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  • How do I find out what process Id and thread id / name has a file open

    - by peter
    Hi All, I am using C# in an application and am having some problems with a file becoming locked. The piece of code does this, while (true) { Read a packet from a socket (with data in it to add to the file) Open a file Writes data to it Close a file } But in the process the file becomes locked. I don't really understand how, we are are definately catching and reporting exceptions so I don't see how the file doesn't get closed every time. My best guess is that something else is opening the file, but I want to prove it. Can someone please provide a piece of code to check whether the file is open and if so report what processid and threadid has the file open. For example if I had this code, StreamWriter streamWriter1 = new StreamWriter(@"c:\logs\test.txt"); streamWriter1.WriteLine("Test"); // code to check for locks?? StreamWriter streamWriter2 = new StreamWriter(@"c:\logs\test.txt"); streamWriter1.Close(); streamWriter2.Close(); That will throw an exception because the file is locked when we try and open it the second time. So where the comment is what could I put in there to report that the current app (process Id) and the current thread (thread Id) have the file locked? Thanks.

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  • Dependency Injection Question - ASP.NET

    - by Paul
    I'm starting a web application that contains the following projects: Booking.Web Booking.Services Booking.DataObjects Booking.Data I'm using the repository pattern in my data project only. All services will be the same, no matter what happens. However, if a customer wants to use Access, it will use a different data repository than if the customer wants to use SQL Server. I have StructureMap, and want to be able to do the following: Web project is unaffected. It's a web forms application that will only know about the services project and the dataobjects project. When a service is called, it will use StructureMap (by looking up the bootstrapper.cs file) to see which data repository to use. An example of a services class is the error logging class: public class ErrorLog : IErrorLog { ILogging logger; public ErrorLog() { } public ErrorLog(ILogging logger) { this.logger = logger; } public void AddToLog(string errorMessage) { try { AddToDatabaseLog(errorMessage); } catch (Exception ex) { AddToFileLog(ex.Message); } finally { AddToFileLog(errorMessage); } } private void AddToDatabaseLog(string errorMessage) { ErrorObject error = new ErrorObject { ErrorDateTime = DateTime.Now, ErrorMessage = errorMessage }; logger.Insert(error); } private void AddToFileLog(string errorMessage) { // TODO: Take this value from the web.config instead of hard coding it TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(@"E:\Work\Booking\Booking\Booking.Web\Logs\ErrorLog.txt", true); writer.WriteLine(DateTime.Now.ToString() + " ---------- " + errorMessage); writer.Close(); } } I want to be able to call this service from my web project, without defining which repository to use for the data access. My boostrapper.cs file in the services project is defined as: public class Bootstrapper { public static void ConfigureStructureMap() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => { x.AddRegistry(new ServiceRegistry()); } ); } public class ServiceRegistry : Registry { protected override void configure() { ForRequestedType<IErrorLog>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<Booking.Services.Logging.ErrorLog>(); ForRequestedType<ILogging>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<SqlServerLoggingProvider>(); } } } What else do I need to get this to work? When I defined a test, the ILogger object was null. Thanks,

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  • Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

    - by alyoshak
    When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

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  • Spring MVC with annotations: how to beget that method always is called

    - by TheStijn
    hi, I'm currently migrating a project that is using Spring MVC without annotations to Spring MVC with annotations. This is causing less problems than expected but I did come across one issue. In my project I have set up an access mechanisme. Whether or not a User has access to a certain view depends on more than just the role of the User (e.g. it also depends on the status of the entity, the mode (view/edit), ...). To address this I had created an abstract parent controller which has a method hasAccess. This method calls also other methods like getAllowedEditStatuses which are here and there overridden by the child controllers. The hasAccess method gets called from the showForm method (below code was minimized for your readability): @Override protected ModelAndView showForm(final HttpServletRequest request, final HttpServletResponse response, final BindException errors) throws Exception { Integer id = Integer.valueOf(request.getParameter("ID")); Project project = this.getProject(id); if (!this.hasAccess(project, this.getActiveUser())) { return new ModelAndView("errorNoAccess", "code", project != null ? project.getCode() : null); } return this.showForm(request, response, project, errors); } So, if the User has no access to the view then he gets redirected to an error page. Now the 'pickle': how to set this up when using annotations. There no longer is a showForm or other method that is always called by the framework. My (and maybe your) first thought was: simply call this method from within each controller before going to the view. This would of course work but I was hoping for a nicer, more generic solution (less code duplication). The only other solution I could think of is preceeding the hasAccess method with the @ModelAttribute annotation but this feels a lot like raping the framework :-). So, does anyone have a (better) idea? thanks, Stijn

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  • Redirect to another action in an interceptor in struts 2

    - by user292662
    I am currently in the process of learning Struts 2 and I am currently building a simple application where unverified users are redirected to a login form. I have a login form and action functional which takes the users credentials, verifies them and stores a User object in the session however I am now trying to prevent access to pages before the login has taken place and I am trying to do this with an interceptor. My problem is that I have written an interceptor that checks whether the User object has been saved in the session but if it has not I want to redirect to the login page and can't find any way of doing this without bypassing struts and using the HttpServletResponse.sendRedirect method Configuration: <package name="mypackage" extends="struts-default" namespace="/admin"> <interceptors> <interceptor name="login" class="my.LoginInterceptor" /> </interceptors> <default-interceptor-ref name="login"/> <action name="login" class="my.LoginAction"> <result name="input">/admin/login.jsp</result> <result name="success" type="redirect">/admin</result> </action> <action name="private" class="my.PrivateAction"> <result>/admin/private.jsp</result> </action> </package> The interceptor code: @Override public String intercept(ActionInvocation inv) throws Exception { Map<String, Object> session = inv.getInvocationContext().getSession(); Object user = session.get("user"); if(user == null) { // redirect to the 'login' action here } else { return inv.invoke(); } }

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  • Why can't the 'NonSerialized' attribute be used at the class level? How to prevent serialization of

    - by ck
    I have a data object that is deep-cloned using a binary serialization. This data object supports property changed events, for example, PriceChanged. Let's say I attached a handler to PriceChanged. When the code attempts to serialize PriceChanged, it throws an exception that the handler isn't marked as serializable. My alternatives: I can't easily remove all handlers from the event before serialization I don't want to mark the handler as serializable because I'd have to recursively mark all the handlers dependencies as well. I don't want to mark PriceChanged as NonSerialized - there are tens of events like this that could potentially have handlers. Ideally, I'd like .NET to just stop going down the object graph at that point and make that a 'leaf'. So why can't I just mark the handler class as 'NonSerialized'? -- I finally worked around this problem by making the handler implement ISerializable and doing nothing in the serialize constructor/ GetDataObject method. But, the handler still is serialized, just with all its dependencies set to null - so I had to account for that as well. Is there a better way to prevent serialization of an entire class?

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  • Office 2003 interop problems, interface, method not found.

    - by Snake
    This problem is making me crazy. Actually I have multiple problems. First one: Why on earth are is there a _Worksheet and a Worksheetinterface in the Excel interop. They both look the same, except for some attributes on the methods. It's confusing! Second of all: my job today is making a VB.NET file more strict, by settings Option Strict On and Option Explicit On While it works for most files, I'm bumping into a problem. Here's a little code piece: Private _pivotTable As Excel.PivotTable With _pivotTable pvf = .AddDataField(pvc) End With PivotTable.AddDataField is defined on the MSDN page: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/microsoft.office.interop.excel.pivottable.adddatafield(office.11).aspx When I check my local Interop dll w/ Reflector that method is NOT there. When I run the application, and step through it, the method just works. When I try to step INTO the method, I get an LateBound Exception. WTF? So the question is: why are the interfaces defined more than once (twice sometimes?). 2nd question. AddDataField trouble

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  • NSMutableDictionary with UIButton* as keys - iPhone development

    - by Alejandro A.
    Hi, I'm new to iPhone development and I have a question that may have a very simple answer. I am trying to add buttons to a view and these buttons are associated with a custom class that I defined. When I add the buttons to the view, I would like to know what class these buttons correspond to. This is because when I press the button, I need to get some information about the class, but the receiver of the message is another class. I couldn't find information about an error that I'm getting on the web. The problem I have is that I'm trying to create an NSMutableDictionary where the keys are of type UIButton* and the values are of my custom type: // create button for unit UIButton* unitButton = [[UIButton alloc] init]; [sourceButtonMap setObject:composite forKey:unitButton]; Of course, the sourceButtonMap is defined in the class and initialized in the init function as sourceButtonMap = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; The error I get when I try to add the key-value pair is: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton copyWithZone:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3931e90' Is this happening because I can't store UIButton* as keys? Can anyone point me why I'm getting this error? Thank you all, aa

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  • call lynx from jsp script

    - by Piero
    Hi, I have an execute(String cmd) in a jsp script that calls the exec method from the Runtime class. It works when I call a local command, like a php script stored on the server. for example: /usr/bin/php /path/to/php/script arg1 arg2 So I guess my execute command is ok, since it is working with that. Now when I try to call lynx, the text-based web browser, it does not work. If I call it in a terminal, it works fine: /usr/bin/lynx -dump -accept_all_cookies 'http://www.someurl.net/?arg1=1&arg2=2' But when I call this from my execute command, nothing happens... Any idea why? This is my execute method: public String execute(String cmd){ Runtime r = Runtime.getRuntime(); Process p = null; String res = ""; try { p = r.exec(cmd); InputStreamReader isr = new InputStreamReader(p.getInputStream()); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(isr); String line = null; //out.println(res); while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { res += line; } p.waitFor(); } catch (Exception e) { res += e; } System.out.println(p.exitValue()); return res; }

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  • How can you handle cross-cutting conerns in JAX-WS without Spring or AOP? Handlers?

    - by LES2
    I do have something more specific in mind, however: Each web service method needs to be wrapped with some boiler place code (cross cutting concern, yes, spring AOP would work great here but it either doesn't work or unapproved by gov't architecture group). A simple service call is as follows: @WebMethod... public Foo performFoo(...) { Object result = null; Object something = blah; try { soil(something); result = handlePerformFoo(...); } catch(Exception e) { throw translateException(e); } finally { wash(something); } return result; } protected abstract Foo handlePerformFoo(...); (I hope that's enough context). Basically, I would like a hook (that was in the same thread - like a method invocation interceptor) that could have a before() and after() that could could soil(something) and wash(something) around the method call for every freaking WebMethod. Can't use Spring AOP because my web services are not Spring managed beans :( HELP!!!!! Give advice! Please don't let me copy-paste that boiler plate 1 billion times (as I've been instructed to do). Regards, LES

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  • .NET 4: Process.Start using credentials returns empty output

    - by alexey
    I run an external program from ASP.NET: var process = new Process(); var startInfo = process.StartInfo; startInfo.FileName = filePath; startInfo.Arguments = arguments; startInfo.UseShellExecute = false; startInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; startInfo.RedirectStandardError = true; process.Start(); process.WaitForExit(); Console.Write("Output: {0}", process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd()); Console.Write("Error Output: {0}", process.StandardError.ReadToEnd()); Everything works fine with this code: the external program is executed and process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd() returns the correct output. But after I add these two lines before process.Start() (to run the program in the context of another user account): startInfo.UserName = userName; startInfo.Password = securePassword; The program is not executed and process.StandardOutput.ReadToEnd() returns an empty string. No exceptions are thrown. userName and securePassword are correct (in case of incorrect credentials an exception is thrown). How to run the program in the context of another user account?

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  • How can we call an activity through service in android???

    - by Shalini Singh
    Hi! friends, i am a android developer,,, want to know is it possible to call an activity through background service in android like : import android.app.Service; import android.content.Intent; import android.content.SharedPreferences; import android.media.MediaPlayer; import android.os.Handler; import android.os.IBinder; import android.os.Message; public class background extends Service{ private int timer1; @Override public void onCreate() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(); SharedPreferences preferences = getSharedPreferences("SaveTime", MODE_PRIVATE); timer1 = preferences.getInt("time", 0); startservice(); } @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } private void startservice() { Handler handler = new Handler(); handler.postDelayed(new Runnable(){ public void run() { mediaPlayerPlay.sendEmptyMessage(0); } }, timer1*60*1000); } private Handler mediaPlayerPlay = new Handler(){ @Override public void handleMessage(Message msg) { try { getApplication(); MediaPlayer mp = new MediaPlayer(); mp = MediaPlayer.create(background.this, R.raw.alarm); mp.start(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } super.handleMessage(msg); } }; /* * (non-Javadoc) * * @see android.app.Service#onDestroy() */ @Override public void onDestroy() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onDestroy(); } } i want to call my activity......

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  • Use the output of logs in the execution of a program

    - by myle
    When I try to create a specific object, the program crashes. However, I use a module (mechanize) which logs useful information just before the crash. If I had somehow this information available I could avoid it. Is there any way to use the information which is logged (when I use the function set_debug_redirects) during the normal execution of the program? Just to be a bit more specific, I try to emulate the login behavior in a webpage. The program crashes because it can't handle a specific Following HTTP-EQUIV=REFRESH to <omitted_url>. Given this url, which is available in the logs but not as part of the exception which is thrown, I could visit this page and complete successfully the login process. Any other suggestions that may solve the problem are welcomed. It follows the code so far. SERVICE_LOGIN_BOX_URL = "https://www.google.com/accounts/ServiceLoginBox?service=adsense&ltmpl=login&ifr=true&rm=hide&fpui=3&nui=15&alwf=true&passive=true&continue=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fadsense%2Flogin-box-gaiaauth&followup=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.google.com%2Fadsense%2Flogin-box-gaiaauth&hl=en_US" def init_browser(): # Browser br = mechanize.Browser() # Cookie Jar cj = cookielib.LWPCookieJar() br.set_cookiejar(cj) # Browser options br.set_handle_equiv(True) br.set_handle_gzip(False) br.set_handle_redirect(True) br.set_handle_referer(True) br.set_handle_robots(True) br.set_handle_refresh(mechanize._http.HTTPRefreshProcessor(), max_time=30.0, honor_time=False) # Want debugging messages? #br.set_debug_http(True) br.set_debug_redirects(True) #br.set_debug_responses(True) return br def adsense_login(login, password): br = init_browser() r = br.open(SERVICE_LOGIN_BOX_URL) html = r.read() # Select the first (index zero) form br.select_form(nr=0) br.form['Email'] = login br.form['Passwd'] = password br.submit() req = br.click_link(text='click here to continue') try: # this is where it crashes br.open(req) except HTTPError, e: sys.exit("post failed: %d: %s" % (e.code, e.msg)) return br

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  • Are there scenarios where the ViewModel needs to invoke methods on the View w.r.t. MVVM in WPF?

    - by Gishu
    As per the pattern, the ViewModel exposes Properties(with change notification) and Commands (to notify the VM of user actions) that the View binds to. The only communication that flows from the VM to the View is the property change notifications (so that the View can refresh itself with updated data). In MVP or PresentationModel form of the pattern (if I'm not mistaken), the View implements a plain vanilla interface (consisting of methods, properties and/or events). With MVVM, it feels methods on the IView have been outlawed (along with IView itself). One scenario I could think of was to set the focus to a certain control in the View. (When the user does ActionX, the focus should immediately be set to FieldY). In MVP, I'd write this as IView.ActivateField(NameConstant), which the presenter or PM would invoke. In MVVM, this seems to be a fringe case that needs a workaround / little bit of code-behind. The VM implements an ActiveField Property, which it sets to NameConstant. The view picks up the change notification event and in a code-behind event handler, activates the Name control. Is the above just an exception to the norm? Or are there other such scenarios, where the VM needs to invoke a method on the View ?

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  • HttpURLConnection: What's the deal with having to read the whole response?

    - by stormin986
    My current problem is very similar to this one. I have a downloadFile(URL) function that creates a new HttpURLConnection, opens it, reads it, returns the results. When I call this function on the same URL multiple times, the second time around it almost always returns a response code of -1 (But throws no exception!!!). The top answer in that question is very helpful, but there are a few things I'm trying to understand. So, if setting http.keepAlive to false solves the problem, it indicates what exactly? That the server is responding in a way that violates the http protocol? Or more likely, my code is violating the protocol in some way? What will the trace tell me? What should I look for? And what's the deal with this: You need to read everything from error stream. Otherwise, it's going to confuse next connection and that's the cause of -1. Does this mean if the response is some type of error (which would be what response code(s)?), the stream HAS to be fully read? Also, every time I am attempting an http request I am basically creating a new connection, and then disconnect()ing it at the end. However, in my case I'm not getting a 401 or whatever. It's always a 200. But my second connection almost always fails. Does this mean there's some other data I should be reading that I'm not (in a similar manner that the error stream must be fully read)? Please help shed some light on this? I feel like there's some fundamental http protocol understanding I'm missing.

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  • Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

    - by Oddthinking
    Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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  • java connectivity with mysql error

    - by abson
    I just started with the connectivity and tried this example. I have installed the necessary softwares. Also copied the jar file into the /ext folder.Yet the code below has the following error import java.sql.*; public class Jdbc00 { public static void main(String args[]){ try { Statement stmt; Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); String url = "jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/mysql" DriverManager.getConnection(url,"root", "root"); //Display URL and connection information System.out.println("URL: " + url); System.out.println("Connection: " + con); //Get a Statement object stmt = con.createStatement(); //Create the new database stmt.executeUpdate( "CREATE DATABASE JunkDB"); stmt.executeUpdate( "GRANT SELECT,INSERT,UPDATE,DELETE," + "CREATE,DROP " + "ON JunkDB.* TO 'auser'@'localhost' " + "IDENTIFIED BY 'drowssap';"); con.close(); }catch( Exception e ) { e.printStackTrace(); }//end catch }//end main }//end class Jdbc00 But it gave the following error D:\Java12\Explore>java Jdbc00 java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.mysql.jdbc.Driver at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Unknown Source) at Jdbc11.main(Jdbc00.java:11) Could anyone please guide me in correcting this?

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  • Loading a class file immediately AFTER startup

    - by Striker
    We have a few war files deployed inside an ear file. Some of the war files have a class that caches static data from our PLM system in singletons. Since some of the classes take several minutes to load we use the load-on-startup in the web.xml to load them ahead of time. This all works fine until we attempt to re-deploy the application on our production servers. (WebLogic 10.3) We get an exception from our PLM API about a dll already being loaded. Our PLM vendor has confirmed that this is a problem and stated that they don't support using the load-on-startup. This is also a huge problem on our development boxes where we have redeploy the app all the time. Most of us, when we're not working on one of the apps that uses a cache, have them commented out. Obviously we can't do that for the production servers. Right now we transfer the ear to the production server, deploy it in the console, wait for it to crash, shut the app server instance down and then start it up again. We need to find a way around this... One suggestion was to create a servlet that we can call after the server boots that will load the various caches. While this will work I'm looking for something a bit cleaner. Is there anyway to detect once the server started and then fire off the methods? Thanks.

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  • Can't access annotation property of subclassed uibutton

    - by Tzur Gazit
    I have a mapView to which I add annotations. The pin's callout have a button (rightCalloutAccessoryView). In order to be able to display various information when the button is pushed, i've subclassed uibutton and added a class called "Annotation". @interface CustomButton : UIButton { NSIndexPath *indexPath; Annotation *mAnnotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSIndexPath *indexPath; @property (nonatomic, copy) Annotation *mAnnotation; - (id) setAnnotation2:(Annotation *)annotation; @end Here is "Annotation": @interface Annotation : NSObject <MKAnnotation> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; NSString *mPhotoID; NSString *mPhotoUrl; NSString *mPhotoName; NSString *mOwner; NSString *mAddress; } @property (nonatomic, assign) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoID; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoUrl; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoName; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mOwner; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mAddress; - (id) initWithCoordinates:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)coordinate; - (id) setPhotoId:(NSString *)id url:(NSString *)url owner:(NSString *)owner address:(NSString *)address andName:(NSString *)name; @end I want to set the annotation property of the uibutton at - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)pMapView viewForAnnotation:(id )annotation, in order to refer to it at the button push handler (-(IBAction) showDetails:(id)sender). The problem is that I can't set the annotation property of the button. I get the following message at run time: 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400' 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] Stack: ( 32080987, 2472563977, 32462907, 32032374, 31884994, 55885, 30695992, 30679095, 30662137, 30514190, 30553882, 30481385, 30479684, 30496027, 30588515, 63333386, 31865536, 31861832, 40171029, 40171226, 2846639 ) I appreciate the help. Tzur.

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  • How to differentiate between two similar fields in Linq Join tables

    - by Azhar
    How to differentiate between two select new fields e.g. Description c.Description and lt.Description DataTable lDt = new DataTable(); try { lDt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("AreaTypeID", typeof(Int32))); lDt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("CategoryRef", typeof(Int32))); lDt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("Description", typeof(String))); lDt.Columns.Add(new DataColumn("CatDescription", typeof(String))); EzEagleDBDataContext lDc = new EzEagleDBDataContext(); var lAreaType = (from lt in lDc.tbl_AreaTypes join c in lDc.tbl_AreaCategories on lt.CategoryRef equals c.CategoryID where lt.AreaTypeID== pTypeId select new { lt.AreaTypeID, lt.Description, lt.CategoryRef, c.Description }).ToArray(); for (int j = 0; j< lAreaType.Count; j++) { DataRow dr = lDt.NewRow(); dr["AreaTypeID"] = lAreaType[j].LandmarkTypeID; dr["CategoryRef"] = lAreaType[j].CategoryRef; dr["Description"] = lAreaType[j].Description; dr["CatDescription"] = lAreaType[j].; lDt.Rows.Add(dr); } } catch (Exception ex) { }

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  • SQL Server 2000 intermittent connection exceptions on production server - specific environment probl

    - by StickyMcGinty
    We've been having intermittent problems causing users to be forcibly logged out of out application. Our set-up is ASP.Net/C# web application on Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition with SQL Server 2000 on the back end. We've recently performed a major product upgrade on our client's VMWare server (we have a guest instance dedicated to us) and whereas we had none of these issues with the previous release the added complexity that the new upgrade brings to the product has caused a lot of issues. We are also running SQL Server 2000 (build 8.00.2039, or SP4) and the IIS/ASP.NET (.Net v2.0.50727) application on the same box and connecting to each other via a TCP/IP connection. Primarily, the exceptions being thrown are: System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Cannot find table 0. System.ArgumentException: Column 'password' does not belong to table Table. [This exception occurs in the log in script, even though there is clearly a password column available] System.InvalidOperationException: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. [This one is occurring very regularly] System.InvalidOperationException: This SqlTransaction has completed; it is no longer usable. System.ApplicationException: ExecuteReader requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is connecting. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. And just today, for the first time: System.Web.UI.ViewStateException: Invalid viewstate. We have load tested the app using the same number of concurrent users as the production server and cannot reproduce these errors. They are very intermittent and occur even when there are only 8/9/10 user connections. My gut is telling me its ASP.NET - SQL Server 2000 connection issues.. We've pretty much ruled out code-level Data Access Layer errors at this stage (we've a development team of 15 experienced developers working on this) so we think its a specific production server environment issue.

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  • How can I get at the raw bytes of the request in WCF?

    - by Gregory Higley
    For logging purposes, I want to get at the raw request sent to my RESTful web service implemented in WCF. I have already implemented IDispatchMessageInspector. In my implementation of AfterReceiveRequest, I want to spit out the raw bytes of the message even (and especially) if the content of the message is invalid. This is for debugging purposes. My service works perfectly already, but it is often helpful when working through problems with clients who are trying to call the service to know what it was they sent, i.e., the raw bytes. For example, let's say that instead of sending a well-formed XML document, they post the string "your mama" to my service endpoint. I want to see that that's what they did. Unfortunately using MessageBuffer::CreateBufferedCopy() won't work unless the contents of the message are already well-formed XML. Here's (roughly) what I already have in my implementation of AfterReceiveRequest: // The immediately following line raises an exception if the message // does not contain valid XML. This is uncool because I want // the raw bytes regardless of whether they are valid or not. using (MessageBuffer buffer = request.CreateBufferedCopy(Int32.MaxValue)) { using (MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream()) using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(stream)) { buffer.WriteMessage(stream); stream.Position = 0; Trace.TraceInformation(reader.ReadToEnd()); } request = buffer.CreateMessage(); } My guess here is that I need to get at the raw request before it becomes a Message. This will most likely have to be done at a lower level in the WCF stack than an IDispatchMessageInspector. Anyone know how to do this?

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  • Coda Slider and Fancybox Conflict

    - by Jings
    Hey there, i have some issues with Coda Slider and Fancybox. I use Fancybox to load an external Site within an Iframe and Coda Slider is for the Content Slider on the Startpage. If i have the jquery-easing Plugin called in my Head fpr the Coda Slider, the Fancybox doesn't work. When i delete the link to jquery-easing-1.3 the Coda Slider throws an Exception but the Fancybox works perfectly Here is some Code: <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory') ?>/js/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory') ?>/fancybox/jquery.fancybox-1.3.4.pack.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory') ?>/js/coda-slider.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory') ?>/js/jquery.easing.1.3.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".book a").fancybox({ 'width' : '75%', 'height' : '75%', 'speedIn' : 600, 'speedOut' : 200, 'overlayShow' : true, 'type' : 'iframe', 'autoscale' : false, 'hideOnOverlayClick' : true }); $('#coda-slider').codaSlider({ autoSlide: true, autoSlideInterval: 5500, autoHeightEaseDuration: 2500, autoHeightEaseFunction: "easeInOutElastic", slideEaseDuration: 2500, slideEaseFunction: "easeInOutElastic", dynamicArrows: false, dynamicTabs: false }); }); </script> Don't know why this doesn't work as it should :) Hope you Guys know =)

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  • Can I ignore a SIGFPE resulting from division by zero?

    - by Mikeage
    I have a program which deliberately performs a divide by zero (and stores the result in a volatile variable) in order to halt in certain circumstances. However, I'd like to be able to disable this halting, without changing the macro that performs the division by zero. Is there any way to ignore it? I've tried using #include <signal.h> ... int main(void) { signal(SIGFPE, SIG_IGN); ... } but it still dies with the message "Floating point exception (core dumped)". I don't actually use the value, so I don't really care what's assigned to the variable; 0, random, undefined... EDIT: I know this is not the most portable, but it's intended for an embedded device which runs on many different OSes. The default halt action is to divide by zero; other platforms require different tricks to force a watchdog induced reboot (such as an infinite loop with interrupts disabled). For a PC (linux) test environment, I wanted to disable the halt on division by zero without relying on things like assert.

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  • Why does autoboxing in Java allow me to have 3 possible values for a boolean?

    - by John
    Reference: http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/guide/language/autoboxing.html If your program tries to autounbox null, it will throw a NullPointerException. javac will give you a compile-time error if you try to assign null to a boolean. makes sense. assigning null to a Boolean is a-ok though. also makes sense, i guess. but let's think about the fact that you'll get a NPE when trying to autounbox null. what this means is that you can't safely perform boolean operations on Booleans without null-checking or exception handling. same goes for doing math operations on an Integer. for a long time, i was a fan of autoboxing in java1.5+ because I thought it got java closer to be truly object-oriented. but, after running into this problem last night, i gotta say that i think this sucks. the compiler giving me an error when I'm trying to do stuff with an uninitialized primitive is a good thing. I think I may be misunderstanding the point of autoboxing, but at the same time I will never accept that a boolean should be able to have 3 values. can anyone explain this? what am i not getting?

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