Search Results

Search found 54098 results on 2164 pages for 'something broken'.

Page 449/2164 | < Previous Page | 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456  | Next Page >

  • DirectX: Game loop order, draw first and then handle input?

    - by Ricket
    I was just reading through the DirectX documentation and encountered something interesting in the page for IDirect3DDevice9::BeginScene : To enable maximal parallelism between the CPU and the graphics accelerator, it is advantageous to call IDirect3DDevice9::EndScene as far ahead of calling present as possible. I've been accustomed to writing my game loop to handle input and such, then draw. Do I have it backwards? Maybe the game loop should be more like this: (semi-pseudocode, obviously) while(running) { d3ddev->Clear(...); d3ddev->BeginScene(); // draw things d3ddev->EndScene(); // handle input // do any other processing // play sounds, etc. d3ddev->Present(NULL, NULL, NULL, NULL); } According to that sentence of the documentation, this loop would "enable maximal parallelism". Is this commonly done? Are there any downsides to ordering the game loop like this? I see no real problem with it after the first iteration... And I know the best way to know the actual speed increase of something like this is to actually benchmark it, but has anyone else already tried this and can you attest to any actual speed increase?

    Read the article

  • My PHP code is commented out

    - by Mr A
    Before everything happened, I was running this wordpress install for developing themes using xampp. But I decided to upgrade the memory of this machine from 2GB to 6GB since I need extra room for applications. I back-up my code in a separate partition by copying them. Since I have a 32bit OS at the time, I format the computer and installed a 64bit version. All is well and fine the OS side. When I setup my web dev environment something goes wrong. When I imported my htdocs back, first by just fully copying them to a new fresh install of xampp and notice that all of the codes that put are not working. My CI code is displaying my PHP code in the browser. My theme in wordpress is also commenting out my PHP code when I view the source. The themes included in my fresh wordpress install works so there's something I am missing here. From the looks of it, the php is being executed properly since anything that I install works. Just that the ones that came from a previous xampp is not.

    Read the article

  • What's the correct place to share application logic in CakePHP?

    - by Pichan
    I guess simple answer to the question would be a component. Although I agree, I feel weird having to write a component for something so specific. For example, let's say I have a table of users. When a user is created, it should form a chain reaction of events, initiating different kinds of data related to the user all around the database. I figured it would be best to avoid directly manipulating the database from different controllers and instead pack all that neatly in a method. However since some logic needs to be accesed separately, I really can't have the whole package in a single method. Instead I thought it would be logical to break it up to smaller pieces(like $userModelOrController->createNew() and $candyStorageModelOrController->createNew()) that only interact with their respective database table. Now, if the logic is put to the model, it works great until I need to use other models. Of course it's possible, but when compared to loading models in a controller, it's not that simple. It's like a Cake developer telling me "Sure, it's possible if you want to do it that way but that's not how I would do it". Then, if the logic is put to the controller, I can access other models really easy through $this->loadModel(), but that brings me back to the previously explained situation since I need to be able to continue the chain reaction indefinitely. Accessing other controllers from a controller is possible, but again there doesn't seem to be any direct way of doing so, so I'm guessing I'm still not doing it right. By using a component this problem could be solved easily, since components are available to every controller I want. But like I wrote at the beginning, it feels awkward to create a component specifically for this one task. To me, components seem more like packages of extra functionality(like the core components) and not something to share controller-specific logic. Since I'm new to this whole MVC thing, I could've completely misunderstood the concept. Once again, I would be thankful if someone pointed me to the right direction :)

    Read the article

  • Mysql count and sum from two diferent tables

    - by Agent_x
    Hi all, i have a problem with some querys in php and mysql: I have 2 diferent tables with one field in common: table 1 id | hits | num_g | cats | usr_id |active 1 | 10 | 11 | 1 | 53 | 1 2 | 13 | 16 | 3 | 53 | 1 1 | 10 | 22 | 1 | 22 | 1 1 | 10 | 21 | 3 | 22 | 1 1 | 2 | 6 | 2 | 11 | 1 1 | 11 | 1 | 1 | 11 | 1 table 2 id | usr_id | points 1 | 53 | 300 Now i use this statement to sum just the total from the table 1 every id count + 1 too SELECT usr_id, COUNT( id ) + SUM( num_g + hits ) AS tot_h FROM table1 WHERE usr_id!='0' GROUP BY usr_id ASC LIMIT 0 , 15 and i get the total for each usr_id usr_id| tot_h | 53 | 50 22 | 63 11 | 20 until here all is ok, now i have a second table with extra points (table2) I try this: SELECT usr_id, COUNT( id ) + SUM( num_g + hits ) + (SELECT points FROM table2 WHERE usr_id != '0' ) AS tot_h FROM table1 WHERE usr_id != '0' GROUP BY usr_id ASC LIMIT 0 , 15 but it seems to sum the 300 extra points to all users: usr_id| tot_h | 53 | 350 22 | 363 11 | 320 Now how i can get the total like the first try but + the secon table in one statement? because now i have just one entry in the second table but i can be more there. thanks for all the help. =============================================================================== hi thomas thanks for your reply, i think is in the right direction, but im getting weirds results, like usr_id | tot_h 22 | NULL <== i think the null its because that usr_id as no value in the table2 53 | 1033 Its like the second user is getting all the the values. then i try this one: SELECT table1.usr_id, COUNT( table1.id ) + SUM( table1.num_g + table1.hits + table2.points ) AS tot_h FROM table1 LEFT JOIN table2 ON table2.usr_id = table1.usr_id WHERE table1.usr_id != '0' AND table2.usr_id = table1.usr_id GROUP BY table1.usr_id ASC Same result i just get the sum of all values and not by each user, i need something like this result: usr_id | tot_h 53 | 53 <==== plus 300 points on table1 22 | 56 <==== plus 100 points on table2 /////////the result i need //////////// usr_id | tot_h 53 | 353 <==== plus 300 points on table2 22 | 156 <==== plus 100 points on table2 I think the structure need to be something like this Pseudo statements ;) from table1 count all id to get the number of record where the usr_id are then sum hits + num_g and from table2 select the extra points where the usr_id are the same as table1 and get teh result: usr_id | tot_h 53 | 353 22 | 156

    Read the article

  • Howw to add new value with generic Repository if there are foreign keys (EF-4)?

    - by Phsika
    i try to write a kind of generic repository to add method. Everything is ok to add but I have table which is related with two tables with FOREIGN KEY.But Not working because of foreign key public class DomainRepository<TModel> : IDomainRepository<TModel> where TModel : class { #region IDomainRepository<T> Members private ObjectContext _context; private IObjectSet<TModel> _objectSet; public DomainRepository() { } public DomainRepository(ObjectContext context) { _context = context; _objectSet = _context.CreateObjectSet<TModel>(); } //do something..... public TModel Add<TModel>(TModel entity) where TModel : IEntityWithKey { EntityKey key; object originalItem; key = _context.CreateEntityKey(entity.GetType().Name, entity); _context.AddObject(key.EntitySetName, entity); _context.SaveChanges(); return entity; } //do something..... } Calling REPOSITORY: //insert-update-delete public partial class AddtoTables { public table3 Add(int TaskId, int RefAircraftsId) { using (DomainRepository<table3> repTask = new DomainRepository<table3>(new TaskEntities())) { return repTask.Add<table3>(new table3() { TaskId = TaskId, TaskRefAircraftsID = RefAircraftsId }); } } } How to add a new value if this table includes foreign key relation

    Read the article

  • How to force my method to accept objects from external software?

    - by Roman
    I have a method which needs to take a callback object as an argument and then (at the moment when it's needed) my method will call a specific method of the callback object. I wrote a class called Manager which has a method called addListener. As the argument for this method I need to use a callback object which is defined by the external software. So, I define the addListener in the following way: public void addListener(Listener listener). Of course Eclipse complains because it does not know what Listener is (because the Listener is defined by the external software). The only think that I know (should know) about the Listener is that it has a method called doSomething. So, to pleasure Eclipse I add an interface before my Manager class: interface Listener { void doSomething(); } public class CTManager { ... The problem seems to be solved but then I try to test my software. So, I create a class called test. In this class I create an instance of the Manager class and try to use addListener method of this instance. I also create a class Listener, instantiate it and give the instance to the addListener. And it's the place where the problem appears. Eclipse writes that addListener is not applicable to the given argument. I think it's because it expect something from my Listenr interface but gets something from the Listener class. How can I solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • Thread mutex behaviour

    - by Alberteddu
    Hi there, I'm learning C. I'm writing an application with multiple threads; I know that when a variable is shared between two or more threads, it is better to lock/unlock using a mutex to avoid deadlock and inconsistency of variables. This is very clear when I want to change or view one variable. int i = 0; /** Global */ static pthread_mutex_t mutex = PTHREAD_MUTEX_INITIALIZER; /** Thread 1. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); /** Thread 2. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); This is correct, I think. The variable i, at the end of the executions, contains the integer 2. Anyway, there are some situations in which I don't know exactly where to put the two function calls. For example, suppose you have a function obtain(), which returns a global variable. I need to call that function from within the two threads. I have also two other threads that call the function set(), defined with a few arguments; this function will set the same global variable. The two functions are necessary when you need to do something before getting/setting the var. /** (0) */ /** Thread 1, or 2, or 3... */ if(obtain() == something) { if(obtain() == somethingElse) { // Do this, sometimes obtain() and sometimes set(random number) (1) } else { // Do that, just obtain(). (2) } } else { // Do this and do that (3) // If # of thread * 3 > 10, then set(3*10) For example. (4) } /** (5) */ Where I have to lock, and where I have to unlock? The situation can be, I think, even more complex. I will appreciate an exhaustive answer. Thank you in advance. —Alberto

    Read the article

  • Ruby on Rails: Uploading a modifed site.

    - by Califer
    I'm having a heck of a time getting a site I modified to work correctly. I didn't set the site up originally, and since the person that set it up no longer works with me I had to learn ruby just to make some changes. I made all the changes in the development server and everything worked fine. Then I did a diff on the production and development and moved only my changes over. Unfortunately when I loaded my changes onto the production server I got a lot of errors. I've changed all of the permissions to 755, which took care being able to access anything at all, but after that I started getting a lot of 500 errors. Nothing showed up in the production.log file. I really have no clue what's going wrong except that perhaps things are not noticing the new changes. I moved the old site to a backup folder, and the new site crashes whenever it goes to anything that I've changed. In particular, I added a link to a new setup with an extra controller/model/view group. It works fine on development but in production it gives me a 404. Yes, I did copy all the files up. I even put everything back how it was, but the website is still showing the broken version of it. I checked the tmp/cache folder but it was empty. Running dispatch.fcgi shows the old site (which I expected) but it still shows the flawed new site when I connect through a browser. I've been tearing my hair out trying to get this to work. Any ideas as to how I can get this to work?

    Read the article

  • how can you have the same form handle by javascript multiple times on the same page?

    - by DeChamp
    I have a thumb gallery where I am using ajax/javascript to submit a form per image to report the image as broken seamlessly along with php. The form and script is templated so the script is in the header and then the form is printed multiple times on the same page with a hidden field with a different id for the value per thumb. So basically this is what i have. javascript in header just a quick idea of the forms i have. Just a quick idea not what I actually have. image1 followed by the form image2 followed by the form So when you hit the button it basically submits all of the forms at the same time. I am sure it can be fixed with a (this) or something like that so it only submits a single form at a time. Let me know please. $(function() { $(".submit").click(function() { var imgId = $("#imgId").val(); var dataString = 'imgId='+ imgId; if(imgId==''){ $('.success').fadeOut(200).hide(); $('.error').fadeIn(200).show(); $('.error').fadeOut(200).hide(); }else{ $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "inc/brokenImgReport.php", data: dataString, success: function(){ }); $('.error').fadeOut(200).hide(); $('.success').fadeIn(200).show(); setTimeout(function() { $('.success').fadeOut(200); }, 2000); } return false; }); });

    Read the article

  • My Rails session is getting reset when I have concurrent requests

    - by alex_c
    I think I might be misunderstanding something about Rails sessions, so please bear with me, I might not be phrasing my question the best way. I'm working on an iPhone app with a Ruby on Rails backend. I have a web view which by default goes to the index action of one controller (and uses sessions), and in the background a bunch of API calls going to a different controller (and which don't need to use sessions). The problem is, the sessions set by my web view seem to be overwitten by the API calls. My staging server is pretty slow, so there's lots of time for the requests to overlap each other - what I see in the logs is basically this: Request A (first controller) starts. Session is empty. Request B (second controller) starts. Session is empty. Request A finishes. Request A has done authentication, and stored the user ID in the session. Session contains user ID. Request B finishes. Session is empty. Request C starts. Session is empty - not what I want. Now, the strange thing is that request B should NOT be writing anything to the session. I do have before and after filters which READ from the session - things like: user = User.find_by_id(session[:id]) or logger.debug session.inspect and if I remove all of those, then everything works as expected - session contents get set by request A, and they're still there when request C starts. So. I think I'm missing something about how sessions work. Why would reading from the session overwrite it? Should I be accessing it some other way? Am I completely on the wrong track and the problem is elsewhere? Thank you for any insights!

    Read the article

  • Timer in java ,time difference problem

    - by javatechi
    I want to create a timer for my app. The sample code is shown below. When the method datetwo() is called the same time in milliseconds is shown as there in the main method. Please help me out with this import java.util.Date; import java.util.Timer; public class TimerChe { Timer timer; static Date date = new Date(); static Date date2 = new Date(); public static void timerMethod(){ new Thread() { public void run() { try { while (true) { sleep(10000); datetwo(); } } catch (InterruptedException ex) { } } }.start(); } public static void datetwo() { System.out.println ("OK, It's time to do something!") ; System.out.println("The Time is " + date2.getTime() + " milliseconds since 1970/01/01"); } public static void main(String args[]) throws Exception { System.out.println("The Time is " + date.getTime() + " milliseconds since 1970/01/01" ); System.out.println ("Schedule something to do in the mean time.") ; timerMethod(); } }

    Read the article

  • How can I include DBNull as a value in my strongly typed dataset?

    - by Beska
    I've created a strongly typed dataset (MyDataSet) in my .NET app. For the sake of simplicity, we'll say it has one DataTable (MyDataTable), with one column (MyCol). MyCol has its DataType property set to "System.Int32", and its AllowDBNull property set to "true". I'd like to manually create a new row, and add it to this dataset. I create the row without a problem, with something like: MyDataSet.MyDataTableRow myRow = MySimpleDataSet.MyDataTable.NewItemRow(); Fine. However, when I try to set the value to DBNull: myRow.MyCol = DBNull.Value; I'm told that I can't do it...that it can't cast that to an int. This makes sense, in a way, since I've defined it to be an int...but then how can I get DBNull in there? Am I not supposed to be able to have DBNull in there? Isn't that what the AllowDBNull property is for? I'm obviously missing something fundemental. Can someone help explain what it is? EDIT: I also tried entering "int?" as the DataType, but Visual Studio throws an error when I enter it, saying that "Column requires a valid DataType."

    Read the article

  • IE Information Bar, download file...how do I code for this?

    - by flatline
    I have a web page (asp.net) that compiles a package then redirects the user to the download file via javascript (window.location = ....). This is accompanied by a hard link on the page in case the redirect doesn't work - emulating the download process on many popular sites. When the IE information bar appears at the top due to restricted security settings, and a user clicks on it to download the file, it redirects the user to the page, not the download file, which refreshes the page and removes the hard link. What is the information bar doing here? Shouldn't it send the user to the location of the redirect? Am I setting something wrong in the headers of the download response, or doing something else wrong to send the file in the first place? C# Code: m_context.Response.Buffer = false; m_context.Response.ContentType = "application/zip"; m_context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Length", fs.Length.ToString()); m_context.Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", string.Format("attachment; filename={0}_{1}.zip", downloadPrefix, DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd_HH-mm"))); //send the file

    Read the article

  • How to set buffer size in client-server app using sockets?

    - by nelly
    First of all i am new to networking so i may say dumb thing in here. Considering a client-server application using sockets(.net with c# if that matters). The client sends some data, the server process it and sends back a string. The client sends some other data, the serve process it, queries the db and sends back several hundreds of items from the database The client sends some other type of data and the server notifies some other clients . My question is how to set the buffer size correctly for reading/writing operation. Should i do something like this: byte[] buff = new byte[client.ReceiveBufferSize] ? I am thinking of something like this: Client sends data to the server(and the server will follow the same pattern) byte[] bytesToSend=new byte[2048] //2048 to be standard for any command send by the client bytes 0..1 ->command type bytes 1..2047 ->command parameters byte[] bytesToReceive=new byte[8]/byte[64]/byte[8192] //switch(command type) But..what is happening when a client is notified by the server without sending data? What is the correct way to accomplish what i am trying to do? Thanks for reading.

    Read the article

  • Multi-client C# ODBC (Sybase/Oracle/MSSQL) table access question.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I am working on a feature that would allow clients pick a unique identifier (ci_name). The code below is a generic version that gets expanded to the right sql depending on the vendor. Hopefully it makes sense. #include "sql.h" create table client_identification ( ci_id TYPE_ID IDENTITY, ci_name varchar(64) not null, constraint ci_pk primary key (ci_name) ); go CREATE_SEQUENCE(ci_id) There will be simple stored procedures for adding, retrieving, and deleting these user records. This will be used by several admins. This will not happen very frequently, but there is still a possibility that something will be added or deleted since the list was initially retrieved. I have not yet decided if I need to detect the case of a double delete, but the user name cannot be created twice - primary key constraint will object. I want to be able to detect this particular case and display something like: "you snooze - you loose." :) I would like to leverage the pk constraint instead of doing some extra sql gymnastics. So, how can I detect this case cleanly, so that it works in MS SQL 2008, Sybase, and Oracle? I hope to do better than catch a general ODBC exception and parse out the text and look for what Sybase, Oracle, and MSSQL would give me back. Oracle is a little different. We actually prepend these variables to the Oracle version of stored procedures because they are not available otherwise: Vret_val out number, Vtran_count in out number, Vmessage_count in out number, Thanks. General helpful tips and comments are welcome, except for naming convention ones ( I do not have a choice here, plus I mangled the actual names a bit).

    Read the article

  • multiple form submission with one submit

    - by skylab
    I've been trying to think this through and figure out if it is possible or not. I'm using zen-cart as shopping cart software, but what I'd like to do, is hard code a page that is basically a list of 7-9 products, next to each product is a checkbox, so I'd like to figure out a way, via html,javascript or jquery to submit whichever forms(products) are checked to the cart. The typical form submission for a product looks something like this(sometimes there may be one or two additional hidden fields): <form name="cart_quantity" action="index.php?action=add_product" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input type="hidden" name="cart_quantity" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="products_id" value="7"> <input type="hidden" name="id[6]" value="9" id="attrib-6-9"> <input type="image" src="buy_button.png" alt="Add to Cart" title="Instructional Video Part 1: Add to Cart"> </form> There would be 7-9 of these on the page, each with a checkbox, so I'm assuming a script would need to figure out which ones where checked and submit them via the form action? Maybe there is a better way of going about this that I'm not thinking of because a)it's over my head or b)just haven't figured it out yet. Anyway is something like this possible?

    Read the article

  • How do I become better in math, after being a programmer for several years.

    - by loxs
    I've had quite a weird career till now. First I graduated from a medical school. Then I went into marketing (pharmaceuticals). And then umm, after some time, I decided to go for my (till then) hobby and became a "professional" programmer. I've been quite successful at this ever since. I have quite some languages "under my belt". I earn not bad and I have been involved in the opensource community quite heavily. The thing is that I suck at math :). Well, not totally of course, as I get my work done. But I don't know how much I suck. And I don't know how to find out. Math has never really been of any priority during my middle/high school years. I only picked as little as I could afford, because I was always getting ready to go for Medicine. Of course I know the basics of algebra. Things like "normal" and square equations. Also the basics of geometry. But well, there are things that I have missed. And lately I am being fascinated by things like probability theory, infinity, chaos/order etc. But every time I try to learn something about these topics, I hit a wall of terminology, special symbols, and some special kind of thinking, that is quite like mine (a programmer), but also a lot different (and appears weird to me). So, what kinds of books would you recommend me? It's very hard to find something suitable. All that I find are either too easy (and boring) or totally impenetrable.

    Read the article

  • how to achieve functionality of #def of c in PHP

    - by Sabya
    Well, I don't know if thats what I want. But here is my problem: In case of some error I am logging the FILE, CLASS, FUNCTION and LINE in a file. For that I am doing something like: myLog('['. __FILE__ . ']' . '[' . __CLASS__ . ']' . '[' . __FUNCTION__ . ']' . '[' . __LINE__ . ']'); The problem is everywhere I've to repeat that code in the parameter. and If I want to change the format, I've to change everywhere. How can I have something like: myLog(LOG_MSG_FORMAT); With PHP define it is not possible since it will give my the LINE number of the place where that definition is, not where the definition is getting used. Any solution to this is welcome. I am not bitchy about having C like functionality of #def.

    Read the article

  • What does the Kernel Virtual Memory of each process contain?

    - by claws
    When say 3 programs (executables) are loaded into memory the layout might look something like this: I've following questions: Is the concept of Virtual Memory limited to user processes? Because, I am wondering where does the Operating System Kernel, Drivers live? How is its memory layout? I know its operating system specific make your choice (windows/linux). They say, on a 32 bit machine in a 4GB address space. Half of it (or more recently 1GB) is occupied by kernel. I can see in this diagram that "Kernel Virtual memory" is occupying 0xc0000000 - 0xffffffff (= 1 GB). Are they talking about this? or is it something else? Just want to confirm. What exactly does the Kernel Virtual Memory of each of these processes contain? What is its layout? When we do IPC we talk about shared memory. I don't see any memory shared between these processes. Where does it live? Resources (files, registries in windows) are global to all processes. So, the resource/file handle table must be in some global space. Which area would that be in? Where can I know more about this kernel side stuff.

    Read the article

  • Setting Session/Cookie via ajax request made on other website

    - by user596805
    Hi, That's my problem: I have an website, example.com, in which index.html file a introduced a <script src="website.net/js.js"></script> You can see, that this is on other web server. In the js.js I have some data that I want to send to php. For that, I am using Ajax. So, I made a request to "website.net/data.php" using method get. In data.php file everything is ok,I received the value, but I want to set a cookie which value is what I received through ajax. Here is the problem. The setcookie function says that the cookie was set, but when I check in the browser, there's no cookie! It works fine if the index.html file where I use <script src="website.net/js.js"></script> is hosted on the same domain where I am making the request. If it is on another domain, it doesn't work anymore. I have read something about Ajax cross site, but I don't want to send something back to example.com. All I want is to send some data from example.com to website.net and then setting a cookie based on that value. Thank you very much, and sorry for my English! Later edit: I am not used with this website. From the example.net I take a single value. On website.net I receive that value, I check if it's not already a cookie set, if it's not, I set it. On the same page, website.net, I use this cookie too.

    Read the article

  • MYSQL/PHP: Inserting data via HTML form, same "input name"

    - by Camen
    I'm new to MySQL and as a learning project I'd like to make a recipe database. I'd like to the user to be able to enter ingredients through a simple HTML form but I'm stuck in how to label the form so that I can enter several ingredients into the database at once. I'd like to do something like this: <form method="post" action="insert.php"> Ingredient 1: <input type="text" name="ingredient"><br /> Ingredient 2: <input type="text" name="ingredient"><br /> Ingredient 3: <input type="text" name="ingredient"><br /> <input type="submit" value="Submit"> </form> When I do this, I add rows to the table but they're all empty. I know it's got something to do with me using "ingredient" (the table value where I want to add the ingredient name) several times in the form, but I just don't know how to solve it. I would absolutely love some input on how to make it work.

    Read the article

  • Better language or checking tool?

    - by rwallace
    This is primarily aimed at programmers who use unmanaged languages like C and C++ in preference to managed languages, forgoing some forms of error checking to obtain benefits like the ability to work in extremely resource constrained systems or the last increment of performance, though I would also be interested in answers from those who use managed languages. Which of the following would be of most value? A language that would optionally compile to CLR byte code or to machine code via C, and would provide things like optional array bounds checking, more support for memory management in environments where you can't use garbage collection, and faster compile times than typical C++ projects. (Think e.g. Ada or Eiffel with Python syntax.) A tool that would take existing C code and perform static analysis to look for things like potential null pointer dereferences and array overflows. (Think e.g. an open source equivalent to Coverity.) Something else I haven't thought of. Or put another way, when you're using C family languages, is the top of your wish list more expressiveness, better error checking or something else? The reason I'm asking is that I have a design and prototype parser for #1, and an outline design for #2, and I'm wondering which would be the better use of resources to work on after my current project is up and running; but I think the answers may be useful for other tools programmers also. (As usual with questions of this nature, if the answer you would give is already there, please upvote it.)

    Read the article

  • programs hangs during socket interaction

    - by herrturtur
    I have two programs, sendfile.py and recvfile.py that are supposed to interact to send a file across the network. They communicate over TCP sockets. The communication is supposed to go something like this: sender =====filename=====> receiver sender <===== 'ok' ======= receiver or sender <===== 'no' ======= receiver if ok: sender ====== file ======> receiver I've got The sender and receiver code is here: Sender: import sys from jmm_sockets import * if len(sys.argv) != 4: print "Usage:", sys.argv[0], "<host> <port> <filename>" sys.exit(1) s = getClientSocket(sys.argv[1], int(sys.argv[2])) try: f = open(sys.argv[3]) except IOError, msg: print "couldn't open file" sys.exit(1) # send filename s.send(sys.argv[3]) # receive 'ok' buffer = None response = str() while 1: buffer = s.recv(1) if buffer == '': break else: response = response + buffer if response == 'ok': print 'receiver acknowledged receipt of filename' # send file s.send(f.read()) elif response == 'no': print "receiver doesn't want the file" # cleanup f.close() s.close() Receiver: from jmm_sockets import * s = getServerSocket(None, 16001) conn, addr = s.accept() buffer = None filename = str() # receive filename while 1: buffer = conn.recv(1) if buffer == '': break else: filename = filename + buffer print "sender wants to send", filename, "is that ok?" user_choice = raw_input("ok/no: ") if user_choice == 'ok': # send ok conn.send('ok') #receive file data = str() while 1: buffer = conn.recv(1) if buffer=='': break else: data = data + buffer print data else: conn.send('no') conn.close() I'm sure I'm missing something here in the sorts of a deadlock, but don't know what it is.

    Read the article

  • How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

    - by qstarin
    I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Robotlegs: Warning: Injector already has a rule for type

    - by MikeW
    I have a bunch of warning messages like this appear when using Robotlegs/Signals. Everytime this command class executes, which is every 2-3 seconds ..this message displays below If you have overwritten this mapping intentionally you can use "injector.unmap()" prior to your replacement mapping in order to avoid seeing this message. Warning: Injector already has a rule for type "mx.messaging.messages::IMessage", named "". The command functions fine otherwise but I think I'm doing something wrong anyhow. public class MessageReceivedCommand extends SignalCommand { [Inject] public var message:IMessage; ...etc.. do something with message.. } the application context doesnt map IMessage to this command, as I only see an option to mapSignalClass , besides the payload is received fine. Wonder if anyone knows how I might either fix or suppress this message. I've tried calling this as the warning suggests injector.unmap(IMessage, "") but I receive an error - no mapping found for ::IMessage named "". Thanks Edit: A bit more info about the error Here is the signal that I dispatch to the command public class GameMessageSignal extends Signal { public function GameMessageSignal() { super(IMessage); } } which is dispatched from a IPushDataService class gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); and the implementation is wired up in the app context via injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService); along with the signal signalCommandMap.mapSignalClass(GameMessageSignal, MessageReceivedCommand); Edit #2: Probably good to point out also I inject an instance of GameMessageSignal into IPushDataService public class PushDataService extends BaseDataService implements IPushDataService { [Inject] public var gameMessage:GameMessageSignal; //then private function processMessage(message:MessageEvent):void { gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); } } Edit:3 The mappings i set up in the SignalContext: injector.mapSingleton(IPushDataService); injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService);

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456  | Next Page >