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  • Instanced drawing with OpenGL ES 2.0

    - by Mårten Wikström
    In short: Is it possible to use the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in OpenGL ES 2.0? And, if so, how? Some more info: I want to draw multiple instances of an object using glDrawArraysInstanced and gl_InstanceID, and I want my application to run on multiple platforms, including iOS. The specification clearly says that these features require ES 3.0. According to the iOS Device Compatibility Reference ES 3.0 is only available on a few devices (those based on the A7 GPU; so iPhone 5s, but not on iPhone 5 or earlier). So my first assumption was that I needed to avoid using instanced drawing on older iOS devices. However, further down in the compatibility reference document it says that the EXT_draw_instanced extension is supported for all SGX Series 5 processors (that includes iPhone 5 and 4s). This makes me think that I could indeed use instanced drawing on older iOS devices too, by looking up and using the appropriate extension function (EXT or ARB) for glDrawArraysInstanced. I'm currently just running some test code using SDL and GLEW on Windows so I haven't tested anything on iOS yet. However, in my current setup I'm having trouble using the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in a vertex shader. I'm getting the following error message: 'gl_InstanceID' : variable is not available in current GLSL version Enabling the "draw_instanced" extension in GLSL has no effect: #extension GL_ARB_draw_instanced : enable #extension GL_EXT_draw_instanced : enable The error goes away when I specifically declare that I need ES 3.0 (GLSL 300 ES): #version 300 es Although that seem to work fine on my Windows desktop machine in an ES 2.0 context I doubt that this would work on an iPhone 5. So, shall I abandon the idea of being able to use instanced drawing on older iOS devices?

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  • Caching issue with javascript and asp.net

    - by Ed Woodcock
    Hi guys: I asked a question a while back on here regarding caching data for a calendar/scheduling web app, and got some good responses. However, I have now decided to change my approach and stat caching the data in javascript. I am directly caching the HTML for each day's column in the calendar grid inside the $('body').data() object, which gives very fast page load times (almost unnoticable). However, problems start to arise when the user requests data that is not yet in the cache. This data is created by the server using an ajax call, so it's asynchronous, and takes about 0.2s per week's data. My current approach is simply to block for 0.5s when the user requests information from the server, and cache 4 weeks either side in the inital page load (and 1 extra week per page change request), however I doubt this is the optimal method. Does anyone have a suggestion as to how to improve the situation? To summarise: Each week takes 0.2s to retrieve from the server, asynchronously. Performance must be as close to real-time as possible. (however the data is not needed to be fully real-time: most appointments are added by the user and so we can re-cache after this) Currently 4 weeks are cached on either side of the inial week loaded: this is not enough. to cache 1 year takes ~ 21s, this is too slow for an initial load.

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  • Would an immutable keyword in Java be a good idea?

    - by berry120
    Generally speaking, the more I use immutable objects in Java the more I'm thinking they're a great idea. They've got lots of advantages from automatically being thread-safe to not needing to worry about cloning or copy constructors. This has got me thinking, would an "immutable" keyword go amiss? Obviously there's the disadvantages with adding another reserved word to the language, and I doubt it will actually happen primarily for the above reason - but ignoring that I can't really see many disadvantages. At present great care has to be taken to make sure objects are immutable, and even then a dodgy javadoc comment claiming a component object is immutable when it's in fact not can wreck the whole thing. There's also the argument that even basic objects like string aren't truly immutable because they're easily vunerable to reflection attacks. If we had an immutable keyword the compiler could surely recursively check and give an iron clad guarantee that all instances of a class were immutable, something that can't presently be done. Especially with concurrency becoming more and more used, I personally think it'd be good to add a keyword to this effect. But are there any disadvantages or implementation details I'm missing that makes this a bad idea?

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  • Function behaviour on shell(ksh) script

    - by footy
    Here are 2 different versions of a program: this Program: #!/usr/bin/ksh printmsg() { i=1 print "hello function :)"; } i=0; echo I printed `printmsg`; printmsg echo $i Output: # ksh e I printed hello function :) hello function :) 1 and Program: #!/usr/bin/ksh printmsg() { i=1 print "hello function :)"; } i=0; echo I printed `printmsg`; echo $i Output: # ksh e I printed hello function :) 0 The only difference between the above 2 programs is that printmsg is 2times in the above program while printmsg is called once in the below program. My Doubt arises here: To quote Be warned: Functions act almost just like external scripts... except that by default, all variables are SHARED between the same ksh process! If you change a variable name inside a function.... that variable's value will still be changed after you have left the function!! But we can clearly see in the 2nd program's output that the value of i remains unchanged. But we are sure that the function is called as the print statement gets the the output of the function and prints it. So why is the output different in both?

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  • Drawing an image in Java, slow as hell on a netbook.

    - by Norswap
    In follow-up to my previous questions (especially this one : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2684123/java-volatileimage-slower-than-bufferedimage), i have noticed that simply drawing an Image (it doesn't matter if it's buffered or volatile, since the computer has no accelerated memory*, and tests shows it's doesn't change anything), tends to be very long. (*) System.out.println(GraphicsEnvironment.getLocalGraphicsEnvironment() .getDefaultScreenDevice().getAvailableAcceleratedMemory()); --> 0 How long ? For a 500x400 image, about 0.04 seconds. This is only drawing the image on the backbuffer (obtained via buffer strategy). Now considering that world of warcraft runs on that netbook (tough it is quite laggy) and that online java games seems to have no problem whatsoever, this is quite thought provoking. I'm quite certain I didn't miss something obvious, I've searched extensively the web, but nothing will do. So do any of you java whiz have an idea of what obscure problem might be causing this (or maybe it is normal, tough I doubt it) ? PS : As I'm writing this I realized this might be cause by my Linux installation (archlinux) tough I have the correct Intel driver. But my computer normally has "Integrated Intel Graphics Media Accelerator 950", which would mean it should have accelerated video memory somehow. Any ideas about this side of things ?

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  • How to accept an incoming call by clicking a button?

    - by upright
    HI, all! I'm trying to implement my own phone call handling UI. What I want to do is, if a call comes in, the incoming telephone number and a picture are displayed, and, if I press a button, the incoming call will be accepted/answered. The related codes are: @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); answerButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.pickup); answerButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(final View v) { Intent intent = new Intent("android.intent.action.ANSWER"); intent.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(intent); } }); Sadly, the code does not work. At first, an exception is thrown if I press my answer button: ActivityNotFoundException: No Activity found to handle Intent { act=android.intent.action.ANSWER Then I added an entry in the AndroidManifest.xml: I run the app again, there is no exception anymore. However, I doubt the incoming call is not really accepted. Because if the press the Android's screen answer button (green button), the incoming call is accepted and a green button is also displayed on the upper left corner of the emulator screen, while my app doesn't. I also read the Phone app's source code in android source. There is method such as acceptCall() in the Phone class. But these codes seem difficult for me to use, because there are many imports declaration in the code, such as : import com.android.internal.telephony.Call; import com.android.internal.telephony.CallStateException; import com.android.internal.telephony.CallerInfo; import com.android.internal.telephony.CallerInfoAsyncQuery; import com.android.internal.telephony.Connection; import com.android.internal.telephony.MmiCode; import com.android.internal.telephony.Phone; And, if I add these imports in my code, there will be too many errors, such as : "The import com.android.internal.telephony cannot be resolved" What is the right and simple way for my problem? Thanks in advance!

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  • Embed URL from variable in HTML file in Rails application

    - by TejasM
    hi, I have a doubt which might be silly for experience Rails developers. I am creating an application which is suppose to embed a video player with URL passed to it. So while displaying i.e in XXX.html.erb file i am writting below code. Now problem is @movie.trailer is my variable in ruby code which has URL value . I want the embedded video to load with URL given by this variable value. Any suggestion how am i suppose to place the value of Ruby variable(@movie.trailer) in part. <object width="425" height="344"> <param name="movie" value="<% @movie.trailer %>"> </param><param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"> </param><param name="allowscriptaccess" alue="always"> </param><embed src="<% @movie.trailer %>" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowscriptaccess="always" allowfullscreen="true" width="425" height="344"></embed></object> Note :- This code is working perfectly fine if i statically give value of URL. Please help

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  • Creating a RESTful API - HELP!

    - by Martin Cox
    Hi Chaps Over the last few weeks I've been learning about iOS development, which has naturally led me into the world of APIs. Now, searching around on the Internet, I've come to the conclusion that using the REST architecture is very much recommended - due to it's supposed simplicity and ease of implementation. However, I'm really struggling with the implementation side of REST. I understand the concept; using HTTP methods as verbs to describe the action of a request and responding with suitable response codes, and so on. It's just, I don't understand how to code it. I don't get how I map a URI to an object. I understand that a GET request for domain.com/api/user/address?user_id=999 would return the address of user 999 - but I don't understand where or how that mapping from /user/address to some method that queries a database has taken place. Is this all coded in one php script? Would I just have a method that grabs the URI like so: $array = explode("/", ltrim(rtrim($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'], "/"), "/")) And then cycle through that array, first I would have a request for a "user", so the PHP script would direct my request to the user object and then invoke the address method. Is that what actually happens? I've probably not explained my thought process very well there. The main thing I'm not getting is how that URI /user/address?id=999 somehow is broken down and executed - does it actually resolve to code? class user(id) { address() { //get user address } } I doubt I'm making sense now, so I'll call it a day trying to explain further. I hope someone out there can understand what I'm trying to say! Thanks Chaps, look forward to your responses. Martin p.s - I'm not a developer yet, I'm learning :)

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  • How to catch an incomming text message

    - by Espen
    Hi! I want to be able to control incoming text messages. My application is still on a "proof of concept" version and I'm trying to learn Android programming as I go. First my application need to catch incomming text messages. And if the message is from a known number then deal with it. If not, then send the message as nothing has happened to the default text message application. I have no doubt it can be done, but I still have some concern and I see some pitfalls at how things are done on Android. So getting the incomming text message could be fairly easy - except when there are other messaging applications installed and maybe the user wants to have normal text messages to pop up on one of them - and it will, after my application has had a look at it first. How to be sure my application get first pick of incomming text messages? And after that I need to send most text messages through to any other text message application the user has chosen so the user can actually read the message my application didn't need. Since Android uses intents that are relative at best, I don't see how I can enforce my application to get a peek at all incomming text messages, and then stop it or send it through to the default text messaging application...

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  • NHibernate is not connecting to sql server.

    - by user177883
    When i set up a regular connection, it works, however when i try to use nhibernate, hibernate.cfg.xml, i m getting the following error. Message="A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified)" Source=".Net SqlClient Data Provider" What would be the reason for this and how can i resolve it ? I doubt that it s a network or sql server configuration error. <?xml version="1.0" ?> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2" > <session-factory> <property name="connection.provider">NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.MsSql2005Dialect</property> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.SqlClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string">Server=(ServerName\DEV_ENV);Initial Catalog=dbName;User Id=SA;Password=PASS</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu</property> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration>

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  • How to extract the Sql Command from a Complied Linq Query

    - by Harry
    In normal (not compiled) Linq to Sql queries you can extract the SQLCommand from the IQueryable via the following code: SqlCommand cmd = (SqlCommand)table.Context.GetCommand(query); Is it possible to do the same for a compiled query? The following code provides me with a delegate to a compiled query: private static readonly Func<Data.DAL.Context, string, IQueryable<Word>> Query_Get = CompiledQuery.Compile<Data.DAL.Context, string, IQueryable<Word>>( (context, name) => from r in context.GetTable<Word>() where r.Name == name select r); When i use this to generate the IQueryable and attempt to extract the SqlCommand it doesn't seem to work. When debugging the code I can see that the SqlCommand returned has the 'very' useful CommandText of 'SELECT NULL AS [EMPTY]' using (var db = new Data.DAL.Context()) { IQueryable<Word> query = Query_Get(db, "word"); SqlCommand cmd = (SqlCommand)db.GetCommand(query); Console.WriteLine(cmd != null ? cmd.CommandText : "Command Not Found"); } I can't find anything in google about this particular scenario, as no doubt it is not a common thing to attempt... So.... Any thoughts?

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  • What limits scaling in this simple OpenMP program?

    - by Douglas B. Staple
    I'm trying to understand limits to parallelization on a 48-core system (4xAMD Opteron 6348, 2.8 Ghz, 12 cores per CPU). I wrote this tiny OpenMP code to test the speedup in what I thought would be the best possible situation (the task is embarrassingly parallel): // Compile with: gcc scaling.c -std=c99 -fopenmp -O3 #include <stdio.h> #include <stdint.h> int main(){ const uint64_t umin=1; const uint64_t umax=10000000000LL; double sum=0.; #pragma omp parallel for reduction(+:sum) for(uint64_t u=umin; u<umax; u++) sum+=1./u/u; printf("%e\n", sum); } I was surprised to find that the scaling is highly nonlinear. It takes about 2.9s for the code to run with 48 threads, 3.1s with 36 threads, 3.7s with 24 threads, 4.9s with 12 threads, and 57s for the code to run with 1 thread. Unfortunately I have to say that there is one process running on the computer using 100% of one core, so that might be affecting it. It's not my process, so I can't end it to test the difference, but somehow I doubt that's making the difference between a 19~20x speedup and the ideal 48x speedup. To make sure it wasn't an OpenMP issue, I ran two copies of the program at the same time with 24 threads each (one with umin=1, umax=5000000000, and the other with umin=5000000000, umax=10000000000). In that case both copies of the program finish after 2.9s, so it's exactly the same as running 48 threads with a single instance of the program. What's preventing linear scaling with this simple program?

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  • How to use a rewrite rule to force calls for "domain.tld/subdir/file.html" to show as "subdir.domain.tld/file.html"?

    - by Wion
    Hi! First time poster. Very new to mod_rewrite. I'm on a shared server and the context of this problem is with a virtual directory under my root account. The domain (domain.tld) will have subdirectories representing annual mini-sites of static .html files. Subdirectory names (yyyy) will be the 4-digit year (e.g., "2010"). I want any call to domain.tld/yyyy/file.html to appear as yyyy.domain.tld/file.html in the browser address bar, and (of course) for the page to load properly. I already force dropping “www” by using… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.domain\.tld [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.tld/$1 [R=301,L] So far so good. But no matter what I try after that, I can’t get the subdomain to force to the front of the domain. Here’s one of the more complicated examples I’ve tried (no doubt wrong)… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.tld/([0-9]+)/([a-z-]+)\.html [NC] RewriteRule (.*) %1.domain.tld/%2.html [NC] This doesn’t break anything (that I can tell), but it doesn’t do what I want either. I.e., if I type yyyy.domain.tld, I’ll see yyyy.domain.tld in the address bar, and navigating around will give me yyyy.domain.tld/file.html, etc. Fine. But if also type domain.tld/yyyy I’ll see domain.tld/yyyy, etc, which is not how I want people to see it. It doesn’t redirect or mask or alias or whatever you call it. Is it even possible to force one look over the other like that? Should I be handling this with DNS instead? Thanks in advance!

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  • Can I place AdSense ads on a site with drug content?

    - by Joe Majewski
    I am going to be opening a new WordPress blog today, and I was curious to know if my site will be appropriate for AdSense ads. First off, the blog is going to be about drug addiction. More specifically, opiate addiction. I myself was addicted to pain killers for three years, and I am pleased to say that I am now in treatment and I have not used in over a month now. :) Anyways, my site will be an informative blog about opiates and the harm that they can induce on one's life. It will in no way endorse the use of drugs, but I may talk about my negative experiences. It will be 100% (without a doubt) evident upon checking out my website that my view on drugs is negative. Two questions: (1) Is this content acceptable for Google's terms of service? (2) In order to begin displaying AdSense ads, is there anything I must first do? I already have AdSense ads running on one of my domains. Can I simply begin pasting the code snippets into my new domain and watch as the ads begin to work? Thanks for your time. :)

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  • Should developers *really* have private offices?

    - by Aron Rotteveel
    We will probably be moving within a year, so we have to make some decisions regarding office layout. At the moment, our company is basically one big office. When our developers can't bother to be disturbed at all, we all have our own headphones to mute the outside world. Still, it seems a lot of people feel that private offices are no doubt the way to go. From Joel's article Private Offices Redux: Not every programmer in the world wants to work in a private office. In fact quite a few would tell you unequivocally that they prefer the camaradarie and easy information sharing of an open space. Don't fall for it. They also want M&Ms for breakfast and a pony. Open space is fun but not productive. Even though I can understand the benefit on productivity, does having a private office really result in more net productivity? There seem to be plenty of companies that create wide open spaces and still maintain good productivity. Or so it seems. (I should mention many of them use cubicles, though) What is your opinion on this? What does your company do? Is there some middle ground in this? Some more related information on this matter: Private Offices Redux The new Fog Creek office A Field Guide to Developers Gmail recruitment page. Found this last one somewhat remarkable since the Gmail recruitment page promotes the "wide open space" idea.

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  • Breaking dependencies when you can't make changes to other files?

    - by codemuncher
    I'm doing some stealth agile development on a project. The lead programmer sees unit testing, refactoring, etc as a waste of resources and there is no way to convince him otherwise. His philosophy is "If it ain't broke don't fix it" and I understand his point of view. He's been working on the project for over a decade and knows the code inside and out. I'm not looking to debate development practices. I'm new to the project and I've been tasked with adding a new feature. I've worked on legacy projects before and used agile development practices with good result but those teams were more receptive to the idea and weren't afraid of making changes to code. I've been told I can use whatever development methodology I want but I have to limit my changes to only those necessary to add the feature. I'm using tdd for the new classes I'm writing but I keep running into road blocks caused by the liberal use of global variables and the high coupling in the classes I need to interact with. Normally I'd start extracting interfaces for these classes and make their dependence on the global variables explicit by injecting them as constructor arguments or public properties. I could argue that the changes are necessary but considering the lead never had to make them I doubt he would see it my way. What techniques can I use to break these dependencies without ruffling the lead developer's feathers? I've made some headway using: Extract Interface (for the new classes I'm creating) Extend and override the wayward classes with test stubs. (luckily most methods are public virtual) But these two can only get me so far.

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  • Does the pointer to free() have to point to beginning of the memory block, or can it point to the interior?

    - by Lambert
    The question is in the title... I searched but couldn't find anything. Edit: I don't really see any need to explain this, but because people think that what I'm saying makes no sense (and that I'm asking the wrong questions), here's the problem: Since people seem to be very interested in the "root" cause of all the problem rather than the actual question asked (since that apparently helps things get solved better, let's see if it does), here's the problem: I'm trying to make a D runtime library based on NTDLL.dll, so that I can use that library for subsystems other than the Win32 subsystem. So that forces me to only link with NTDLL.dll. Yes, I'm aware that the functions are "undocumented" and could change at any time (even though I'd bet a hundred dollars that wcstombs will still do the same exact thing 20 years from now, if it still exists). Yes, I know people (especially Microsoft) don't like developers linking to that library, and that I'll probably get criticized for the right here. And yes, those two points above mean that programs like chkdsk and defragmenters that run before the Win32 subsystem aren't even supposed to be created in the first place, because it's literally impossible to link with anything like kernel32.dll or msvcrt.dll and still have NT-native executables, so we developers should just pretend that those stages are meant to be forever out of our reaches. But no, I doubt that anyone here would like me to paste a few thousand lines of code and help me look through them and try to figure out why memory allocations that aren't failing are being rejected by the source code I'm modifying. So that's why I asked about a different problem than the "root" cause, even though that's supposedly known to be the best practice by the community. If things still don't make sense, feel free to post comments below! :)

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  • C: Global ,Static variables understanding

    - by pavun_cool
    Hi All, In following program . I have one doubt. I have declared one global variable . I am printing the address of the global variable in the function . It is giving me same address when I am not changing the value of global . If I did any changes in the global variables It is giving me different address why...........? Like that it is happening for static also. #include<stdio.h> int global=10 ; // Global variables void function(); main() { global=20; printf ( " %p \n" , global ) ; printf ( " Val: %d\n", global ) ; function(); new(); } void function() { global=30; printf ( " %p \n" , global ) ; printf ( " Val: %d\n", global ) ; } Thanks.

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  • Looking for resources to explain a security risk.

    - by Dave
    I've a developer which has given users the ability to download a zip archive which contains an html document which references a relative javascript file and flash document. The flash document accepts as one of it's parameters a url which is embedded in the html document. I believe that this archive is meant to be used as a means to transfer an advertisement to someone who would use the source to display the ad on their site, however the end user appears to want to view it locally. When one opens the html document the flash document is presented and when the user clicks on the flash document it redirects to this embedded url. However, if one extracts the archive on the desktop and opens the html document in a browser and clicks the flash object, nothing observable happens, they will not be redirected to the external url. I believe this is a security risk because one is transferring from the local computer zone to an external zone. I'm trying to determine the best way to explain this security risk in the simplest of terms to a very end user. They simply believe it's "broken" when it's not broken, they're being protected from a known vulnerability. The developer attempted to explain how to copy the files to a local iis instance, which I highly doubt is running on the users machine, and I do not consider this to be a viable explanation.

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  • Doubly Linked Lists Implementation

    - by user552127
    Hi All, I have looked at most threads here about Doubly linked lists but still unclear about the following. I am practicing the Goodrich and Tamassia book in Java. About doubly linked lists, please correct me if I am wrong, it is different from a singly linked list in that a node could be inserted anywhere, not just after the head or after the tail using both the next and prev nodes available, while in singly linked lists, this insertion anywhere in the list is not possible ? If one wants to insert a node in a doubly linked list, then the default argument should be either the node after the to-be inserted node or node before the to-be inserted node ? But if this is so, then I don't understand how to pass the node before or after. Should we be displaying all nodes that were inserted till now and ask the user to select the node before or after which some new node is to be inserted ? My doubt is how to pass this default node. Because I assume that will require the next and prev nodes of these nodes as well. For e.g, Head<-A<-B<-C<-D<-E<-tail If Z is the new node to be inserted after say D, then how should node D be passed ? I am confused with this though it seems pretty simple to most. But pl do explain. Thanks, Sanjay

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  • How to create view in RoR if skipped during controller generation

    - by swapnesh
    When I run this: rails generate controller hello index it no doubt generates hello controller, but accidentally when I run another command like this: rails generate controller world it creates the world controller successfully, but missed the Route "world/index" like as "hello/index". For this mistake I need to use destroy controller and then generate it once more, is thr some kind of mid way command that I can generate if forgotten something rather than destroying and creating every time. This command rails generate controller contact-us index creates a route as contact_us/index or contact_us after changing routes.rb under config folder. How could I create a more SEO friendly URL in RoR? Like localhost:3000/contact-us? I am working on some very basic rules to follow RoR..like 3 static pages (Home, About us, Contact Us) Just simple html content to understand more, will certainly add more features to it as well. localhost:3000/home localhost:3000/About_us localhost:3000/contact_us I created this via creating home, About_us, contact_us controller command and then changed html in views. Since I am on an initial phase, I read somewhere for static pages we can create this in our public like what we have error pages there in the folder or the approach im using is correct?

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  • Packages name conflicting with getters and setters?

    - by MrKishi
    Hello, folks. So, I've came across this compilation error a while ago.. As there's an easy fix and I didn't find anything relevant at the time, I eventually let it go. I just remembered it and I'm now wondering if this is really part of the language grammar (which I highly doubt) or if it's a compiler bug. I'm being purely curious about this -- it doesn't really affect development, but it would be nice to see if any of you have seen this already. package view { import flash.display.Sprite; public class Main extends Sprite { private var _view:Sprite = new Sprite(); public function Main() { this.test(); } private function test():void { trace(this.view.x, this.view.y); //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property x through a reference with static type view:Main. //1178: Attempted access of inaccessible property y through a reference with static type view:Main. //Note that I got this due to the package name. //It runs just fine if I rename the package or getter. } public function get view():Sprite { return this._view; } } }

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  • Why strings behave like ValueType

    - by AJP
    I was perplexed after executing this piece of code, where strings seems to behave as if they are value types. I am wondering whether the assignment operator is operating on values like equality operator for strings. Here is the piece of code I did to test this behavior. using System; namespace RefTypeDelimma { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string a1, a2; a1 = "ABC"; a2 = a1; //This should assign a1 reference to a2 a2 = "XYZ"; //I expect this should change the a1 value to "XYZ" Console.WriteLine("a1:" + a1 + ", a2:" + a2);//Outputs a1:ABC, a2:XYZ //Expected: a1:XYZ, a2:XYZ (as string being a ref type) Proc(a2); //Altering values of ref types inside a procedure //should reflect in the variable thats being passed into Console.WriteLine("a1: " + a1 + ", a2: " + a2); //Outputs a1:ABC, a2:XYZ //Expected: a1:NEW_VAL, a2:NEW_VAL (as string being a ref type) } static void Proc(string Val) { Val = "NEW_VAL"; } } } In the above code if I use a custom classes instead of strings, I am getting the expected behavior. I doubt is this something to do with the string immutability? welcoming expert views on this.

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  • symfony + doctrine + inheritance, how to make them work?

    - by imac
    I am beginning to work with Symfony, I've found some documentation about inheritance. But also found this discouraging article, which make me doubt if Doctrine handles inheritance any good at all... Has anyone find a smart solution for inheritance in Symfony+Doctrine? As an example, I have already structured the database something like this: CREATE TABLE `poster` ( `poster_id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `user_name` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`poster_id`), UNIQUE KEY `id` (`poster_id`), ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=3 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; CREATE TABLE `user` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `real_name` varchar(50) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`), CONSTRAINT `user_fk` FOREIGN KEY (`user_id`) REFERENCES `poster` (`poster_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; From that, Doctrine generated this "schema.yml": Poster: connection: doctrine tableName: poster columns: poster_id: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: true user_name: type: string(50) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false relations: Post: local: poster_id foreign: poster_id type: many User: local: poster_id foreign: user_id type: many Version: local: poster_id foreign: poster_id type: many User: connection: doctrine tableName: user columns: user_id: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: false real_name: type: string(50) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: false autoincrement: false relations: Poster: local: user_id foreign: poster_id type: one User creation for this structure with Doctrine auto-generated forms does not work. Any clue will be appreciated.

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  • Best way to sign data in web form with user certificate

    - by salgiza
    We have a C# web app where users will connect using a digital certificate stored in their browsers. From the examples that we have seen, verifying their identity will be easy once we enable SSL, as we can access the fields in the certificate, using Request.ClientCertificate, to check the user's name. We have also been requested, however, to sign the data sent by the user (a few simple fields and a binary file) so that we can prove, without doubt, which user entered each record in our database. Our first thought was creating a small text signature including the fields (and, if possible, the md5 of the file) and encrypt it with the private key of the certificate, but... As far as I know we can't access the private key of the certificate to sign the data, and I don't know if there is any way to sign the fields in the browser, or we have no other option than using a Java applet. And if it's the latter, how we would do it (Is there any open source applet we can use? Would it be better if we create one ourselves?) Of course, it would be better if there was any way to "sign" the fields received in the server, using the data that we can access from the user's certificate. But if not, any info on the best way to solve the problem would be appreciated.

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