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  • In M-V-VM where does my code go?

    - by Nate Bross
    So, this is a pretty basic question I hope. I have a web service that I've added through Add Service Reference. It has some methods to get list and get detail of a perticular table in my database. What I'm trying to do is setup a UI as follows: App Load Load service proxy Call the GetList(); method display the results in a ListBox control User Double Clicks item in ListBox, display a modal dialog with a "detail" view I'm extremely new to using MVVM, so any help would be greatly appreciated. Additional information: // Service Interface (simplification): interface IService { IEnumerable<MyObject> GetList(); MyObject GetDetail(int id); } // Data object (simplification) class MyObject { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } I'm thinking I should have something like this: MainWindow MyObjectViewUserControl Displays list Opens modal window on double click Specific Questions: What would my ViewModel class look like? Where does the code to handle the double click go? Inside the UserControl? Sorry for the long details, but I'm very new to the whole thing and I'm not educated enough to ask the right questions. I checked out the MVVM Sample from wpf.codeplex.com and something isn't quite clicking for me yet, because it seems very confusing.

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  • Is std::move really needed on initialization list of constructor for heavy members passed by value?

    - by PiotrNycz
    Recently I read an example from cppreference.../vector/emplace_back: struct President { std::string name; std::string country; int year; President(std::string p_name, std::string p_country, int p_year) : name(std::move(p_name)), country(std::move(p_country)), year(p_year) { std::cout << "I am being constructed.\n"; } My question: is this std::move really needed? My point is that compiler sees that this p_name is not used in the body of constructor, so, maybe, there is some rule to use move semantics for it by default? That would be really annoying to add std::move on initialization list to every heavy member (like std::string, std::vector). Imagine hundreds of KLOC project written in C++03 - shall we add everywhere this std::move? This question: move-constructor-and-initialization-list answer says: As a golden rule, whenever you take something by rvalue reference, you need to use it inside std::move, and whenever you take something by universal reference (i.e. deduced templated type with &&), you need to use it inside std::forward But I am not sure: passing by value is rather not universal reference?

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  • link clickable and wordwrap

    - by newinjs
    hi, i'm using php wordwrap for my comment box. This is my clickable function, function clickable_link($text) { $ret = ' ' . $text; $ret = preg_replace("#(^|[\n ])([\w]+?://[\w\#$%&~/.\-;:=,?@\[\]+]*)#is", "\\1<a class=\"hrefLink\" href=\"\\2\" target=\"_blank\">\\2</a>", $ret); $ret = preg_replace("#(^|[\n ])((www|ftp)\.[\w\#$%&~/.\-;:=,?@\[\]+]*)#is", "\\1<a class=\"hrefLink\" href=\"http://\\2\" target=\"_blank\">\\2</a>", $ret); $ret = preg_replace("#(^|[\n ])([a-z0-9&\-_.]+?)@([\w\-]+\.([\w\-\.]+\.)*[\w]+)#i", "\\1<a href=\"mailto:\\2@\\3\">\\2@\\3</a>", $ret); $ret = substr($ret, 1); return $ret; } and this is my wordwrap for comment $comment = clickable_link($comment); $comment = wordwrap($comment, 25, "\n", false); so, once the word limit for 25 is reached, my comment box break my link http://www.websitetitle.com/showthread.php?t=2000 link become like this http://www.websitetitle.com/showthread.php? <br> t=2000 The link is broken. so is it possible to fix the link or any other workaround? Thank you

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  • Java Concurrency in practice sample question

    - by andy boot
    I am reading "Java Concurrency in practice" and looking at the example code on page 51. This states that if a thread has references to a shared object then other threads may be able to access that object before the constructor has finished executing. I have tried to put this into practice and so I wrote this code thinking that if I ran it enough times a RuntimeException("World is f*cked") would occur. But it isn't doing. Is this a case of the Java spec not guaranting something but my particular implementation of java guaranteeing it for me? (java version: 1.5.0 on Ubuntu) Or have I misread something in the book? Code: (I expect an exception but it is never thrown) public class Threads { private Widgit w; public static void main(String[] s) throws Exception { while(true){ Threads t = new Threads(); t.runThreads(); } } private void runThreads() throws Exception{ new Checker().start(); w = new Widgit((int)(Math.random() * 100) + 1); } private class Checker extends Thread{ private static final int LOOP_TIMES = 1000; public void run() { int count = 0; for(int i = 0; i < LOOP_TIMES; i++){ try { w.checkMe(); count++; } catch(NullPointerException npe){ //ignore } } System.out.println("checked: "+count+" times out of "+LOOP_TIMES); } } private static class Widgit{ private int n; private int n2; Widgit(int n) throws InterruptedException{ this.n = n; Thread.sleep(2); this.n2 = n; } void checkMe(){ if (n != n2) { throw new RuntimeException("World is f*cked"); } } } }

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  • Multiple exports with MEF does some really heinous stuff -- why, and why is it allowed?

    - by Dave
    I have an interesting situation where I need to do something like this: [Export[typeof(ICandy1)] [Export[typeof(ICandy2)] public class Candy : ICandy2 { ... } where public interface ICandy1 { ... } public interface ICandy2 : ICandy1 { ... } I couldn't find any posts anywhere regarding using multiple [Export] attributes, so I figured, what the hell, might as well try it. At first glance, it actually seemed to work. I have a couple of methods that call into both interfaces of a Candy instance, and it was fine. However, as I started to test the app, I saw that the behavior wasn't right, and when looking at the Output window, I saw that I was getting tons of COMExceptions. I couldn't track down where they were all coming from, but they always occurred when a worker thread was sleeping. I figured that it had to be from the main thread, then, but didn't know how to debug this at all. Nothing should have been going on in the GUI, and I disabled my DispatchTimers just in case -- same thing. Even more strange than the COMExceptions was the really, really erratic behavior when stepping through code. About 30% of the time, when I single stepped, it would pop out of the method, or it would single step over two lines of code! Totally weird stuff that I am not used to seeing. The only thing that changed between working and non-working code was the introduction of MEF through my plugin loading code. So as a test, I changed my plugin assembly to only export one interface, and I hardcoded everything in the app that relied on the other (now not-implemented) interface. And now the COMExceptions are gone, and the weird debugging behavior is gone. Is this something people here have seen before? If MEF is not expected to allow a class to Export multiple interfaces, then shouldn't a CompositionException get raised when composing the parts? Can anyone explain why MEF would cause these weird problems???

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  • Animate screen while loading textures

    - by Omega
    My RPG-like game has random battles. When the player enters a random battle, it is necessary for my game to load the textures used within that battle (animated monsters, animations, etc). The textures are quite a lot, and rather big (the battles are very graphical intensive). Such process consumes significant time. And while it is loading, the whole screen freezes. The game's map freezes, and the wait time is significant - I personally find it annoying. I can't afford to preload the textures because, after doing some math, I realized: If I preload all the textures at the beginning of the game, the application will definitely crash. If I preload the textures that are used in a specific map when the player enters the map, the application is very likely to crash as well. I can only afford to load the textures when I need them, and dispose of them as soon as the battle ends. I'd prefer to not use a "loading screen" image because it affects my game's design and concept. I want to avoid this approach. If I could do some kind of animation while loading the textures, it would be great, which leads to my question: is that possible? What kind of animation, you ask? Well, how about... you remember when Final Fantasy used to distort the screen while apparently loading the textures? Something like that. But well, distorting is quite a time-consuming process as well, so maybe just a cool frame-by-frame animation or something. While writing this, I realized that I could make small pauses between textures (there are multiple textures), and during such pauses, I update the screen to represent the animation's state. However, this is very unlikely to happen, because each texture is 2048x2048, so the animation would be refreshed at a rather laggy (and annoying) rate. I'd prefer to avoid this as well.

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  • Can you stop a defered callback in jquery 1.5?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am wondering say you have something like this // Assign handlers immediately after making the request, // and remember the jqxhr object for this request var jqxhr = $.ajax({ url: "example.php" }) .success(function(response) { alert("success"); }) // perform other work here ... // Set another success function for the request above jqxhr.success(function(response){ alert("second success"); }); So I am thinking this. I have a general function that I want to use on all my responses that would be passed into my success. This function basically does a check to see if the server validation found any errors. If it did they it formats it and displays a message. Now I am wondering if I could some how have the second success function to then do specific stuff. Like say One ajax request needs to add a row into a table. So this should be possible. I just do what I have above and in the second success I just add the row. Is it possible though that if the first success runs through and see that there are validation errors from the server that I can stop the second success from happening? Sort of If(first success finds errors) { // print out errors // don't continue onto next success } else { // go to next success } Edit I found that there is something call deferred.reject and this does stop it but I am wondering how can I specify to stop only the success one. Since my thinking is if there are other deffered ones like complete on it will the be rejected too?

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  • Planning and coping with deadlines in SCRUM

    - by John
    From wikipedia: During each “sprint”, typically a two to four week period (with the length being decided by the team), the team creates a potentially shippable product increment (for example, working and tested software). The set of features that go into a sprint come from the product “backlog,” which is a prioritized set of high level requirements of work to be done. Which backlog items go into the sprint is determined during the sprint planning meeting. During this meeting, the Product Owner informs the team of the items in the product backlog that he or she wants completed. The team then determines how much of this they can commit to complete during the next sprint. During a sprint, no one is allowed to change the sprint backlog, which means that the requirements are frozen for that sprint. After a sprint is completed, the team demonstrates the use of the software. I was reading this and two questions immediately popped into my head: 1)If a sprint is only a couple of weeks, decided in a single meeting, how can you accurately plan what can be achieved? High-level tasks can't be estimated accurately in my experience, and can easily double what seems reasonable. As a developer, I hate being pushed into committing what I can deliver in the next month based on a set of customer requirements, this goes against everything I know about generating reliable estimates rather than having to roughly estimate and then double it! 2)Since the requirements are supposed to be locked and a deliverable product available at the end, what happens when something does take twice as long? What if this feature is only 1/2 done at the end of the sprint? The wiki article goes on to talk about Sprint planning, where things are broken down into much smaller tasks for estimation (<1 day) but this is after the Sprint features are already planned and the release agreed, isn't it? kind of like a salesman promising something without consulting the developers.

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  • CSS horizontal scrolling overflow with jQuery slider

    - by Jeffrey
    I'm trying to setup a full screen jquery slider. I've broken the project into two steps 1) css and 2) js. 1) CSS, below is a picture of what I'm shooting for (no fixed height) and below that is the code I have so far that doesn't work. <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <style type="text/css"> /* Positioning */ #container { width: 2500px; } .block { display: inline; } /* Styling */ .block img { padding: 5px; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="container"> <div class="block"><img src="http://i42.tinypic.com/1zp2poz.gif"></div> <div class="block"><img src="http://i42.tinypic.com/1zp2poz.gif"></div> <div class="block"><img src="http://i42.tinypic.com/1zp2poz.gif"></div> </div> </body> </html> 2) Javascript, using jquery I'd like the divs to slide left when clicked on them... like the jQuery Coda Slider if possible. Thanks, any help is appreciated.

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  • Python: why does this code take forever (infinite loop?)

    - by Rosarch
    I'm developing an app in Google App Engine. One of my methods is taking never completing, which makes me think it's caught in an infinite loop. I've stared at it, but can't figure it out. Disclaimer: I'm using http://code.google.com/p/gaeunitlink text to run my tests. Perhaps it's acting oddly? This is the problematic function: def _traverseForwards(course, c_levels): ''' Looks forwards in the dependency graph ''' result = {'nodes': [], 'arcs': []} if c_levels == 0: return result model_arc_tails_with_course = set(_getListArcTailsWithCourse(course)) q_arc_heads = DependencyArcHead.all() for model_arc_head in q_arc_heads: for model_arc_tail in model_arc_tails_with_course: if model_arc_tail.key() in model_arc_head.tails: result['nodes'].append(model_arc_head.sink) result['arcs'].append(_makeArc(course, model_arc_head.sink)) # rec_result = _traverseForwards(model_arc_head.sink, c_levels - 1) # _extendResult(result, rec_result) return result Originally, I thought it might be a recursion error, but I commented out the recursion and the problem persists. If this function is called with c_levels = 0, it runs fine. The models it references: class Course(db.Model): dept_code = db.StringProperty() number = db.IntegerProperty() title = db.StringProperty() raw_pre_reqs = db.StringProperty(multiline=True) original_description = db.StringProperty() def getPreReqs(self): return pickle.loads(str(self.raw_pre_reqs)) def __repr__(self): return "%s %s: %s" % (self.dept_code, self.number, self.title) class DependencyArcTail(db.Model): ''' A list of courses that is a pre-req for something else ''' courses = db.ListProperty(db.Key) def equals(self, arcTail): for this_course in self.courses: if not (this_course in arcTail.courses): return False for other_course in arcTail.courses: if not (other_course in self.courses): return False return True class DependencyArcHead(db.Model): ''' Maintains a course, and a list of tails with that course as their sink ''' sink = db.ReferenceProperty() tails = db.ListProperty(db.Key) Utility functions it references: def _makeArc(source, sink): return {'source': source, 'sink': sink} def _getListArcTailsWithCourse(course): ''' returns a LIST, not SET there may be duplicate entries ''' q_arc_heads = DependencyArcHead.all() result = [] for arc_head in q_arc_heads: for key_arc_tail in arc_head.tails: model_arc_tail = db.get(key_arc_tail) if course.key() in model_arc_tail.courses: result.append(model_arc_tail) return result Am I missing something pretty obvious here, or is GAEUnit acting up?

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  • Querying calender events even if they do not have any for the day

    - by StealthRT
    Hey everyone, i am trying to figure out a way of query my mysql server so that even if a company does not have anything posted for the day the user clicks on their logo, it still adds them to the list. That sounds a little confusing so let me try to explain it another way. Say i have 3 company's in my database: Comp1 Comp2 Comp3 And Comp1 & Comp3 have something for today on the calender but Comp2 does not. I still need it to populate and place that company on the page but have something along the lines of "nothing on the calender for today". The other 2 companys (Comp1 & Comp3) would show the calender posting for that day. This is the code i have right now: SELECT clientinfo.id, clientinfo.theCompName, clientinfo.theURL, clientinfo.picURL, clientinfo.idNumber, clientoffers.idNumber, clientoffers.theDateStart, clientoffers.theDateEnd FROM clientinfo, clientoffers WHERE clientinfo.accountStats = 'OPEN' AND clientinfo.idNumber = clientinfo.idNumber AND '2010-05-08' BETWEEN clientoffers.theDateStart AND clientoffers.theDateEnd GROUP BY clientinfo.idNumber ORDER BY clientinfo.theCompName ASC That executes just fine but for Comp2, it just places the calender info from Comp1 into it when it really doesn't have anything. The output looks like this: Comp1 | 2010-05-08 | this is the calender event 1 | etc etc Comp2 | 2010-05-08 | this is the calender event 1 | etc etc comp3 | 2010-05-09 | this is the calender event 2 | etc etc Any help would be great :o) David

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  • protect form hijacking hack

    - by Karem
    Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

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  • Java conditional compilation: how to prevent code chunks to be compiled?

    - by khachik
    My project requires Java 1.6 for compilation and running. Now I have a requirement to make it working with Java 1.5 (from the marketing side). I want to replace method body (return type and arguments remain the same) to make it compiling with Java 1.5 without errors. Details: I have an utility class called OS which encapsulates all OS-specific things. It has a method public static void openFile(java.io.File file) throws java.io.IOException { // open the file using java.awt.Desktop ... } to open files like with double-click (start Windows command or open Mac OS X command equivalent). Since it cannot be compiled with Java 1.5, I want to exclude it during compilation and replace by another method which calls run32dll for Windows or open for Mac OS X using Runtime.exec. Question: How can I do that? Can annotations help here? Note: I use ant, and I can make two java files OS4J5.java and OS4J6.java which will contain the OS class with the desired code for Java 1.5 and 1.6 and copy one of them to OS.java before compiling (or an ugly way - replace the content of OS.java conditionally depending on java version) but I don't want to do that, if there is another way. Elaborating more: in C I could use ifdef, ifndef, in Python there is no compilation and I could check a feature using hasattr or something else, in Common Lisp I could use #+feature. Is there something similar for Java? Found this post but it doesn't seem to be helpful. Any help is greatly appreciated. kh.

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  • Can I get the item type from a BindingSource?

    - by Preston
    I would like to get the Type of item that a BindingSource is hooked up to or configured for. The BindingSource.DataSource property can be set to an object, list, or type. If it is a Type, it obviously does not have an bound item yet, but I would still like to get the Type. For a List, I need the item Type, not the list type. There is a method BindingSource.GetItemProperties, that accomplishes most of what I need. It gets the PropertyDescriptors for the Type, list item, or object specified by the DataSource and DataMember. The reason I ask, is that I have some components that I would like to re-use, but they are currently setup to work off of an item Type. The Type is mainly used to get PropertyInfos and then build a UI, but PropertyInfo and PropertyDescriptor is not exactly the same, so it is not immediately apparent that they can be reworked to use a PropertyDescriptor collection instead. Then there is cascading refactoring of everything already using these components and that adds up to a lot of work that I would rather not do. I've looked through the API docs for for a good way to do this, but so far I have not had any luck. Am I missing something or is this just something I can not or should not be doing?

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  • Returning pointers in a thread-safe way.

    - by Roddy
    Assume I have a thread-safe collection of Things (call it a ThingList), and I want to add the following function. Thing * ThingList::findByName(string name) { return &item[name]; // or something similar.. } But by doing this, I've delegated the responsibility for thread safety to the calling code, which would have to do something like this: try { list.lock(); // NEEDED FOR THREAD SAFETY Thing *foo = list.findByName("wibble"); foo->Bar = 123; list.unlock(); } catch (...) { list.unlock(); throw; } Obviously a RAII lock/unlock object would simplify/remove the try/catch/unlocks, but it's still easy for the caller to forget. There are a few alternatives I've looked at: Return Thing by value, instead of a pointer - fine unless you need to modify the Thing Add function ThingList::setItemBar(string name, int value) - fine, but these tend to proliferate Return a pointerlike object which locks the list on creation and unlocks it again on destruction. Not sure if this is good/bad practice... What's the right approach to dealing with this?

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  • What exactly can "Full Control" with SharePoint Designer accomplish?

    - by Brian L.
    I've been brought in as an intern to develop a SharePoint site. My team won't authorize the budget for Visual Studio and I don't have physical or remote access to the SharePoint server (running Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 a.k.a. WSS) on the back-end. So what exactly can I do? I'm a pretty decent programmer when it comes to web technologies like PHP, JS and the obvious HTML and CSS. In an environment like this locked-down SharePoint though, I'm stumped trying to figure out how much control I have with MS's definition of "Full Control". If I figured out a way to write some C#, I'm pretty sure I could handle my own, but as I said no Visual Studio for me. Any good ideas of features that people will use on a site built with the limited functionality of WSS and SharePoint Designer with "Full Control"? Can I somehow manipulate the default Web Parts into something cool or useful? Are there Ajax tricks I can do to accomplish something on the back-end? Thanks in advance, I'm new to StackOverflow and very anxious to get involved here!

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  • Why do I need to give my options a value attribute in my dropdown? JQuery related.

    - by Alex
    So far in my web developing experiences, I've noticed that almost all web developers/designers choose to give their options in a select a value like so: <select name="foo"> <option value="bar">BarCheese</option> // etc. // etc. </select> Is this because it is best practice to do so? I ask this because I have done a lot of work with jQuery and dropdown's lately, and sometimes I get really annoyed when I have to check something like: $('select[name=foo]').val() == "bar"); To me, many times that seems less clear than just being able to check the val() against BarCheese. So why is it that most web developers/designers specify a value paramater instead of just letting the options actual value be its value? And yes, if the option has a value attribute I know I can do something like this: $('select[name=foo] option:contains("BarCheese")').attr('selected', 'selected'); But I would still really like to know why this is done. Thanks!!

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  • How strict should I be in the "do the simplest thing that could possible work" while doing TDD

    - by Support - multilanguage SO
    For TDD you have to Create a test that fail Do the simplest thing that could possible work to pass the test Add more variants of the test and repeat Refactor when a pattern emerge With this approach you're supposing to cover all the cases ( that comes to my mind at least) but I'm wonder if am I being too strict here and if it is possible to "think ahead" some scenarios instead of simple discover them. For instance, I'm processing a file and if it doesn't conform to a certain format I am to throw an InvalidFormatException So my first test was: @Test void testFormat(){ // empty doesn't do anything... processor.validate("empty.txt"); try { processor.validate("invalid.txt"); assert false: "Should have thrown InvalidFormatException"; } catch( InvalidFormatException ife ) { assert "Invalid format".equals( ife.getMessage() ); } } I run it and it fails because it doesn't throw an exception. So the next thing that comes to my mind is: "Do the simplest thing that could possible work", so I : public void validate( String fileName ) throws InvalidFormatException { if(fileName.equals("invalid.txt") { throw new InvalidFormatException("Invalid format"); } } Doh!! ( although the real code is a bit more complicated, I found my self doing something like this several times ) I know that I have to eventually add another file name and other test that would make this approach impractical and that would force me to refactor to something that makes sense ( which if I understood correctly is the point of TDD, to discover the patterns the usage unveils ) but: Q: am I taking too literal the "Do the simplest thing..." stuff?

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  • What exactly does this PHP code do?

    - by Rob
    Alright, my friend gave me this code for requesting headers and comparing them to what the header should be. It works perfectly, but I'm not sure why. Here is the code: $headers = apache_request_headers(); $customheader = "Header: 7ddb6ffab28bb675215a7d6e31cfc759"; foreach ($headers as $header => $value) { // 1 $custom .= "$header: $value"; // 2 } $mystring = $custom; // 3 $findme = $customheader; // 4 $pos = strpos($mystring, $findme); if ($pos !== false) { // Do something } else{ exit(); } //If it doesn't match, exit. I commented with some numbers relating to the following questions: 1: What exactly is happening here? Is it setting the $headers as $header AND $value? 2: Again, don't have any idea what is going on here. 3: Why set the variable to a different variable? This is the only area where the variable is getting used, so is there a reason to set it to something else? 4: Same question as 3. I'm sorry if this is a terrible question, but its been bothering me, and I really want to know WHY it works. Well, I understand why it works, I guess I just want to know more specifically. Thanks for any insight you can provide.

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  • Is it possible to create a Mac OS specific CSS to fix font difference ?

    - by Gabriel
    I'm working on a project with a designer and he insisted on using some specific font for titles and various elements in the page. So we're using a font kit to embed with @font-face. It's working perfectly on PC (Firefox, IE 7 and 8, Chrome, Safari) but on Mac OS (Safari and Firefox) the fonts are not vertically aligned the same way. After looking on the Web, I didn't find any solution for this except "there always been differences between browsers and platforms, live with it". I know that fonts are never rendered exactly the same across platforms, but this time it's not something like the font looks more bold or something like that. The font looks as if it's baseline is completely different between Windows and Mac OS X. On Mac OS, the font, at a size of 16px is 3px higher than on PC. So I'm looking for a backup solution : is there a way to create a CSS specifically for Mac OS users? I do not want to target only Safari because Safari PC is ok, and Firefox Mac is not ok. Or if you have a solution to fix the baseline difference that does not require a specific CSS file, I'd be happy to hear it. Thanks!

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  • Script says Undefined

    - by user1058887
    I have this script that would let the user input a text and it would get translated into something else. It works only when the word has only 1 letter. When there is more than 1 letter it says Undefined. Here is the script : function copyit(theField) { var tempval=eval("document."+theField) tempval.focus() tempval.select() therange=tempval.createTextRange() therange.execCommand("Copy") } function results() { var behavior="form"; var text=document.csrAlpha.csrresult2.value; var ff22=text.toLowerCase(); var Words=new Array ; Words["b"]="Dadada"; Words["bob"]="Robert"; Words["flower"]="Banana"; Words["brad"]="Chair"; var trans=""; var regExp=/[\!@#$%^&*(),=";:\/]/; var stringCheck=regExp.exec(ff22); if(!stringCheck) { if(ff22.length > 0) { for(var i=0;i < ff22.length;i++) { var thisChar=ff22.charAt(i); trans += Words[thisChar] + " "; } } else { trans +="Please write something."; } } else { trans +="You entered invalid characters. Remove them and try again."; } document.csrAlpha.csrresult.value=trans; } Please insert your text below:

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  • Revalidate and repaint - Java Swing

    - by bosra
    I have a JPanel that I am adding JLabel's to. I then want to remove all the JLabels and add some new ones. So I do the following: panel.removeAll();panel.repaint(); panel.add(new JLabel("Add something new"); panel.revalidate(); This works fine. My problem arises when I start a new thread after this like: panel.removeAll();panel.repaint(); (1)panel.add(new JLabel("Add something new"); panel.revalidate(); //new thread to start - this thread creates new JLabels that should appear under (1) firstProducer.start(); try { firstProducer.join(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Then the output from the original JLabels is still visible. I have read that the revalidate process is a long running task and hence the firstProducer thread is getting started while the revalidation is going on and a conflict is arising. What is the best way to deal with this?

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  • Memory leaks after using typeinfo::name()

    - by icabod
    I have a program in which, partly for informational logging, I output the names of some classes as they are used (specifically I add an entry to a log saying along the lines of Messages::CSomeClass transmitted to 127.0.0.1). I do this with code similar to the following: std::string getMessageName(void) const { return std::string(typeid(*this).name()); } And yes, before anyone points it out, I realise that the output of typeinfo::name is implementation-specific. According to MSDN The type_info::name member function returns a const char* to a null-terminated string representing the human-readable name of the type. The memory pointed to is cached and should never be directly deallocated. However, when I exit my program in the debugger, any "new" use of typeinfo::name() shows up as a memory leak. If I output the information for 2 classes, I get 2 memory leaks, and so on. This hints that the cached data is never being freed. While this is not a major issue, it looks messy, and after a long debugging session it could easily hide genuine memory leaks. I have looked around and found some useful information (one SO answer gives some interesting information about how typeinfo may be implemented), but I'm wondering if this memory should normally be freed by the system, or if there is something i can do to "not notice" the leaks when debugging. I do have a back-up plan, which is to code the getMessageName method myself and not rely on typeinfo::name, but I'd like to know anyway if there's something I've missed.

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  • How slow are bit fields in C++

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a C++ application that includes a number of structures with manually controlled bit fields, something like #define FLAG1 0x0001 #define FLAG2 0x0002 #define FLAG3 0x0004 class MyClass { ' ' unsigned Flags; int IsFlag1Set() { return Flags & FLAG1; } void SetFlag1Set() { Flags |= FLAG1; } void ResetFlag1() { Flags &= 0xffffffff ^ FLAG1; } ' ' }; For obvious reasons I'd like to change this to use bit fields, something like class MyClass { ' ' struct Flags { unsigned Flag1:1; unsigned Flag2:1; unsigned Flag3:1; }; ' ' }; The one concern I have with making this switch is that I've come across a number of references on this site stating how slow bit fields are in C++. My assumption is that they are still faster than the manual code shown above, but is there any hard reference material covering the speed implications of using bit fields on various platforms, specifically 32bit and 64bit windows. The application deals with huge amounts of data in memory and must be both fast and memory efficient, which could well be why it was written this way in the first place.

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  • need help with mvc & routes

    - by geoff
    I'm very new to MVC and I'm trying to get a new site set up using it. For SEO reasons we need to make the url of a page something like "Recruiter/4359/John_Smith" or basically {controller}/{id}/{name}. I have that working when I create the url in the code behind like so... //r is a recruiter object that is part of the results for the view r.Summary = searchResult.Summary + "... &lt;a href=\"/Recruiter/" + r.Id + "/" + r.FirstName + "_" + r.LastName + "\"&gt;Read More&lt;/a&gt;" But when I am using the collection of results from a search in my view and iterating through them I am trying to create another link to the same page doing something like <%=Html.ActionLink<RecruiterController>(x => x.Detail((int)r.Id), r.RecruiterName)%> but that doesn't work. When I use that code in the view it gives me a url in the form of /Recruiter/Detail/4359 I was told by a coworker that I should use the Html.ActionLink to create the link in both the view and the controller so that if the route changes in the future it will automatically work. Unfortunately he wasn't sure how to do that in this case. So, my problems are... How can I make the Html.ActionLink work in the view to create a url like I need (like r.Summary above)? How do I use the Html.ActionLink in a controller instead of hardcoding the link like I have above?

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