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  • Powershell 2.0 Hang When Run From MsDeploy pre- post- ops using c/

    - by SonOfNun
    I am trying to invoke powershell during the preSync call in a MSDeploy command, but powershell does not exit the process after it has been called. The command (from command line): "tools/MSDeploy/msdeploy.exe" -verb:sync -preSync:runCommand="powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command C:/MyInstallPath/deploy.ps1 Set-WebAppOffline Uninstall-Service ",waitInterval=60000 -usechecksum -source:dirPath="build/for-deployment" -dest:wmsvc=BLUEPRINT-X86,username=deployer,password=deployer,dirPath=C:/MyInstallPath I used a hack here (http://therightstuff.de/2010/02/06/How-We-Practice-Continuous-Integration-And-Deployment-With-MSDeploy.aspx) that gets the powershell process and kills it but that didn't work. I also tried taskkill and the sysinternals equivalent, but nothing will kill the process so that MSDeploy errors out. The command is executed, but then just sits there. Any ideas what might be causing powershell to hang like this? I have found a few other similar issues around the web but no answers. Environment is Win 2K3, using Powershell 2.0. UPDATE: Here is a .vbs script I use to invoke my powershell command now. Invoke using 'cscript.exe path/to/script.vbs': Option Explicit Dim oShell, appCmd,oShellExec Set oShell = CreateObject("WScript.Shell") appCmd = "powershell.exe -NoLogo -NoProfile -NonInteractive -ExecutionPolicy Unrestricted -Command ""&{ . c:/development/materialstesting/deploy/web/deploy.ps1; Set-WebAppOffline }"" " Set oShellExec = oShell.Exec(appCmd) oShellExec.StdIn.Close()

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  • Bilinear interpolation - DirectX vs. GDI+

    - by holtavolt
    I have a C# app for which I've written GDI+ code that uses Bitmap/TextureBrush rendering to present 2D images, which can have various image processing functions applied. This code is a new path in an application that mimics existing DX9 code, and they share a common library to perform all vector and matrix (e.g. ViewToWorld/WorldToView) operations. My test bed consists of DX9 output images that I compare against the output of the new GDI+ code. A simple test case that renders to a viewport that matches the Bitmap dimensions (i.e. no zoom or pan) does match pixel-perfect (no binary diff) - but as soon as the image is zoomed up (magnified), I get very minor differences in 5-10% of the pixels. The magnitude of the difference is 1 (occasionally 2)/256. I suspect this is due to interpolation differences. Question: For a DX9 ortho projection (and identity world space), with a camera perpendicular and centered on a textured quad, is it reasonable to expect DirectX.Direct3D.TextureFilter.Linear to generate identical output to a GDI+ TextureBrush filled rectangle/polygon when using the System.Drawing.Drawing2D.InterpolationMode.Bilinear setting? For this (magnification) case, the DX9 code is using this (MinFilter,MipFilter set similarly): Device.SetSamplerState(0, SamplerStageStates.MagFilter, (int)TextureFilter.Linear); and the GDI+ path is using: g.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.Bilinear; I thought that "Bilinear Interpolation" was a fairly specific filter definition, but then I noticed that there is another option in GDI+ for "HighQualityBilinear" (which I've tried, with no difference - which makes sense given the description of "added prefiltering for shrinking") Followup Question: Is it reasonable to expect pixel-perfect output matching between DirectX and GDI+ (assuming all external coordinates passed in are equal)? If not, why not? Finally, there are a number of other APIs I could be using (Direct2D, WPF, GDI, etc.) - and this question generally applies to comparing the output of "equivalent" bilinear interpolated output images across any two of these. Thanks!

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  • Which to use, XMP or RDF?

    - by zotty
    What's the difference between RDF and XMP? From what I can tell, XMP is derived from RDF... so what does it offer that RDF doesn't? My particular situation is this: I've got some images which need tagging with details of how an experiment was performed, and what sort of data analysis has been performed on the images. A colleague of mine is pushing for XMP, but he's thinking of the images as photos - they're not really, they're just bits of data. From what I've seen (mainly by opening images in notepad++) the XMP data looks very similar to RDF - even so far as using RDF in the tag names (e.g. <rdf:Seq>). I'd like this data to be usable by other people who use similar instruments for similar experiments, so creating a mini standard (schema?) seems like the way to go. Apologies for the lack of fundemental understanding - I'm a Doctor, not a programmer! If it makes any difference, the language of choice will be C#. Edit for more information: First off, thanks for the excellent replies - thinking of XMP as a vocabulary for RDF makes things a lot clearer. The sort of data I'll be storing wont be avaliable in any of the pre-defined sets. It'll detail experimental set ups, locations and results. I think using RDF is the way to go.

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  • jndi binding on jboss4.2.3 and ejb3

    - by broschb
    I am trying to deploy a stateless ejb on jboss 4.2.3 using ejb3 annotations. Everything builds and deploys correctly, and I do not get any errors when jboss starts up. However the ejb is not getting bound to any JNDI location for lookup when I look at the bindings in jboss. Below is what I have for my ejb. Remote @Remote public interface TestWebService { public String TestWebMethod(String param1, String param2); } Stateless EJB @Stateless @RemoteBinding(jndiBinding="TestWeb") @Remote(TestWebService.class) public class TestWebServiceBean implements TestWebService{ public String TestWebMethod(String param1, String param2) { System.out.println("HELLO "+param1+" "+param2); return "Welcome!!"; } } I have tried not having the @Remote and @RemoteBinding and it doesn't make a difference. I have also added and ejb-jar.xml file (which should not be needed with ejb3) and that does not appear to make a difference. Below is the output I see in the jboss log on startup. installing MBean: jboss.j2ee:ear=ejb_web_service_ear-0.0.1- SNAPSHOT.ear,jar=ejb_web_service-0.0.1-SNAPSHOT.jar,name=TestWebServiceBean,service=EJB3 with dependencies: 21:56:00,633 INFO [EJBContainer] STARTED EJB: com.tomax.ejb.TestWebServiceBean ejbName: TestWebServiceBean

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  • IBOutlet instances are (null) after loading from NIB

    - by Zach
    I am working on an iPhone app and am getting (null) references to IBOutlet fields in my controller. I have a UIViewController subclass that is set as the File's Owner in my XIB. I have a set of UI elements that are wired into the controller. After loading from NIB and attempting to set properties on those UI elements, I find that they are (null). To clarify, some code: ExpandSearchPageController.h: @interface ExpandSearchPageController : UIViewController { IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; } -(void)checkTextField; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UITextView * completeMessageView; ExpandSearchPageController.m: @implementation ExpandSearchPageController @synthesize completeMessageView; -(void)checkTextField { NSLog(@"text field: %@",completeMessageView); } ExpandSearchPageController is set as the File's Owner for ExpandSearchPage.xib. ExpandSearchPage.xib's UITextView is wired to the completeMessageView. When I call ExpandSearchPageController * searchExpanderPage = [[ExpandSearchPageController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ExpandSearchPage" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [searchExpanderPage checkTextField]; the result is "text field: (null)" Sorry if this is a total newb question, but I guess I'm still a newb at iPhone programming! Thanks in advance!

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  • Extract 2 numbers preceded with two different strings in a paragrapf using TCL Regular Expression

    - by Madhu
    Hi, I need to extract two different numbers preceded by two different strings. Employee Id-- Employee16(I need 16) and Employee links-- Employee links:2 (I need 2). Source String looks like following: Employee16, Employee name is QueenRose Working for 46w0d Billing is Distributed 65537 assigned tasks, 0 reordered, 0 unassigned 0 discarded, 0 lost received, 5/255 load received sequence unavailable, 0xC2E7 sent sequence Employee links: 2 active, 0 inactive (max not set, min not set) Dt3/5/10:0, since 46w0d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:10, since 21w0d, no tasks rcvd Employee is currently working in Hardware section. Employee19, Employee name is Edward11 Working for 48w4d Billing is Distributed 206801498 assigned tasks, 0 reordered, 0 unassigned 655372 discarded, 0 lost received, 9/255 load received sequence unavailable, 0x23CA sent sequence Employee links: 7 active, 0 inactive (max not set, min not set) Dt3/5/10:0, since 47w2d, tasks pending Dt3/5/10:10, since 28w6d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:11, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:12, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:13, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:14, since 18w4d, no tasks pending Dt3/5/10:15, since 7w2d, no tasks pending Employee is currently working in Hardware sectione. Employee6 (inactive) Employee links: 2 Dt3/5/10:0 (inactive) Dt3/5/10:10 (inactive) Employee7 (inactive) Employee links: 2 Dt3/5/10:0 (inactive) Dt3/5/10:10 (inactive) Tried with the following: Multilink(\d+)[^\n\r]*[^M]*Member links:\s+(\d+) But is not listing all the Ids and links. Can anybody help me getting this? Thanks in advance, Madhu.

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  • Hide table rows if Cookie is there

    - by kuswantin
    Based on my previous question here and here, I found that I can set a cookie with javascript. I want to combine it with jquery to have a cookie state set for toggled table rows. I want to keep the hidden rows hidden upon reload. Here is what I have achieved so far: // Load cookies if any if(readCookie('togState')) { $('table#toggle tr.' + readCookie('togState')).hide(); } $(function() { $('table#toggle tr.container').click(function() { var idTog = $(this).attr('id'); $(this).toggleClass('off').nextAll('.' + idTog).toggle(); setCookie('togState', idTog, 30); alert('Cookies: ' + readCookie('togState')); }); }); As you can see the cookie is read, but is not set upon browser refresh. What am I doing wrong? What I want is hide any toggled rows (having their classes equal to their parent's container ID), if the parent container is clicked, and so the cookie is set. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Programming methods design phase assignment

    - by Shakir
    Hey, i have an assignment (NCC) which deals with the design phase. The Scenario is that you have four soccer divisions (divisions 1,2,3 and 4) which consist of 22 teams each and hence each team plays 42 games (home and away). The concept is similar to the barclays premier league whereby ranking is based on points or else goal difference or else goals scored by team. The difference is that the top 2 teams are promoted and the bottom 2 are relegated and this includes Div 1 and Div 4 as the top 2 of Div1 are promoted to the national league which is above division 1 regional league and bottom 2 of Div4 are relegated to the local league below Division 4 regional league. Hence there are 3 total leagues and 4 divisions in the regional league (which has 22 teams each). Now the referee has to add the result of the match and thus automatic tables have to be generated now, There are two reports League Tables for 4 divisions List of all results for any chosen team during the season by date it was played on There are a couple of things to be done... i know its gonna be terrible to make everything but atleast explain to me how i should go about drawing these and what things i should include (generally) Logical Data Structure Diagram (DSD) for each report Preliminary Program Structure (PSD) for each report Detailed Program Specification for each report Flowchart for each report There are other things but i think our teacher will give us clear "clues" for it Thanks a lot Update - Project so far: Data Structure Diagram Preliminary Program Structure

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  • Auto-implemented getters and setters vs. public fields

    - by tclem
    I see a lot of example code for C# classes that does this: public class Point { public int x { get; set; } public int y { get; set; } } Or, in older code, the same with an explicit private backing value and without the new auto-implemented properties: public class Point { private int _x; private int _y; public int x { get { return _x; } set { _x = value; } } public int y { get { return _y; } set { _y = value; } } } My question is why. Is there any functional difference between doing the above and just making these members public fields, like below? public class Point { public int x; public int y; } To be clear, I understand the value of getters and setters when you need to do some translation of the underlying data. But in cases where you're just passing the values through, it seems needlessly verbose.

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  • Mail "Can't continue" for a AppleScript function

    - by Paul J. Lucas
    I'm trying to write an AppleScript for use with Mail (on Snow Leopard) to save image attachments of messages to a folder. The main part of the AppleScript is: property ImageExtensionList : {"jpg", "jpeg"} property PicturesFolder : path to pictures folder as text property SaveFolderName : "Fetched" property SaveFolder : PicturesFolder & SaveFolderName tell application "Mail" set theMessages to the selection repeat with theMessage in theMessages repeat with theAttachment in every mail attachment of theMessage set attachmentFileName to theAttachment's name if isImageFileName(attachmentFileName) then set attachmentPathName to SaveFolder & attachmmentFileName save theAttachment in getNonexistantFile(attachmentPathName) end if end repeat end repeat end tell on isImageFileName(theFileName) set dot to offset of "." in theFileName if dot > 0 then set theExtension to text (dot + 1) thru -1 of theFileName return theExtension is in ImageExtensionList end if return false end isImageFileName When run, I get the error: error "Mail got an error: Can’t continue isImageFileName." number -1708 where error -1708 is: Event wasnt handled by an Apple event handler. However, if I copy/paste the isImageFileName() into another script like: property imageExtensionList : {"jpg", "jpeg"} on isImageFileName(theFileName) set dot to offset of "." in theFileName if dot > 0 then set theExtension to text (dot + 1) thru -1 of theFileName return theExtension is in ImageExtensionList end if return false end isImageFileName if isImageFileName("foo.jpg") then return true else return false end if it works fine. Why does Mail complain about this?

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  • SSIS Transaction with Sql Transaction

    - by Mike
    I started with a package to make sure Transactions are working correctly. The package level transaction is set to Required. I have two Execute Sql Task, one deletes rows from a table and one does 1/0, to throw the error. Both task are set to supported transaction level and Serializable IsolationLevel. That works. Now when I replace my two sql task to two separate procedure calls, the first one, ChargeInterest, runs successful but the second one, PaymentProcess, fails always saying. [Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "Exec [proc_xx_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] ..." failed with the following error: "Uncommittable transaction is detected at the end of the batch. The transaction is rolled back.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. PaymentProcess being the second stored procedure. Both procedures have there own BEGIN, COMMIT AND ROLLBACKS inside the SP. I believe that the transactions are being successfully handed in the Charge Interest because I can run the following without issues or the dreaded you started with 0 and now have 1 transaction. EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 --OR GO BEGIN TRAN EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 ROLLBACK TRAN Now I have noticed that DTC does get kicked off in both instances? Why I am not sure because it is using the same connection. In the live example I can see the transaction get started but disappears if I put a breakpoint on the PreExecute event of the second stored procedure. What is the correct way to mingle SP transactions with SSIS transactions?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Conditional validation

    - by Peter Stegnar
    How to use data annotations to do a conditional validation on model? For example, lets say we have the following model (Person and Senior): public class Person { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")] public string Name { get; set; } public bool IsSenior { get; set; } public Senior Senior { get; set; } } public class Senior { [Required(ErrorMessage = "*")]//this should be conditional validation, based on the "IsSenior" value public string Description { get; set; } } And the following view: <%= Html.EditorFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Name)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.IsSenior)%> <%= Html.CheckBoxFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Senior.Description)%> I would like to be the "Senior.Description" property conditional required field based on the selection of the "IsSenior" propery (true - required). How to implement conditional validation in ASP.NET MVC 2 with data annotations? UPDATE Found nice solution. Look below.

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  • Login problem with php

    - by shinod
    I want to prevent multiple log in with same log in credentials simultaneously. So I made a column login_status and set it to 1 when some one logging in and change to 0 when logging out besides I set session after successful logged in. If user won't click on log out(in case of user close tab or because of some network problem) it doesn't update database and then one can't use that log in credentials again. So I use a ajax call to set current time stamp in database with related log in credentials and it is updated in each 2 minutes if user not navigate from that page. Then if some one attempts to log in with same log in credentials, it will check these time stamp if column login_status is 1, then if the time stamp is older than 3 minutes it allows the log in.Then it solving that problem. But the new problem is if user closes the tab or browser window and after 3 minutes one can log in with same log in credentials from somewhere and if the previous user open that page automatically it will log in as session is already set. How can I prevent this.

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  • Calculating rotation in > 360 deg. situations

    - by danglebrush
    I'm trying to work out a problem I'm having with degrees. I have data that is a list of of angles, in standard degree notation -- e.g. 26 deg. Usually when dealing with angles, if an angle exceeds 360 deg then the angle continues around and effectively "resets" -- i.e. the angle "starts again", e.g. 357 deg, 358 deg, 359 deg, 0 deg, 1 deg, etc. What I want to happen is the degree to continue increasing -- i.e. 357 deg, 358 deg, 359 deg, 360 deg, 361 deg, etc. I want to modify my data so that I have this converted data in it. When numbers approach the 0 deg limit, I want them to become negative -- i.e. 3 deg, 2 deg, 1 deg, 0 deg, -1 deg, -2 deg, etc. With multiples of 360 deg (both positive and negative), I want the degrees to continue, e.g. 720 deg, etc. Any suggestions on what approach to take? There is, no doubt, a frustratingly simple way of doing this, but my current solution is kludgey to say the least .... ! My best attempt to date is to look at the percentage difference between angle n and angle n - 1. If this is a large difference -- e.g. 60% -- then this needs to be modified, by adding or subtracting 360 deg to the current value, depending on the previous angle value. That is, if the previous angle is negative, substract 360, and add 360 if the previous angle is positive. Any suggestions on improving this? Any improvements?

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  • Confused about UIView frame property

    - by slowfungus
    I'm building a prototype iPad app that draws diagrams. I have the following view hierarchy: UIView UIScrollView DiagramView : UIView TabBar NavigationBar And a UIViewController subclass holding all that together. Before drawing the diagram the first time I calculate the dimensions of the diagram, and set the DiagramView frame to that size, and the content size of the scrollview as well. -(void)recalculateBounds { [renderer diagram:diagram shouldDraw:NO]; SQXRect diagramRect = SQXMakeRect(0.0,0.0,[diagram bounds].size.width,[diagram bounds].size.height); self.frame = diagramRect; [(UIScrollView*)[self superview] setContentSize:diagramRect.size]; } I should disclose that the frame is being set to about 1500 x 3500 which i know is ridiculous. I just want to focus on some other parts of the app before I get into optimizing the render code. This works beautifully, except that the rect being passed to drawRect is not the size that I set, and my drawing is getting clipped at the bottom. Its close the size i set, but bigger in width, and shorter in height. Also of note, is the fact that if I force the frame to be much bigger than what I know the diagram needs, then the drawRect:rect is big enough, and no clipping occurs. Of course this has me wondering if the frame size needs to take into account some other screen real estate like the toolbars but my reading of the docs tells me the frame is in superview coordinates, which would be the scrollview so I reckon I need to worry about such things. Any idea what is causing this discrepancy?

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  • Execute Stored Procedure from Classic ASP

    - by Jaco Pretorius
    For some fantastic reason I find myself debugging a problem in a Classic ASP page (at least 10 years of my life lost in the last 2 days). I'm trying to execute a stored procedure which contains some OUT parameters. The problem is that one of the OUT parameters is not being populated when the stored procedure returns. I can execute the stored proc from SQL management studio (this is 2008) and all the values are being set and returned exactly as expected. declare @inVar1 varchar(255) declare @inVar2 varchar(255) declare @outVar1 varchar(255) declare @outVar2 varchar(255) SET @inVar2 = 'someValue' exec theStoredProc @inVar1 , @inVar2 , @outVar1 OUT, @outVar2 OUT print '@outVar1=' + @outVar1 print '@outVar2=' + @outVar2 Works great. Fantastic. Perfect. The exact values that I'm expecting are being returned and printed out. Right, since I'm trying to debug a Classic ASP page I copied the code into a VBScript file to try and narrow down the problem. Here is what I came up with: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open "xxx" Set objCommandSec = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") objCommandSec.ActiveConnection = Conn objCommandSec.CommandType = 4 objCommandSec.CommandText = "theStoredProc " objCommandSec.Parameters.Refresh objCommandSec.Parameters(2) = "someValue" objCommandSec.Execute MsgBox(objCommandSec.Parameters(3)) Doesn't work. Not even a little bit. (Another ten years of my life down the drain) The third parameter is simply NULL - which is what I'm experiencing in the Classic ASP page as well. Could someone shed some light on this? Am I completely daft for thinking that the classic ASP code would be the same as the VBScript code? I think it's using the same scripting engine and syntax so I should be ok, but I'm not 100% sure. The result I'm seeing from my VBScript is the same as I'm seeing in ASP.

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  • Impossible to remove directory

    - by Mark
    Evidently I've never had to delete a directory using win32 sdk before, because its apparently an impossible task. I've tried anything and everything - RemoveDirectory, SHFileOperation with FO_DELETE, etc. Currently I call CreateDirectory in one thread, start another thread, copy some files to this directory in the new thread, then delete all the files in the directory in the new thread, and then back in the original thread that created the directory, try to delete the now empty directory and it fails. The directory really and truly is empty when I try to delete it, but it makes no difference. The whole thread aspect is irrelevant I think because at one point everything was in one thread and it didn't work. I'm currently setting a SecurityAttributes structure on CreateDirectory to grant access to everyone, but it makes no difference. RemoveDirectory in the past has returned '32' on GetLastError, which I believe is Sharing violation. But even if I just try to delete the empty directory from the command line, it refuses saying, "The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process." until I shut down the entire application that created the directory. (Note: the directory is created in GetTempPath.)

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  • Some clarification needed about synchronous versus asynchronous asio operations

    - by Old newbie
    As far as I know, the main difference between synchronous and asynchronous operations. I.e. write() or read() vs async_write() and async_read() is that the former, don't return until the operation finish -or error-, and the last ones, returns inmediately. Due the fact that the asynchronous operations are controlled by an io_service.run() that does not finish until the controlled operations has finalized. It seems to me that in sequencial operations as those involved in TCP/IP connections with protocols such as POP3, in which the operaton is a sequence such as: C: <connect> S: Ok. C: User... S: Ok. C: Password S: Ok. C: Command S: answer C: Command S: answer ... C: bye S: <close> The difference between synchronous/asynchronous opperatons does not make much sense. Of course, in both operations there is allways the risk that the program flow stops indefinitely by some circunstance -there the use of timers-, but I would like know some more authorized opinions in this matter. I must admit that the question is rather ill-defined, but I like hear some advices about when use one or other, because I've problems in debugging with MS Visual Studio, asynchronous SSL operations in a POP3 client in wich I'm working now -about some of who surely I would write here soon-, and sometimes think that perhaps is a bad idea use asynchronous in this. Not to say that I'm an absolute newbie with this librarys, that additionally to the difficult with the idioma, and some obscure concepts in the STL, must suffer the brevity of the asio documentation.

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  • MySQL default value based on view

    - by Jake
    Basically I have a bunch of views based on a simple discriminator column (eg. CREATE VIEW tablename AS SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE discrcolumn = "discriminator value"). Upon inserting a new row into this view, it should insert "discriminator value" into discrcolumn. I tried this, but apparently MySQL doesn't figure this out itself, as it throws an error "Field of view viewname underlying table does not have a default value". The discriminator column is set to NOT NULL of course. How do I mend this? Perhaps a pre-insert trigger? UPDATE: Triggers won't work on views, see below comment. Would it work to create a trigger on the table which uses a variable, and set that variable at establishing the connection? For each connection the value of that variable would be the same, but it could differ from other connections. EDIT: This appears to work... Setup: CREATE TRIGGER insert_[tablename] BEFORE INSERT ON [tablename] FOR EACH ROW SET NEW.[discrcolumn] = @variable Runtime: SET @variable = [descrvalue]; INSERT INTO [viewname] ([columnlist]) VALUES ([values]);

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  • help me to choose between two software architecture

    - by alex
    // stupid title, but I could not think anything smarter I have a code (see below, sorry for long code but it's very-very simple): namespace Option1 { class AuxClass1 { string _field1; public string Field1 { get { return _field1; } set { _field1 = value; } } // another fields. maybe many fields maybe several properties public void Method1() { // some action } public void Method2() { // some action 2 } } class MainClass { AuxClass1 _auxClass; public AuxClass1 AuxClass { get { return _auxClass; } set { _auxClass = value; } } public MainClass() { _auxClass = new AuxClass1(); } } } namespace Option2 { class AuxClass1 { string _field1; public string Field1 { get { return _field1; } set { _field1 = value; } } // another fields. maybe many fields maybe several properties public void Method1() { // some action } public void Method2() { // some action 2 } } class MainClass { AuxClass1 _auxClass; public string Field1 { get { return _auxClass.Field1; } set { _auxClass.Field1 = value; } } public void Method1() { _auxClass.Method1(); } public void Method2() { _auxClass.Method2(); } public MainClass() { _auxClass = new AuxClass1(); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { // Option1 Option1.MainClass mainClass1 = new Option1.MainClass(); mainClass1.AuxClass.Field1 = "string1"; mainClass1.AuxClass.Method1(); mainClass1.AuxClass.Method2(); // Option2 Option2.MainClass mainClass2 = new Option2.MainClass(); mainClass2.Field1 = "string2"; mainClass2.Method1(); mainClass2.Method2(); Console.ReadKey(); } } What option (option1 or option2) do you prefer ? In which cases should I use option1 or option2 ? Is there any special name for option1 or option2 (composition, aggregation) ?

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  • How to access a TextView element in a BroadcastReceiver

    - by ric03uec
    Hello, I am testing a simple widget in android and using Alarms to update a TextView at regular intervals. The problem is that in the BroadcastReceiver class I cannot access the TextView element, which I want to get updated when the alarm expires. The class is being called properly because the Toast i have put there is giving the appropriate message. The following code is from the class where I configure the widget and set the timers. public void onCreate(Bundle bundle) { super.onCreate(bundle); Intent intent = getIntent(); Bundle extras = intent.getExtras(); if(extras != null){ mWidgetId = extras.getInt(AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID); AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(WidgetConfigure.this); RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(WidgetConfigure.this.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget_layout); views.setTextViewText(R.id.quote, "Widget Loaded From Activity"); appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(mWidgetId, views); setTimer(); //set the timers... setResult();// set the result... } } Now i want to update the same TextView when the BroadCastReceiver is called after the timer expires. I have tried the code provided in the ExampleAppWidget example provided in android api demos and that isnt working out. How can i set the required text? Thankx in advance

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  • Excel VBA ComboBox2 doesn't get the right content

    - by Marc
    Hi, I'm having a problem with the content of a combobox. On my userform, there are 3 comboboxes. Depending on the chosen item from combobox1, combobox2 should display either set 1 or set 2. The same will be happening with the content of combobox 3, which depends upon the combination of chosen items from combobox 1 and 2. However, I'm running into problems with combobox 2, which is always populated by set 2, even if I select the item in combobox 1 that should generate set 1 in the second combobox. This is the code I used: Private Sub UserForm_Initialize() With ComboBox1 .Clear .AddItem "In contrast" .AddItem "Eng?" .AddItem "Trillers" .AddItem "Natuur(lijk)" .AddItem "Muziektrafiek" End With If ComboBox1.Value = "In contrast" Then GoTo LineComboBox1Set1 End If If ComboBox1.Value = "Eng?" Then GoTo LineComboBox1set2 End If If ComboBox1.Value = "Trillers" Then GoTo LineComboBox1set2 End If If ComboBox1.Value = "Natuur(lijk)" Then GoTo LineComboBox1set2 End If If ComboBox1.Value = "Muziektrafiek" Then GoTo LineComboBox1set2 End If LineComboBox1Set1: With ComboBox2 .Clear .AddItem "Op verkenning" .AddItem "Gehoord? Gezien?" .AddItem "On stage" .AddItem "Creabende" .AddItem "Ingeblikt" End With LineComboBox1set2: With ComboBox2 .Clear .AddItem "Op verkenning" .AddItem "Gehoord? Gezien?" .AddItem "On stage" .AddItem "Creabende" .AddItem "Ingeblikt" .AddItem "Speak up" .AddItem "In de kijker" End With Can anyone help me on this one? Thanks a lot in advance!! Kind regards, Marc

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  • SQL query recursion for a web-like structure

    - by MickeyD
    I have a table here, named "Foo". The data is set up something like this. ID TableReference DataId0 DataId1 DataId2 -- -------------- ------- ------- ------- 1 Prize 3 4 5 2 Prize 4 5 NULL 3 Cash 1 NULL NULL 4 Prize 8 NULL 12 5 Foo 2 3 NULL 6 Cash 8 1 10 7 Foo 5 1 2 Etc. The data is horribly set up, I know, but I didn't set it up that way. :) I'm only dealing with the after effect. I'm trying to come up with a way to essentially "flatten" the table; that is, to display all the data to a point where the table "Foo" does not reference itself. I'm trying to figure out a sql query that I can do to get there. Usually when I deal with recursion, I have (or can establish) parent IDs and set it up that way, but for this table there are seemingly multiple child and parent IDs creating a web-like structure instead of a hierarchy. So I'm at a loss where to even begin to write a sql query for something like this. Note: There is no infinite looping (where one Foo points to another Foo, which points back to the original Foo) from what I've found. Using t-sql. Thanks for any assistance, if at all possible.

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  • Alpha animation bug on button

    - by RaiderJ
    I have animations that fade in a Button (alpha from 0 to 1) and fade out a button (alpha from 1 to 0). This part is all working fine. Button A triggers the fade in of Button B. Button B triggers the fade out of itself. Button B totally covers up Button A. The idea is that Button B contains an image that is used like an information popup. Button A is touched and Button B fades in on top. When Button B is touched it fades itself out again. Initially, Button B's visibility is set INVISIBLE and when the fade in animation is complete, it is set to VISIBLE. When Button B is clicked it fades out and then I set the visibility to INVISIBLE. The problem is that after Button B has faded out, and it is set INVISIBLE, it is still clickable and even though it is not visible, and touches are not received by Button A. I have tried removing Button B from the parent and re-adding it after the animation is completed, and this allows for touches to reach Button A, but only once. After that button B is not longer touchable.

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  • Creating a Function in SQL Server with a Phone Number as a parameter and returns a Random Number

    - by Emer
    Hi Guys, I am hoping someone can help me here as google is not being as forthcoming as I would have liked. I am relatively new to SQL Server and so this is the first function I have set myself to do. The outline of the function is that it has a Phone number varchar(15) as a parameter, it checks that this number is a proper number, i.e. it is 8 digits long and contains only numbers. The main character I am trying to avoid is '+'. Good Number = 12345678 Bad Number = +12345678. Once the number is checked I would like to produce a random number for each phone number that is passed in. I have looked at substrings, the like operator, Rand(), left(), Right() in order to search through the number and then produce a random number. I understand that Rand() will produce the same random number unless alterations are done to it but right now it is about actually getting some working code. Any hints on this would be great or even point me towards some more documentation. I have read books online and they haven't helped me, maybe I am not looking in the right places. Here is a snippet of code I was working on the Rand declare @Phone Varchar (15) declare @Counter Varchar (1) declare @NewNumber Varchar(15) set @Phone = '12345678' set @Counter = len(@Phone) while @Counter > 0 begin select case when @Phone like '%[0-9]%' then cast(rand()*100000000 as int) else 'Bad Number' end set @counter = @counter - 1 end return Thanks for the help in advance Emer

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