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• Fill fields on a webpage

  - by MajuiF

  Hi everyone, I've already asked this question, but it's still too unclear to me, and it seems people haven't understood what I'm trying to do, so I'll try and be clearer. This website: https://www4.polymtl.ca/poly/poly.html is the website I want to fill. What I would like to be able to do, is modify the values of the "nip", "code", and "naissance" fields with text (for example, code being "majuif"). <input type=password name=code size=8 maxlength=8> <input type=password name=nip size=8 maxlength=8> <input type=password name=naissance size=8 maxlength=8> However, I don't know how to do that. And this is my problem. Should I write another HTML file - I don't know if the word "macro" can be used for that, but I'm pretty sure it can - and insert JavaScript in it? Please note that I'm not a professional in JavaScript or HTML, but I have basics, and still learning. Thanks, -Max.

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• Shadowbox + jQuery not working - No errors.

  - by Shelton

  First, apologies. I'm a js newb. I'm attempting to trigger a shadowbox with the load of a specific page - a "pop-up" if you will. Nothing happens and according to firebug, there are no errors to report. I should note that this is wordpress, so I'm using the default jQuery call and also shadowbox rolled into a WP plug-in. Shadowbox does work properly in other areas of the site, as do jQuery functions. noConflict() is used because WP also loads prototype by default, which conflicts with the jQuery dollar sign. var $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(function(){ //Set cookie $j.cookie('padpop_viewed',true); // open a welcome message as soon as the window loads $j(function() { Shadowbox.open({ content: '<div width="600" height="460" style="margin:auto;"><a href="<?php bloginfo('url');?>"/products/"><img src="<?php bloginfo('template_url');?>/images/ipad-pop.jpg" width="600" height="460" alt="Redacted"/></a></div>', player: "html", height: "470", width: "610" }); }); }); Any help here would be greatly appreciated as I have spent hours consulting the documentation of each aspect of this. Thanks, S.

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• How to select a single object using Linq in vb.net

  - by Hucker

  I have done a lot of searching to what appears to be a simple LINQ problem but I can't figure out how to do grab an object out of a collection that has a specified minimum (or max value) without resorting to a sort like this: > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Order By c.age Ascending).ToList.First This (untested code) structure works fine with the exception that the entire customer array must be sorted and placed into a list for the only purpose of extracting the first value. That can't be the best way to get the minimum! Note that I want the whole c record in this case, not the minumum age of a customer that can be done like this (a typical example): > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c.age).Min Or even > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c).Min(Function(x) x.age) I can't for the life of me figure out how to get the whole object (or even the index) without resorting to the sort...

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• SharePoint 2007 - Content deployment and swapping content database

  - by Mel Lota

  Hi all, I'm currently working on a SharePoint 2007 site which is setup to allow clients to author content on a staging server and then this is automatically pushed up to the live environment via content deployment. The content deployment is setup in the 'Content deployment jobs and paths' in central admin. Now the problem I've got is that it seems that historically there have been a mixture of full and incremental deployments done to the live site collection which according to Stefan Goßner's best practices post (http://blogs.technet.com/stefan_gossner/pages/content-deployment-best-practices.aspx) is a bad idea due to the fact that things soon become out of sync. It's gotten to the point where the content deployment has just stopped working and incremental or full deployments are throwing errors in the logs. What I'm thinking is that I probably need to perform a full content deployment to an empty site collection and then somehow switch the new clean site collection with the current live one. I was wondering if anybody has any experience with this and could provide any pointers, I'm currently investigating the feasibility of performing the clean content deployment and then switching the live content database with the new one, however in my tests I've found that as soon as I switch content databases, the incremental deployment still fails. Any help much appreciated. (Note: I did post this on SharePoint Overflow as well, but thought I'd put it on here in case anybody else has any ideas) Cheers

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• After a few same hql query the application freezes

  - by Oktay

  I am calling below function with the same batchNumber and it is working without problem 15 times and takes the records fromm database without problem but at 16. time the application freezes when the query.list() row is called. It just loses debug focus and not give any exception. This problem probably is not about the hql because I've seen this problem before and I used criteria instead of hql and I got pass this problem. But for this when I use "group by" in criteria(setrojection....) it doesn't return the result as hibernate model(object) just returns a list. But I need the results as model. Note: about 15 times it is just for test. This is a web aplication and user may click the button many times that calls this funtion to see the taken records from database. public List<SiteAddressModel> getSitesByBatch(String batchNumber) { try{ List<SiteAddressModel> siteList; MigrationPlanDao migrationPlanDao = ServiceFactory.getO2SiteService().getMigrationPlanDao(); Query query = this.getSession().createQuery("from " + persistentClass.getName() + " where " + "siteType =:" + "type and siteName in " + "(select distinct exchange from " + migrationPlanDao.getPersistentClass().getName() + " where migrationBatchNumber =:" + "batchNumber" + ")" ); query.setString("batchNumber", batchNumber); query.setString("type", "LLU/ASN"); System.out.println("before query"); siteList = query.list(); System.out.println("after query"); return siteList; }catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Hibernate version 3.2.0.ga

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• Is it possible to pass Calendar new date in the bean without listener?

  - by isabsent

  I am trying to pass new date from PrimeFaces p:calendar (placed in p:dataTable column) to the backing bean: <p:column > <p:calendar value="#{bean.date}">` <p:ajax /> </p:calendar> </p:column> It does not update bean.date. Variants with <p:ajax update="@this" event="change"/> <p:ajax update="@this" event="select"/> do not update bean.date too. The only way I have found is using of listener. However, I suppose, there should be a way without listener implementation like for simple facelets: <p:column> <h:inputText value="#{bean.note}" > <f:ajax/> </h:inputText> </p:column> that works fine for me. Does anybody know how to get it working!?

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• Using the standard OBJECT tag, how can I display a java applet with automatic prompts to install Java and with fallback content?

  - by CB

  This is the code i'm currently using: (note - %s is replaced on the server side) <!--[if !IE]>--> <object type="application/x-java-applet" width="300" height="300" > <!--<![endif]--> <!--[if IE]> <object classid="clsid:8AD9C840-044E-11D1-B3E9-00805F499D93" codebase="http://java.sun.com/update/1.6.0/jinstall-6u22-windows-i586.cab" type="application/x-java-applet" width="300" height="300" > <!--><!-- <![endif]--> <param name="codebase" value="/media/vnc/" > <param name="archive" value="TightVncViewer.jar" /> <param name="code" value="com.tightvnc.vncviewer.VncViewer" /> <param name="port" value="%s" /> <param name="Open New Window" value="yes" /> </object> When Java is installed, this works perfectly in both IE and Firefox. When Java is not installed, IE and Firefox both correctly prompt for an autodownload of Java 1.6 from the codebase line. (IE via the activex url given firefox via the Plugin Finder Service) Now, suppose I want fallback content to be shown if the plugin isn't installed, say a simple message like "Get Java". From reading the specs, i'd assume this should not change the plugin finding prompt - that is, rendering the fallback should be seen as a failure to render the object tag. Thus, I should still get the plugin finder service prompting me to install Java. Instead, simply adding a single character to the innerHTML of the object element causes Firefox to no longer prompt. Test this by visiting data:text/html,<object type='application/x-java-applet'>Java failed to load</object>. How can I keep firefox prompting to install Java while providing fallback content? URL to test Firefox's Java Plugin Finder Service: data:text/html,<object type='application/x-java-applet'/>

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• Make a PHP GET request from a PHP script and exit

  - by Abs

  Hello all, Is there something simpler than the following. I am trying to make a GET request to a PHP script and then exit the current script. I think this is a job for CURL but is there something simpler as I don't want to really worry about enabling the CURL php extension? In addition, will the below start the PHP script and then just come back and not wait for it to finish? //set GET variables $url = 'http://domain.com/get-post.php'; $fields = array( 'lname'=>urlencode($last_name), 'fname'=>urlencode($first_name) ); //url-ify the data for the GET foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key.'='.$value.'&'; } rtrim($fields_string,'&'); //open connection $ch = curl_init(); //set the url, number of POST vars, POST data curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_GET,count($fields)); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_GETFIELDS,$fields_string); //execute GET $result = curl_exec($ch); //close connection curl_close($ch); I want to run the other script which contains functions when a condition is met so a simple include won't work as the if condition wraps around the functions, right? Please note, I am on windows machine and the code I am writing will only be used on a Windows OS. Thanks all for any help and advice

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• hash fragments and collisions cont.

  - by Mark

  For this application I've mine I feel like I can get away with a 40 bit hash key, which seems awfully low, but see if you can confirm my reasoning (I want a small key because I want a small filename and the key will be converted to a filename): (Note: only accidental collisions a concern - no security issues.) A key point here is that the population in question is divided into groups, and a collision is only relevant if it occurs within the same group. A "group" is a directory on a user's system (the contents of files are hashed and a collision is only relevant if it occurs for files within the same directory). So with speculating roughly 100,000 potential users, say 2^17, that corresponds to 2^18 "groups" assuming 2 directories per user on average. So with a 40 bit key I can expect 2^(20+9) files created (among all users) before a collision occurs for some user somewhere. (Or IOW 2^((40+18)/2), due to the "birthday effect".) That's an average 4096 unique files created per user, for 2^17 users, before a single collision occurs for some user somewhere. And then that long again before another collision occurs somewhere (right?)

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• Is there a Python module for handling Python object addresses?

  - by cool-RR

  (When I say "object address", I mean the string that you type in Python to access an object. For example 'life.State.step'. Most of the time, all the objects before the last dot will be packages/modules, but in some cases they can be classes or other objects.) In my Python project I often have the need to play around with object addresses. Some tasks that I have to do: Given an object, get its address. Given an address, get the object, importing any needed modules on the way. Shorten an object's address by getting rid of redundant intermediate modules. (For example, 'life.life.State.step' may be the official address of an object, but if 'life.State.step' points at the same object, I'd want to use it instead because it's shorter.) Shorten an object's address by "rooting" a specified module. (For example, 'garlicsim_lib.simpacks.prisoner.prisoner.State.step' may be the official address of an object, but I assume that the user knows where the prisoner package is, so I'd want to use 'prisoner.prisoner.State.step' as the address.) Is there a module/framework that handles things like that? I wrote a few utility modules to do these things, but if someone has already written a more mature module that does this, I'd prefer to use that. One note: Please, don't try to show me a quick implementation of these things. It's more complicated than it seems, there are plenty of gotchas, and any quick-n-dirty code will probably fail for many important cases. These kind of tasks call for battle-tested code. UPDATE: When I say "object", I mostly mean classes, modules, functions, methods, stuff like these. Sorry for not making this clear before.

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• What to set the scalar type to contain a byte []. Entity in MVC2

  - by Brad8118

  I'm trying out the EF 4.0 and using the Model first approach. I'd like to store images into the database and I'm not sure of the best type for the scalar in the entity. I currently have it(the image scalar type) setup as a binary. From what I have been reading the best way to store the image in the db is a byte[]. So I'm assuming that binary is the way to go. If there is a better way I'd switch. In my controller I have: //file from client to store in the db HttpPostedFileBase file = Request.Files[inputTagName]; if (file.ContentLength > 0) { keyToAdd.Image = new byte[file.ContentLength]; file.InputStream.Write(keyToAdd.Image, 0, file.ContentLength); } This builds fine but when I run it I get an exception writing the stream to keyToAdd.Image. The exception is something like: Method does not exist. Any ideas? Note that when using a EF 4.0 model first approach I only have int16, int32, double, string, decimal, binary, byte, DateTime, Double, Single, and SByte as available types. Thanks

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• Pickled my dictionary from ZODB but i got a less in size one?

  - by Someone Someoneelse

  I use ZODB and i want to copy my 'database_1.fs' file to another 'database_2.fs', so I opened the root dictionary of that 'database_1.fs' and I (pickle.dump) it in a text file. Then I (pickle.load) it in a dictionary-variable, in the end I update the root dictionary of the other 'database_2.fs' with the dictionary-variable. It works, but I wonder why the size of the 'database_1.fs' not equal to the size of the other 'database_2.fs'. They are still copies of each other. def openstorage(store): #opens the database data={} data['file']=filestorage data['db']=DB(data['file']) data['conn']=data['db'].open() data['root']=data['conn'].root() return data def getroot(dicty): return dicty['root'] def closestorage(dicty): #close the database after Saving transaction.commit() dicty['file'].close() dicty['db'].close() dicty['conn'].close() transaction.get().abort() then that's what i do:- import pickle loc1='G:\\database_1.fs' op1=openstorage(loc1) root1=getroot(op1) loc2='G:database_2.fs' op2=openstorage(loc2) root2=getroot(op2) >>> len(root1) 215 >>> len(root2) 0 pickle.dump( root1, open( "save.txt", "wb" )) item=pickle.load( open( "save.txt", "rb" ) ) #now item is a dictionary root2.update(item) closestorage(op1) closestorage(op2) #after I open both of the databases #I get the same keys in both databases #But `database_2.fs` is smaller that `database_2.fs` in size I mean. >>> len(root2)==len(root1)==215 #they have the same keys True Note: (1) there are persistent dictionaries and lists in the original database_1.fs (2) both of them have the same length and the same indexes.

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• mod_rewrite failing on uppercase dir

  - by user1855277

  I have a very basic mod_rewrite in a .htaccess file which I'm sure worked last time I looked at it, but now it is doing strange things with the case of the REQUEST_URI. It's intended purpose is to rewrite sub-domains to a given file, passing the subdomain as a php var of bnurl. Here is my code: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI}= "RSDEV/location/" [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} . RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\. [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.co\.uk(:80)? [NC] RewriteRule ^RSDEV/location/$ RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=%1&accesstype=new [NC,L] Now, typing joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/RSDEV/location/ into my web browser comes back with the response "The requested URL /RSDEV/location/ was not found on this server" which is a correct statement because /RSDEV/location/ is not a real directory, but why did it not rewrite to RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=joebloggs&accesstype=new as expected? Now, the really strange thing here is that if I enter joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/rsdev/location/ into my browser (note rsdev is now lowercase), it correctly rewrites as expected. The script newmain.php is in dir RSDEV (uppercase) so if it was going to fail, I would have expected it to fail the other way round with the lowercase rsdev. As you can see, I have [NC] on each line. Is this my mod_rewrite code failing or some other mystical server force keeping me up all night?

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• Selenium - Wait for network traffic

  - by Joel

  We're using Selenium with the Java API and some Javascript user extensions. We use a lot of AJAX calls in our app. A lot of our tests fail randomly because sometimes the AJAX calls finish slower than other times so the page isn't fully loaded. We fix that by waiting for specific elements or Thread.sleep. I was trying to find a way to instead just wait for the network traffic to finish. So that we could do this: selenium.click("some JS button"); selenium.waitForNetwork(); assertTrue(something); That way we can get rid of the thread sleep and have tests pass faster when the server responds faster and not have so many tests fail due to timing issues. I haven't been able to find a way to do this searching Google. Does anyone have any ideas how we can accomplish this? (Preferably either through Javascript or the Java API but all suggestions are welcome). Note: the other variations of "waitFor" are not what I'm looking for. We're already using those in clicks and other things. I'm looking for something that waits for the NETWORK TRAFFIC. Thanks for all the feedback, I'll be trying out a couple of the suggestions, but I'm still open to other ideas. Thanks.

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• jQuery: part of a function not executing

  - by SODA

  Hi. I have a tabbed setup on the page and I want to automatically make corresponding menu tab highlighted as well as corresponding content div show depending on # hash. Example: http://design.vitalbmx.com/user_menu/member_profile_so.html -- no hash, opens 1st tab http://design.vitalbmx.com/user_menu/member_profile_so.html#setup -- #setup, should open "Setup" tab As you can see it works for highlighting "Setup" tab. But content div does not change. The script is below: var tab_content_current = 1; switch (window.location.hash) { case '#activity': tab_content_current = 1; break; case '#friends': tab_content_current = 2; break; case '#photos': tab_content_current = 3; break; case '#videos': tab_content_current = 4; break; case '#setup': tab_content_current = 5; break; case '#forum': tab_content_current = 6; break; case '#blog': tab_content_current = 7; break; case '#comments': tab_content_current = 8; break; case '#favorites': tab_content_current = 9; break; case '#profile-comments': tab_content_current = 10; break; default: tab_content_current = 1; } if (tab_content_current != 1) { change_active_tab (tab_content_current); } function tabs_toggle (id) { if (id != tab_content_current) { change_active_tab (id); tab_content_current = id; } } function change_active_tab (id) { $j('.profile_tabs li').removeClass('active'); if (id < 8) $j('.profile_tab_'+id).addClass('active'); $j('.profile_content').hide(); $j('#profile_content_'+id).fadeIn(); } Note that it works when you actually click menu tabs. Any help to fix this problem would be greatly appreciated.

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• In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

  - by Irchi

  Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

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• SYN receives RST,ACK very frequently

  - by user1289508

  Hi Socket Programming experts, I am writing a proxy server on Linux for SQL Database server running on Windows. The proxy is coded using bsd sockets and in C, and it is working just fine. When I use a database client (written in JAVA, and running on a Linux box) to fire queries (with a concurrency of 100 or more) directly to the Database server, not experiencing connection resets. But through my proxy I am experiencing many connection resets. Digging deeper I came to know that connection from 'DB client' to 'Proxy' always succeeds but when the 'Proxy' tries to connect to the DB server the connection fails, due to the SYN packet getting RST,ACK. That was to give some background. The question is : Why does sometimes SYN receives RST,ACK? 'DB client(linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ---- Works fine 'DB client(linux) to 'Proxy(Linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ----- problematic I am aware that this can happen in "connection refused" case but this definitely is not that one. SYN flooding might be another scenario, but that does not explain fine behavior while firing to Server directly. I am suspecting some socket option setting may be required, that the client does before connecting and my proxy does not. Please put some light on this. Any help (links or pointers) is most appreciated. Additional info: Wrote a C client that does concurrent connections, which takes concurrency as an argument. Here are my observations: - At 5000 concurrency and above, some connects failed with 'connection refused'. - Below 2000, it works fine. But the actual problem is observed even at a concurrency of 100 or more. Note: The problem is time dependent sometimes it never comes at all and sometimes it is very frequent and DB client (directly to server) works fine at all times .

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• Right Language for the Job

  - by Manoj

  Using the right language for the job is the key - this is the comment I read in SO and I also belive thats the right thing to do. Because of this we ended up using different languages for different parts of the project - like perl, VBA(Excel Macros), C# etc. We have three to four languages currently in use inside the project. Using the right language for the job has made it immensly more easy to do automate a job, but of late people are complaining that any new person who has to take over the project will have to learn so many different languages to get started. Also it is difficult to find such kind of person. Please note that this is a one to two person working on the project maximum at a given point of time. I would like to know if the method we are following is right or should we converge to single language and try to use it across all the job even though another language might be better suited for it. Your experenece related to this would also help. Languages used and their purpose: Perl - Processing large text file(log files) C# with Silverlight for web based reporting. LabVIEW for automation Excel macros for processing data in excel sheets, generating graphs and exporting to powerpoint.

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• How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

  - by Day

  In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

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• ORDERBY "human" alphabetical order using SQL string manipulation

  - by supertrue

  I have a table of posts with titles that are in "human" alphabetical order but not in computer alphabetical order. These are in two flavors, numerical and alphabetical: Numerical: Figure 1.9, Figure 1.10, Figure 1.11... Alphabetical: Figure 1A ... Figure 1Z ... Figure 1AA If I orderby title, the result is that 1.10-1.19 come between 1.1 and 1.2, and 1AA-1AZ come between 1A and 1B. But this is not what I want; I want "human" alphabetical order, in which 1.10 comes after 1.9 and 1AA comes after 1Z. I am wondering if there's still a way in SQL to get the order that I want using string manipulation (or something else I haven't thought of). I am not an expert in SQL, so I don't know if this is possible, but if there were a way to do conditional replacement, then it seems I could impose the order I want by doing this: delete the period (which can be done with replace, right?) if the remaining figure number is more than three characters, add a 0 (zero) after the first character. This would seem to give me the outcome I want: 1.9 would become 109, which comes before 110; 1Z would become 10Z, which comes before 1AA. But can it be done in SQL? If so, what would the syntax be? Note that I don't want to modify the data itself—just to output the results of the query in the order described. This is in the context of a Wordpress installation, but I think the question is more suitably an SQL question because various things (such as pagination) depend on the ordering happening at the MySQL query stage, rather than in PHP.

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• How do I manipulate the format on a DataGridView that is bound to a Data Source?

  - by Jack Johnstone

  I´m using SQL Server 2005 and Visual Studio 2008, C#. In the data source (the SQL Server data table) I use the DateTime format mm/dd/yyyy, however, in a forms overview (DataGridView) users would like to see a completely other format, with year, week number and day number of week (yyww,d) which is in string format. I´ve created an algorithm for the transformation between values (date to weekday), but can I populate the affected cells with yyww,d (string) instead of mm/dd/yyyy (DateTime)? This is what I´ve been testing out, without success (and note, it´s on the last line the problem becomes obvious, as the cell value won´t accept a string on runtime - it still wants to be a DateTime...) private void DataGridViewQueryFindRequests_CellFormatting( object sender, DataGridViewCellFormattingEventArgs e) { string weekAndDay = ""; DataGridViewCell cell = DataGridViewQueryFindRequests.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[e.ColumnIndex]; if (cell.ColumnIndex == 13 && cell.Value == null) mEmptyRow = true; if ((cell.ColumnIndex == 14 || cell.ColumnIndex == 15) && !mEmptyRow) { weekAndDay = ClassWeeksAndDates.dateToWeekNumber(Convert.ToDateTime(cell.Value)); cell.ValueType = typeof(string); cell.Value = weekAndDay; } }

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• Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

  - by jeffl8n

  Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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• asp.net - updatepannel can't read innerHTML?

  - by omega

  In my asp.net page, I have a jquery sortable accordian (in an update panel) I use so that clients can re-arrange items. Then to save it, users would click a button (thats created from jquery) and it would traverse through the accoridion in the DOM, and write the info to a asp control textbox. Then invoke the click function of a asp button control, which then reads that information and saves the data. But now I decided to simplify this step, and use html agility pack in c#, so users click the asp button control (inside an update panel), and then it would get the innerHTML of the accordian. But the problem is, the html it's getting is not the reflecting the changes a user can make to the accordion (i.e. re arranging it), it the same as when the DOM was ready on page load... But note that, using javascript to write the innerHTML to a textbox, then from the c# function, I can read the up to date html from the accordian. Does anyone know why this is happening and how to get the up to data html from the accordian in c#?

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• How to align all fields as label width grows

  - by TheCloudlessSky

  I have a form where the labels are on the left and the fields on the right. This layout works great when the labels have small amounts of text. I can easily set a min-width on the labels to ensure they all have the same distance to the fields. In the first picture below, this works as expected. A problem arises when the label's text becomes too long, it'll either overflow to the next line or push the field on the same line over to the left (as seen in picture 2). This doesn't push the other labels so it is left with a "jagged" look. Ideally, it should like to style it as picture 3 with something like the following markup: <fieldset> <label>Name</label><input type="text" /><br /> <label>Username</label><input type="text" /> </fieldset> I created a jsFiddle to show the issue. Of course, the easy cross-browser way to solve this would be to use tables. That just creates tag-hell for something that should be so simple. Note: this does not need to support IE6.

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• Prototype or jQuery for DOM manipulation (client-side dynamic content)

  - by luiggitama

  I need to know which of these two JavaScript frameworks is better for client-side dynamic content modification for known DOM elements (by id), in terms of performance, memory usage, etc.: Prototype's $('id').update(content) jQuery's jQuery('#id').html(content) BTW, both libraries coexist with no conflict in my app, because I'm using RichFaces for JSF development, that's why I can use "jQuery" instead of "$". I have at least 20 updatable areas in my page, and for each one I prepare content (tables, option lists, etc.), based on some user-defined client-side criteria filtering or some AJAX event, etc., like this: var html = []; int idx = 0; ... html[idx++] = '<tr><td class="cell"><span class="link" title="View" onclick="myFunction('; html[idx++] = param; html[idx++] = ')"></span>'; html[idx++] = someText; html[idx++] = '</td></tr>'; ... So here comes the question, which is better to use: // Prototype's $('myId').update(html.join('')); // or jQuery's jQuery('#myId').html(html.join('')); Other needed functions are hide() and show(), which are present in both frameworks. Which is better? Also I'm needing to enable/disable form controls, and to read/set their values. Note that I know my updatable area's id (I don't need CSS selectors at this point). And I must tell that I'm saving these queried objects in some data structure for later use, so they are requested just once when the page is rendered, like this: MyData = {div1:jQuery('#id1'), div2:$('id2'), ...}; ... div1.update('content 1'); div2.html('content 2'); So, which is the best practice?

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