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  • PHP templating challenge (optimizing front-end templates)

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I'm trying to do some templating optimizations and I'm wondering if it is possible to do something like this: function table_with_lowercase($data) { $out = '<table>'; for ($i=0; $i < 3; $i++) { $out .= '<tr><td>'; $out .= strtolower($data); $out .= '</td></tr>'; } $out .= "</table>"; return $out; } NOTE: You do not know what $data is when you run this function. Results in: <table> <tr><td><?php echo strtolower($data) ?></td></tr> <tr><td><?php echo strtolower($data) ?></td></tr> <tr><td><?php echo strtolower($data) ?></td></tr> </table> General Case: Anything that can be evaluated (compiled) will be. Any time there is an unknown variable, the variable and the functions enclosing it, will be output in a string format. Here's one more example: function capitalize($str) { return ucwords(strtolower($str)); } If $str is "HI ALL" then the output is: Hi All If $str is unknown then the output is: <?php echo ucwords(strtolower($str)); ?> In this case it would be easier to just call the function (ie. <?php echo capitalize($str) ?> ), but the example before would allow you to precompile your PHP to make it more efficient

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  • PHP templating challenge (optimizing front-end templates)

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I'm trying to do some templating optimizations and I'm wondering if it is possible to do something like this: function table_with_lowercase($data) { $out = '<table>'; for ($i=0; $i < 3; $i++) { $out .= '<tr><td>'; $out .= strtolower($data); $out .= '</td></tr>'; } $out .= "</table>"; return $out; } NOTE: You do not know what $data is when you run this function. Results in: <table> <tr><td><?php echo strtolower($data) ?></td></tr> <tr><td><?php echo strtolower($data) ?></td></tr> <tr><td><?php echo strtolower($data) ?></td></tr> </table> General Case: Anything that can be evaluated (compiled) will be. Any time there is an unknown variable, the variable and the functions enclosing it, will be output in a string format. Here's one more example: function capitalize($str) { return ucwords(strtolower($str)); } If $str is "HI ALL" then the output is: Hi All If $str is unknown then the output is: <?php echo ucwords(strtolower($str)); ?> In this case it would be easier to just call the function (ie. <?php echo capitalize($str) ?> ), but the example before would allow you to precompile your PHP to make it more efficient

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  • Pulling specific entries from RSS feed [PHP]

    - by n0s
    So, I have an RSS feed with variations of each item. What I want to do is just get entries that contain a specific section of text. For example: <item> <title>RADIO SHOW - CF64K - 05-20-10 + WRAPUP </title> <link>http://linktoradioshow.com</link> <comments>Radio show from 05-20-10</comments> <pubDate>Thu, 20 May 2010 19:12:12 +0200</pubDate> <category domain="http://linktoradioshow.com/browse/199">Audio / Other</category> <dc:creator>n0s</dc:creator> <guid>http://otherlinktoradioshow.com/</guid> <enclosure url="http://linktoradioshow.com/" length="13005" /> </item> <item> <title>RADIO SHOW - CF128K - 05-20-10 + WRAPUP </title> <link>http://linktoradioshow.com</link> <comments>Radio show from 05-20-10</comments> <pubDate>Thu, 20 May 2010 19:12:12 +0200</pubDate> <category domain="http://linktoradioshow.com/browse/199">Audio / Other</category> <dc:creator>n0s</dc:creator> <guid>http://otherlinktoradioshow.com/</guid> <enclosure url="http://linktoradioshow.com/" length="13005" /> </item> I only want to display the results that contain the string CF64K. While it's probably really simple regex, I can't seem to wrap my head around getting it right. I always get seem to only be able to display the string 'CF64K', and not the stuff that surrounds it. Thanks in advance.

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  • NSURLConnection and empty post variables

    - by SooDesuNe
    I'm at my wits end with this one, because I've used very similar code in the past, and it worked just fine. The following code results in empty $_POST variables on the server. I verified this with: file_put_contents('log_file_name', "log: ".$word, FILE_APPEND); the only contents of log_file_name was "log: " I then verified the PHP with a simple HTML form. It performed as expected. The Objective-C: NSString *word = "this_word_gets_lost"; NSString *myRequestString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"word=%@", word]; [self postAsynchronousPHPRequest:myRequestString toPage:@"http://www.mysite.com/mypage.php" delegate:nil]; } -(void) postAsynchronousPHPRequest:(NSString*)request toPage:(NSString*)URL delegate:(id)delegate{ NSData *requestData = [ NSData dataWithBytes: [ request UTF8String ] length: [ request length ] ]; NSMutableURLRequest *URLrequest = [ [ NSMutableURLRequest alloc ] initWithURL: [ NSURL URLWithString: URL ] ]; [ URLrequest setHTTPMethod: @"POST" ]; [ URLrequest setHTTPBody: requestData ]; [ NSURLConnection connectionWithRequest:URLrequest delegate:delegate]; [URLrequest release]; } The PHP: $word = $_POST['word']; file_put_contents('log_file_name', "log: ".$word, FILE_APPEND); What am I doing wrong in the Objective-C that would cause the $_POST variable to be empty on the server?

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  • How to debug/break in codedom compiled code

    - by Jason Coyne
    I have an application which loads up c# source files dynamically and runs them as plugins. When I am running the main application in debug mode, is it possible to debug into the dynamic assembly? Obviously setting breakpoints is problematic, since the source is not part of the original project, but should I be able to step into, or break on exceptions for the code? Is there a way to get codedom to generate PDBs for this or something? Here is the code I am using for dynamic compliation. CSharpCodeProvider codeProvider = new CSharpCodeProvider(new Dictionary<string, string>() { { "CompilerVersion", "v3.5" } }); //codeProvider. ICodeCompiler icc = codeProvider.CreateCompiler(); CompilerParameters parameters = new CompilerParameters(); parameters.GenerateExecutable = false; parameters.GenerateInMemory = true; parameters.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:\"{0}\"", Application.StartupPath); parameters.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.dll"); parameters.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.Core.dll"); CompilerResults results = icc.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, Source); DLL.CreateInstance(t.FullName, false, BindingFlags.Default, null, new object[] { engine }, null, null);

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  • How to search a PDF in Acrobat Reader AND jump to a certain page via parameter?

    - by agez
    Hi, we are using lucene within a web application to search in a great number of PDF documents. The workflow is like this: A user enters a search term A list of search results is presented to the user. Each search result represents one PDF document and shows the user on which page the search term was found. Each of these pages is represented as a hyperlink. If the user now clicks on such a hyperlink, he directly jumps to that page. But now the user has the problem that the search term isn't highlighted on the page. Therefore the user has to look on his own to find the search term on the page. What we wanted is a way to highlight the search term on the specific page in the PDF. The open parameters for Acrobat Reader allow for either searching a PDF document (with hit highlighting) OR jumping to a specific page. But the combination of both parameters - which we would need - doesn't work. Does anyone have an idea how jumping to a page and highlighting a search term in a pdf document could work? I had a look at the Acrobat SDK but don't see how we can use it (it's terribly documented). Cheers, Helmut

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  • Capturing window image in windows server 2008

    - by Sergey Osypchuk
    I am capturing output of windows program using following function: public static Bitmap Get(IntPtr hWnd, int X1, int Y1, int width, int height) { WINDOWINFO winInfo = new WINDOWINFO(); bool ret = GetWindowInfo(hWnd, ref winInfo); if (!ret) { return null; } int curheight = height; if (curheight <= 0 || curheight > winInfo.rcWindow.Height) curheight = winInfo.rcWindow.Height; int curwidth = width; if (curwidth <= 0 || curwidth > winInfo.rcWindow.Width) curwidth = winInfo.rcWindow.Width; if (curheight == 0 || curwidth == 0) return null; Graphics frmGraphics = Graphics.FromHwnd(hWnd); IntPtr hDC = GetWindowDC(hWnd); //gets the entire window //IntPtr hDC = frmGraphics.GetHdc(); -- gets the client area, no menu bars, etc.. System.Drawing.Bitmap tmpBitmap = new System.Drawing.Bitmap(curwidth, curheight, frmGraphics); Graphics bmGraphics = Graphics.FromImage(tmpBitmap); IntPtr bmHdc = bmGraphics.GetHdc(); BitBlt(bmHdc, 0, 0, curwidth, curheight, hDC, X1, Y1, TernaryRasterOperations.SRCCOPY); bmGraphics.ReleaseHdc(bmHdc); ReleaseDC(hWnd, hDC); return tmpBitmap; } On Development environment everything is excellent, but on windows server 2008 I have following issues: 1) When there is other window in front my - it is getting captured as well 2) When there is no user connected to RDC - image is black On other hand, I am able to render webpage images using IE. How I can change behaviour of windows rendering process to get proper results?

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  • Help with MySQL Query using CASE statement

    - by hairdresser-101
    I am trying to group a number of customers together based on their "Head Office" or "Parent" location. THis works ok except for a flaw which I didn't forsee when I was developing my system... For customers that did not have a "Parent" (standalone business) I defaulted the parent_id to 0. Therefore, my data would look like this: id parent_id customer 1 0 CustName#1 2 4 CustName#2 - Melbourne 3 4 CustName#2 - Sydney 4 0 CustName#2 (Head Office) What I want to do is Group my results together so that I have one row for CustName#1 and one row for CustName#2 BUT my problem is that there is no parent record for parent_id=0 and these rows are being excluded when using an inner join. I've tried using a case statement but that is not working either (parents are still being ignored) Any help would be greatly appreciated. Here is my query (My CASE is basically trying to get the business_name from the customer table based on the parent_id EXCEPT when the parent_id = 0, THEN just use the customer_name that is listed in the job_summary table): SELECT js.month_of_year, (CASE js.parent_id WHEN 0 THEN js.customer_name ELSE c.business_name END) as customer, SUM(js.jobs), SUM(js.total_cost), sum(js.total_sell) FROM JOB_SUMMARY js INNER JOIN customer c on js.parent_id=c.id group by js.month_of_year, (CASE c.parent_id WHEN 0 THEN js.customer_name ELSE c.business_name END) ORDER BY `customer` ASC

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  • Can't install do_mysql gem?

    - by maccy1
    I'm trying to install the do_mysql on my Snow Leopord system Macbook Pro 13", but I keep getting this error: n216-160:~ myself$ sudo gem1.9 install do_mysql Password: Building native extensions. This could take a while... ERROR: Error installing do_mysql: ERROR: Failed to build gem native extension. /opt/local/bin/ruby1.9 extconf.rb checking for mysql_query() in -lmysqlclient... no *** extconf.rb failed *** Could not create Makefile due to some reason, probably lack of necessary libraries and/or headers. Check the mkmf.log file for more details. You may need configuration options. Provided configuration options: --with-opt-dir --without-opt-dir --with-opt-include --without-opt-include=${opt-dir}/include --with-opt-lib --without-opt-lib=${opt-dir}/lib --with-make-prog --without-make-prog --srcdir=. --curdir --ruby=/opt/local/bin/ruby1.9 --with-mysql-config --without-mysql-config --with-mysql-dir --without-mysql-dir --with-mysql-include --without-mysql-include=${mysql-dir}/include --with-mysql-lib --without-mysql-lib=${mysql-dir}/lib --with-mysqlclientlib --without-mysqlclientlib Gem files will remain installed in /opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/gems/1.9.1/gems/do_mysql-0.10.0 for inspection. Results logged to /opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/gems/1.9.1/gems/do_mysql-0.10.0/ext/do_mysql_ext/gem_make.out n216-160:~ myself$ I have no idea why. I also reinstalled my verison of MySQL with the MySQL 5.4.3 beta, 64-bit as others suggested but no dice. Does anyone have any idea what is wrong?

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  • Naming multi-instance performance counters in .NET

    - by Roger Lipscombe
    Most multiple instance performance counters in Windows seem to automatically(?) have a #n on the end if there's more than one instance with the same name. For example: if, in Perfmon, you look under the Process category, you'll see: ... dwm explorer explorer#1 ... I have two explorer.exe processes, so the second counter has #1 appended to its name. When I attempt to do this in a .NET application: I can create the category, and register the instance (using the PerformanceCounterCategory.Create that takes a CounterCreationDataCollection). I can open the counter for write and write to it. When I open the counter a second time, it opens the same counter. This means that I have two applications fighting over the counters. The documentation for PerformanceCounter.InstanceName states that # is not allowed in the name. So: how do I have multiple-instance performance counters that are actually multiple instance? And where the second (and subsequent) instances get #n appended to the name? That is: I know that I can put the process ID (e.g.) on the instance name. This works, but has the unfortunate side effect that restarting the process results in a new PID, and Perfmon continues monitoring the old counter.

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  • SQL command to get field of a maximum value, without making two select

    - by António Capelo
    I'm starting to learn SQL and I'm working on this exercise: I have a "books" table which holds the info on every book (including price and genre ID). I need to get the name of the genre which has the highest average price. I suppose that I first need to group the prices by genre and then retrieve the name of the highest.. I know that I can get the results GENRE VS COST with the following: select b.genre, round(avg(b.price),2) as cost from books b group by b.genre; My question is, to get the genre with the highest AVG price from that result, do I have to make: select aux.genre from ( select b.genre, round(avg(b.price),2) as cost from books b group by b.genre ) aux where aux.cost = (select max(aux.cost) from ( select b.genre, round(avg(b.price),2) as cost from books l group by b.genre ) aux); Is it bad practice or isn't there another way? I get the correct result but I'm not confortable with creating two times the same selection. I'm not using PL SQL so I can't use variables or anything like that.. Any help will be appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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  • Creating search functionality with Laravel 4

    - by Mitch Glenn
    I am trying to create a way for users to search through all the products on a website. When they search for "burton snowboards", I only want the snowboards with the brand burton to appear in the results. But if they searched only "burton", then all products with the brand burton should appear. This is what I have attempted to write but isn't working for multiple reasons. Controller: public function search(){ $input = Input::all(); $v= Validator::make($input, Product::$rules); if($v->passes()) { $searchTerms = explode(' ', $input); $searchTermBits = array(); foreach ($searchTerms as $term) { $term = trim($term); if (!empty($term)){ $searchTermBits[] = "search LIKE '%$term%'"; } } $result = DB::table('products') ->select('*') ->whereRaw(". implode(' AND ', $searchTermBits) . ") ->get(); return View::make('layouts/search', compact('result')); } return Redirect::route('/'); } I am trying to recreate the first solution given for this stackoverflow.com problem The first problem I have identified is that i'm trying to explode the $input, but it's already an array. So i'm not sure how to go about fixing that. And the way I have written the ->whereRaw(". implode(' AND ', $searchTermBits) . "), i'm sure isn't correct. I'm not sure how to fix these problems though, any insights or solutions will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Bidirectional replication update record problem

    - by Mirek
    Hi, I would like to present you my problem related to SQL Server 2005 bidirectional replication. What do I need? My teamleader wants to solve one of our problems using bidirectional replication between two databases, each used by different application. One application creates records in table A, changes should replicate to second database into a copy of table A. When data on second server are changed, then those changes have to be propagated back to the first server. I am trying to achieve bidirectional transactional replication between two databases on one server, which is running SQL Server 2005. I have manage to set this up using scripts, established 2 publications and 2 read only subscriptions with loopback detection. Distributtion database is created, publishment on both databases is enabled. Distributor and publisher are up. We are using some rules to control, which records will be replicated, so we need to call our custom stored procedures during replication. So, articles are set to use update, insert and delete custom stored procedures. So far so good, but? Everything works fine, changes are replicating, until updates are done on both tables simultaneously or before changes are replicated (and that takes about 3-6 seconds). Both records then end up with different values. UPDATE db1.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 4 WHERE ID = 1 UPDATE db2.dbo.TestTable SET Col = 5 WHERE ID = 1 results to: db1.dbo.TestTable COL = 5 db2.dbo.TestTable COL = 4 But we want to have last change winning replication. Please, is there a way to solve my problem? How can I ensure same values in both records? Or is there easier solution than this kind of replication? I can provide sample replication script which I am using. I am looking forward for you ideas, Mirek

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  • How do I assert that two arbitrary type objects are equivalent, without requiring them to be equal?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    To accomplish this (but failing to do so) I'm reflecting over properties of an expected and actual object and making sure their values are equal. This works as expected as long as their properties are single objects, i.e. not lists, arrays, IEnumerable... If the property is a list of some sort, the test fails (on the Assert.AreEqual(...) inside the for loop). public void WithCorrectModel<TModelType>(TModelType expected, string error = "") where TModelType : class { var actual = _result.ViewData.Model as TModelType; Assert.IsNotNull(actual, error); Assert.IsInstanceOfType(actual, typeof(TModelType), error); foreach (var prop in typeof(TModelType).GetProperties()) { Assert.AreEqual(prop.GetValue(expected, null), prop.GetValue(actual, null), error); } } If dealing with a list property, I would get the expected results if I instead used CollectionAssert.AreEquivalent(...) but that requires me to cast to ICollection, which in turn requries me to know the type listed, which I don't (want to). It also requires me to know which properties are list types, which I don't know how to. So, how should I assert that two objects of an arbitrary type are equivalent? Note: I specifically don't want to require them to be equal, since one comes from my tested object and one is built in my test class to have something to compare with.

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  • InfoPath FormControl on STA worker thread

    - by Rob Ford
    I have a .NET class that exposes two public methods: one to create an InfoPath form and another to Export to one of the supported formats. I’m using the Microsoft FormControl to do this. It’s hosted by a Form that does not get displayed. I get called by a Winforms app, but on an MTA worker thread instead of the UI thread. So I create an STA thread and execute on that, which works exactly once and then results in this exception: System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled Message="Unable to get the window handle for the 'FormControl' control. Windowless ActiveX controls are not supported." Source="System.Windows.Forms" StackTrace: at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.EnsureWindowPresent() at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.InPlaceActivate() at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.TransitionUpTo(Int32 state) at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.CreateHandle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateControl(Boolean fIgnoreVisible) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateControl(Boolean fIgnoreVisible) at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.EndInit() at InfoPathCreateStaThreadTest.FormControlHost.InitializeComponent() in C:\Windows\Temp\InfoPathCreateStaThreadTest\InfoPathCreateStaThreadTest\FormControlHost.Designer.cs:line 65 After some experimenting, I started to suspect this is a message pumping problem. I then came across this, which makes me more strongly suspect so: http://blogs.msdn.com/cbrumme/archive/2004/02/02/66219.aspx I tried various methods of pumping messages with no luck. I should mention that the alternative of automating the InfoPath app is not viable unless I can figure out how to hide the app. Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • Targeted Simplify in Mathematica

    - by Timo
    I generate very long and complex analytic expressions of the general form: (...something not so complex...)(...ditto...)(...ditto...)...lots... When I try to use Simplify, Mathematica grinds to a halt, I am assuming due to the fact that it tries to expand the brackets and or simplify across different brackets. The brackets, while containing long expressions, are easily simplified by Mathematica on their own. Is there some way I can limit the scope of Simplify to a single bracket at a time? Edit: Some additional info and progress. So using the advice from you guys I have now started using something in the vein of In[1]:= trouble = Log[(x + I y) (x - I y) + Sqrt[(a + I b) (a - I b)]]; In[2]:= Replace[trouble, form_ /; (Head[form] == Times) :> Simplify[form],{3}] Out[2]= Log[Sqrt[a^2 + b^2] + (x - I y) (x + I y)] Changing Times to an appropriate head like Plus or Power makes it possible to target the simplification quite accurately. The problem / question that remains, though, is the following: Simplify will still descend deeper than the level specified to Replace, e.g. In[3]:= Replace[trouble, form_ /; (Head[form] == Plus) :> Simplify[form], {1}] Out[3]= Log[Sqrt[a^2 + b^2] + x^2 + y^2] simplifies the square root as well. My plan was to iteratively use Replace from the bottom up one level at a time, but this clearly will result in vast amount of repeated work by Simplify and ultimately result in the exact same bogging down of Mathematica I experienced in the outset. Is there a way to restrict Simplify to a certain level(s)? I realize that this sort of restriction may not produce optimal results, but the idea here is getting something that is "good enough".

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  • Session Variable Not Being Updated? ASP.NET

    - by davemackey
    I have a three step wizard. On the first step I use a repeater to create a series of buttons that an individual can select from. When the user selects one of the buttons the value of the button is saved to session state. They are taken to the next step and shown a similar list of buttons that are based on what they previously selected. Thus, if you choose "Hamburger" you might receive the options of "onion", "lettuce", "tomato" while if you choose "Hot Dog" you might receive "sauerkraut" and "ketchup". Lets say an individual chooses Hamburger. This is saved into session state like so: Public Sub Button_ItemCommand(ByVal Sender As Object, ByVal e As RepeaterCommandEventArgs) ' ******** Lets pass on the results of our query in LinqDataSource1_Selecting. Session("food_select") = RTrim(e.CommandName) Wizard1.ActiveStepIndex = 1 End Sub Now, this works fine and dandy. But lets say I select hamburger and then realize I'm really hankering for a hot dog. I go back to the first wizard step and click on the hot dog button - but when the wizard progresses to the next step I still see the options for hamburgers! The session variable has not been updated. Why? Thanks!

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  • How do I Data-Bind dual DateTimePicker to a single DateTime object

    - by S.C. Madsen
    Hi, I have a simple form, with two DateTimePicker-controls: One for date, and one for time. The thing is these two controls are supposed to represent a single point in time. Hence I would like to "Bind" them to a single DateTime property on my form (for simplicity). I did the following: // Start is a DateTime property on the form _StartDate.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); _StartTime.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); But hooking into "ValueChanged" event, yields mixed results... Sometimes I get exactly what I want, sometimes the updates of the property are "sluggish". I figured this way of splitting into two DateTimePicker's was fairly common. So how to do it? Update: There is possibly multiple questions in there: How do I bind a DateTimePicker (Format: Date) to a DateTime Property on a form? Then, how do I bind yet another DateTimePicker (Format: Time) to the same property? I'm using Visual Studio Express 2008 (.NET 3.5), and I seemingly get ValueChanged events from the DateTimePickers before the value is changed?

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  • Problem with duplicates in a SQL Join

    - by Chris Ballance
    I have the following result set from a join of three tables, an articles table, a products table, an articles to products mapping table. I would like to have the results with duplicates removed similar to a select distinct on content id. Current result set: [ContendId] [Title] [productId] 1 article one 2 1 article one 3 1 article one 9 4 article four 1 4 article four 10 4 article four 14 5 article five 1 6 article six 8 6 article six 10 6 article six 11 6 article six 13 7 article seven 14 Desired result set: [ContendId] [Title] [productId] 1 article one * 4 article four * 5 article five * 6 article six * 7 article seven * Here is condensed example of the relevant SQL: IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'tempdb.dbo.products') AND type = (N'U')) drop table tempdb.dbo.products go CREATE TABLE tempdb.dbo.products ( productid int, productname varchar(255) ) go IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'articles') AND type = (N'U')) drop table tempdb.dbo.articles go create table tempdb.dbo.articles ( contentid int, title varchar(255) ) IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'articles') AND type = (N'U')) drop table tempdb.dbo.articles go create table tempdb.dbo.articles ( contentid int, title varchar(255) ) IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'articleproducts') AND type = (N'U')) drop table tempdb.dbo.articleproducts go create table tempdb.dbo.articleproducts ( contentid int, productid int ) insert into tempdb.dbo.products values (1,'product one'), (2,'product two'), (3,'product three'), (4,'product four'), (5,'product five'), (6,'product six'), (7,'product seven'), (8,'product eigth'), (9,'product nine'), (10,'product ten'), (11,'product eleven'), (12,'product twelve'), (13,'product thirteen'), (14,'product fourteen') insert into tempdb.dbo.articles VALUES (1,'article one'), (2, 'article two'), (3, 'article three'), (4, 'article four'), (5, 'article five'), (6, 'article six'), (7, 'article seven'), (8, 'article eight'), (9, 'article nine'), (10, 'article ten') INSERT INTO tempdb.dbo.articleproducts VALUES (1,2), (1,3), (1,9), (4,1), (4,10), (4,14), (5,1), (6,8), (6,10), (6,11), (6,13), (7,14) GO select DISTINCT(a.contentid), a.title, p.productid from articles a JOIN articleproducts ap ON a.contentid = ap.contentid JOIN products p ON a.contentid = ap.contentid AND p.productid = ap.productid ORDER BY a.contentid

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  • does sfWidgetFormSelect provide a string or an int of the selected item?

    - by han
    Hey guys, I'm having an annoying problem. I'm trying to find out what fields of a form were changed, and then insert that into a table. I managed to var_dump in doUpdateObjectas shown in the following public function doUpdateObject($values) { parent::doUpdateObject($values); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(false)); var_dump($this->getObject()->getModified(true)); } And it seems like $this-getObject()-getModified seems to work in giving me both before and after values by setting it to either true or false. The problem that I'm facing right now is that, some how, sfWidgetFormSelect seems to be saving one of my fields as a string. before saving, that exact same field was an int. (I got this idea by var_dump both before and after). Here is what the results on both var dumps showed: array(1) {["annoying_field"]=> int(3)} array(1) {["annoying_field"]=>string(1)"3"} This seems to cause doctrine to think that this is a modification and thus gives a false positive. In my base form, I have under $this->getWidgets() 'annoying_field' => new sfWidgetFormInputText(), under $this->setValidators 'annoying_field' => new sfValidatorInteger(array('required' => false)), and lastly in my configured Form.class.php I have reconfigured the file as such: $this->widgetSchema['annoying_field'] = new sfWidgetFormSelect(array('choices' => $statuses)); statuses is an array containing values like {""a", "b", "c", "d"} and I just want the index of the status to be stored in the database. And also how can I insert the changes into another database table? let's say my Log table? Any ideas and advice as to why this is happen is appreciated, I've been trying to figure it out and browsing google for various keywords with no avail. Thanks! Edit: ok so I created another field, integer in my schema just for testing. I created an entry, saved it, and edited it. this time the same thing happened!

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  • Need advice on comparing the performance of 2 equivalent linq to sql queries

    - by uvita
    I am working on tool to optimize linq to sql queries. Basically it intercepts the linq execution pipeline and makes some optimizations like for example removing a redundant join from a query. Of course, there is an overhead in the execution time before the query gets executed in the dbms, but then, the query should be processed faster. I don't want to use a sql profiler because I know that the generated query will be perform better in the dbms than the original one, I am looking for a correct way of measuring the global time between the creation of the query in linq and the end of its execution. Currently, I am using the Stopwatch class and my code looks something like this: var sw = new Stopwatch(); sw.Start(); const int amount = 100; for (var i = 0; i < amount; i++) { ExecuteNonOptimizedQuery(); } sw.Stop(); Console.Writeline("Executing the query {2} times took: {0}ms. On average, each query took: {1}ms", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, sw.ElapsedMilliseconds / amount, amount); Basically the ExecutenNonOptimizedQuery() method creates a new DataContext, creates a query and then iterates over the results. I did this for both versions of the query, the normal one and the optimized one. I took the idea from this post from Frans Bouma. Is there any other approach/considerations I should take? Thanks in advance!

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  • Win32 DLL importing issues (DllMain)

    - by brady
    I have a native DLL that is a plug-in to a different application (one that I have essentially zero control of). Everything works just great until I link with an additional .lib file (links my DLL to another DLL named ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll). This file contains some additional API from the parent application that I would like to utilize. I haven't even written any code to use any of the functions exported but just linking in this new DLL is causing problems. Specifically I get the following error when I attempt to run the program: The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000025). Clock on OK to terminate the application. I believe I have read somewhere that this is typically due to a DllMain function returning FALSE. Also, the following message is written to the standard output: ERROR: Memory allocation attempted before component initialization I am almost 100% sure this error message is coming from the application and is not some type of Windows error. Looking into this a little more (aka flailing around and flipping every switch I know of) I linked with /MAP turned on and found this in the resulting .map file: 0001:000af220 ??3@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0220 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af226 ??2@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b0226 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af22c ??_U@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b022c f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af232 ??_V@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0232 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll If I undecorate those names using "undname" they give the following (same order): void __cdecl operator delete(void * __ptr64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new(unsigned __int64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new[](unsigned __int64) void __cdecl operator delete[](void * __ptr64) I am not sure I understand how anything from ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll can exist within this .map file or why my DLL is even attempting to load ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll if I don't have any code that references this DLL. Can anyone help me put this information together and find out why this isn't working? For what it's worth I have confirmed via "dumpbin" that the parent application imports the same DLL (ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll), so it is being loaded no matter what. I have also tried delay loading this DLL in my DLL but that did not change the results.

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  • Entity Framework and differences between Contains between SQL and objects using ToLower

    - by John Ptacek
    I have run into an "issue" I am not quite sure I understand with Entity Framework. I am using Entity Framework 4 and have tried to utilize a TDD approach. As a result, I recently implemented a search feature using a Repository pattern. For my test project, I am implementing my repository interface and have a set of "fake" object data I am using for test purposes. I ran into an issue trying to get the Contains clause to work for case invariant search. My code snippet for both my test and the repository class used against the database is as follows: if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(Description)) { items = items.Where(r => r.Description.ToLower().Contains(Description.ToLower())); } However, when I ran my test cases the results where not populated if my case did not match the underlying data. I tried looking into what I thought was an issue for a while. To clear my mind, I went for a run and wondered if the same code with EF would work against a SQL back end database, since SQL will explicitly support the like command and it executed as I expected, using the same logic. I understand why EF against the database back end supports the Contains clause. However, I was surprised that my unit tests did not. Any ideas why other than the SQL server support of the like clause when I use objects I populate in a collection instead of against the database server? Thanks! John

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  • xstream and ibm j9 sdk incompatibilities on linux

    - by Yoni
    I encountered an incompatibility with xstream and IBM J9 jdk (the 32bits version). Everything worked fine when I used sun jdk but fails on IBM jdk (on linux only. on windows it's ok with both jdks). When debugging, the error appears to be that xstream uses a java.util.TreeSet internally but the set's iterator returns elements in the wrong order (I know this sounds very strange, but this is the behavior that I saw). Googling for related bugs didn't give any meaningful results I tried upgrading pretty much any component possible but no luck. I tried the following configurations: ibm jdk 1.6 SR 7 (bundled with WebSphere 7.0.0.9), xstream 1.2.2 ibm jdk 1.6 SR 8, xstream 1.2.2 ibm jdk 1.6 SR 8, xstream 1.3.1 (I tried those both with tomcat and with WebSphere server, so actually there are 6 configurations using IBM jdk). The code in question is in class com.thoughtworks.xstream.core.DefaultConverterLookup, around line 44. It uses an iterator from class com.thoughtworks.xstream.core.util.PrioritizedList, which uses a custom comparator, but all the comparator does is compare integers (the priorities). Has anyone seen this before? Any idea what can I do or change?

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  • C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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