Search Results

Search found 12061 results on 483 pages for 'non printable'.

Page 444/483 | < Previous Page | 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451  | Next Page >

• MBR status confusion

  - by Ahmed Ghoneim

  EB 58 90 6D 6B 64 6F 73 66 73 00 00 02 08 20 00 02 00 00 00 00 F8 00 00 3E 00 83 00 00 00 00 00 94 88 7E 00 98 1F 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 00 00 01 00 06 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 29 A9 38 B1 34 57 61 76 65 20 20 20 20 20 20 20 46 41 54 33 32 20 20 20 0E 1F BE 77 7C AC 22 C0 74 0B 56 B4 0E BB 07 00 CD 10 5E EB F0 32 E4 CD 16 CD 19 EB FE 54 68 69 73 20 69 73 20 6E 6F 74 20 61 20 62 6F 6F 74 61 62 6C 65 20 64 69 73 6B 2E 20 20 50 6C 65 61 73 65 20 69 6E 73 65 72 74 20 61 20 62 6F 6F 74 61 62 6C 65 20 66 6C 6F 70 70 79 20 61 6E 64 0D 0A 70 72 65 73 73 20 61 6E 79 20 6B 65 79 20 74 6F 20 74 72 79 20 61 67 61 69 6E 20 2E 2E 2E 20 0D 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 55 AA Learning disk records, this is my USB MBR record viewed by bless on ubuntu formatted with disk utility as MBR table and FAT partition, referring to this Wiki of first record status (0x80 = bootable (active), 0x00 = non-bootable, other = invalid ) but my MBR shows first offset as EB. What's this record stands for ? also, can you provide me with good tables/images tutorials for MBR and other disks' records :)

  Read the article

• Objective-C Basic class related question, retaining the value of a specific object using a class fil

  - by von steiner

  Members, scholars, code gurus. My background is far from any computer programming thus my question may seems basic and somewhat trivial to you. Nevertheless it seems that I can't put my head around it. I have googled and searched for the answer, just to get myself confused even more. With that, I would kindly ask for a simple explanation suitable for a non technical person such as myself and for other alike arriving to this thread. I have left a comment with the text "Here is the issue" below, referring to my question. // character.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface character : NSObject { NSString *name; int hitPoints; int armorClass; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString *name; @property int hitPoints,armorClass; -(void)giveCharacterInfo; @end // character.m #import "character.h" @implementation character @synthesize name,hitPoints,armorClass; -(void)giveCharacterInfo{ NSLog(@"name:%@ HP:%i AC:%i",name,hitPoints,armorClass); } @end // ClassAtLastViewController.h #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ClassAtLastViewController : UIViewController { } -(void)callAgain; @end // ClassAtLastViewController.m #import "ClassAtLastViewController.h" #import "character.h" @implementation ClassAtLastViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { //[super viewDidLoad]; character *player = [[character alloc]init]; player.name = @"Minsc"; player.hitPoints = 140; player.armorClass = 10; [player giveCharacterInfo]; [player release]; // Up until here, All peachy! [self performSelector:@selector(callAgain) withObject:nil afterDelay:2.0]; } -(void)callAgain{ // Here is the issue, I assume that since I init the player again I loss everything // Q1. I loss all the data I set above, where is it than? // Q2. What is the proper way to implement this character *player = [[character alloc]init]; [player giveCharacterInfo]; } Many thanks in advance, Kindly remember that my background is more related to Salmons breeding than to computer code, try and lower your answer to my level if it's all the same to you.

  Read the article

• Selecting and Populating a unFocused tab.

  - by Deyon

  I'm having a problem displaying data from a function to text box within a tab. If you run the code and click "Select Tab 2 and Fill..." I get an error; "TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference." I'm guessing this is because "Tab 2" is/was not rendered yet. Now if I run the code, select "Tab 2" then select "Tab 1" and click "Select Tab 2 and Fill..." it works the way I would like. Dose any one know a way around this problem. ----Full Flex 4/Flash Builder Code just copy paste---- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:WindowedApplication xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo" creationComplete=" "> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function showtab2():void { mytextbox.text="I made it!"; tn.selectedIndex=1; } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <!-- Place non-visual elements (e.g., services, value objects) here --> </fx:Declarations> <mx:Panel title="TabNavigator Container Example" height="90%" width="90%" paddingTop="10" paddingLeft="10" paddingRight="10" paddingBottom="10"> <mx:Label width="100%" color="blue" text="Select the tabs to change the panel."/> <mx:TabNavigator id="tn" width="100%" height="100%"> <!-- Define each panel using a VBox container. --> <mx:VBox label="Panel 1"> <mx:Label text="TabNavigator container panel 1"/> <mx:Button label="Select Tab 2 and Fill with Text" click="showtab2()"/> </mx:VBox> <mx:VBox label="Panel 2"> <mx:Label text="TabNavigator container panel 2"/> <s:TextInput id="mytextbox" /> </mx:VBox> </mx:TabNavigator> <mx:HBox> </mx:HBox> </mx:Panel> </s:WindowedApplication>

  Read the article

• zlib gzgets extremely slow?

  - by monkeyking

  I'm doing stuff related to parsing huge globs of textfiles, and was testing what input method to use. There is not much of a difference using c++ std::ifstreams vs c FILE, According to the documentation of zlib, it supports uncompressed files, and will read the file without decompression. I'm seeing a difference from 12 seconds using non zlib to more than 4 minutes using zlib.h This I've tested doing multiple runs, so its not a disk cache issue. Am I using zlib in some wrong way? thanks #include <zlib.h> #include <cstdio> #include <cstdlib> #include <fstream> #define LENS 1000000 size_t fg(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using fgets\n"); FILE *fp =fopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(NULL!=fgets(buffer,LENS,fp)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t is(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using ifstream\n"); std::ifstream is(fname,std::ios::in); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(is. getline(buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t iz(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using zlib\n"); gzFile fp =gzopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(0!=gzgets(fp,buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } int main(int argc,char**argv){ if(atoi(argv[2])==0) fg(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==1) is(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==2) iz(argv[1]); }

  Read the article

• Newbie - what do I need to do with httpd.conf to make CakePHP work correctly?

  - by EmmyS

  (Not sure if this belongs here or on webmasters; please move if necessary.) I'm a total newbie to Cake and not much better with apache; I've done a lot of PHP but always with a server that's already been set up by someone else. So I'm going through the basic blog tutorial, and it says: A Note On mod_rewrite Occasionally a new user will run in to mod_rewrite issues, so I'll mention them marginally here. If the Cake welcome page looks a little funny (no images or css styles), it probably means mod_rewrite isn't functioning on your system. Here are some tips to help get you up and running: Make sure that an .htaccess override is allowed: in your httpd.conf, you should have a section that defines a section for each Directory on your server. Make sure the AllowOverride is set to All for the correct Directory. Make sure you are editing the system httpd.conf rather than a user- or site-specific httpd.conf. For some reason or another, you might have obtained a copy of CakePHP without the needed .htaccess files. This sometimes happens because some operating systems treat files that start with '.' as hidden, and don't copy them. Make sure your copy of CakePHP is from the downloads section of the site or our SVN repository. Make sure you are loading up mod_rewrite correctly! You should see something like LoadModule rewrite_module libexec/httpd/mod_rewrite.so and AddModule mod_rewrite.c in your httpd.conf." I'm using XAMPP on linux. I've found my httpd.conf file in opt/lampp/ etc, but am not sure what I need to do with it. I've searched for "rewrite", and there's only one line: LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so There's nothing about AddModule mod_rewrite.c. Do I just create a Directory section for the directory I've installed Cake in and set AlllowOverride to All? (I created a separate subdirectory of my wwwroot and installed in there, since I also have installs of Joomla and CodeIgniter.) Is there anything else I need to do? My download of Cake did come with two htaccess-type files (._.htaccess and .htaccess) - do I need to do anything with them? Thanks for any help you can provide to this non-server-admin. EDIT TO ADD virtual host sample: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot /www/docs/dummy-host.example.com ServerName dummy-host.example.com ServerAlias www.dummy-host.example.com ErrorLog logs/dummy-host.example.com-error_log CustomLog logs/dummy-host.example.com-access_log common </VirtualHost>

  Read the article

• Sliding panel in the middle of the page. Z-index given not working

  - by Nehal Rupani

  Hi all, I am implementing sliding panel element but problem is when i slide out other div element is floating down. I guess and tried to give z-index to element which i am sliding but it doesn't seems to work. Let me put code for both div. <div class="vrcontrol"> <div class="slide-out-div"> <a class="handle" href="http://link-for-non-js-users.html">Content</a> <h3>Contact me</h3> <p>Thanks for checking out my jQuery plugin, I hope you find this useful. </p> <p>This can be a form to submit feedback, or contact info</p> </div> This is div which i am sliding in and out and beneath is code of effective div. <div class="askform"> <p class="titletext">Ask an Expert Trade Forum</p> <p class="detailtext">WD-40’s leading source for DIY tips and tricks.</p> <span> <form id="askform" name="askform" action="" method="post"> <span class="left"><input name="input" type="text" class="askinputbox"/></span><span class="marginleft"><input type="image" src="images/search_icon.gif" /></span> </form> </span> <div class="followus"> <span class="followtext">Follow us on</span><span class="right"><img src="images/bookmark.jpg" width="121" height="45" alt="Bookmark" /></span> </div> </div> Sliding div is in left portion of the page and effective div is in right portion of the page. I guess something with z-index, positioning element and overflow properties will do something.

  Read the article

• Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

  - by magz2010

  Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

  Read the article

• How to compute a unicode string which bidirectional representation is specified?

  - by valdo

  Hello, fellows. I have a rather pervert question. Please forgive me :) There's an official algorithm that describes how bidirectional unicode text should be presented. http://www.unicode.org/reports/tr9/tr9-15.html I receive a string (from some 3rd-party source), which contains latin/hebrew characters, as well as digits, white-spaces, punctuation symbols and etc. The problem is that the string that I receive is already in the representation form. I.e. - the sequence of characters that I receive should just be presented from left to right. Now, my goal is to find the unicode string which representation is exactly the same. Means - I need to pass that string to another entity; it would then render this string according to the official algorithm, and the result should be the same. Assuming the following: The default text direction (of the rendering entity) is RTL. I don't want to inject "special unicode characters" that explicitly override the text direction (such as RLO, RLE, etc.) I suspect there may exist several solutions. If so - I'd like to preserve the RTL-looking of the string as much as possible. The string usually consists of hebrew words mostly. I'd like to preserve the correct order of those words, and characters inside those words. Whereas other character sequences may (and should) be transposed. One naive way to solve this is just to swap the whole string (this takes care of the hebrew words), and then swap inside it sequences of non-hebrew characters. This however doesn't always produce correct results, because actual rules of representation are rather complex. The only comprehensive algorithm that I see so far is brute-force check. The string can be divided into sequences of same-class characters. Those sequences may be joined in random order, plus any of them may be reversed. I can check all those combinations to obtain the correct result. Plus this technique may be optimized. For instance the order of hebrew words is known, so we only have to check different combinations of their "joining" sequences. Any better ideas? If you have an idea, not necessarily the whole solution - it's ok. I'll appreciate any idea. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• JSP to Bean to Java class Validation

  - by littlevahn

  I have a rather simple form in JSP that looks like this: <form action="response.jsp" method="POST"> <label>First Name:</label><input type="text" name="firstName" /><br> <label>Last Name:</label><input type="text" name="lastName" /><br> <label>Email:</label><input type="text" name="email" /><br> <label>Re-enter Email:</label><input type="text" name="emailRe" /><br> <label>Address:</label><input type="text" name="address" /><br> <label>Address 2:</label><input type="text" name="address2" /><br> <label>City:</label><input type="text" name="city" /><br> <label>Country:</label> <select name="country"> <option value="0">--Country--</option> <option value="1">United States</option> <option value="2">Canada</option> <option value="3">Mexico</option> </select><br> <label>Phone:</label><input type="text" name="phone" /><br> <label>Alt Phone:</label><input type="text" name="phoneAlt" /><br> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> </form> But when I try and access the value of the select box in my Java class I get null. Ive tried reading it in as a String and an Array of strings neither though seems to be grabbing the right value. The response.jsp looks like this: <%@ page language="java" %> <%@ page import="java.util.*" %> <%@page contentType="text/html" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <%! %> <jsp:useBean id="formHandler" class="validation.RegHandler" scope="request"> <jsp:setProperty name="formHandler" property="*" /> </jsp:useBean> <% if (formHandler.validate()) { %> <jsp:forward page="success.jsp"/> <% } else { %> <jsp:forward page="retryReg.jsp"/> <% } %> I already have Java script validation in place but I wanted to make sure I covered validation and checking for non-JS users. The RegHandler just uses the name field to refer to the value in the form. Any Idea how I could access the select box's value?

  Read the article

• XML serialization options in .NET

  - by Borek

  I'm building a service that returns an XML (no SOAP, no ATOM, just plain old XML). Say that I have my domain objects already filled with data and just need to transform them to the XML format. What options do I have on .NET? Requirements: The transformation is not 1:1. Say that I have an Address property of type Address with nested properties like Line1, City, Postcode etc. This may need to result in an XML like <xaddr city="...">Line1, Postcode</xaddr>, i.e. quite different. Some XML elements/attributes are conditional, for example, if a Customer is under 18, the XML needs to contain some additional information. I only need to serialize the objects to XML, the other direction (XML to objects) is not important Some technologies, i.e. Data Contracts use .NET attributes. Other means of configuration (external XML config, buddy classes etc.) would be a plus. Here are the options as I see them as the moment. Corrections / additions will be very welcome. String concatenation - forget it, it was a joke :) Linq 2 XML - complete control but quite a lot of hand written code, would need good suite of unit tests View engines in ASP.NET MVC (or even Web Forms theoretically), the logic being in controllers. It's a question how to structure it, I can have simple rules engine in my controller(s) and one view template per each possible output, or have the decision logic directly in the template. Both have upsides and downsides. XML Serialization - I'm not sure about the flexibility here Data Contracts from WCF - not sure about the flexibility either, plus would they work in a simple ASP.NET MVC app (non-WCF service)? Are they a super-set of the standard XML serialization now? If it exists, some XML-to-object mapper. The more I think about it the more I think I'm looking for something like this but I couldn't find anything appropriate. Any comments / other options?

  Read the article

• .NET threading: how can I capture an abort on an unstarted thread?

  - by Groxx

  I have a chunk of threads I wish to run in order, on an ASP site running .NET 2.0 with Visual Studio 2008 (no idea how much all that matters, but there it is), and they may have aborted-clean-up code which should be run regardless of how far through their task they are. So I make a thread like this: Thread t = new Thread(delegate() { try { /* do things */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("try"); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { /* cleanup */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("catch"); } }); Now, if I wish to abort the set of threads part way through, the cleanup may still be desirable later on down the line. Looking through MSDN implies you can .Abort() a thread that has not started, and then .Start() it, at which point it will receive the exception and perform normally. Or you can .Join() the aborted thread to wait for it to finish aborting. Presumably you can combine them. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ty8d3wta(v=VS.80).aspx To wait until a thread has aborted, you can call the Join method on the thread after calling the Abort method, but there is no guarantee the wait will end. If Abort is called on a thread that has not been started, the thread will abort when Start is called. If Abort is called on a thread that is blocked or is sleeping, the thread is interrupted and then aborted. Now, when I debug and step through this code: t.Abort(); // ThreadState == Unstarted | AbortRequested t.Start(); // throws ThreadStartException: "Thread failed to start." // so I comment it out, and t.Join(); // throws ThreadStateException: "Thread has not been started." At no point do I see any output, nor do any breakpoints on either the try or catch block get reached. Oddly, ThreadStartException is not listed as a possible throw of .Start(), from here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a9fyxz7d(v=VS.80).aspx (or any other version) I understand this could be avoided by having a start parameter, which states if the thread should jump to cleanup code, and foregoing the Abort call (which is probably what I'll do). And I could .Start() the thread, and then .Abort() it. But as an indeterminate amount of time may pass between .Start and .Abort, I'm considering it unreliable, and the documentation seems to say my original method should work. Am I missing something? Is the documentation wrong? edit: ow. And you can't call .Start(param) on a non-parameterized Thread(Start). Is there a way to find out if a thread is parameterized or not, aside from trial and error? I see a private m_Delegate, but nothing public...

  Read the article

• Having trouble understanding some code (Ruby on Rails)

  - by user284194

  I posted a question awhile ago asking how I could limit the rate at which a form could be submitted from a rails application. I was helped by a very patient user and their solution works great. The code was for my comments controller, and now I find myself wanting to add this functionality to another controller, my Messages controller. I immediately tried reusing the working code from the comments controller but I couldn't get it to work. Instead of asking for the working code, could someone please help me understand my working comment controller code? class CommentsController < ApplicationController #... before_filter :post_check def record_post_time cookies[:last_post_at] = Time.now.to_i end def last_post_time Time.at((cookies[:last_post_at].to_i rescue 0)) end MIN_POST_TIME = 2.minutes def post_check return true if (Time.now - last_post_time) > MIN_POST_TIME flash[:warning] = "You are trying to reply too fast." @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) redirect_to(@message) return false end #... def create @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) @comment = @message.comments.build(params[:comment]) if @comment.save record_post_time flash[:notice] = "Replied to \"#{@message.title}\"" redirect_to(@message) else render :action => "new" end end def update @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) @comment = Comment.find(params[:id]) if @comment.update_attributes(params[:comment]) record_post_time redirect_to post_comment_url(@message, @comment) else render :action => "edit" end end #... end My Messages controller is pretty much a standard rails generated controller with a few before filters and associated private methods for DRYing up the code and a redirect for non existent pages. I'll explain how much of the code I understand. When a comment is created, a cookie is created with a last_post_time value. If they try to post another comment, the cookie is checked if the last one was made in the last two minutes. If it was a flash warning is displayed and no comment is recorded. What I don't really understand is how the post_check method works and how I can adapt it for my simpler posts controller. I thought I could reuse all the code in the message controller with the exception of the line: @message = Message.find(params[:message_id]) # (don't need the redirect code) in the post_check method. But it trips up on the "record_post_time" in the create action/method. I really want to understand this. Can someone explain why this doesn't work? I greatly appreciate you reading my lengthy question.

  Read the article

• NHibernate and objects with value-semantics

  - by Groo

  Problem: If I pass a class with value semantics (Equals method overridden) to NHibernate, NHibernate tries to save it to db even though it just saved an entity equal by value (but not by reference) to the database. What am I doing wrong? Here is a simplified example model for my problem: Let's say I have a Person entity and a City entity. One thread (producer) is creating new Person objects which belong to a specific existing City, and another thread (consumer) is saving them to a repository (using NHibernate as DAL). Since there is lot of objects being flushed at a time, I am using Guid.Comb id's to ensure that each insert is made using a single SQL command. City is an object with value-type semantics (equal by name only -- for this example purposes only): public class City : IEquatable<City> { public virtual Guid Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual bool Equals(City other) { if (other == null) return false; return this.Name == other.Name; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { return Equals(obj as City); } public override int GetHashCode() { return this.Name.GetHashCode(); } } Fluent NH mapping is something like: public class PersonMap : ClassMap<Person> { public PersonMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); References(x => x.City) .Cascade.SaveUpdate(); } } public class CityMap : ClassMap<City> { public CityMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); Map(x => x.Name); } } Right now (with my current NHibernate mapping config), my consumer thread maintains a dictionary of cities and replaces their references in incoming person objects (otherwise NHibernate will see a new, non-cached City object and try to save it as well), and I need to do it for every produced Person object. Since I have implemented City class to behave like a value type, I hoped that NHibernate would compare Cities by value and not try to save them each time -- i.e. I would only need to do a lookup once per session and not care about them anymore. Is this possible, and if yes, what am I doing wrong here?

  Read the article

• Specializing a template on a lambda in C++0x

  - by Tony A.

  I've written a traits class that lets me extract information about the arguments and type of a function or function object in C++0x (tested with gcc 4.5.0). The general case handles function objects: template <typename F> struct function_traits { template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal { }; template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal<R (F::*)(A...)> { // ... }; typedef typename _internal<decltype(&F::operator())>::<<nested types go here>>; }; Then I have a specialization for plain functions at global scope: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<R (*)(A...)> { // ... }; This works fine, I can pass a function into the template or a function object and it works properly: template <typename F> void foo(F f) { typename function_traits<F>::whatever ...; } int f(int x) { ... } foo(f); What if, instead of passing a function or function object into foo, I want to pass a lambda expression? foo([](int x) { ... }); The problem here is that neither specialization of function_traits<> applies. The C++0x draft says that the type of the expression is a "unique, unnamed, non-union class type". Demangling the result of calling typeid(...).name() on the expression gives me what appears to be gcc's internal naming convention for the lambda, main::{lambda(int)#1}, not something that syntactically represents a C++ typename. In short, is there anything I can put into the template here: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<????> { ... } that will allow this traits class to accept a lambda expression?

  Read the article

• Why are static classes considered “classes” and “reference types”?

  - by Timwi

  I’ve been pondering about the C# and CIL type system today and I’ve started to wonder why static classes are considered classes. There are many ways in which they are not really classes: A “normal” class can contain non-static members, a static class can’t. In this respect, a class is more similar to a struct than it is to a static class, and yet structs have a separate name. You can have a reference to an instance of a “normal” class, but not a static class (despite it being considered a “reference type”). In this respect, a class is more similar to an interface than it is to a static class, and yet interfaces have a separate name. The name of a static class can never be used in any place where a type name would normally fit: you can’t declare a variable of this type, you can’t use it as a base type, and you can’t use it as a generic type parameter. In this respect, static classes are somewhat more like namespaces. A “normal” class can implement interfaces. Once again, that makes classes more similar to structs than to static classes. A “normal” class can inherit from another class. It is also bizarre that static classes are considered to derive from System.Object. Although this allows them to “inherit” the static methods Equals and ReferenceEquals, the purpose of that inheritance is questionable as you would call those methods on object anyway. C# even allows you to specify that useless inheritance explicitly on static classes, but not on interfaces or structs, where the implicit derivation from object and System.ValueType, respectively, actually has a purpose. Regarding the subset-of-features argument: Static classes have a subset of the features of classes, but they also have a subset of the features of structs. All of the things that make a class distinct from the other kinds of type, do not seem to apply to static classes. Regarding the typeof argument: Making a static class into a new and different kind of type does not preclude it from being used in typeof. Given the sheer oddity of static classes, and the scarcity of similarities between them and “normal” classes, shouldn’t they have been made into a separate kind of type instead of a special kind of class?

  Read the article

• Hibernate @Transactional not starting transaction

  - by rhinds

  I have a web app using Hibernate, and I am attempting to persist some data, but it is failing to persist within a Transaction despite using the @Transactional annotation. My service class is as follows: @Service("profileService") public class ProfileService { private EntityManager entityManager; @Autowired private AccountService accountService; @Autowired private ProfileDAOImpl profileDao; @PersistenceContext public void setEntityManager(EntityManager em) { this.entityManager = em; } @Transactional public void addConnectionToAccount(SocialConnection sc) { entityManager.persist(sc); } } The addConnectionToAccount() method is being called from another Spring bean in a normal method, and the ProfileService class is currently being injected there: public class HibernateConnectionRepository implements ConnectionRepository { @Inject private ProfileService profileService; @Override @Transactional public void addConnection(SocialConnection sc) { try { profileService.addConnectionToAccount(accountId, sc); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } I tried putting the @Transactional annotation on the calling method in the vain hope that it might make a difference but nothing. Previously I have experienced problems like this its been because the object being persisted does not satisfy table restrictions (such as non-nullable columns as null) or because the method is being called from within the same class and the calling method is not Transactional, but neither of those are the case here.. Any ideas? it just fails silently, the logs are as follows: 2012-03-26 22:25:04,702 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool - trace com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool@1bc25c8 [managed: 3, unused: 2, excluded: 0] (e.g. com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.NewPooledConnection@e5b006) 2012-03-26 22:25:04,710 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.SQL - select SEQ_COUNT from SEQUENCE where SEQ_NAME = 'PO_SEQ' for update 2012-03-26 22:25:04,711 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.SQL - update SEQUENCE set SEQ_COUNT = ? where SEQ_COUNT = ? and SEQ_NAME = 'PO_SEQ' 2012-03-26 22:25:04,723 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool - trace com.mchange.v2.resourcepool.BasicResourcePool@1bc25c8 [managed: 3, unused: 2, excluded: 0] (e.g. com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.NewPooledConnection@e5b006) 2012-03-26 22:25:04,723 [http-bio-8085-exec-9] DEBUG org.hibernate.event.internal.AbstractSaveEventListener - Generated identifier: 2200, using strategy: org.hibernate.id.MultipleHiLoPerTableGenerator UPDATE Also wanted to mention that the HibernateConnectionRepository bean is not annotated and is actually being configured in an @Configuration class (if this makes any difference? not used @Configuration classes much). The method to create the bean is as follows: @Bean @Scope(value = "request", proxyMode = ScopedProxyMode.INTERFACES) public ConnectionRepository connectionRepository() { Authentication authentication = SecurityContextHolder.getContext().getAuthentication(); if (authentication == null) { throw new IllegalStateException("Unable to get a ConnectionRepository: no user signed in"); } ApplicationUser user = (ApplicationUser) authentication.getPrincipal(); return usersConnectionRepository().createConnectionRepository(String.valueOf(user.getAccountId())); } The bean is scoped to the logged in user, but may also be created multiple times for each user..

  Read the article

• Symfony2 Forms: is it possible to bind a form in an "unconventional way"?

  - by DonCallisto

  Imagine this scenario: in our company there is an employee that "play" around graphic,css,html and so on. Our new project will born under symfony2 so we're trying some silly - but "real" - stuff (like authentication from db, submit data from a form and persist it to db and so on..) The problem As far i know, learnt from symfony2 "book" that i found on the site (you can find it here), there is an "automated" way for creating and rendering forms: 1) Build the form up into a controller in this way $form = $this->createFormBuilder($task) ->add('task','text'), ->add('dueDate','date'), ->getForm(); return $this->render('pathToBundle:Controller:templateTwig', array('form'=>$form->createview()); 2) Into templateTwig render the template {{ form_widget(form) }} // or single rows method 3) Into a controller (the same that have a route where you can submit data), take back submitted information if($rquest->getMethod()=='POST'){ $form->bindRequest($request); /* and so on */ } Return to scenario Our graphic employee don't want to access controllers, write php and other stuff like those. So he'll write a twig template with a "unconventional" (from symfony2 point of view, but conventional from HTML point of view) method: /* into twig template */ <form action="{{ path('SestanteUserBundle_homepage') }}" method="post" name="userForm"> <div> USERNAME: <input type="text" name="user_name" value="{{ user.username}}"/> </div> <div> EMAIL: <input type="text" name="user_mail" value="{{ user.email }}"/> </div> <input type="hidden" name="user_id" value="{{ id }}" /> <input type="submit" value="modifica i dati"> </form> Now, if into the controller that handle the submission of data we do something like that public function indexAction(Request $request) { if($request->getMethod() == 'POST'){ // sono arrivato per via di un submit, quindi devo modificare i dati prima di farli vedere a video $defaultData = array('message'=>'ho visto questa cosa in esempio, ma non capisco se posso farne a meno'); $form = $this->createFormBuilder($defaultData) ->add('user_name','text') ->add('user_mail','email') ->add('user_id','integer') ->getForm(); $form->bindRequest($request); //bindo la form ad una request $data = $form->getData(); //mi aspetto un'array chiave=>valore /* .... */ We expected that $data will contain an array with key,value from the submitted form. We found that it isn't true. After googling for a while and try with other "bad" ideas, we're frozen into that. So, if you have a "graphic office" that can't handle directly php code, how can we interface from form(s) to controller(s) ? UPDATE It seems that Symfony2 use a different convention for form's field name and lookup once you've submitted that. In particular, if my form's name is addUser and a field is named userName, the field's name will be AddUser[username] so maybe it have a "dynamic" lookup method that will extract form's name, field's name, concat them and lookup for values. Is it possible?

  Read the article

• plane bombing problems- help

  - by peiska

  I'm training code problems, and on this one I am having problems to solve it, can you give me some tips how to solve it please. The problem is something like this: Your task is to find the sequence of points on the map that the bomber is expected to travel such that it hits all vital links. A link from A to B is vital when its absence isolates completely A from B. In other words, the only way to go from A to B (or vice versa) is via that link. Notice that if we destroy for example link (d,e), it becomes impossible to go from d to e,m,l or n in any way. A vital link can be hit at any point that lies in its segment (e.g. a hit close to d is as valid as a hit close to e). Of course, only one hit is enough to neutralize a vital link. Moreover, each bomb affects an exact circle of radius R, i.e., every segment that intersects that circle is considered hit. Due to enemy counter-attack, the plane may have to retreat at any moment, so the plane should follow, at each moment, to the closest vital link possible, even if in the end the total distance grows larger. Given all coordinates (the initial position of the plane and the nodes in the map) and the range R, you have to determine the sequence of positions in which the plane has to drop bombs. This sequence should start (takeoff) and finish (landing) at the initial position. Except for the start and finish, all the other positions have to fall exactly in a segment of the map (i.e. it should correspond to a point in a non-hit vital link segment). The coordinate system used will be UTM (Universal Transverse Mercator) northing and easting, which basically corresponds to a Euclidian perspective of the world (X=Easting; Y=Northing). Input Each input file will start with three floating point numbers indicating the X0 and Y0 coordinates of the airport and the range R. The second line contains an integer, N, indicating the number of nodes in the road network graph. Then, the next N (<10000) lines will each contain a pair of floating point numbers indicating the Xi and Yi coordinates (1 No two links will ever cross with each other. Output The program will print the sequence of coordinates (pairs of floating point numbers with exactly one decimal place), each one at a line, in the order that the plane should visit (starting and ending in the airport). Sample input 1 102.3 553.9 0.2 14 342.2 832.5 596.2 638.5 479.7 991.3 720.4 874.8 744.3 1284.1 1294.6 924.2 1467.5 659.6 1802.6 659.6 1686.2 860.7 1548.6 1111.2 1834.4 1054.8 564.4 1442.8 850.1 1460.5 1294.6 1485.1 17 1 2 1 3 2 4 3 4 4 5 4 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 8 10 9 10 10 11 6 11 5 12 5 13 12 13 13 14 Sample output 1 102.3 553.9 720.4 874.8 850.1 1460.5 102.3 553.9

  Read the article

• jQuery - Show field based on value of a type-hidden on refresh.

  - by Sebhael

  Hello, I'm trying to create something in jQuery and having a bit of problems with it. I'm not too adept on the framework, so I'm sure this is all wrong. Anyways, the ultimate goal is a full form that contains 3 radio buttons - depending on the value of the button, a LI is shown. I have all of that done, but my problem is coming with validation. If something fails then the page is reloaded and the div that was selected doesn't show without clicking another radio first, then back to the original. This process is basically the same as someone came up with here. Here's what I got so far. HTML <li> <label> License (radio) </label> <label for="commercial" class="checkBox"> Commercial </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="commercial" id="commercial" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'commercial'); ?> /> <label for="abandonware" class="checkBox"> Abandonware </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="abandonware" id="abandonware" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'abandonware'); ?> /> <label for="freeware" class="checkBox"> Freeware </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="freeware" id="freeware" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'freeware'); ?> /> </li> This is followed by three LI's that contain id="commercial, abandonware, and freeware" and class="licenseli" My jQuery is, as said, something from here. $('li.licenseli').hide(); $('input[name=license]:radio').change(function(){ var Type = $(this).val(); // Get value of radio $('li.licenseli').slideUp(); // Hide non-selected $('li#'+Type).slideDown(); // Show Selected }); So what I need help with is I have a hidden input that retrieves the value of the radio box from validation - I want to take this value (or the radio's if possible?) and have the original selected option's LI already visible.

  Read the article

• jQuery: Giving each matched element an unique ID

  - by AnGafraidh

  I am writing an 'inline translator' application to be used with a cloud computing platform to extend non-supported languages. The majority of this uses jQuery to find the text value, replace it with the translation, then append the element with a span tag that has an unique ID, to be used elsewhere within the application. The problem arises however, when there are more than one element, say , that have the exact same value to be translated (matched elements). What happens in the function in question is that it puts all matched elements in the same span, taking the second, third, fourth, etc. out of their parent tags. My code is pretty much like this example: <script src='jquery-1.4.2.js'></script> <script> jQuery.noConflict(); var uniqueID='asdfjkl'; jQuery(window).ready(function() { var myQ1 = jQuery("input[id~=test1]"); myClone=myQ1.clone(); myClone.val('Replaced this button'); myQ1.replaceWith('<span id='+uniqueID+'></span>'); jQuery('#'+uniqueID).append(myClone); }); </script> <table> <tr><td> <input id='test1' type='button' value="I'm a button!"></input> &nbsp; <input id='test2' type='button' value="And so am I"></input> </tr></td> <tr><td> <input id='test1' type='button' value="I'm a button!"></input> </tr></td> </table> As a workaround, I've experimented with using a loop to create a class for each span, rising in increment until jQuery("input[id~=test1]").length, but I can't seem to get anything I do to work. Is there any way to give each matched element an unique ID? My fluency in jQuery is being put to the test! Thanks for any help in advance. Aaron

  Read the article

• Sync services not actually syncing

  - by Paul Mrozowski

  I'm attempting to sync a SQL Server CE 3.5 database with a SQL Server 2008 database using MS Sync Services. I am using VS 2008. I created a Local Database Cache, connected it with SQL Server 2008 and picked the tables I wanted to sync. I selected SQL Server Tracking. It modified the database for change tracking and created a local copy (SDF) of the data. I need two way syncing so I created a partial class for the sync agent and added code into the OnInitialized() to set the SyncDirection for the tables to Bidirectional. I've walked through with the debugger and this code runs. Then I created another partial class for cache server sync provider and added an event handler into the OnInitialized() to hook into the ApplyChangeFailed event. This code also works OK - my code runs when there is a conflict. Finally, I manually made some changes to the server data to test syncing. I use this code to fire off a sync: var agent = new FSEMobileCacheSyncAgent(); var syncStats = agent.Synchronize(); syncStats seems to show the count of the # of changes I made on the server and shows that they were applied. However, when I open the local SDF file none of the changes are there. I basically followed the instructions I found here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc761546%28SQL.105%29.aspx and here: http://keithelder.net/blog/archive/2007/09/23/Sync-Services-for-SQL-Server-Compact-Edition-3.5-in-Visual.aspx It seems like this should "just work" at this point, but the changes made on the server aren't in the local SDF file. I guess I'm missing something but I'm just not seeing it right now. I thought this might be because I appeared to be using version 1 of Sync Services so I removed the references to Microsoft.Synchronization.* assemblies, installed the Sync framework 2.0 and added the new version of the assemblies to the project. That hasn't made any difference. Ideas? Edit: I wanted to enable tracing to see if I could track this down but the only way to do that is through a WinForms app since it requires entries in the app.config file (my original project was a class library). I created a WinForms project and recreated everything and suddenly everything is working. So apparently this requires a WinForm project for some reason? This isn't really how I planned on using this - I had hoped to kick off syncing through another non-.NET application and provide the UI there so the experience was a bit more seemless to the end user. If I can't do that, that's OK, but I'd really like to know if/how to make this work as a class library project instead.

  Read the article

• Form validation with optional File Upload field callback

  - by MotiveKyle

  I have a form with some input fields and a file upload field in the same form. I am trying to include a callback into the form validation to check for file upload errors. Here is the controller for adding and the callback: public function add() { if ($this->ion_auth->logged_in()): //validate form input $this->form_validation->set_rules('title', 'title', 'trim|required|max_length[66]|min_length[2]'); // link url $this->form_validation->set_rules('link', 'link', 'trim|required|max_length[255]|min_length[2]'); // optional content $this->form_validation->set_rules('content', 'content', 'trim|min_length[2]'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('userfile', 'image', 'callback_validate_upload'); $this->form_validation->set_error_delimiters('<small class="error">', '</small>'); // if form was submitted, process form if ($this->form_validation->run()) { // add pin $pin_id = $this->pin_model->create(); $slug = strtolower(url_title($this->input->post('title'), TRUE)); // path to pin folder $file_path = './uploads/' . $pin_id . '/'; // if folder doesn't exist, create it if (!is_dir($file_path)) { mkdir($file_path); } // file upload config variables $config['upload_path'] = $file_path; $config['allowed_types'] = 'jpg|png'; $config['max_size'] = '2048'; $config['max_width'] = '1920'; $config['max_height'] = '1080'; $config['encrypt_name'] = TRUE; $this->load->library('upload', $config); // upload image file if ($this->upload->do_upload()) { $this->load->model('file_model'); $image_id = $this->file_model->insert_image_to_db($pin_id); $this->file_model->add_image_id_to_pin($pin_id, $image_id); } } // build page else: // User not logged in redirect("login", 'refresh'); endif; } The callback: function validate_upload() { if ($_FILES AND $_FILES['userfile']['name']): if ($this->upload->do_upload()): return true; else: $this->form_validation->set_message('validate_upload', $this->upload->display_errors()); return false; endif; else: return true; endif; } I am getting the error Fatal error: Call to a member function do_upload() on a non-object on line 92 when I try to run this. Line 92 is the if ($this->upload->do_upload()): line in the validate_upload callback. Am I going about this the right way? What's triggering this error?

  Read the article

• BlackBerry OS 7.1 secured TLS connection is closed after very short time

  - by MrVincenzo

  To make a long story short: Same client-server configuration, same network topology, same device (Bold 9900) - works perfectly well on OS 7.0 but doesn't work as expected on OS 7.1 and the secured tls connection is being closed by the server after a very short time. My application opens a secured tls connection to a server. The connection is kept alive by a application layer keep-alive mechanism and remains open until the client closes it. Attached is a simplified version of the actual code that opens connection and reads from the socket. The code works perfectly on OS 5.0-7.0 but doesn't work as expected on OS 7.1. When running on OS 7.1, the blocking read() returns with -1 (end of the stream has been reached) after very short time (10-45 seconds). For OS 5.0-7.0 the call to read() remains blocking until next data arrives and the connection is never closed by the server. Connection connection = Connector.open(connectionString); connInputStream = connection.openInputStream(); while (true) { try { retVal = connInputStream.read(); if (-1 == retVal) { break; // end of stream has been reached } } catch (Exception e ) { // do error handling } // data read from stream is handled here } UPDATE 1: Apparently, the problem appears only when I use secured tls connection (either using mobile network or WiFi) on OS 7.1. Everything works as expected when opening a non secured connection on OS 7.1. For tls on mobile networks I use the following connection string: connectionString = "tls://someipaddress:443;deviceside=false;ConnectionType=mds-public;EndToEndDesired"; For tls on Wifi I use the following connection string: connectionString = "tls://someipaddress:443;deviceside=true;interface=wifi;EndToEndRequired" UPDATE 2: The connection is never idle. I am constantly receiving and sending data on it. The issue appears both when using mobile connection and WiFi. The issue appears both on real OS 7.1 devices and simulators. I am starting to suspect that it is somehow related either to the connection string I am using or to the tls handshake. UPDATE 3: According to Wireshark's captures that I made with the OS 7.1 simulator, the secured tls connection is being closed by the server (client receives FIN). For the moment I don't have the server's private key therefore I unable to debug the tls handshake.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to use CSS to align these divs/spans in a table-like manner?

  - by Justin L.

  I have <div class='line'> <div class='chord_line'> <span class='chord_block'></span> <span class='chord_block'>E</span> <span class='chord_block'>B</span> <span class='chord_block'>C#m</span> <span class='chord_block'>A</span> </div> <div class='lyric_line'> <span class='lyric_block'></span> <span class='lyric_block'>Just a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>small-town girl</span> <span class='lyric_block'>living in a</span> <span class='lyric_block'>lonely world</span> </div> </div> (Excuse me for not being too familiar with proper css conventions for when to use div/spans) I want to be able to display them so that each chord_block span and lyric_block span is aligned vertically, as if they were left-aligned and on the same row of a table. For example: E B C#m A Just a small-town girl living in a lonely world (There will often be cases where an empty chord block is matched up to non-empty lyric block, and vice-versa.) I'm completely new to using CSS to align things, and have had no real understanding/experience of CSS aside from changing background colors and link styles. Is this possible in CSS? If not, how could the div/class nesting structure be revised to make this possible? I could change the spans to divs if necessary. Some things I cannot use: I can't change the structure to group things by a chord_and_lyric_block div (and have their width stretch to the length of the lyric, and stack them horizontally), because I couldn't really copy/select the lyrical lines continuously in their entirety, which is extremely critical. I'm trying to avoid a table-like solution, because this data is not tabular at all. The chord line and the lyric line are meant to be read as one continuous line, not a set of cells. Also, apart from the design philosophy reasons, I think it might have the same problems as the previous thing bullet point. If this is possible, what div/span attributes should I be using? Can you provide sample css? If this is not possible, can it be done with javascript?

  Read the article

• python object to native c++ pointer

  - by Lodle

  Im toying around with the idea to use python as an embedded scripting language for a project im working on and have got most things working. However i cant seem to be able to convert a python extended object back into a native c++ pointer. So this is my class: class CGEGameModeBase { public: virtual void FunctionCall()=0; virtual const char* StringReturn()=0; }; class CGEPYGameMode : public CGEGameModeBase, public boost::python::wrapper<CGEPYGameMode> { public: virtual void FunctionCall() { if (override f = this->get_override("FunctionCall")) f(); } virtual const char* StringReturn() { if (override f = this->get_override("StringReturn")) return f(); return "FAILED TO CALL"; } }; Boost wrapping: BOOST_PYTHON_MODULE(GEGameMode) { class_<CGEGameModeBase, boost::noncopyable>("CGEGameModeBase", no_init); class_<CGEPYGameMode, bases<CGEGameModeBase> >("CGEPYGameMode", no_init) .def("FunctionCall", &CGEPYGameMode::FunctionCall) .def("StringReturn", &CGEPYGameMode::StringReturn); } and the python code: import GEGameMode def Ident(): return "Alpha" def NewGamePlay(): return "NewAlpha" def NewAlpha(): import GEGameMode import GEUtil class Alpha(GEGameMode.CGEPYGameMode): def __init__(self): print "Made new Alpha!" def FunctionCall(self): GEUtil.Msg("This is function test Alpha!") def StringReturn(self): return "This is return test Alpha!" return Alpha() Now i can call the first to functions fine by doing this: const char* ident = extract< const char* >( GetLocalDict()["Ident"]() ); const char* newgameplay = extract< const char* >( GetLocalDict()["NewGamePlay"]() ); printf("Loading Script: %s\n", ident); CGEPYGameMode* m_pGameMode = extract< CGEPYGameMode* >( GetLocalDict()[newgameplay]() ); However when i try and convert the Alpha class back to its base class (last line above) i get an boost error: TypeError: No registered converter was able to extract a C++ pointer to type class CGEPYGameMode from this Python object of type Alpha I have done alot of searching on the net but cant work out how to convert the Alpha object into its base class pointer. I could leave it as an object but rather have it as a pointer so some non python aware code can use it. Any ideas?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 440 441 442 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451  | Next Page >