Search Results

Search found 12068 results on 483 pages for 'sv gets'.

Page 440/483 | < Previous Page | 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447  | Next Page >

  • Simplest way to flatten document to a view in RavenDB

    - by degorolls
    Given the following classes: public class Lookup { public string Code { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class DocA { public string Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public Lookup Currency { get; set; } } public class ViewA // Simply a flattened version of the doc { public string Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public string CurrencyName { get; set; } // View just gets the name of the currency } I can create an index that allows client to query the view as follows: public class A_View : AbstractIndexCreationTask<DocA, ViewA> { public A_View() { Map = docs => from doc in docs select new ViewA { Id = doc.Id, Name = doc.Name, CurrencyName = doc.Currency.Name }; Reduce = results => from result in results group on new ViewA { Id = result.Id, Name = result.Name, CurrencyName = result.CurrencyName } into g select new ViewA { Id = g.Key.Id, Name = g.Key.Name, CurrencyName = g.Key.CurrencyName }; } } This certainly works and produces the desired result of a view with the data transformed to the structure required at the client application. However, it is unworkably verbose, will be a maintenance nightmare and is probably fairly inefficient with all the redundant object construction. Is there a simpler way of creating an index with the required structure (ViewA) given a collection of documents (DocA)? FURTHER INFORMATION The issue appears to be that in order to have the index hold the data in the transformed structure (ViewA), we have to do a Reduce. It appears that a Reduce must have both a GROUP ON and a SELECT in order to work as expected so the following are not valid: INVALID REDUCE CLAUSE 1: Reduce = results => from result in results group on new ViewA { Id = result.Id, Name = result.Name, CurrencyName = result.CurrencyName } into g select g.Key; This produces: System.InvalidOperationException: Variable initializer select must have a lambda expression with an object create expression Clearly we need to have the 'select new'. INVALID REDUCE CLAUSE 2: Reduce = results => from result in results select new ViewA { Id = result.Id, Name = result.Name, CurrencyName = result.CurrencyName }; This prduces: System.InvalidCastException: Unable to cast object of type 'ICSharpCode.NRefactory.Ast.IdentifierExpression' to type 'ICSharpCode.NRefactory.Ast.InvocationExpression'. Clearly, we also need to have the 'group on new'. Thanks for any assistance you can provide. (Note: removing the type (ViewA) from the constructor calls has no effect on the above)

    Read the article

  • How to remove music/videos DRM protection and convert to Mobile Devices such as iPod, iPhone, PSP, Z

    - by tonywesley
    The music/video files you purchased from online music stores like iTunes, Yahoo Music or Wal-Mart are under DRM protection. So you can't convert them to the formats supported by your own mobile devices such as Nokia phone, Creative Zen palyer, iPod, PSP, Walkman, Zune… You also can't share your purchased music/videos with your friends. The following step by step tutorial is dedicated to instructing music lovers to how to convert your DRM protected music/videos to mobile devices. Method 1: If you only want to remove DRM protection from your protected music, this method will not spend your money. Step 1: Burn your protected music files to CD-R/RW disc to make an audio CD Step 2: Find a free CD Ripper software to convert the audio CD track back to MP3, WAV, WMA, M4A, AAC, RA… Method 2: This guide will show you how to crack drm from protected wmv, wma, m4p, m4v, m4a, aac files and convert to unprotected WMV, MP4, MP3, WMA or any video and audio formats you like, such as AVI, MP4, Flv, MPEG, MOV, 3GP, m4a, aac, wmv, ogg, wav... I have been using Media Converter software, it is the quickest and easiest solution to remove drm from WMV, M4V, M4P, WMA, M4A, AAC, M4B, AA files by quick recording. It gets audio and video stream at the bottom of operating system, so the output quality is lossless and the conversion speed is fast . The process is as follows. Step 1: Download and install the software Step 2: Run the software and click "Add…" button to load WMA or M4A, M4B, AAC, WMV, M4P, M4V, ASF files Step 3: Choose output formats. If you want to convert protected audio files, please select "Convert audio to" list; If you want to convert protected video files, please select "Convert video to" list. Step 4: You can click "Settings" button to custom preference for output files. Click "Settings" button bellow "Convert audio to" list for protected audio files Click "Settings" button bellow "Convert video to" list for protected video files Step 5: Start remove DRM and convert your DRM protected music and videos by click on "Start" button. What is DRM? DRM, which is most commonly found in movies and music files, doesn't mean just basic copy-protection of video, audio and ebooks, but it basically means full protection for digital content, ranging from delivery to end user's ways to use the content. We can remove the Drm from video and audio files legally by quick recording.

    Read the article

  • Best way to run remote VBScript in ASP.net? WMI or PsExec?

    - by envinyater
    I am doing some research to find out the best and most efficient method for this. I will need to execute remote scripts on a number of Window Servers/Computers (while we are building them). I have a web application that is going to automate this task, I currently have my prototype working to use PsExec to execute remote scripts. This requires PsExec to be installed on the system. A colleague suggested I should use WMI for this. I did some research in WMI and I couldn't find what I'm looking for. I want to either upload the script to the server and execute it and read the results, or already have the script on the server and execute it and read the results. I would prefer the first option though! Which is more ideal, PsExec or WMI? For reference, this is my prototype PsExec code. This script is only executing a small script to get the Windows OS and Service Pack Info. Protected Sub windowsScript(ByVal COMPUTERNAME As String) ' Create an array to store VBScript results Dim winVariables(2) As String nameLabel.Text = Name.Text ' Use PsExec to execute remote scripts Dim Proc As New System.Diagnostics.Process ' Run PsExec locally Proc.StartInfo = New ProcessStartInfo("C:\Windows\psexec.exe") ' Pass in following arguments to PsExec Proc.StartInfo.Arguments = COMPUTERNAME & " -s cmd /C c:\systemInfo.vbs" Proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = True Proc.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True Proc.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False Proc.Start() ' Pause for script to run System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1500) Proc.Close() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2500) 'Allows the system a chance to finish with the process. Dim filePath As String = COMPUTERNAME & "\TTO\somefile.txt" 'Download file created by script on Remote system to local system My.Computer.Network.DownloadFile(filePath, "C:\somefile.txt") System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) ' Pause so file gets downloaded ''Import data from text file into variables textRead("C:\somefile.txt", winVariables) WindowsOSLbl.Text = winVariables(0).ToString() SvcPckLbl.Text = winVariables(1).ToString() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000) ' ''Delete the file on server - we don't need it anymore Dim Proc2 As New System.Diagnostics.Process Proc2.StartInfo = New ProcessStartInfo("C:\Windows\psexec.exe") Proc2.StartInfo.Arguments = COMPUTERNAME & " -s cmd /C del c:\somefile.txt" Proc2.StartInfo.RedirectStandardInput = True Proc2.StartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = True Proc2.StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False Proc2.Start() System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(500) Proc2.Close() ' Delete file locally File.Delete("C:\somefile.txt") End Sub

    Read the article

  • Measure width() with jQuery after DOM refresh

    - by o_O Tync
    My script dynamically creates a <ul> width left-floating <li>s inside: it's a paginator. Afterwards, the script measures width of all <li>s and summs them up. The problem is that after the nodes are injected into the document — the browser refreshed DOM and applies CSS styles which takes a while. It has a negative effect on my script: when these operations are not complete before I measure the width — my script gets a wrong value. If I perform the measure in a second — everything is ok. The thing I'm looking for is a way to detect the moment when the <ul> is fully drawn, styles applied and the width has stabilizes. Or at least a way to detect every dimensions changes. Of course I can use setTimeout(..., 100) but it's ugly and I guess — not a solution at all. If there's a way to detect width stabilization — I would do the measuring right after it to get the correct values. HTML code generated by the DOM <div> <ul> <li><a href="...">1</a></li> <li><a href="...">2</a></li> .... </ul> </div> P.S. Why I need this. My paginator's left-floating <li> items tend to move to the next line when the <ul> tries to become wider than the page itself. Even though most of <li>s are invisible because of parent <div>'s width restriction: div { width: 500px; overflow: hidden; } div ul { width: 100%; white-space: nowrap; } div ul li { display: block; float: left; } they still go down unless I specify the actual summed width of the <ul> with the script.

    Read the article

  • .Net Entity Framework SaveChanges is adding without add method

    - by tmfkmoney
    I'm new to the entity framework and I'm really confused about how savechanges works. There's probably a lot of code in my example which could be improved, but here's the problem I'm having. The user enters a bunch of picks. I make sure the user hasn't already entered those picks. Then I add the picks to the database. var db = new myModel() var predictionArray = ticker.Substring(1).Split(','); // Get rid of the initial comma. var user = Membership.GetUser(); var userId = Convert.ToInt32(user.ProviderUserKey); // Get the member with all his predictions for today. var memberQuery = (from member in db.Members where member.user_id == userId select new { member, predictions = from p in member.Predictions where p.start_date == null select p }).First(); // Load all the company ids. foreach (var prediction in memberQuery.predictions) { prediction.CompanyReference.Load(); } var picks = from prediction in predictionArray let data = prediction.Split(':') let companyTicker = data[0] where !(from i in memberQuery.predictions select i.Company.ticker).Contains(companyTicker) select new Prediction { Member = memberQuery.member, Company = db.Companies.Where(c => c.ticker == companyTicker).First(), is_up = data[1] == "up", // This turns up and down into true and false. }; // Save the records to the database. // HERE'S THE PART I DON'T UNDERSTAND. // This saves the records, even though I don't have db.AddToPredictions(pick) foreach (var pick in picks) { db.SaveChanges(); } // This does not save records when the db.SaveChanges outside of a loop of picks. db.SaveChanges(); foreach (var pick in picks) { } // This saves records, but it will insert all the picks exactly once no matter how many picks you have. //The fact you're skipping a pick makes no difference in what gets inserted. var counter = 1; foreach (var pick in picks) { if (counter == 2) { db.SaveChanges(); } counter++; } There's obviously something going on with the context I don't understand. I'm guessing I've somehow loaded my new picks as pending changes, but even if that's true I don't understand I have to loop over them to save changes. Can someone explain this to me?

    Read the article

  • Add/delete row from a table

    - by yogsma
    I have this table with some dependents information and there is a add and delete button for each row to add/delete additional dependents. When I click "add" button, a new row gets added to the table, but when I click the "delete" button, it deletes the header row first and then on subsequent clicking, it deletes the corresponding row. Here is what I have: Javascript code function deleteRow(row){ var d = row.parentNode.parentNode.rowIndex; document.getElementById('dsTable').deleteRow(d); } HTML code <table id = 'dsTable' > <tr> <td> Relationship Type </td> <td> Date of Birth </td> <td> Gender </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Spouse </td> <td> 1980-22-03 </td> <td> female </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="addDep" value="Add" onclick = "add()" </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="deleteDep" value="Delete" onclick = "deleteRow(this)" </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Child </td> <td> 2008-23-06 </td> <td> female </td> <td> <input type="button" id ="addDep" value="Add" onclick = "add()"</td> <td> <input type="button" id ="deleteDep" value="Delete" onclick = "deleteRow(this)" </td> </tr> </table>

    Read the article

  • How to perform duplicate key validation using entlib (or DataAnnotations), MVC, and Repository pattern

    - by olivehour
    I have a set of ASP.NET 4 projects that culminate in an MVC (3 RC2) app. The solution uses Unity and EntLib Validation for cross-cutting dependency injection and validation. Both are working great for injecting repository and service layer implementations. However, I can't figure out how to do duplicate key validation. For example, when a user registers, we want to make sure they don't pick a UserID that someone else is already using. For this type of validation, the validating object must have a repository reference... or some other way to get an IQueryable / IEnumerable reference to check against other rows already in the DB. What I have is a UserMetadata class that has all of the property setters and getters for a user, along with all of the appropriate DataAnnotations and EntLib Validation attributes. There is also a UserEntity class implemented using EF4 POCO Entity Generator templates. The UserEntity depends on UserMetadata, because it has a MetadataTypeAttribute. I also have a UserViewModel class that has the same exact MetadataType attribute. This way, I can apply the same validation rules, via attributes, to both the entity and viewmodel. There are no concrete references to the Repository classes whatsoever. All repositories are injected using Unity. There is also a service layer that gets dependency injection. In the MVC project, service layer implementation classes are injected into the Controller classes (the controller classes only contain service layer interface references). Unity then injects the Repository implementations into the service layer classes (service classes also only contain interface references). I've experimented with the DataAnnotations CustomValidationAttribute in the metadata class. The problem with this is the validation method must be static, and the method cannot instantiate a repository implementation directly. My repository interface is IRepository, and I have only one single repository implementation class defined as EntityRepository for all domain objects. To instantiate a repository explicitly I would need to say new EntityRepository(), which would result in a circular dependency graph: UserMetadata [depends on] DuplicateUserIDValidator [depends on] UserEntity [depends on] UserMetadata. I've also tried creating a custom EntLib Validator along with a custom validation attribute. Here I don't have the same problem with a static method. I think I could get this to work if I could just figure out how to make Unity inject my EntityRepository into the validator class... which I can't. Right now, all of the validation code is in my Metadata class library, since that's where the custom validation attribute would go. Any ideas on how to perform validations that need to check against the current repository state? Can Unity be used to inject a dependency into a lower-layer class library?

    Read the article

  • Quick question regarding this issue, Why doesnt it print out the second value(converted second value

    - by sil3nt
    Quick question, What have I done wrong here. The purpose of this code is to get the input into a string, the input being "12 34", with a space in between the "12" and "32" and to convert and print the two separate numbers from an integer variable known as number. Why doesn't the second call to the function copyTemp, not produce the value 34?. I have an index_counter variable which keeps track of the string index and its meant to skip the 'space' character?? what have i done wrong? thanks. #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> int index_counter = 0; int number; void copyTemp(char *expr,char *temp); int main(){ char exprstn[80]; //as global? char tempstr[80]; gets(exprstn); copyTemp(exprstn,tempstr); printf("Expression: %s\n",exprstn); printf("Temporary: %s\n",tempstr); printf("number is: %d\n",number); copyTemp(exprstn,tempstr); //second call produces same output shouldnt it now produce 34 in the variable number? printf("Expression: %s\n",exprstn); printf("Temporary: %s\n",tempstr); printf("number is: %d\n",number); return 0; } void copyTemp(char *expr,char *temp){ int i; for(i = index_counter; expr[i] != '\0'; i++){ if (expr[i] == '0'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '1'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '2'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '3'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '4'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '5'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '6'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '7'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '8'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == '9'){ temp[i] = expr[i]; } if (expr[i] == ' '){ temp[i] = '\0'; sscanf(temp,"%d",&number); index_counter = i+1; //skips? } } // is this included here? temp[i] = '\0'; }

    Read the article

  • How to replace all id attributes of a child collection of complex types using jQuery in ASP.net MVC

    - by TJB
    Here's my situation: I'm writing an ASP.net MVC 1 website and I have a create/edit form that uses the default model binding to parse the form into a strongly typed complex object. The object I'm posting has a child collection of another complex type and the way I format my id's for the model binder is as follows: <div class="childContainer" > <!-- There's one of these for each property for each child collection item --> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].ChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <%= Html.TextBox("ChildCollectionName[0].OtherChildPropertyName", /* blah blah */ ) %> <!-- ... --> </div> This gets rendered as <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[0]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> <div class="childContainer" > <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_ChildPropertyName" ... /> <input id="ChildCollectionName[1]_OtherChildPropertyName" ... /> ... </div> For each entry in the chlid collection. This collection is dynamically created in the form using jQuery, so entries can be added, removed etc. and whenever there's an operation on the collection I need to update the indexes so that it's bound correctly on the server side. What's the best way to replace all the html input id's when I'm updating the index within the child e.g. replace all [*] -- [N] where N is the correct index. using jQuery / JavaScript ? I have something coded now, but its buggy and I think there is a simpler solution. Also, if you have an easier way to identify the child collection I'll take any advice on that as well. Thanx!

    Read the article

  • JSF 2.0: Preserving component state across multiple views

    - by tlind
    The web application I am developing using MyFaces 2.0.3 / PrimeFaces 2.2RC2 is divided into a content and a navigation area. In the navigation area, which is included into multiple pages using templating (i.e. <ui:define>), there are some widgets (e.g. a navigation tree, collapsible panels etc.) of which I want to preserve the component state across views. For example, let's say I am on the home page. When I navigate to a product details page by clicking on a product in the navigation tree, my Java code triggers a redirect using navigationHandler.handleNavigation(context, null, "/detailspage.jsf?faces-redirect=true") Another way of getting to that details page would be by directly clicking on a product teaser that is shown on the home page. The corresponding <h:link> would lead us to the details page. In both cases, the expansion state of my navigation tree (a PrimeFaces tree component) and my collapsible panels is lost. I understand this is because the redirect / h:link results in the creation of a new view. What is the best way of dealing with this? I am already using MyFaces Orchestra in my project along with its conversation scope, but I am not sure if this is of any help here (since I'd have to bind the expansion/collapsed state of the widgets to a backing bean... but as far as I know, this is not possible). Is there a way of telling JSF which component states to propagate to the next view, assuming that the same component exists in that view? I guess I could need a pointer into the right direction here. Thanks! Update 1: I just tried binding the panels and the tree to a session-scoped bean, but this seems to have no effect. Also, I guess I would have to bind all child components (if any) manually, so this doesn't seem like the way to go. Update 2: Binding UI components to non-request scoped beans is not a good idea (see link I posted in a comment below). If there is no easier approach, I might have to proceed as follows: When a panel is collapsed or the tree is expanded, save the current state in a session-scoped backing bean (!= the UI component itself) The components' states are stored in a map. The map key is the component's (hopefully) unique, relative ID. I cannot use the whole absolute component path here, since the IDs of the parent naming containers might change if the view changes, assuming these IDs are generated programmatically. As soon as a new view gets constructed, retrieve the components' states from the map and apply them to the components. For example, in case of the panels, I can set the collapsed attribute to a value retrieved from my session-scoped backing bean.

    Read the article

  • LinearLayout as custom button, OnClickListener never called

    - by ohra
    I've been using the common Android Button with both icon (drawableTop) and text. It works really poorly if you want to have a non-standard size button, so I decided to make a custom button with a LinearLayout having the following layout: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" style="@style/ButtonHoloDark" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center" android:clickable="true" android:focusable="true" android:orientation="vertical" > <ImageView android:id="@+id/buttonIcon" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:duplicateParentState="true" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/buttonText" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:duplicateParentState="true" android:gravity="center" android:textColor="@color/white" /> </LinearLayout> The layout is used by a custom class: public class CustomIconButton extends LinearLayout { public CustomIconButton(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); setAttributes(context, attrs); LayoutInflater.from(context).inflate(R.layout.custom_icon_button, this, true); } ... But when I set an OnClickListener on my button in its parent layout it never gets called. I can only receive clicks if a set the listener to the ImageView and/or TextView. This leads to two possible effects when the button is clicked: The click is inside the ImageView or the TextView. The click is registered ok, but the buttons state drawable doesn't change i.e. it doesn't appear depressed. The click is inside the "empty area" of the button. The click is not registered, but the state drawable works ok. Neither of these is feasible. I've played around with the following attributes on the LinearLayout or its children, but none really seem to have any effect whether true or false: duplicateParentState clickable focusable There doesn't seem to be any reasonable way to get the LinearLayout parent receive clicks instead of its children. I've seen some possible solutions overriding dispatchTouchEvent or onInterceptTouchEvent on the custom component itself, but that really seems like a big mess if I have to start analyzing touch events to identify proper clicks. So OnClickListener on a LinearLayout with children = no go?

    Read the article

  • difference between calling javascript function on body load or directly from script.

    - by Abbas
    i am using a javascript where in i am creating multiple div (say 5) at runtime, using javascript function, all the divs contain some text, which is again set at runtime, now i want to disable all the divs at runtime and have the page numbers in the bottom, so that whenever user clicks on the page number only that div should get visible else other should get disable, i have created a function, which accepts parameter, as page number, i enable the div whose page number is clicked and using a for loop, i disable all the other divs, now here my problem is i have created two functions, 1st (for adding divs and disabling all the divs except 1st) and writing content to it, and other for enabling the div whose page number is clicked, and i have called the Adding div function on body onload; now first time when i run, page everthing goes well, but next time when i click on any of the page number, it just gets enabled and again that AddDiv function, runs and re-enables all the divs.. Please reply why this is happening and how should i resolve my issue... Below is my script, content for the div are coming using Json. <body onload="JsonScript();"> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function JsonScript() { var existingDiv = document.getElementById("form1"); var newAnchorDiv = document.createElement("div"); newAnchorDiv.id = "anchorDiv"; var list = { "Article": articleList }; for(var i=0; i < list.Article.length; i++) { var newDiv = document.createElement("div"); newDiv.id = "div"+(i+1); newDiv.innerHTML = list.Article[i].toString(); newAnchorDiv.innerHTML += "<a href='' onclick='displayMessage("+(i+1)+")'>"+(i+1)+"</a>&nbsp;"; existingDiv.appendChild(newDiv); existingDiv.appendChild(newAnchorDiv); } for(var j = 2; j < list.Article.length + 1; j ++) { var getDivs = document.getElementById("div"+j); getDivs.style.display = "none"; } } function displayMessage(currentId) { var list = {"Article" : articleList} document.getElementById("div"+currentId).style.display = 'block'; for(var i = 1; i < list.Article.length + 1; i++) { if (i != currentId) { document.getElementById("div"+i).style.display = 'none'; } } } </script> Thanks and Regards

    Read the article

  • Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

    - by Volomike
    I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

    Read the article

  • Monitoring UDP socket in glib(mm) eats up CPU time

    - by Gyorgy Szekely
    Hi, I have a GTKmm Windows application (built with MinGW) that receives UDP packets (no sending). The socket is native winsock and I use glibmm IOChannel to connect it to the application main loop. The socket is read with recvfrom. My problem is: this setup eats 25% percent CPU time on a 3GHz workstation. Can somebody tell me why? The application is idle in this case, and if I remove the UDP code, CPU usage drops down to almost zero. As the application has to perform some CPU intensive tasks, I could image better ways to spend that 25% Here are some code excerpts: (sorry for the printf's ;) ) /* bind */ void UDPInterface::bindToPort(unsigned short port) { struct sockaddr_in target; WSADATA wsaData; target.sin_family = AF_INET; target.sin_port = htons(port); target.sin_addr.s_addr = 0; if ( WSAStartup ( 0x0202, &wsaData ) ) { printf("WSAStartup failed!\n"); exit(0); // :) WSACleanup(); } sock = socket( AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, 0 ); if (sock == INVALID_SOCKET) { printf("invalid socket!\n"); exit(0); } if (bind(sock,(struct sockaddr*) &target, sizeof(struct sockaddr_in) ) == SOCKET_ERROR) { printf("failed to bind to port!\n"); exit(0); } printf("[UDPInterface::bindToPort] listening on port %i\n", port); } /* read */ bool UDPInterface::UDPEvent(Glib::IOCondition io_condition) { recvfrom(sock, (char*)buf, BUF_SIZE*4, 0, NULL, NULL); /* process packet... */ } /* glibmm connect */ Glib::RefPtr channel = Glib::IOChannel::create_from_win32_socket(udp.sock); Glib::signal_io().connect( sigc::mem_fun(udp, &UDPInterface::UDPEvent), channel, Glib::IO_IN ); I've read here in some other question, and also in glib docs (g_io_channel_win32_new_socket()) that the socket is put into nonblocking mode, and it's "a side-effect of the implementation and unavoidable". Does this explain the CPU effect, it's not clear to me? Whether or not I use glib to access the socket or call recvfrom() directly doesn't seem to make much difference, since CPU is used up before any packet arrives and the read handler gets invoked. Also glibmm docs state that it's ok to call recvfrom() even if the socket is polled (Glib::IOChannel::create_from_win32_socket()) I've tried compiling the program with -pg and created a per function cpu usage report with gprof. This wasn't usefull because the time is not spent in my program, but in some external glib/glibmm dll.

    Read the article

  • Selecting the contents of an ASP.NET TextBox in an UpdatePanel after a partial page postback

    - by Scott Mitchell
    I am having problems selecting the text within a TextBox in an UpdatePanel. Consider a very simple page that contains a single UpdatePanel. Within that UpdatePanel there are two Web controls: A DropDownList with three statically-defined list items, whose AutoPostBack property is set to True, and A TextBox Web control The DropDownList has a server-side event handler for its SelectedIndexChanged event, and in that event handler there's two lines of code: TextBox1.Text = "Whatever"; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "Select-" + TextBox1.ClientID, string.Format("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", TextBox1.ClientID), true); The idea is that whenever a user chooses and item from the DropDownList there is a partial page postback, at which point the TextBox's Text property is set and selected (via the injected JavaScript). Unfortunately, this doesn't work as-is. (I have also tried putting the script in the pageLoad function with no luck, as in: ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(..., "function pageLoad() { ... my script ... }");) What happens is the code runs, but something else on the page receives focus at the conclusion of the partial page postback, causing the TextBox's text to be unselected. I can "fix" this by using JavaScript's setTimeout to delay the execution of my JavaScript code. For instance, if I update the emitted JavaScript to the following: setTimeout("document.getElementById('{0}').select();", 111); It "works." I put works in quotes because it works for this simple page on my computer. In a more complex page on a slower computer with more markup getting passed between the client and server on the partial page postback, I have to up the timeout to over a second to get it to work. I would hope that there is a more foolproof way to achieve this. Rather than saying, "Delay for X milliseconds," it would be ideal to say, "Run this when you're not going to steal the focus." What's perplexing is that the .Focus() method works beautifully. That is, if I scrap my JavaScript and replace it with a call to TextBox1.Focus(); then the TextBox receives focus (although the text is not selected). I've examined the contents of MicrosoftAjaxWebForms.js and see that the focus is set after the registered scripts run, but I'm my JavaScript skills are not strong enough to decode what all is happening here and why the selected text is unselected between the time it is selected and the end of the partial page postback. I've also tried using Firebug's JavaScript debugger and see that when my script runs the TextBox's text is selected. As I continue to step through it the text remains selected, but then after stepping off the last line of script (apparently) it all of the sudden gets unselected. Any ideas? I am pulling my hair out. Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • Nested Transaction issues within custom Windows Service

    - by pdwetz
    I have a custom Windows Service I recently upgraded to use TransactionScope for nested transactions. It worked fine locally on my old dev machine (XP sp3) and on a test server (Server 2003). However, it fails on my new Windows 7 machine as well as on 2008 Server. It was targeting 2.0 framework; I tried targeting 3.5 instead, but it still fails. The strange part is really in how it fails; no exception is thrown. The service itself merely times out. I added tracing code, and it fails when opening the connection for Database lookup #2 below. I also enabled tracing for System.Transactions; it literally cuts out partway while writing the block for the failed connection. We ran a SQL trace, but only the first lookup shows up. I put in code traces, and it gets to the trace the line before the second lookup, but nothing after. I've had the same experience hitting two different SQL servers (both are SQL 2005 running on Server 2003). The connection string is utilizing a SQL account (not Windows integration). All connections are against the same database in this case, but given the nature of the code it is being escalated to MSDTC. Here's the basic code structure: TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, options)) { // Database lookup #1 TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = Transaction.Current != null ? Transaction.Current.IsolationLevel : System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required, options)) { // Database lookup #2; fails on connection.Open() // Database save (never reached) scope.Complete();<br/> } scope.Complete();<br/> } My local firewall is disabled. The service normally runs using Network Service, but I also tried my user account (same results). The short of it is that I use the same general technique widely in my web applications and haven't had any issues. I pulled out the code and ran it fine within a local Windows Form application. If anyone has any additional debugging ideas (or, even better, solutions) I'd love to hear them.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server CTE referred in self joins slow

    - by Kharlos Dominguez
    Hello, I have written a table-valued UDF that starts by a CTE to return a subset of the rows from a large table. There are several joins in the CTE. A couple of inner and one left join to other tables, which don't contain a lot of rows. The CTE has a where clause that returns the rows within a date range, in order to return only the rows needed. I'm then referencing this CTE in 4 self left joins, in order to build subtotals using different criterias. The query is quite complex but here is a simplified pseudo-version of it WITH DataCTE as ( SELECT [columns] FROM table INNER JOIN table2 ON [...] INNER JOIN table3 ON [...] LEFT JOIN table3 ON [...] ) SELECT [aggregates_columns of each subset] FROM DataCTE Main LEFT JOIN DataCTE BananasSubset ON [...] AND Product = 'Bananas' AND Quality = 100 LEFT JOIN DataCTE DamagedBananasSubset ON [...] AND Product = 'Bananas' AND Quality < 20 LEFT JOIN DataCTE MangosSubset ON [...] GROUP BY [ I have the feeling that SQL Server gets confused and calls the CTE for each self join, which seems confirmed by looking at the execution plan, although I confess not being an expert at reading those. I would have assumed SQL Server to be smart enough to only perform the data retrieval from the CTE only once, rather than do it several times. I have tried the same approach but rather than using a CTE to get the subset of the data, I used the same select query as in the CTE, but made it output to a temp table instead. The version referring the CTE version takes 40 seconds. The version referring the temp table takes between 1 and 2 seconds. Why isn't SQL Server smart enough to keep the CTE results in memory? I like CTEs, especially in this case as my UDF is a table-valued one, so it allowed me to keep everything in a single statement. To use a temp table, I would need to write a multi-statement table valued UDF, which I find a slightly less elegant solution. Did some of you had this kind of performance issues with CTE, and if so, how did you get them sorted? Thanks, Kharlos

    Read the article

  • iPhone memory management

    - by Prazi
    I am newbie to iPhone programming. I am not using Interface Builder in my programming. I have some doubt about memory management, @property topics in iPhone. Consider the following code @interface LoadFlag : UIViewController { UIImage *flag; UIImageView *preview; } @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImageView *preview; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImage *flag; @implementation @synthesize preview; @synthesize flag; - (void)viewDidLoad { flag = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; NSLog(@"Preview: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 0 but shouldn't it be 1 as I am retaining it in @property in interface file preview=[[UIImageView alloc]init]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 1 preview.frame=CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 100.0f, 100.0f); preview.image = flag; [self.view addSubview:preview]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 2 [preview release]; NSLog(@"Count: %d\n",[preview retainCount]); //Count: 1 } When & Why(what is the need) do I have to set @property with retain (in above case for UIImage & UIImageView) ? I saw this statement in many sample programs but didn't understood the need of it. When I declare @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImageView *preview; statement the retain Count is 0. Why doesn't it increase by 1 inspite of retaining it in @property. Also when I declare [self.view addSubview:preview]; then retain Count increments by 1 again. In this case does the "Autorelease pool" releases for us later or we have to take care of releasing it. I am not sure but I think that the Autorelease should handle it as we didn't explicitly retained it so why should we worry of releasing it. Now, after the [preview release]; statement my count is 1. Now I don't need UIImageView anymore in my program so when and where should I release it so that the count becomes 0 and the memory gets deallocated. Again, I am not sure but I think that the Autorelease should handle it as we didn't explicitly retained it so why should we worry of releasing it. What will happen if I release it in -(void) dealloc method In the statement - flag = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]]; I haven't allocated any memory to flag but how can I still use it in my program. In this case if I do not allocate memory then who allocates & deallocates memory to it or is the "flag" just a reference pointing to - [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]];. If it is a reference only then do i need to release it. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Help with C# program design implementation: multiple array of lists or a better way?

    - by Bob
    I'm creating a 2D tile-based RPG in XNA and am in the initial design phase. I was thinking of how I want my tile engine to work and came up with a rough sketch. Basically I want a grid of tiles, but at each tile location I want to be able to add more than one tile and have an offset. I'd like this so that I could do something like add individual trees on the world map to give more flair. Or set bottles on a bar in some town without having to draw a bunch of different bar tiles with varying bottles. But maybe my reach is greater than my grasp. I went to implement the idea and had something like this in my Map object: List<Tile>[,] Grid; But then I thought about it. Let's say I had a world map of 200x200, which would actually be pretty small as far as RPGs go. That would amount to 40,000 Lists. To my mind I think there has to be a better way. Now this IS pre-mature optimization. I don't know if the way I happen to design my maps and game will be able to handle this, but it seems needlessly inefficient and something that could creep up if my game gets more complex. One idea I have is to make the offset and the multiple tiles optional so that I'm only paying for them when needed. But I'm not sure how I'd do this. A multiple array of objects? object[,] Grid; So here's my criteria: A 2D grid of tile locations Each tile location has a minimum of 1 tile, but can optionally have more Each extra tile can optionally have an x and y offset for pinpoint placement Can anyone help with some ideas for implementing such a design (don't need it done for me, just ideas) while keeping memory usage to a minimum? If you need more background here's roughly what my Map and Tile objects amount to: public struct Map { public Texture2D Texture; public List<Rectangle> Sources; //Source Rectangles for where in Texture to get the sprite public List<Tile>[,] Grid; } public struct Tile { public int Index; //Where in Sources to find the source Rectangle public int X, Y; //Optional offsets }

    Read the article

  • asp.net custom templated datalist - throws argument out of range (index) on button press

    - by MrTortoise
    I have a class BaseTemplate public abstract class BaseTemplate : ITemplate This adds the controls, and provides abstract methods to implement in the inheriting class. The inheriting class then adds its html according to its data source and manages the data binding. this all works fine - I get the control appearing with properly parsed html. the problem is that the base class adds controls into the template that have their own CommandName arguments ... the idea is that the class that implements the custom templated dataList will provide the logic of setting the Selected and Edit Indexes. This class also manages the data binding etc. It sets all of the templates ont he datalist in the Init method (which was another cause of this exception). the exception gets throw when i hit one of these buttons .. but after the ItemCommand event is being processed. The stack trace does not include any references to my methods or objects which is why i am so stuck. The Exception Details Exception Details: System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Specified argument was out of the range of valid values. Parameter name: index The Stack Trace: [ArgumentOutOfRangeException: Specified argument was out of the range of valid values. Parameter name: index] System.Web.UI.ControlCollection.get_Item(Int32 index) +8665582 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataList.GetItem(ListItemType itemType, Int32 repeatIndex) +8667655 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataList.System.Web.UI.WebControls.IRepeatInfoUser.GetItemStyle(ListItemType itemType, Int32 repeatIndex) +11 System.Web.UI.WebControls.RepeatInfo.RenderVerticalRepeater(HtmlTextWriter writer, IRepeatInfoUser user, Style controlStyle, WebControl baseControl) +8640873 System.Web.UI.WebControls.RepeatInfo.RenderRepeater(HtmlTextWriter writer, IRepeatInfoUser user, Style controlStyle, WebControl baseControl) +27 System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataList.RenderContents(HtmlTextWriter writer) +208 System.Web.UI.WebControls.BaseDataList.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +30 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +163 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlContainerControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +32 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.Render(HtmlTextWriter output) +51 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +40 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.Page.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +29 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1266 This is driving me absolutley stark raving bonkers ... im talking cthulu style.

    Read the article

  • Android Bluetooth Fails to Pair

    - by CaseyB
    I am having a problem getting my devices to pair in Android. If I go into the settings and pair them manually I can get them to connect using the following code: Server // Make sure the device it discoverable mServerSocket = mAdapter.listenUsingRfcommWithServiceRecord("Moo Productions Bluetooth Server", mUUID); mState = State.ACCEPTING; BluetoothSocket socket = mServerSocket.accept(); mServerSocket.close(); connected(socket); Client Set<BluetoothDevice> pairedDevices = mAdapter.getBondedDevices(); BluetoothSocket socket = null; // Search the list of paired devices for the right one for(BluetoothDevice device : pairedDevices) { try { mState = State.SEARCHING; socket = device.createRfcommSocketToServiceRecord(mUUID); mState = State.CONNECTING; socket.connect(); connected(socket); break; } catch (IOException e) { socket = null; continue; } } But if the devices hadn't already been paired it gets out of the foreach without connecting to a valid socket. In that case I start discovering. // If that didn't work, discover if(socket == null) { mState = State.SEARCHING; mReceiver = new SocketReceiver(); mContext.registerReceiver(mReceiver, new IntentFilter(BluetoothDevice.ACTION_FOUND)); mAdapter.startDiscovery(); } // ... Later ... private class SocketReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { if(BluetoothDevice.ACTION_FOUND.equals(intent.getAction())) { try { // Get the device and try to open a socket BluetoothDevice device = intent.getParcelableExtra(BluetoothDevice.EXTRA_DEVICE); BluetoothSocket socket = device.createRfcommSocketToServiceRecord(mUUID); mState = State.CONNECTING; socket.connect(); // This is our boy, so stop looking mAdapter.cancelDiscovery(); mContext.unregisterReceiver(mReceiver); connected(socket); } catch (IOException ioe) { ioe.printStackTrace(); } } } } But it will never find the other device. I never get a pairing dialog and when I step through I see that it discovers the correct device, but it fails to connect with this exception java.io.IOException: Service discovery failed. Any ideas as to what I'm missing?

    Read the article

  • UIScrollView Infinite Scrolling

    - by Ben Robinson
    I'm attempting to setup a scrollview with infinite (horizontal) scrolling. Scrolling forward is easy - I have implemented scrollViewDidScroll, and when the contentOffset gets near the end I make the scrollview contentsize bigger and add more data into the space (i'll have to deal with the crippling effect this will have later!) My problem is scrolling back - the plan is to see when I get near the beginning of the scroll view, then when I do make the contentsize bigger, move the existing content along, add the new data to the beginning and then - importantly adjust the contentOffset so the data under the view port stays the same. This works perfectly if I scroll slowly (or enable paging) but if I go fast (not even very fast!) it goes mad! Heres the code: - (void) scrollViewDidScroll:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { float pageNumber = scrollView.contentOffset.x / 320; float pageCount = scrollView.contentSize.width / 320; if (pageNumber > pageCount-4) { //Add 10 new pages to end mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); //add new data here at (320*pageCount, 0); } //*** the problem is here - I use updatingScrollingContent to make sure its only called once (for accurate testing!) if (pageNumber < 4 && !updatingScrollingContent) { updatingScrollingContent = YES; mainScrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(mainScrollView.contentSize.width + 3200, mainScrollView.contentSize.height); mainScrollView.contentOffset = CGPointMake(mainScrollView.contentOffset.x + 3200, 0); for (UIView *view in [mainContainerView subviews]) { view.frame = CGRectMake(view.frame.origin.x+3200, view.frame.origin.y, view.frame.size.width, view.frame.size.height); } //add new data here at (0, 0); } //** MY CHECK! NSLog(@"%f", mainScrollView.contentOffset.x); } As the scrolling happens the log reads: 1286.500000 1285.500000 1284.500000 1283.500000 1282.500000 1281.500000 1280.500000 Then, when pageNumber<4 (we're getting near the beginning): 4479.500000 4479.500000 Great! - but the numbers should continue to go down in the 4,000s but the next log entries read: 1278.000000 1277.000000 1276.500000 1275.500000 etc.... Continiuing from where it left off! Just for the record, if scrolled slowly the log reads: 1294.500000 1290.000000 1284.500000 1280.500000 4476.000000 4476.000000 4473.000000 4470.000000 4467.500000 4464.000000 4460.500000 4457.500000 etc.... Any ideas???? Thanks Ben.

    Read the article

  • Connection hangs after time of inactivity

    - by Sinuhe
    In my application, Spring manages connection pool for database access. Hibernate uses these connections for its queries. At first glance, I have no problems with the pool: it works correctly with concurrent clients and a pool with only one connection. I can execute a lot of queries, so I think that I (or Spring) don't leave open connections. My problem appears after some time of inactivity (sometimes 30 minutes, sometimes more than 2 hours). Then, when Hibernate does some search, it lasts too much. Setting log4j level to TRACE, I get this logs: ... 18:27:01 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Retrieved value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@99abd7] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@7d2897] bound to thread [http-8080-Processor24] 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Found thread-bound Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@8878cd] for Hibernate transaction 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Using transaction object [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateTransactionManager$HibernateTransactionObject@1b2ffee] 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Creating new transaction with name [com.acjoventut.service.GenericManager.findByExample]: PROPAGATION_REQUIRED,ISOLATION_DEFAULT 18:27:01 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Preparing JDBC Connection of Hibernate Session [org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl@8878cd] 18:27:01 TRACE SessionImpl - setting flush mode to: AUTO 18:27:01 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - begin 18:27:01 DEBUG ConnectionManager - opening JDBC connection Here it gets frozen for about 2 - 10 minutes. But then continues: 18:30:11 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - current autocommit status: true 18:30:11 DEBUG JDBCTransaction - disabling autocommit 18:30:11 TRACE JDBCContext - after transaction begin 18:30:11 DEBUG HibernateTransactionManager - Exposing Hibernate transaction as JDBC transaction [jdbc:oracle:thin:@212.31.39.50:30998:orcl, UserName=DEVELOP, Oracle JDBC driver] 18:30:11 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Bound value [org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.ConnectionHolder@843a9d] for key [org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource@7745fd] to thread [http-8080-Processor24] 18:30:11 DEBUG nsactionSynchronizationManager - Initializing transaction synchronization ... After that, it works with no problems, until another period of inactivity. IMHO, it seems like connection pool returns an invalid/closed connection, and when Hibernate realizes that, ask another connection to the pool. I don't know how can I solve this problem or things I can do for delimiting it. Any help achieving this will be appreciate. Thanks. EDIT: Well, it finally was due a firewall rule. Database detects the connection is lost, but pool (dbcp or c3p0) not. So, it tries to query the database with no success. What is still strange for me is that timeout period is very variable. Maybe the rule is specially strange or firewall doesn't work correctly. Anyway, I have no access to that machine and I can only wait for an explanation. :(

    Read the article

  • Mootools 1.2.4 delegation not working in IE8...?

    - by michael
    Hey there everybody-- So I have a listbox next to a form. When the user clicks an option in the select box, I make a request for the related data, returned in a JSON object, which gets put into the form elements. When the form is saved, the request goes thru and the listbox is rebuilt with the updated data. Since it's being rebuilt I'm trying to use delegation on the listbox's parent div for the onchange code. The trouble I'm having is with IE8 (big shock) not firing the delegated event. I have the following HTML: <div id="listwrapper" class="span-10 append-1 last"> <select id="list" name="list" size="20"> <option value="86">Adrian Franklin</option> <option value="16">Adrian McCorvey</option> <option value="196">Virginia Thomas</option> </select> </div> and the following script to go with it: window.addEvent('domready', function() { var jsonreq = new Request.JSON(); $('listwrapper').addEvent('change:relay(select)', function(e) { alert('this doesn't fire in IE8'); e.stop(); var status= $('statuswrapper').empty().addClass('ajax-loading'); jsonreq.options.url = 'de_getformdata.php'; jsonreq.options.method = 'post'; jsonreq.options.data = {'getlist':'<?php echo $getlist ?>','pkey':$('list').value}; jsonreq.onSuccess = function(rObj, rTxt) { status.removeClass('ajax-loading'); for (key in rObj) { status.set('html','You are currently editing '+rObj['cname']); if ($chk($(key))) $(key).value = rObj[key]; } $('lalsoaccomp-yes').set('checked',(($('naccompkey').value > 0)?'true':'false')); $('lalsoaccomp-no').set('checked',(($('naccompkey').value > 0)?'false':'true')); } jsonreq.send(); }); }); (I took out a bit of unrelated stuff). So this all works as expected in firefox, but IE8 refuses to fire the delegated change event on the select element. If I attach the change function directly to the select, then it works just fine. Am I missing something? Does IE8 just not like the :relay? Sidenote: I'm very new to mootools and javascripting, etc, so if there's something that can be improved code-wise, please let me know too.. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Howto access thread data outside a thread

    - by Quandary
    Question: I start the MS Text-to-speech engine in a thread, in order to avoid a crash on DLL_attach. It starts fine, and the text to speech engine gets initialized, but I can't access ISpVoice outside the thread. How can I access ISpVoice outside the thread ? It's a global variable after all... #include <windows.h> #include <sapi.h> #include "XPThreads.h" ISpVoice * pVoice = NULL; unsigned long init_engine_thread(void* param) { Sleep(5000); printf("lolthread\n"); //HRESULT hr = CoInitializeEx(NULL, COINIT_MULTITHREADED); HRESULT hr = CoInitialize(NULL); if(FAILED(hr) ) { MessageBox(NULL, TEXT("Failed To Initialize"), TEXT("Error"), 0); char buffer[2000] ; sprintf(buffer, "An error occured: 0x%08X.\n", hr); FILE * pFile = fopen ( "c:\\temp\\CoInitialize_dll.txt" , "w" ); fwrite (buffer , 1 , strlen(buffer) , pFile ); fclose (pFile); } else { printf("trying to create instance.\n"); //HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(CLSID_SpVoice, NULL, CLSCTX_ALL, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); //hr = CoCreateInstance(CLSID_SpVoice, NULL, CLSCTX_ALL, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); //HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(__uuidof(ISpVoice), NULL, CLSCTX_INPROC_SERVER, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); HRESULT hr = CoCreateInstance(__uuidof(SpVoice), NULL, CLSCTX_ALL, IID_ISpVoice, (void **) &pVoice); if( SUCCEEDED( hr ) ) { printf("Succeeded\n"); hr = pVoice->Speak(L"The text to speech engine has been successfully initialized.", 0, NULL); } else { printf("failed\n"); MessageBox(NULL, TEXT("Failed To Create COM instance"), TEXT("Error"), 0); char buffer[2000] ; sprintf(buffer, "An error occured: 0x%08X.\n", hr); FILE * pFile = fopen ( "c:\\temp\\CoCreateInstance_dll.txt" , "w" ); fwrite (buffer , 1 , strlen(buffer) , pFile ); fclose (pFile); } } if(pVoice != NULL) { pVoice->Release(); pVoice = NULL; } CoUninitialize(); return NULL; } XPThreads* ptrThread = new XPThreads(init_engine_thread); BOOL APIENTRY DllMain( HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { switch (ul_reason_for_call) { case DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH: //init_engine(); LoadLibrary(TEXT("ole32.dll")); ptrThread->Run(); break; case DLL_THREAD_ATTACH: break; case DLL_THREAD_DETACH: break; case DLL_PROCESS_DETACH: break; } return TRUE; }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447  | Next Page >