we worry of releasing it. Now, after the [preview release]; statement my count is 1. Now I don't need UIImageView anymore in my program so when and where should I release it so that the count becomes 0 and the memory gets deallocated. Again, I am not sure but I think that the Autorelease should handle it as we didn't explicitly retained it so why should we worry of releasing it. What will happen if I release it in -(void) dealloc method In the statement - flag = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; I haven't allocated any memory to flag but how can I still use it in my program. In this case if I do not allocate memory then who allocates & deallocates memory to it or is the "flag" just a reference pointing to - [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]];. If it is a reference only then do i need to release it. Thanks in advance.

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  • How do you clear RootLayoutPanel in GWT?

    - by kerrr
    I have Buttons attached to elements on the modules entrypoint html page using RootPanel.get("foo").add(button). If I subsequently create a LayoutPanel and attach it using RootLayoutPanel.get.add(layoutpanal) then the buttons cannot be clicked. This is all fine. If I then try and remove the layoutpanel or clear the RootLayoutPanel the buttons still cannot be clicked. Any ideas how to clear this? Have I missed a step or should you simply never try and get back to using a page's RootPanel if you have used a RootLayoutPanel? Sample code: public void onModuleLoad(){ final LayoutPanel lp1=new LayoutPanel(); ClickPanel ping=new ClickPanel("Ping"); ping.getElement().getStyle().setBackgroundColor( "#fdd" ); ping.addClickHandler( new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick( ClickEvent event ){ Window.alert( "Ping!!!" ); //lp1.removeFromParent(); //RootLayoutPanel.get().remove(lp1); //RootLayoutPanel.get().removeFromParent(); RootLayoutPanel.get().clear(); } } ); ClickPanel bong=new ClickPanel("Bong"); bong.getElement().getStyle().setBackgroundColor( "#ddf" ); bong.addClickHandler( new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick( ClickEvent event ){ Window.alert( "Bong!!!" ); } } ); lp1.add( ping ); lp1.setWidgetLeftWidth( ping, 100, Style.Unit.PX, 500, Style.Unit.PX ); lp1.setWidgetTopHeight( ping, 100, Style.Unit.PX, 500, Style.Unit.PX ); lp1.add( bong ); lp1.setWidgetLeftWidth( bong, 50, Style.Unit.PCT, 600, Style.Unit.PX ); lp1.setWidgetTopHeight( bong, 50, Style.Unit.PCT, 200, Style.Unit.PX ); Button b=new Button("Click Me"); b.addClickHandler( new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick( ClickEvent event ){ RootLayoutPanel.get().add( lp1 ); } } ); RootPanel.get("button1").add( b ); } ClickPanel is simply overrides HTMLPanel implementing HasClickHandelers. Clicking "Click Me" opens the layout panel. Clicking the panel ping gets rid of the layout panel, but the button "Click Me" cannot be clicked. I've tried various options.

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  • Add/delete row from a table

    - by yogsma
    I have this table with some dependents information and there is a add and delete button for each row to add/delete additional dependents. When I click "add" button, a new row gets added to the table, but when I click the "delete" button, it deletes the header row first and then on subsequent clicking, it deletes the corresponding row. Here is what I have: Javascript code function deleteRow(row){ var d = row.parentNode.parentNode.rowIndex; document.getElementById('dsTable').deleteRow(d); } HTML code <table id = 'dsTable' > <tr> <td> Relationship Type </td> <td> Date of Birth </td> <td> Gender </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Spouse </td> <td> 1980-22-03 </td> <td> female </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="addDep" value="Add" onclick = "add()" </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="deleteDep" value="Delete" onclick = "deleteRow(this)" </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Child </td> <td> 2008-23-06 </td> <td> female </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="addDep" value="Add" onclick = "add()"</td> <td> <input type="button" id ="deleteDep" value="Delete" onclick = "deleteRow(this)" </td> </tr> </table>

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  • Doing some stuff right before the user exits the page

    - by Mike
    I have seen some questions here regarding what I want to achieve and have based what I have so far on those answer. But there is a slight misbehavior that is still irritating me. What I have is sort of a recovery feature. Whenever you are typing text, the client sends a sync request to the server every 45 seconds. It does 2 things. First, it extends the lease the client has on the record (only one person may edit at one time) for another 60 seconds. Second, it sends the text typed so far to the server in case the server crashes, internet connection fails, etc. In that case, the next time the user enters our application, the user is notified that something has gone wrong and that some text was recovered. Think of Microsoft or OpenOffice recovery whenever they crash! Of course, if the user leaves the page willingly, the user does not need to be notified and as a result, the recovery is deleted. I do that final request via a beforeunload event. Everything went fine until I was asked to make a final adjustment... The same behavior you have here at stack overflow when you exit the editor... a confirm dialogue. This works so far, BUT, the confirm dialogue is shown twice. Here is the code. The event if (local.sync.autosave_textelement) { window.onbeforeunload = exitConfirm; } The function function exitConfirm() { var local = Core; if (confirm('blub?')) { local.sync.autosave_destroy = true; sync(false); return true; } else { return false; } }; Some problem irrelevant clarifications: Core is a global Object that contains a lot of variables that are used everywhere. sync makes an ajax request. The values are based on the values that the Core.sync object contains. The parameter determines if the call should be async (default) or sync. Edit 1 I did try to separate both things (recovery deletion and user confirmation that is) into beforeunload and unload. The problem there was that unload is a bit too late. The user gets informed that there is a recovery even though it is scheduled to be deleted. If you refresh the page 1 second later, the dialogue disappears as the file was deleted by then.

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  • Connection hangs after time of inactivity

    - by Sinuhe
    In my application, Spring manages connection pool for database access. Hibernate uses these connections for its queries. At first glance, I have no problems with the pool: it works correctly with concurrent clients and a pool with only one connection. I can execute a lot of queries, so I think that I (or Spring) don't leave open connections. My problem appears after some time of inactivity (sometimes 30 minutes, sometimes more than 2 hours). Then, when Hibernate does some search, it lasts too much. Setting log4j level to TRACE, I get this logs: ... 18:27:01 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Retrieved value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@99abd7] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@7d2897] bound to thread [http-8080-Processor24] 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Found thread-bound Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@8878cd] for Hibernate transaction 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Using transaction object [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager$HibernateTransactionObject@1b2ffee] 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Creating new transaction with name [com.acjoventut.service.GenericManager.findByExample]: PROPAGATION_REQUIRED,ISOLATION_DEFAULT 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Preparing JDBC Connection of Hibernate Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@8878cd] 18:27:01 TRACE SessionImpl - setting flush mode to: AUTO 18:27:01 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - begin 18:27:01 DEBUG ConnectionManager - opening JDBC connection Here it gets frozen for about 2 - 10 minutes. But then continues: 18:30:11 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - current autocommit status: true 18:30:11 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - disabling autocommit 18:30:11 TRACE JDBCContext - after transaction begin 18:30:11 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Exposing Hibernate transaction as JDBC transaction [jdbc:oracle:thin:@212.31.39.50:30998:orcl, UserName=DEVELOP, Oracle JDBC driver] 18:30:11 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Bound value [org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.ConnectionHolder@843a9d] for key [org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource@7745fd] to thread [http-8080-Processor24] 18:30:11 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Initializing transaction synchronization ... After that, it works with no problems, until another period of inactivity. IMHO, it seems like connection pool returns an invalid/closed connection, and when Hibernate realizes that, ask another connection to the pool. I don't know how can I solve this problem or things I can do for delimiting it. Any help achieving this will be appreciate. Thanks. EDIT: Well, it finally was due a firewall rule. Database detects the connection is lost, but pool (dbcp or c3p0) not. So, it tries to query the database with no success. What is still strange for me is that timeout period is very variable. Maybe the rule is specially strange or firewall doesn't work correctly. Anyway, I have no access to that machine and I can only wait for an explanation. :(

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  • Using PHP session_id() to Make Sure iframe is Generated by Our Server Dynamically

    - by Michael Robinson
    We use iframes to show ads on our site. Iframes are used to allow us to keep the ad generation code and other site modules separate. As we track ad views on our site, and need to be able to keep an accurate count of which pagetype gets what views, I must ensure that users can't simply copy-paste the iframe in which the ad is loaded onto another site. This would cause ad count to become inflated for this page, and the count would not match the view count of the page the iframe "should" be displayed in. Before anyone says so: no I can't simply compare the page view count with the ad view count, or use the page view count * number of ads per page, as # of ads per page will not necessarily be static. I need to come up with a solution that will allow ads to be shown only for iframes that are generated dynamically and are shown on our pages. I am not familiar with PHP sessions, but from what little reading I have had time to do, the following seems to be to be an acceptable solution: Add "s = session_id()" to the src of the ad's iframe. In the code that receives and processes ad requests, only return (and count) and ad if s == session_id(). Please correct me if I'm wrong, but this would ensure: Ads would only be returned to iframes whose src was generated alongside the rest of the page's content, as is the case during normal use. We can return our logo to ad calls with an invalid session_id. So a simple example would be: One of our pages: <?php session_start(); ?> <div id="someElement"> <!-- EVERYONE LOVES ADS --> <iframe src="http//awesomesite.com/ad/can_has_ad.php?s=<?php echo session_id(); ?>></iframe> </div> ad/can_has_ad.php: <?php session_start(); ?> if($_GET['s'] == session_id()){ echo 'can has ad'; } else{ echo '<img src="http://awesomesite.com/images/canhaslogo.jpg"/>'; } And finally, copied code with static 's' parameter: <!-- HAHA LULZ I WILL SCREW WITH YOUR AD VIEW COUNTS LULZ HAHA --> <iframe src="http//awesomesite.com/ad/can_has_ad.php?s=77f2b5fcdab52f52607888746969b0ad></iframe> Which would give them an iframe showing our awesome site's logo, and not screw with our view counts. I made some basic test cases: two files, one that generates the iframe and echos it, and one that the iframe's src is pointed to, that checks the 's' parameter and shows an appropriate message depending on the result. I copied the iframe into a file and hosted it on a different server, and the correct message was displayed (cannot has ad). So, my question is: Would this work or am I being a PHP session noob, with the above test being a total fluke? Thanks for your time! Edit: I'm trying to solve this without touching the SQL server

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  • How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

    - by olivehour
    I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

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  • Setting default values for inherited property without using accessor in Objective-C?

    - by Ben Stock
    I always see people debating whether or not to use a property's setter in the -init method. I don't know enough about the Objective-C language yet to have an opinion one way or the other. With that said, lately I've been sticking to ivars exclusively. It seems cleaner in a way. I don't know. I digress. Anyway, here's my problem … Say we have a class called Dude with an interface that looks like this: @interface Dude : NSObject { @private NSUInteger _numberOfGirlfriends; } @property (nonatomic, assign) NSUInteger numberOfGirlfriends; @end And an implementation that looks like this: @implementation Dude - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { _numberOfGirlfriends = 0; } } @end Now let's say I want to extend Dude. My subclass will be called Playa. And since a playa should have mad girlfriends, when Playa gets initialized, I don't want him to start with 0; I want him to have 10. Here's Playa.m: @implementation Playa - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { // Attempting to set the ivar directly will result in the compiler saying, // "Instance variable `_numberOfGirlfriends` is private." // _numberOfGirlfriends = 10; <- Can't do this. // Thus, the only way to set it is with the mutator: self.numberOfGirlfriends = 10; // Or: [self setNumberOfGirlfriends:10]; } } @end So what's a Objective-C newcomer to do? Well, I mean, there's only one thing I can do, and that's set the property. Unless there's something I'm missing. Any ideas, suggestions, tips, or tricks? Sidenote: The other thing that bugs me about setting the ivar directly — and what a lot of ivar-proponents say is a "plus" — is that there are no KVC notifications. A lot of times, I want the KVC magic to happen. 50% of my setters end in [self setNeedsDisplay:YES], so without the notification, my UI doesn't update unless I remember to manually add -setNeedsDisplay. That's a bad example, but the point stands. I utilize KVC all over the place, so without notifications, things can act wonky. Anyway, any info is much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Return only the new database items since last check in Rails

    - by Smith
    I'm fairly new to Ruby, and currently trying to implement an AJAX style commenting system. When the user views a topic, all the current comments on that topic will be displayed. The user can post a comment on the page of a topic and it should automatically display without having to refresh the page, along with any new comments that have been posted since the last comment currently displayed to the user. The comments should also automatically refresh at a specified frequency. I currently have the following code: views/idea/view.html.erb <%= periodically_call_remote(:update => "div_chat", :frequency => 1, :position => "top", :url => {:controller => "comment", :action => :test_view, :idea_id => @idea.id } ) %> <div id="div_chat"> </div> views/comment/test_view.html.erb <% @comments.each do |c| %><div id="comment"> <%= c.comment %> </div> <% end %> controllers/comment_controller.rb class CommentController < ApplicationController before_filter :start_defs def add_comment @comment = Comment.new params[:comment] if @comment.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully commented." else flash[:notice] = "UnSuccessfully commented." end end def test_render @comments = Comment.find_all_by_idea_id(params[:idea_id], :order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => ["created_at > ?", @latest_time] ) @latest = Comment.find(:first, :order => "created_at DESC") @latest_time = @latest.created_at end def start_defs @latest = Comment.find(:first, :order => "created_at ASC") @latest_time = @latest.created_at end end The problem is that every time periodically_call_remote makes a call, it returns the entire list of comments for that topic. From what I can tell, the @latest_time gets constantly reset to the earliest created_at, rather than staying updated to the latest created_at after the comments have been retrieved. I'm also not sure how I should directly refresh the comments when a comment is posted. Is it possible to force a call to periodically_call_remote on a successful save?

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  • How can I make this client as a multithread client?

    - by Johanna
    Hi, I have read a lot about multithread client but for this one,I can not make it multithread! would you please help me? public class MainClient implements Runnable{ private static InformationClass info = new InformationClass(); private static Socket c; private static String text; public static String getText() { return text; } public static void setText(String text) { MainClient.text = text; } private static PrintWriter os; private static BufferedReader is; static boolean closed = false; /** * @param args the command line arguments */ public static void main(String[] args) { MainFrame farme = new MainFrame(); farme.setVisible(true); try { c = new Socket("localhost", 5050); os = new PrintWriter(c.getOutputStream(), true); is = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(c.getInputStream())); } catch (UnknownHostException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MainClient.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MainClient.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } public static void active() { String teXt = MainClient.getText(); System.out.println(teXt); os.println(teXt); try { String line = is.readLine(); System.out.println("Text received: " + line); os.flush(); is.close(); is.close(); c.close(); } catch (IOException ex) { Logger.getLogger(MainClient.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } } also active method will be called when the client write something on the text area and then clicks on the send button. 2) also i have a question that: in the other class I have this action performed for my send button,does it mean that client is multithread?? private void jButton1ActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { new Thread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { // This gets run in a background thread String text = jTextArea1.getText(); jTextArea2.append(client.getCurrentName() + " : " + text + "\n"); MainClient.setText(client.getCurrentName() + " : " + text + "\n"); clear(); MainClient.active(); } }).start(); } Last EDIT: this is my active method: public static void active() { String teXt = MainClient.getText(); os.println(teXt); String line = is.readLine(); System.out.println("Text received: " + line); os.flush(); is.close(); is.close(); c.close(); }

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  • Nested Transaction issues within custom Windows Service

    - by pdwetz
    I have a custom Windows Service I recently upgraded to use TransactionScope for nested transactions. It worked fine locally on my old dev machine (XP sp3) and on a test server (Server 2003). However, it fails on my new Windows 7 machine as well as on 2008 Server. It was targeting 2.0 framework; I tried targeting 3.5 instead, but it still fails. The strange part is really in how it fails; no exception is thrown. The service itself merely times out. I added tracing code, and it fails when opening the connection for Database lookup #2 below. I also enabled tracing for System.Transactions; it literally cuts out partway while writing the block for the failed connection. We ran a SQL trace, but only the first lookup shows up. I put in code traces, and it gets to the trace the line before the second lookup, but nothing after. I've had the same experience hitting two different SQL servers (both are SQL 2005 running on Server 2003). The connection string is utilizing a SQL account (not Windows integration). All connections are against the same database in this case, but given the nature of the code it is being escalated to MSDTC. Here's the basic code structure: TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, options)) { // Database lookup #1 TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = Transaction.Current != null ? Transaction.Current.IsolationLevel : System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required, options)) { // Database lookup #2; fails on connection.Open() // Database save (never reached) scope.Complete();<br/> } scope.Complete();<br/> } My local firewall is disabled. The service normally runs using Network Service, but I also tried my user account (same results). The short of it is that I use the same general technique widely in my web applications and haven't had any issues. I pulled out the code and ran it fine within a local Windows Form application. If anyone has any additional debugging ideas (or, even better, solutions) I'd love to hear them.

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  • Memory corruption in System.Move due to changed 8087CW mode (png + stretchblt)

    - by André Mussche
    I have strange a memory corruption problem. After many hours debugging and trying I think I found something. For example: I do a simple string assignment: sTest := 'SET LOCK_TIMEOUT '; However, the result sometimes becomes: sTest = 'SET LOCK'#0'TIMEOUT ' So, the _ gets replaced by an 0 byte. I have seen this happening once (reproducing is tricky, dependent on timing) in the System.Move function, when it uses the FPU stack (fild, fistp) for fast memory copy (in case of 9 till 32 bytes to move): ... @@SmallMove: {9..32 Byte Move} fild qword ptr [eax+ecx] {Load Last 8} fild qword ptr [eax] {Load First 8} cmp ecx, 8 jle @@Small16 fild qword ptr [eax+8] {Load Second 8} cmp ecx, 16 jle @@Small24 fild qword ptr [eax+16] {Load Third 8} fistp qword ptr [edx+16] {Save Third 8} ... Using the FPU view and 2 memory debug views (Delphi - View - Debug - CPU - Memory) I saw it going wrong... once... could not reproduce however... This morning I read something about the 8087CW mode, and yes, if this is changed into $27F I get memory corruption! Normally it is $133F: The difference between $133F and $027F is that $027F sets up the FPU for doing less precise calculations (limiting to Double in stead of Extended) and different infiniti handling (which was used for older FPU’s, but is not used any more). Okay, now I found why but not when! I changed the working of my AsmProfiler with a simple check (so all functions are checked at enter and leave): if Get8087CW = $27F then //normally $1372? if MainThreadID = GetCurrentThreadId then //only check mainthread DebugBreak; I "profiled" some units and dll's and bingo (see stack): Windows.StretchBlt(3372289943,0,0,514,345,4211154027,0,0,514,345,13369376) pngimage.TPNGObject.DrawPartialTrans(4211154027,(0, 0, 514, 345, (0, 0), (514, 345))) pngimage.TPNGObject.Draw($7FF62450,(0, 0, 514, 345, (0, 0), (514, 345))) Graphics.TCanvas.StretchDraw((0, 0, 514, 345, (0, 0), (514, 345)),$7FECF3D0) ExtCtrls.TImage.Paint Controls.TGraphicControl.WMPaint((15, 4211154027, 0, 0)) So it is happening in StretchBlt... What to do now? Is it a fault of Windows, or a bug in PNG (included in D2007)? Or is the System.Move function not failsafe?

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  • How can I send multiple types of objects across Protobuf?

    - by cyclotis04
    I'm implementing a client-server application, and am looking into various ways to serialize and transmit data. I began working with Xml Serializers, which worked rather well, but generate data slowly, and make large objects, especially when they need to be sent over the net. So I started looking into Protobuf, and protobuf-net. My problem lies in the fact that protobuf doesn't sent type information with it. With Xml Serializers, I was able to build a wrapper which would send and receive any various (serializable) object over the same stream, since object serialized into Xml contain the type name of the object. ObjectSocket socket = new ObjectSocket(); socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(string)); // Tells the socket the types socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(int)); // of objects we will want socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(bool)); // to send and receive. socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Person)); // When it gets data, it looks for socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Address)); // these types in the Xml, then uses // the appropriate serializer. socket.Connect(_host, _port); socket.Send(new Person() { ... }); socket.Send(new Address() { ... }); ... Object o = socket.Read(); Type oType = o.GetType(); if (oType == typeof(Person)) HandlePerson(o as Person); else if (oType == typeof(Address)) HandleAddress(o as Address); ... I've considered a few solutions to this, including creating a master "state" type class, which is the only type of object sent over my socket. This moves away from the functionality I've worked out with Xml Serializers, though, so I'd like to avoid that direction. The second option would be to wrap protobuf objects in some type of wrapper, which defines the type of object. (This wrapper would also include information such as packet ID, and destination.) It seems silly to use protobuf-net to serialize an object, then stick that stream between Xml tags, but I've considered it. Is there an easy way to get this functionality out of protobuf or protobuf-net? I've come up with a third solution, and posted it below, but if you have a better one, please post it too!

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  • WCF facility : Metadata publishing for this service is currently disabled

    - by cvista
    I asked this before and got no where so i'm asking again as i'm now desperate!! Hey if i create a new wcf project i can browse the meta instantly. if I try - when using the WCF facility - i get the following: Metadata publishing for this service is currently disabled. i followed the instructions there and in a million other places and get no where. if i copy the contents of my faciltity service into the newly created project it complains that aspNetCompatibilityEnabled isnt enabled. so i enable it and then mex is disabled again and i get: Metadata publishing for this service is currently disabled. again!! this is driving me crazy - i have tried tried tried to follow every example on the web!! here is my current configuration - there is no client yet: <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> <services> <service name="IbzStar.WebServices.UserServices" behaviorConfiguration="ServiceBehavior"> <!-- Service Endpoints --> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="IbzStar.WebServices.IUserServices"> <!-- Upon deployment, the following identity element should be removed or replaced to reflect the identity under which the deployed service runs. If removed, WCF will infer an appropriate identity automatically. --> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceBehavior"> <!-- To avoid disclosing metadata information, set the value below to false and remove the metadata endpoint above before deployment --> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <!-- To receive exception details in faults for debugging purposes, set the value below to true. Set to false before deployment to avoid disclosing exception information --> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> please someone help me out before my laptop gets launched into orbit!! w://

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  • Detecting abuse for post rating system

    - by Steven smethurst
    I am using a wordpress plugin called "GD Star Rating" to allow my users to vote on stories that I post to one of my websites. http://everydayfiction.com/ Recently we have been having a lot of abuse of the system. Stories that have obviously been voted up artificially. "GD Star Rating" creates some detailed logs when a user votes on a story. Including; IP, Time of vote, and user_adgent, ect.. For example this story has 181 votes with an average of 5.7 http://www.everydayfiction.com/snowman-by-shaun-simon/ Most other stories only get around ~40 votes each day. At first I thought that the story got on to a social bookmarking site Digg, Stumbleupon ect... but after checking the logs I found that this story is getting the same amount of traffic that a normal story gets ~2k-3k. I checked if all the votes for this perpendicular story where coming from a the same IP address. I could see this happening if a user was at a school's computer lab using all their lab computers to vote up this story. Not one duplicate IP address in the log for this story. SELECT ip, COUNT(*) as count FROM wp_gdsr_votes_log WHERE id=3932 GROUP BY (ip ) ORDER BY count DESC Next I thought that a use might be using a proxy to vote up a story. I checked this by grouping all the browser user_agent together to see if there a single browser voting in a perpendicular way. At most 7 users where using a similar browser but voted sporadically (1-5), no evidence of wrong doing. SELECT user_agent, COUNT(*) as count FROM wp_gdsr_votes_log WHERE id=3932 GROUP BY ( user_agent) ORDER BY count DESC I check was to see if all the votes came in at a once. Maybe someone has a really interesting bot that can change the user_adgent and uses proxies, ect... At most 5 votes came with in 2 mins of each other. It doesn't seem to be any regularity on how people vote (IE a 5 vote does not come in once a min) SELECT * FROM wp_gdsr_votes_log WHERE id =3932 AND vote=5 ORDER BY wp_gdsr_votes_log.voted DESC The obvious solution to this problem is to force people to login before they are allowed to vote. But I would prefer to not have to go down that route unless it is absolutely necessary. I'm looking for suggestions on things to test for to detect the abuse.

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  • difference between calling javascript function on body load or directly from script.

    - by Abbas
    i am using a javascript where in i am creating multiple div (say 5) at runtime, using javascript function, all the divs contain some text, which is again set at runtime, now i want to disable all the divs at runtime and have the page numbers in the bottom, so that whenever user clicks on the page number only that div should get visible else other should get disable, i have created a function, which accepts parameter, as page number, i enable the div whose page number is clicked and using a for loop, i disable all the other divs, now here my problem is i have created two functions, 1st (for adding divs and disabling all the divs except 1st) and writing content to it, and other for enabling the div whose page number is clicked, and i have called the Adding div function on body onload; now first time when i run, page everthing goes well, but next time when i click on any of the page number, it just gets enabled and again that AddDiv function, runs and re-enables all the divs.. Please reply why this is happening and how should i resolve my issue... Below is my script, content for the div are coming using Json. <body onload="JsonScript();"> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function JsonScript() { var existingDiv = document.getElementById("form1"); var newAnchorDiv = document.createElement("div"); newAnchorDiv.id = "anchorDiv"; var list = { "Article": articleList }; for(var i=0; i < list.Article.length; i++) { var newDiv = document.createElement("div"); newDiv.id = "div"+(i+1); newDiv.innerHTML = list.Article[i].toString(); newAnchorDiv.innerHTML += "<a href='' onclick='displayMessage("+(i+1)+")'>"+(i+1)+"</a>&nbsp;"; existingDiv.appendChild(newDiv); existingDiv.appendChild(newAnchorDiv); } for(var j = 2; j < list.Article.length + 1; j ++) { var getDivs = document.getElementById("div"+j); getDivs.style.display = "none"; } } function displayMessage(currentId) { var list = {"Article" : articleList} document.getElementById("div"+currentId).style.display = 'block'; for(var i = 1; i < list.Article.length + 1; i++) { if (i != currentId) { document.getElementById("div"+i).style.display = 'none'; } } } </script> Thanks and Regards

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  • Rails populate edit form for non-column attributes

    - by Rabbott
    I have the following form: <% form_for(@account, :url => admin_accounts_path) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <%= render :partial => 'form', :locals => {:f => f} %> <h2>Account Details</h2> <% f.fields_for :customer do |customer_fields| %> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :company %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :company %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :first_name %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :first_name %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :last_name %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :last_name %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :phone %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :phone %> </p> <% end %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> As well as attr_accessor :customer And I have a before_create method for the account model which does not store the customer_fields, but instead uses them to submit data to an API.. The only thing I store are in the form partial.. The problem I'm running into is that when a validation error gets thrown, the page renders the new action (expected) but none of the non-column attributes within the Account Detail form will show? Any ideas as to how I can change this code around a bit to make this work me?? This same solution may be the help I need for the edit form, I have a getter for the data which it asks the API for, but without place a :value = "asdf" within each text box, it doesn't populate the fields either..

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  • Quick question regarding this issue, Why doesnt it print out the second value(converted second value

    - by sil3nt
    Quick question, What have I done wrong here. The purpose of this code is to get the input into a string, the input being "12 34", with a space in between the "12" and "32" and to convert and print the two separate numbers from an integer variable known as number. Why doesn't the second call to the function copyTemp, not produce the value 34?. I have an index_counter variable which keeps track of the string index and its meant to skip the 'space' character?? what have i done wrong? thanks. #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> int index_counter = 0; int number; void copyTemp(char *expr,char *temp); int main(){ char exprstn[80]; //as global? char tempstr[80]; gets(exprstn); copyTemp(exprstn,tempstr); printf("Expression: %s\n",exprstn); printf("Temporary: %s\n",tempstr); printf("number is: %d\n",number); copyTemp(exprstn,tempstr); //second call produces same output shouldnt it now produce 34 in the variable number? printf("Expression: %s\n",exprstn); printf("Temporary: %s\n",tempstr); printf("number is: %d\n",number); return 0; } void copyTemp(char *expr,char *temp){ int i; for(i = index_counter; expr[i] != '\0'; i++){ if (expr[i] == '0'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '1'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '2'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '3'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '4'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '5'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '6'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '7'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '8'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '9'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == ' '){ temp[i] = '\0'; sscanf(temp,"%d",&number); index_counter = i+1; //skips? } } // is this included here? temp[i] = '\0'; }

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  • Android Bluetooth Fails to Pair

    - by CaseyB
    I am having a problem getting my devices to pair in Android. If I go into the settings and pair them manually I can get them to connect using the following code: Server // Make sure the device it discoverable mServerSocket = mAdapter.listenUsingRfcommWithServiceRecord("Moo Productions Bluetooth Server", mUUID); mState = State.ACCEPTING; BluetoothSocket socket = mServerSocket.accept(); mServerSocket.close(); connected(socket); Client Set<BluetoothDevice> pairedDevices = mAdapter.getBondedDevices(); BluetoothSocket socket = null; // Search the list of paired devices for the right one for(BluetoothDevice device : pairedDevices) { try { mState = State.SEARCHING; socket = device.createRfcommSocketToServiceRecord(mUUID); mState = State.CONNECTING; socket.connect(); connected(socket); break; } catch (IOException e) { socket = null; continue; } } But if the devices hadn't already been paired it gets out of the foreach without connecting to a valid socket. In that case I start discovering. // If that didn't work, discover if(socket == null) { mState = State.SEARCHING; mReceiver = new SocketReceiver(); mContext.registerReceiver(mReceiver, new IntentFilter(BluetoothDevice.ACTION_FOUND)); mAdapter.startDiscovery(); } // ... Later ... private class SocketReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { if(BluetoothDevice.ACTION_FOUND.equals(intent.getAction())) { try { // Get the device and try to open a socket BluetoothDevice device = intent.getParcelableExtra(BluetoothDevice.EXTRA_DEVICE); BluetoothSocket socket = device.createRfcommSocketToServiceRecord(mUUID); mState = State.CONNECTING; socket.connect(); // This is our boy, so stop looking mAdapter.cancelDiscovery(); mContext.unregisterReceiver(mReceiver); connected(socket); } catch (IOException ioe) { ioe.printStackTrace(); } } } } But it will never find the other device. I never get a pairing dialog and when I step through I see that it discovers the correct device, but it fails to connect with this exception java.io.IOException: Service discovery failed. Any ideas as to what I'm missing?

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