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  • Union and order by

    - by David Lively
    Consider a table like tbl_ranks -------------------------------- family_id | item_id | view_count -------------------------------- 1 10 101 1 11 112 1 13 109 2 21 101 2 22 112 2 23 109 3 30 101 3 31 112 3 33 109 4 40 101 4 51 112 4 63 109 5 80 101 5 81 112 5 88 109 I need to generate a result set with the top two(2) rows for a subset of family ids (say, 1,2,3 and 4) ordered by view count. I'd like to do something like select top 2 * from tbl_ranks where family_id = 1 order by view_count union all select top 2 * from tbl_ranks where family_id = 2 order by view_count union all select top 2 * from tbl_ranks where family_id = 3 order by view_count union all select top 2 * from tbl_ranks where family_id = 4 order by view_count but, of course, order by isn't valid in a union all context in this manner. Any suggestions? I know I could run a set of 4 queries, store the results into a temp table and select the contents of that temp as the final result, but I'd rather avoid using a temp table if possible. Note: in the real app, the number of records per family id is indeterminate, and the view_counts are also not fixed as they appear in the above example.

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  • ORDERBY "human" alphabetical order using SQL string manipulation

    - by supertrue
    I have a table of posts with titles that are in "human" alphabetical order but not in computer alphabetical order. These are in two flavors, numerical and alphabetical: Numerical: Figure 1.9, Figure 1.10, Figure 1.11... Alphabetical: Figure 1A ... Figure 1Z ... Figure 1AA If I orderby title, the result is that 1.10-1.19 come between 1.1 and 1.2, and 1AA-1AZ come between 1A and 1B. But this is not what I want; I want "human" alphabetical order, in which 1.10 comes after 1.9 and 1AA comes after 1Z. I am wondering if there's still a way in SQL to get the order that I want using string manipulation (or something else I haven't thought of). I am not an expert in SQL, so I don't know if this is possible, but if there were a way to do conditional replacement, then it seems I could impose the order I want by doing this: delete the period (which can be done with replace, right?) if the remaining figure number is more than three characters, add a 0 (zero) after the first character. This would seem to give me the outcome I want: 1.9 would become 109, which comes before 110; 1Z would become 10Z, which comes before 1AA. But can it be done in SQL? If so, what would the syntax be? Note that I don't want to modify the data itself—just to output the results of the query in the order described. This is in the context of a Wordpress installation, but I think the question is more suitably an SQL question because various things (such as pagination) depend on the ordering happening at the MySQL query stage, rather than in PHP.

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  • Please help! Delegate returns null via Dipendency Injection.

    - by Raj Aththanayake
    Can someone please help? I use Google code’s Moq framework for mocking within my Unit Tests and Unity for Dependency Injection. In my Test class private Mock<ICustomerSearchService> CustomerSearchServiceMock = null; private CustomerService customerService = null; private void SetupMainData() { CustomerSearchServiceMock = new Mock<ICustomerSearchService>(); customerService = new CustomerService (); // CustomerSearchService is a property in CustomerService and dependency is configuered via Unity customerService.CustomerSearchService = CustomerSearchServiceMock.Object; Customer c = new Customer () { ID = "AT" }; CustomerSearchServiceMock.Setup(s => s.GetCustomer(EqualsCondition)).Returns(c); } [TestMethod] public void GetCustomerData_Test_Method() { SetupMainData() var customer = customerService.GetCustomerData("AT"); } public static bool EqualsCondition(Customer customer) { return customer.ID.Equals("AT"); } In my Test class CustomerService class public class CustomerService : ICustomerService { [Dependency] public ICustomerSearchService CustomerSearchService { get; set; } public IEnumerable<SomeObject> GetCustomerData(string custID) { I GET Null for customer ?????} var customer = CustomerSearchService.GetCustomer (c => c.ID.Equals(custID)); //Do more things } } When I debug the code I can see CustomerSearchService has a proxy object, but the customer returns as null. Any ideas? Or is there something missing here? Note: ICustomerSearchService I have implemented below method. Customer GetCustomer(Func<Customer, bool> predicate);

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  • Generate Spring bean definition from a Java object

    - by joeslice
    Let's suggest that I have a bean defined in Spring: <bean id="neatBean" class="com..." abstract="true">...</bean> Then we have many clients, each of which have slightly different configuration for their 'neatBean'. The old way we would do it was to have a new file for each client (e.g., clientX_NeatFeature.xml) that contained a bunch of beans for this client (these are hand-edited and part of the code base): <bean id="clientXNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="something"/> </bean> Now, I want to have a UI where we can edit and redefine a client's neatBean on the fly. My question is: given a neatBean, and a UI that can 'override' properties of this bean, what would be a straightforward way to serialize this to an XML file as we do [manually] today? For example, if the user set property whatever to be "17" for client Y, I'd want to generate: <bean id="clientYNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="17"/> </bean> Note that moving this configuration to a different format (e.g., database, other-schema'd-xml) is an option, but not really an answer to the question at hand.

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  • EXE stops working if containing folder is renamed. MSVCP90.dll

    - by John
    This popup comes up as soon as the app is started: The program can't start because MSVCP90.dll is missing from your computer. Before anyone says "install the VC++ runtimes", wait! If I rename the folder containing my .EXE then the app runs. If I rename it back, it breaks. The app has been running for weeks without any changes to my system/VS installation (2008 SP1), we suddenly spotted this error a few days ago. Lost as to why the name of the dir is causing issues... again this has not changed in months and all our resource paths are relative anyway, e.g "../someOtherDir/...." It doesn't just do this on my PC, we have the /bin dir (the one containing EXE) in SVN and suddenly everyone started seeing the same issue, even though the binaries themselves seem just fine. Is it possible some additional data got put into SVN and that's the cause? Since it's not just one PC, there must be something either in SVN or the EXE itself... Note this popup comes before our code even gets to run.

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  • How do I manipulate the format on a DataGridView that is bound to a Data Source?

    - by Jack Johnstone
    I´m using SQL Server 2005 and Visual Studio 2008, C#. In the data source (the SQL Server data table) I use the DateTime format mm/dd/yyyy, however, in a forms overview (DataGridView) users would like to see a completely other format, with year, week number and day number of week (yyww,d) which is in string format. I´ve created an algorithm for the transformation between values (date to weekday), but can I populate the affected cells with yyww,d (string) instead of mm/dd/yyyy (DateTime)? This is what I´ve been testing out, without success (and note, it´s on the last line the problem becomes obvious, as the cell value won´t accept a string on runtime - it still wants to be a DateTime...) private void DataGridViewQueryFindRequests_CellFormatting( object sender, DataGridViewCellFormattingEventArgs e) { string weekAndDay = ""; DataGridViewCell cell = DataGridViewQueryFindRequests.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[e.ColumnIndex]; if (cell.ColumnIndex == 13 && cell.Value == null) mEmptyRow = true; if ((cell.ColumnIndex == 14 || cell.ColumnIndex == 15) && !mEmptyRow) { weekAndDay = ClassWeeksAndDates.dateToWeekNumber(Convert.ToDateTime(cell.Value)); cell.ValueType = typeof(string); cell.Value = weekAndDay; } }

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  • SYN receives RST,ACK very frequently

    - by user1289508
    Hi Socket Programming experts, I am writing a proxy server on Linux for SQL Database server running on Windows. The proxy is coded using bsd sockets and in C, and it is working just fine. When I use a database client (written in JAVA, and running on a Linux box) to fire queries (with a concurrency of 100 or more) directly to the Database server, not experiencing connection resets. But through my proxy I am experiencing many connection resets. Digging deeper I came to know that connection from 'DB client' to 'Proxy' always succeeds but when the 'Proxy' tries to connect to the DB server the connection fails, due to the SYN packet getting RST,ACK. That was to give some background. The question is : Why does sometimes SYN receives RST,ACK? 'DB client(linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ---- Works fine 'DB client(linux) to 'Proxy(Linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ----- problematic I am aware that this can happen in "connection refused" case but this definitely is not that one. SYN flooding might be another scenario, but that does not explain fine behavior while firing to Server directly. I am suspecting some socket option setting may be required, that the client does before connecting and my proxy does not. Please put some light on this. Any help (links or pointers) is most appreciated. Additional info: Wrote a C client that does concurrent connections, which takes concurrency as an argument. Here are my observations: - At 5000 concurrency and above, some connects failed with 'connection refused'. - Below 2000, it works fine. But the actual problem is observed even at a concurrency of 100 or more. Note: The problem is time dependent sometimes it never comes at all and sometimes it is very frequent and DB client (directly to server) works fine at all times .

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  • How to use the values from session variables in jsp pages that got saved using @Scope("session") in the mvc controllers

    - by droidsites
    Doing a web site using spring mvc. I added a SignupController to handle all the sign up related requests. Once user signup I am adding that to a session using @Scope("session"). Below is the SignupController code, SignupController.java @Controller @Scope("session") public class SignupController { @Autowired SignupServiceInter signUpService; private static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(SignupController.class); private String sessionUser; @RequestMapping("/SignupService") public ModelAndView signUp(@RequestParam("userid") String userId, @RequestParam("password") String password,@RequestParam("mailid") String emailId){ logger.debug(" userId:"+userId+"::Password::"+password+"::"); String signupResult; try { signUpService.registerUser(userId, password,emailId); sessionUser = userId; //adding the sign up user to the session return new ModelAndView("userHomePage","loginResult","Success"); //Navigate to user Home page if everything goes right } catch (UserExistsException e) { signupResult = e.toString(); return new ModelAndView("signUp","loginResult", signupResult); //Navigate to signUp page back if user does not exist } } } I am using "sessionUser" variable to store the signed up User Id. My understanding is that when I use @Scope("session") for the controller all the instance variables will added to HttpSession. So by that understanding I tried to access this "SessionUser" in userHomePage.jsp as, userHomepage.jsp Welcome to <%=session.getAttribute("sessionUser")%> But it throws null. So my question is how to use the values from session variables in jsp pages that got saved using @Scope("session") in the mvc controllers. Note: My work around is that pass that signed User Id to jsp page through ModelAndView, but it seems passing the value like these among the pages takes me back to managing state among pages using QueryStrings days.

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  • Prevent event from parent element to child element in jquery

    - by sonam
    I have binded event as below: $(document).delegate('.budget', 'click', function(e){ if ($(this).hasClass('collapsed')) { $(this).removeClass('collapsed'); $(this).addClass('expanded'); } else if ($(this).hasClass('expanded')) { $(this).removeClass('expanded'); $(this).addClass('collapsed'); } }); Basically this toggles between expand and collapse. I have another event binded as below: $('[id^="tree"]').delegate('.collapsed', 'click', function(e){ var elementId = $(this).attr('id'); hideChildElement(elementId); }); The elements binded by the second event binding are parents of elements binded by first event binding. What happens is that on clicking on the element from the first binding event method also triggers the event binded by second event binding. I want to prevent any events from binding from second event binding to 1st event binding method. If element A is binded to click event from first event binding and B is binded to second event binding (A is inside B or A is child of B), I dont want any event of B to propagate to A. Note I tried e.stopImmediatePropagation(); but did not worked

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  • jQuery: part of a function not executing

    - by SODA
    Hi. I have a tabbed setup on the page and I want to automatically make corresponding menu tab highlighted as well as corresponding content div show depending on # hash. Example: http://design.vitalbmx.com/user_menu/member_profile_so.html -- no hash, opens 1st tab http://design.vitalbmx.com/user_menu/member_profile_so.html#setup -- #setup, should open "Setup" tab As you can see it works for highlighting "Setup" tab. But content div does not change. The script is below: var tab_content_current = 1; switch (window.location.hash) { case '#activity': tab_content_current = 1; break; case '#friends': tab_content_current = 2; break; case '#photos': tab_content_current = 3; break; case '#videos': tab_content_current = 4; break; case '#setup': tab_content_current = 5; break; case '#forum': tab_content_current = 6; break; case '#blog': tab_content_current = 7; break; case '#comments': tab_content_current = 8; break; case '#favorites': tab_content_current = 9; break; case '#profile-comments': tab_content_current = 10; break; default: tab_content_current = 1; } if (tab_content_current != 1) { change_active_tab (tab_content_current); } function tabs_toggle (id) { if (id != tab_content_current) { change_active_tab (id); tab_content_current = id; } } function change_active_tab (id) { $j('.profile_tabs li').removeClass('active'); if (id < 8) $j('.profile_tab_'+id).addClass('active'); $j('.profile_content').hide(); $j('#profile_content_'+id).fadeIn(); } Note that it works when you actually click menu tabs. Any help to fix this problem would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How do I execute a sql statement through a variable (dyname sql) that tries to do an insert into a variable table?

    - by Testifier
    If I do what I wanna do with a TEMPORARY TABLE, it works fine: DECLARE @CTRFR VARCHAR(MAX) SET @CTRFR = 'select blah blah blah' -- <-- very long select statement. this returns a 0 or some greater number. Please note! --> I NEED THIS NUMBER. IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo][#CTRFRResult]') AND type IN ( N'U' ) ) DROP TABLE [dbo].[#CTRFRResult] CREATE TABLE #CTRFRResult ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into #CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR EXEC(@CTRFR) The above works fine. The problem is that several databases are using the same TEMP table. Therefore I need to use a VARIABLE table (instead of a temporary table). What I have below is not working because it says that the table must be declared. DECLARE @CTRFRResult TABLE ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into @CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR -- I think the issue is here. EXEC(@CTRFR) Setting @CTRFR to 'insert into...' is not working because I'm assuming the table name is out of scope. How would I go about mimicking the temporary table code using a variable table?

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  • Right Language for the Job

    - by Manoj
    Using the right language for the job is the key - this is the comment I read in SO and I also belive thats the right thing to do. Because of this we ended up using different languages for different parts of the project - like perl, VBA(Excel Macros), C# etc. We have three to four languages currently in use inside the project. Using the right language for the job has made it immensly more easy to do automate a job, but of late people are complaining that any new person who has to take over the project will have to learn so many different languages to get started. Also it is difficult to find such kind of person. Please note that this is a one to two person working on the project maximum at a given point of time. I would like to know if the method we are following is right or should we converge to single language and try to use it across all the job even though another language might be better suited for it. Your experenece related to this would also help. Languages used and their purpose: Perl - Processing large text file(log files) C# with Silverlight for web based reporting. LabVIEW for automation Excel macros for processing data in excel sheets, generating graphs and exporting to powerpoint.

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  • Grouping by date, with 0 when count() yields no lines

    - by SCO
    I'm using Postgresql 9 and I'm fighting with counting and grouping when no lines are counted. Let's assume the following schema : create table views { date_event timestamp with time zone ; event_id integer; } Let's imagine the following content : 2012-01-01 00:00:05 2 2012-01-01 01:00:05 5 2012-01-01 03:00:05 8 2012-01-01 03:00:15 20 I want to group by hour, and count the number of lines. I wish I could retrieve the following : 2012-01-01 00:00:00 1 2012-01-01 01:00:00 1 2012-01-01 02:00:00 0 2012-01-01 03:00:00 2 2012-01-01 04:00:00 0 2012-01-01 05:00:00 0 . . 2012-01-07 23:00:00 0 I mean that for each time range slot, I count the number of lines in my table whose date correspond, otherwise, I return a line with a count at zero. The following will definitely not work (will yeld only lines with counted lines 0). SELECT extract ( hour from date_event ),count(*) FROM views where date_event > '2012-01-01' and date_event <'2012-01-07' GROUP BY extract ( hour from date_event ); Please note I might also need to group by minute, or by hour, or by day, or by month, or by year (multiple queries is possible of course). I can only use plain old sql, and since my views table can be very big (100M records), I try to keep performance in mind. How can this be achieved ? Thank you !

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  • Prototype or jQuery for DOM manipulation (client-side dynamic content)

    - by luiggitama
    I need to know which of these two JavaScript frameworks is better for client-side dynamic content modification for known DOM elements (by id), in terms of performance, memory usage, etc.: Prototype's $('id').update(content) jQuery's jQuery('#id').html(content) BTW, both libraries coexist with no conflict in my app, because I'm using RichFaces for JSF development, that's why I can use "jQuery" instead of "$". I have at least 20 updatable areas in my page, and for each one I prepare content (tables, option lists, etc.), based on some user-defined client-side criteria filtering or some AJAX event, etc., like this: var html = []; int idx = 0; ... html[idx++] = '<tr><td class="cell"><span class="link" title="View" onclick="myFunction('; html[idx++] = param; html[idx++] = ')"></span>'; html[idx++] = someText; html[idx++] = '</td></tr>'; ... So here comes the question, which is better to use: // Prototype's $('myId').update(html.join('')); // or jQuery's jQuery('#myId').html(html.join('')); Other needed functions are hide() and show(), which are present in both frameworks. Which is better? Also I'm needing to enable/disable form controls, and to read/set their values. Note that I know my updatable area's id (I don't need CSS selectors at this point). And I must tell that I'm saving these queried objects in some data structure for later use, so they are requested just once when the page is rendered, like this: MyData = {div1:jQuery('#id1'), div2:$('id2'), ...}; ... div1.update('content 1'); div2.html('content 2'); So, which is the best practice?

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  • CSS - background-size: cover; not working in Firefox

    - by Jayant Bhawal
    body{ background-image: url("./content/site_data/bg.jpg"); background-size: cover; background-repeat: no-repeat; font-family: 'Lobster', cursive; } Check: http://demo.jayantbhawal.in on firefox browsers, NOT in widescreen mode. The code works on Chrome(Android + PC) and even the stock Android browser, but NOT Firefox(Android + PC). Is there any good alternative to it? Why is it not working anyways? Googled this issue a lot of times, but no one else seems to have this problem. Is it just me? In any case, how do I fix it? There are quite some questions on SO about it too, but none of them provide a legitimate solution, so can someone just tell me if they have background-size: cover; issues on firefox too? So basically tell me 3 things: 1. Why is it happening? 2. What is a good alternative to it? 3. Is this happening to you too? On Firefox browsers of course. Chrome Version 35.0.1916.114 m Firefox Version 29.0.1 Note: I may already be trying to fix it so at times you may see a totally weird page. Wait a bit and reload.

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  • What's a good way to format AJAX responses? Or, using Django templating with AJAX

    - by synic
    In some of the code I'm working on, the author max AJAX calls to a Django view that returns JSON. Once the JSON is retrieved, it'll be injected into the page with a function that looks like this (note, this is a simplification, but I'm sure you know what I'm getting at here): function build_event_listing(events) { var html = ''; for(int i = 0; i < events.length; i++) { event = events[i]; html += "<h2>" + event.title + "</h2>\n"; html += "<p>" + event.description + "</p>"; html += "Click <a href='/event/view/" + event.id + "'>here<a> for more info."; } events_div.html(html); } I really don't like this approach. To change the look of each event listing, the designer would have to modify that ugly JS. I'd much rather make use of Django's templating system, but I'm wondering how I can do this? I had the idea of writing the view like this: def view_listings(req): events = models.Event.objects.all() html = [] for event in events: html.append( render_to_string('event/single_event.html', { 'event': event, }, context_instance=RequestContext(req)) return HttpResponse(''.join(html), mimetype='text/html') ... but it just seems like there should be a better way. Any ideas?

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  • Does IE6 Really not Allow Me to set width/height from left/right/top/bottom???

    - by viatropos
    Building a site super quick and having it work on all my Mac browsers, I thought I'd take a gander on a friends old dell laptop with Windows XP and IE6. Nothing looks remotely correct. It's because I used lots of left/right/top/bottom (constraint) declarations to size elements proportionally to their parent's size (I didn't use percent sizes because the percents refer to the parent's size before margins and padding are applied, left/right/top/bottom refer to them after with position:absolute. I'm asking about that here :)). I've read lots these past few weeks on how horrible IE6 (and IE) is in general, but because of all the reasons people say to support it (large market share and the fear of installing better software), and because half the people in the company we're building a site for use IE6 (getting them to upgrade to Chrome slowly but surely), I thought if I could just get IE6 to render my constraints, that might help. So I am messing around with simple layouts here, and they work fine in my latest versions of Firefox, Safari, Chrome, and Opera, but IE6 is basically saying: If you haven't set a width or height on me, I'm assuming it's zero. But position:absolute; left:0px; right:0px; top:0px; bottom:0px; on a container that's width:1000px; height:1000px; should be the same as setting width:1000px; height:1000px on the child, no? Taking a quick look at the source for this, why won't IE6 render the constraint based absolutely positioned AND SIZED elements? (note: I will be messing around with that file for a while) Thanks

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  • Code Golf: Connecting the dots

    - by ChristopheD
    Description: The input are multiple lines (terminated by a newline) which describe a 'field'. There are 'numbers' scattered across this field: the numbers always start at 1 they follow the ordering of the natural numbers: every 'next number' is incremented with 1 every number is surrounded by (at least) one whitespace on it's left and right Task: Draw lines between these numbers in their natural order (1 -> 2 -> 3 -> ...N) with the following characteristics: replace a number with a '+' character for horizontal lines: use '-' for vertical lines: use '|' going left and down or right and up: / going left and up or right and down: \ Important note: When drawing lines of type 4 and 5 you can assume that : (given points to connect with coordinates x1, y1 and x2, y2) distance(x1,x2) == distance(y1,y2). Have a look at the examples to see where you should 'attach' the lines. It is important to follow the order in which the dots are connected (newer lines can be drawn over older lines). Sample input 1 9 10 8 7 6 5 11 13 12 3 4 14 15 16 1 2 Sample output 1 /+ / | / | +/ +--+ | +\ | \ | \+ /+ | / | /+-------------+/ +---+ / | +--+ | + | +--------------------------+ Sample input 2 4 2 3 5 6 1 8 7 Sample output 2 /+ / | / | / | /+------------------+/ +--------+\ / \ +/ +--------------------------------------+ Winner: shortest solution (by code count). Input can be read via command line.

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  • In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

    - by Irchi
    Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

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  • SharePoint 2007 - Content deployment and swapping content database

    - by Mel Lota
    Hi all, I'm currently working on a SharePoint 2007 site which is setup to allow clients to author content on a staging server and then this is automatically pushed up to the live environment via content deployment. The content deployment is setup in the 'Content deployment jobs and paths' in central admin. Now the problem I've got is that it seems that historically there have been a mixture of full and incremental deployments done to the live site collection which according to Stefan Goßner's best practices post (http://blogs.technet.com/stefan_gossner/pages/content-deployment-best-practices.aspx) is a bad idea due to the fact that things soon become out of sync. It's gotten to the point where the content deployment has just stopped working and incremental or full deployments are throwing errors in the logs. What I'm thinking is that I probably need to perform a full content deployment to an empty site collection and then somehow switch the new clean site collection with the current live one. I was wondering if anybody has any experience with this and could provide any pointers, I'm currently investigating the feasibility of performing the clean content deployment and then switching the live content database with the new one, however in my tests I've found that as soon as I switch content databases, the incremental deployment still fails. Any help much appreciated. (Note: I did post this on SharePoint Overflow as well, but thought I'd put it on here in case anybody else has any ideas) Cheers

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  • asp.net - updatepannel can't read innerHTML?

    - by omega
    In my asp.net page, I have a jquery sortable accordian (in an update panel) I use so that clients can re-arrange items. Then to save it, users would click a button (thats created from jquery) and it would traverse through the accoridion in the DOM, and write the info to a asp control textbox. Then invoke the click function of a asp button control, which then reads that information and saves the data. But now I decided to simplify this step, and use html agility pack in c#, so users click the asp button control (inside an update panel), and then it would get the innerHTML of the accordian. But the problem is, the html it's getting is not the reflecting the changes a user can make to the accordion (i.e. re arranging it), it the same as when the DOM was ready on page load... But note that, using javascript to write the innerHTML to a textbox, then from the c# function, I can read the up to date html from the accordian. Does anyone know why this is happening and how to get the up to data html from the accordian in c#?

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  • Retrieving the first picture with a HTML parser

    - by justin01
    Hey guys, (Not a native english speaker) I'm doing a personal project in PHP in which I use the Simple HTML Parser to parse the HTML of a given URL and retrieve the first image in a DIV that have a specific ID or class (maincontent, content, main, wrapper, etc. - it's all in an array) and ignore ads. The goal is to take this image and make a thumbnail with it, pretty much like on Digg and others. I thought everything was working fine until I tried my script with the website Snopes ("http://www.snopes.com/photos/animals/luckycoyote.asp" <- this page more exactly). The source of the first image it gets is: " graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg ". So far, to correct this problem I created a little function that gets the domain name of the given URL and insert it before the IMG's source attribute. So for sites like Snopes.com, it gives me: "http://www.snopes.com/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg" ... while the real URL for this image is "http://www.snopes.com*/photos/animals/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg*" (or, more precisely: " http://graphics1.snopes.com/photos/animals/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg " - note the subdomain here). So my main question is: how can I externally/dynamically retrieve the full URL address of an image ("absolute path") when I am only given the "relative path"? I'm pretty sure this is possible, since when I paste the link in Facebook's "What are you doing?" field for example, it gives me the correct path to the image while on the website, the source of the image is only (example) "image/photo/example.jpg". Thank you for your time.

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  • Reference an object, based on a variable with it's name in it

    - by James G
    I'm looking for a way to reference an object, based on a variable with it's name in it. I know I can do this for properties and sub properties: var req = {body: {jobID: 12}}; console.log(req.body.jobID); //12 var subProperty = "jobID"; console.log(req.body[subProperty ]); //12 var property = "body"; console.log(req[property][subProperty]); //12 is it possible for the object itself? var req = {body: {jobID: 12}}; var object = "req"; var property = "body"; var subProperty = "jobID"; console.log([object][property][subProperty]); //12 or console.log(this[object][property][subProperty]); //12 Note: I'm doing this in node.js not a browser. Here is an exert from the function: if(action.render){ res.render(action.render,renderData); }else if(action.redirect){ if(action.redirect.args){ var args = action.redirect.args; res.redirect(action.redirect.path+req[args[0]][args[1]]); }else{ res.redirect(action.redirect.path); } } I could work around it by changing it to this, but I was looking for something more dynamic. if(action.render){ res.render(action.render,renderData); }else if(action.redirect){ if(action.redirect.args){ var args = action.redirect.args; if(args[0]==="req"){ res.redirect(action.redirect.path+req[args[1]][args[2]]); }else if(args[0]==="rows"){ rows.redirect(action.redirect.path+rows[args[1]][args[2]]); } }else{ res.redirect(action.redirect.path); } }

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  • POSIX Sockets: How to detect Ctrl-C sent over Telnet?

    - by ogott
    Short Question What's the right way to handle a Ctrl-C event sent over Telnet on the server side? Long Question After calling recv() on a socket, I'd like to handle some situations appropriately. One of them is to return a certain error code when Ctrl-C was received. What's the correct way to detect this? The following works, but it just doesn't seem right: size_t recv_count; static char ctrl_c[5] = {0xff, 0xf4, 0xff, 0xfd, 0x06}; recv_count = recv(socket, buffer, buffer_size, 0); if (recv_count == sizeof(ctrl_c) && memcmp(buffer, ctrl_c, sizeof(ctrl_c) == 0) { return CTRL_C_RECEIVED; } I found a comment on Ctrl-C in a side-note in this UNIX Socket FAQ: [...] (by the way, out-of-band is often used for that ctrl-C, too). As I understand, receiving out-of-band data is done using recv() with a certain flag as the last parameter. But when I'm waiting for data using recv() as I do in the code above, I can't read out-of-band data at the same time. Apart from that, I'm getting something using recv() without that oob-flag.

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  • initialize jquery slider with hidden input value from database.

    - by ludwigs3rd
    I'm using a slider as user input for a screen. Basically it's a bulk update screen where there is a table with multiple rows, thus multiple sliders. I created it so that the hidden value is what gets posted in the form. <td> <input class="percentageProvidedHidden" type="hidden" name='<%= "Values[" + i + "].Percentage" %>' value='<%=item.Percentage %>' /> <div class="percentageProvidedSlider"></div> </td> I have the update working just fine (move slider changes hidden input value, submit, values are updated in db), however, I can't get the damn thing to initialize with the value of the hidden input (note the "value: " parameter below). In this case I think $(this) isn't actually $('percentageProvidedSlider') but the page itself. Can someone help me get the slider value to initialize with the hidden input field? I'm using ASP .Net MVC 2 so if there are any methods I should try with that I welcome them as well. $('.percentageProvidedSlider').slider( { min: 0, max: 100, step: 25, value: $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(), slide: function(e, ui) { var mypos = ui.value; $(this).find('.ui-slider-handle').text(ui.value); }, change: function(event, ui) { var myVal = $(this).slider("option", "value"); $(this).parents('tr').find('input.percentageProvidedHidden').val(myVal); var myDropDown = $(this).parents('tr').find('select.verified'); } });

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