Search Results

Search found 14131 results on 566 pages for 'note'.

Page 449/566 | < Previous Page | 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456  | Next Page >

  • UIViewController maintains state after being nilled

    - by Eric
    In my app, I made a BookViewController class that displays and animates the pages of a book and a MainMenuViewController class that displays a set of books the user can read. In the latter class, when the user taps on one of the books, a function is called that should create a completely new instance of BookViewController, but for some reason the instance maintains its state (i.e. it resumes from the page the user left off). How can this be if I set it to nil? What am I missing here? (Note that I'm using ARC). MainMenuViewController.m @interface MainMenuViewController () @property (strong) BookViewController *bookViewController; @end @implementation MainMenuViewController @synthesize bookViewController; -(void)bookTapped:(UIButton *)sender{ NSString *bookTitle; if(sender == book1button) bookTitle = @"book1"; else if(sender == book2button) bookTitle = @"book2"; bookViewController = nil; bookViewController = [[BookViewController alloc] initWithBookTitle:bookTitle]; [self presentViewController:bookViewController animated:YES completion:nil]; } BookViewController.h @interface BookViewController : UIViewController -(id)initWithBookTitle:(NSString *)bookTitle; @end BookViewController.m @implementation BookViewController -(id)initWithBookTitle:(NSString *)theBookTitle{ self = [super init]; if(self){ bookTitle = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", theBookTitle]; [self setModalTransitionStyle:UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve]; NSLog(@"init a BookViewController with bookTitle: %@", bookTitle); } return self; } Every time a book is tapped, bookTapped: is called, and thee console always prints: 2012-08-31 16:29:51.750 AppName[25713:c07] init a BookViewController with bookTitle: book1 So if a new instance of BookViewController is being created, how come it seems to be returning the old one?

    Read the article

  • LINQ - 'Could not translate expression' with previously used and proven query condition

    - by tomfumb
    I am fairly new to LINQ and can't get my head around some inconsistency in behaviour. Any knowledgeable input would be much appreciated. I see similar issues on SO and elsewhere but they don't seem to help. I have a very simple setup - a company table and an addresses table. Each company can have 0 or more addresses, and if 0 one must be specified as the main address. I'm trying to handle the cases where there are 0 addresses, using an outer join and altering the select statement accordingly. Please note I'm currently binding the output straight to a GridView so I would like to keep all processing within the query. The following DOES work IQueryable query = from comp in context.Companies join addr in context.Addresses on comp.CompanyID equals addr.CompanyID into outer // outer join companies to addresses table to include companies with no address from addr in outer.DefaultIfEmpty() where (addr.IsMain == null ? true : addr.IsMain) == true // if a company has no address ensure it is not ruled out by the IsMain condition - default to true if null select new { comp.CompanyID, comp.Name, AddressID = (addr.AddressID == null ? -1 : addr.AddressID), // use -1 to represent a company that has no addresses MainAddress = String.Format("{0}, {1}, {2} {3} ({4})", addr.Address1, addr.City, addr.Region, addr.PostalCode, addr.Country) }; but this displays an empty address in the GridView as ", , ()" So I updated the MainAddress field to be MainAddress = (addr.AddressID == null ? "" : String.Format("{0}, {1}, {2} {3} ({4})", addr.Address1, addr.City, addr.Region, addr.PostalCode, addr.Country)) and now I'm getting the Could not translate expression error and a bunch of spewey auto-generated code in the error which means very little to me. The condition I added to MainAddress is no different to the working condition on AddressID, so can anybody tell me what's going on here? Any help greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Commons VFS and IBM MVS System

    - by Liming
    Hello All, I'm using Apache Commons VFS / SFTP, we are trying to download files from the IBM MVS system. The download part is all good, however, we can not open up the zipped files after downloading. Seems like the zip file was compressed using a different algorithm or something Anyone has any pointers? *Note, the same function works fine if we connect to a regular unix/linux SFTP server. Below is an example of what we did String defaultHost = "[my sftp ip address]"; String host = defaultHost; String defaultRemotePath = "//__root.dir1.dir2."; String remotePath = defaultRemotePath; String user = "test"; String password = "test"; String remoteFileName = "Blah.ZIP.BLAH"; log.info("FtpPojo() begin instantiation"); FileObject localFileObject = fsManager.resolveFile("C:/Work/Blah.ZIP.BLAH"); log.debug("local file name is :"+localFileObject.getName().getBaseName()); log.debug("FtpPojo() instantiated and fsManager created"); String uri = createSftpUri(host, user, password) + ":322"+remotePath+remoteFileName; remoteRepo = fsManager.resolveFile(uri, fsOptions); remoteRepo.copyFrom(localFileObject, Selectors.SELECT_ALL);

    Read the article

  • Pickled my dictionary from ZODB but i got a less in size one?

    - by Someone Someoneelse
    I use ZODB and i want to copy my 'database_1.fs' file to another 'database_2.fs', so I opened the root dictionary of that 'database_1.fs' and I (pickle.dump) it in a text file. Then I (pickle.load) it in a dictionary-variable, in the end I update the root dictionary of the other 'database_2.fs' with the dictionary-variable. It works, but I wonder why the size of the 'database_1.fs' not equal to the size of the other 'database_2.fs'. They are still copies of each other. def openstorage(store): #opens the database data={} data['file']=filestorage data['db']=DB(data['file']) data['conn']=data['db'].open() data['root']=data['conn'].root() return data def getroot(dicty): return dicty['root'] def closestorage(dicty): #close the database after Saving transaction.commit() dicty['file'].close() dicty['db'].close() dicty['conn'].close() transaction.get().abort() then that's what i do:- import pickle loc1='G:\\database_1.fs' op1=openstorage(loc1) root1=getroot(op1) loc2='G:database_2.fs' op2=openstorage(loc2) root2=getroot(op2) >>> len(root1) 215 >>> len(root2) 0 pickle.dump( root1, open( "save.txt", "wb" )) item=pickle.load( open( "save.txt", "rb" ) ) #now item is a dictionary root2.update(item) closestorage(op1) closestorage(op2) #after I open both of the databases #I get the same keys in both databases #But `database_2.fs` is smaller that `database_2.fs` in size I mean. >>> len(root2)==len(root1)==215 #they have the same keys True Note: (1) there are persistent dictionaries and lists in the original database_1.fs (2) both of them have the same length and the same indexes.

    Read the article

  • Ordering z-indexes in an array

    - by Tom Gullen
    I have an array which looks something along the lines of resourceData[0][0] = "pic1.jpg"; resourceData[0][1] = 5; resourceData[1][0] = "pic2.jpg"; resourceData[1][1] = 2; resourceData[2][0] = "pic3.jpg"; resourceData[2][1] = 900; resourceData[3][0] = "pic4.jpg"; resourceData[3][1] = 1; The numeric represents the z-index of the image. Minimum z-index value is 1. Maximum (not really important) is 2000. I have all the rendering and setting z-indexes done fine. My question is, I want to have four functions: // Brings image to z front function bringToFront(resourceIndex) { // Set z-index to max + 1 resourceData[resourceIndex][1] = getBiggestZindex() + 1; // Change CSS property of image to bring to front $('#imgD' + resourceIndex).css("z-index", resourceData[resourceIndex][1]); } function bringUpOne(resourceIndex) { } function bringDownOne(resourceIndex) { } // Send to back z function sendToBack(resourceIndex) { } So given then index [3] (900 z): If we send it to the back, it will take the value 1, and [3] will have to go to 2, but that conflicts with [1] who has a 2 z-index so they need to go to three etc. Is there an easy programatical way of doing this because as soon as I start doing this it's going to get messy. It's important that the indexes of the array don't change. We can't sort the array unfortunately due to design. Update Thanks for answers, I'll post the functions here once they are written incase anyone comes across this in the future (note this code has zindex listed in [6]) // Send to back z function sendToBack(resourceIndex) { resourceData[resourceIndex][6] = 1; $('#imgD' + resourceIndex).css("z-index", 1); for (i = 0; i < resourceData.length; i++) { if (i != resourceIndex) { resourceData[i][6]++; $('#imgD' + i).css("z-index", resourceData[i][6]); } } }

    Read the article

  • After a few same hql query the application freezes

    - by Oktay
    I am calling below function with the same batchNumber and it is working without problem 15 times and takes the records fromm database without problem but at 16. time the application freezes when the query.list() row is called. It just loses debug focus and not give any exception. This problem probably is not about the hql because I've seen this problem before and I used criteria instead of hql and I got pass this problem. But for this when I use "group by" in criteria(setrojection....) it doesn't return the result as hibernate model(object) just returns a list. But I need the results as model. Note: about 15 times it is just for test. This is a web aplication and user may click the button many times that calls this funtion to see the taken records from database. public List<SiteAddressModel> getSitesByBatch(String batchNumber) { try{ List<SiteAddressModel> siteList; MigrationPlanDao migrationPlanDao = ServiceFactory.getO2SiteService().getMigrationPlanDao(); Query query = this.getSession().createQuery("from " + persistentClass.getName() + " where " + "siteType =:" + "type and siteName in " + "(select distinct exchange from " + migrationPlanDao.getPersistentClass().getName() + " where migrationBatchNumber =:" + "batchNumber" + ")" ); query.setString("batchNumber", batchNumber); query.setString("type", "LLU/ASN"); System.out.println("before query"); siteList = query.list(); System.out.println("after query"); return siteList; }catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Hibernate version 3.2.0.ga

    Read the article

  • SharePoint 2007 - Content deployment and swapping content database

    - by Mel Lota
    Hi all, I'm currently working on a SharePoint 2007 site which is setup to allow clients to author content on a staging server and then this is automatically pushed up to the live environment via content deployment. The content deployment is setup in the 'Content deployment jobs and paths' in central admin. Now the problem I've got is that it seems that historically there have been a mixture of full and incremental deployments done to the live site collection which according to Stefan Goßner's best practices post (http://blogs.technet.com/stefan_gossner/pages/content-deployment-best-practices.aspx) is a bad idea due to the fact that things soon become out of sync. It's gotten to the point where the content deployment has just stopped working and incremental or full deployments are throwing errors in the logs. What I'm thinking is that I probably need to perform a full content deployment to an empty site collection and then somehow switch the new clean site collection with the current live one. I was wondering if anybody has any experience with this and could provide any pointers, I'm currently investigating the feasibility of performing the clean content deployment and then switching the live content database with the new one, however in my tests I've found that as soon as I switch content databases, the incremental deployment still fails. Any help much appreciated. (Note: I did post this on SharePoint Overflow as well, but thought I'd put it on here in case anybody else has any ideas) Cheers

    Read the article

  • How to select a single object using Linq in vb.net

    - by Hucker
    I have done a lot of searching to what appears to be a simple LINQ problem but I can't figure out how to do grab an object out of a collection that has a specified minimum (or max value) without resorting to a sort like this: > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Order By c.age Ascending).ToList.First This (untested code) structure works fine with the exception that the entire customer array must be sorted and placed into a list for the only purpose of extracting the first value. That can't be the best way to get the minimum! Note that I want the whole c record in this case, not the minumum age of a customer that can be done like this (a typical example): > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c.age).Min Or even > dim customers= GetCustomers() > > dim youngest = (From c in customers > Select c).Min(Function(x) x.age) I can't for the life of me figure out how to get the whole object (or even the index) without resorting to the sort...

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to pass Calendar new date in the bean without listener?

    - by isabsent
    I am trying to pass new date from PrimeFaces p:calendar (placed in p:dataTable column) to the backing bean: <p:column > <p:calendar value="#{bean.date}">` <p:ajax /> </p:calendar> </p:column> It does not update bean.date. Variants with <p:ajax update="@this" event="change"/> <p:ajax update="@this" event="select"/> do not update bean.date too. The only way I have found is using of listener. However, I suppose, there should be a way without listener implementation like for simple facelets: <p:column> <h:inputText value="#{bean.note}" > <f:ajax/> </h:inputText> </p:column> that works fine for me. Does anybody know how to get it working!?

    Read the article

  • Right Language for the Job

    - by Manoj
    Using the right language for the job is the key - this is the comment I read in SO and I also belive thats the right thing to do. Because of this we ended up using different languages for different parts of the project - like perl, VBA(Excel Macros), C# etc. We have three to four languages currently in use inside the project. Using the right language for the job has made it immensly more easy to do automate a job, but of late people are complaining that any new person who has to take over the project will have to learn so many different languages to get started. Also it is difficult to find such kind of person. Please note that this is a one to two person working on the project maximum at a given point of time. I would like to know if the method we are following is right or should we converge to single language and try to use it across all the job even though another language might be better suited for it. Your experenece related to this would also help. Languages used and their purpose: Perl - Processing large text file(log files) C# with Silverlight for web based reporting. LabVIEW for automation Excel macros for processing data in excel sheets, generating graphs and exporting to powerpoint.

    Read the article

  • Using the standard OBJECT tag, how can I display a java applet with automatic prompts to install Java and with fallback content?

    - by CB
    This is the code i'm currently using: (note - %s is replaced on the server side) <!--[if !IE]>--> <object type="application/x-java-applet" width="300" height="300" > <!--<![endif]--> <!--[if IE]> <object classid="clsid:8AD9C840-044E-11D1-B3E9-00805F499D93" codebase="http://java.sun.com/update/1.6.0/jinstall-6u22-windows-i586.cab" type="application/x-java-applet" width="300" height="300" > <!--><!-- <![endif]--> <param name="codebase" value="/media/vnc/" > <param name="archive" value="TightVncViewer.jar" /> <param name="code" value="com.tightvnc.vncviewer.VncViewer" /> <param name="port" value="%s" /> <param name="Open New Window" value="yes" /> </object> When Java is installed, this works perfectly in both IE and Firefox. When Java is not installed, IE and Firefox both correctly prompt for an autodownload of Java 1.6 from the codebase line. (IE via the activex url given firefox via the Plugin Finder Service) Now, suppose I want fallback content to be shown if the plugin isn't installed, say a simple message like "Get Java". From reading the specs, i'd assume this should not change the plugin finding prompt - that is, rendering the fallback should be seen as a failure to render the object tag. Thus, I should still get the plugin finder service prompting me to install Java. Instead, simply adding a single character to the innerHTML of the object element causes Firefox to no longer prompt. Test this by visiting data:text/html,<object type='application/x-java-applet'>Java failed to load</object>. How can I keep firefox prompting to install Java while providing fallback content? URL to test Firefox's Java Plugin Finder Service: data:text/html,<object type='application/x-java-applet'/>

    Read the article

  • ORDERBY "human" alphabetical order using SQL string manipulation

    - by supertrue
    I have a table of posts with titles that are in "human" alphabetical order but not in computer alphabetical order. These are in two flavors, numerical and alphabetical: Numerical: Figure 1.9, Figure 1.10, Figure 1.11... Alphabetical: Figure 1A ... Figure 1Z ... Figure 1AA If I orderby title, the result is that 1.10-1.19 come between 1.1 and 1.2, and 1AA-1AZ come between 1A and 1B. But this is not what I want; I want "human" alphabetical order, in which 1.10 comes after 1.9 and 1AA comes after 1Z. I am wondering if there's still a way in SQL to get the order that I want using string manipulation (or something else I haven't thought of). I am not an expert in SQL, so I don't know if this is possible, but if there were a way to do conditional replacement, then it seems I could impose the order I want by doing this: delete the period (which can be done with replace, right?) if the remaining figure number is more than three characters, add a 0 (zero) after the first character. This would seem to give me the outcome I want: 1.9 would become 109, which comes before 110; 1Z would become 10Z, which comes before 1AA. But can it be done in SQL? If so, what would the syntax be? Note that I don't want to modify the data itself—just to output the results of the query in the order described. This is in the context of a Wordpress installation, but I think the question is more suitably an SQL question because various things (such as pagination) depend on the ordering happening at the MySQL query stage, rather than in PHP.

    Read the article

  • SYN receives RST,ACK very frequently

    - by user1289508
    Hi Socket Programming experts, I am writing a proxy server on Linux for SQL Database server running on Windows. The proxy is coded using bsd sockets and in C, and it is working just fine. When I use a database client (written in JAVA, and running on a Linux box) to fire queries (with a concurrency of 100 or more) directly to the Database server, not experiencing connection resets. But through my proxy I am experiencing many connection resets. Digging deeper I came to know that connection from 'DB client' to 'Proxy' always succeeds but when the 'Proxy' tries to connect to the DB server the connection fails, due to the SYN packet getting RST,ACK. That was to give some background. The question is : Why does sometimes SYN receives RST,ACK? 'DB client(linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ---- Works fine 'DB client(linux) to 'Proxy(Linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ----- problematic I am aware that this can happen in "connection refused" case but this definitely is not that one. SYN flooding might be another scenario, but that does not explain fine behavior while firing to Server directly. I am suspecting some socket option setting may be required, that the client does before connecting and my proxy does not. Please put some light on this. Any help (links or pointers) is most appreciated. Additional info: Wrote a C client that does concurrent connections, which takes concurrency as an argument. Here are my observations: - At 5000 concurrency and above, some connects failed with 'connection refused'. - Below 2000, it works fine. But the actual problem is observed even at a concurrency of 100 or more. Note: The problem is time dependent sometimes it never comes at all and sometimes it is very frequent and DB client (directly to server) works fine at all times .

    Read the article

  • jQuery: part of a function not executing

    - by SODA
    Hi. I have a tabbed setup on the page and I want to automatically make corresponding menu tab highlighted as well as corresponding content div show depending on # hash. Example: http://design.vitalbmx.com/user_menu/member_profile_so.html -- no hash, opens 1st tab http://design.vitalbmx.com/user_menu/member_profile_so.html#setup -- #setup, should open "Setup" tab As you can see it works for highlighting "Setup" tab. But content div does not change. The script is below: var tab_content_current = 1; switch (window.location.hash) { case '#activity': tab_content_current = 1; break; case '#friends': tab_content_current = 2; break; case '#photos': tab_content_current = 3; break; case '#videos': tab_content_current = 4; break; case '#setup': tab_content_current = 5; break; case '#forum': tab_content_current = 6; break; case '#blog': tab_content_current = 7; break; case '#comments': tab_content_current = 8; break; case '#favorites': tab_content_current = 9; break; case '#profile-comments': tab_content_current = 10; break; default: tab_content_current = 1; } if (tab_content_current != 1) { change_active_tab (tab_content_current); } function tabs_toggle (id) { if (id != tab_content_current) { change_active_tab (id); tab_content_current = id; } } function change_active_tab (id) { $j('.profile_tabs li').removeClass('active'); if (id < 8) $j('.profile_tab_'+id).addClass('active'); $j('.profile_content').hide(); $j('#profile_content_'+id).fadeIn(); } Note that it works when you actually click menu tabs. Any help to fix this problem would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

    - by Irchi
    Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

    Read the article

  • Prototype or jQuery for DOM manipulation (client-side dynamic content)

    - by luiggitama
    I need to know which of these two JavaScript frameworks is better for client-side dynamic content modification for known DOM elements (by id), in terms of performance, memory usage, etc.: Prototype's $('id').update(content) jQuery's jQuery('#id').html(content) BTW, both libraries coexist with no conflict in my app, because I'm using RichFaces for JSF development, that's why I can use "jQuery" instead of "$". I have at least 20 updatable areas in my page, and for each one I prepare content (tables, option lists, etc.), based on some user-defined client-side criteria filtering or some AJAX event, etc., like this: var html = []; int idx = 0; ... html[idx++] = '<tr><td class="cell"><span class="link" title="View" onclick="myFunction('; html[idx++] = param; html[idx++] = ')"></span>'; html[idx++] = someText; html[idx++] = '</td></tr>'; ... So here comes the question, which is better to use: // Prototype's $('myId').update(html.join('')); // or jQuery's jQuery('#myId').html(html.join('')); Other needed functions are hide() and show(), which are present in both frameworks. Which is better? Also I'm needing to enable/disable form controls, and to read/set their values. Note that I know my updatable area's id (I don't need CSS selectors at this point). And I must tell that I'm saving these queried objects in some data structure for later use, so they are requested just once when the page is rendered, like this: MyData = {div1:jQuery('#id1'), div2:$('id2'), ...}; ... div1.update('content 1'); div2.html('content 2'); So, which is the best practice?

    Read the article

  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

    Read the article

  • asp.net - updatepannel can't read innerHTML?

    - by omega
    In my asp.net page, I have a jquery sortable accordian (in an update panel) I use so that clients can re-arrange items. Then to save it, users would click a button (thats created from jquery) and it would traverse through the accoridion in the DOM, and write the info to a asp control textbox. Then invoke the click function of a asp button control, which then reads that information and saves the data. But now I decided to simplify this step, and use html agility pack in c#, so users click the asp button control (inside an update panel), and then it would get the innerHTML of the accordian. But the problem is, the html it's getting is not the reflecting the changes a user can make to the accordion (i.e. re arranging it), it the same as when the DOM was ready on page load... But note that, using javascript to write the innerHTML to a textbox, then from the c# function, I can read the up to date html from the accordian. Does anyone know why this is happening and how to get the up to data html from the accordian in c#?

    Read the article

  • Processing data from an AJAX request

    - by Josh K
    I have a PHP API I'm working with that outputs everything as JSON. I need to call one of the API methods and parse it out using an AJAX request. I am using jQuery (though it shouldn't matter). When I make the request it errors out with a "parsererror" as the textStatus and a "Syntax Error: invalid label" when I make the request. Simplified code: $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: "http://mydomain.com/api/get/userlist/"+mid, dataType: "json", dataFilter: function(data, type) { /* Here we assume and pray */ users = eval(data); alert(users[1].id); }, success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { alert(data.length); // Should be an array, yet is undefined. }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert(textStatus); alert(errorThrown); }, complete: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus) { alert("Done"); } }); If I leave off the eval(data) then everything works fine. Well, except for data still being undefined in success. Note that I'm taking an array of objects in PHP and then passing them out through json_encode. Would that make any difference? There has been no progress made on this. I'm willing to throw more code up if someone believes they can help. Here is the PHP side of things private function _get_user_colors($id) { $u = new User(); $u->get_where(array('id' => $id)); $bar = array(); $bar['user'] = $u->stored; foreach($user->colors as $color) { $bar['colors'][] = $color; } echo(json_encode($bar)); } I have had zero issues using this with other PHP based scripts. I don't know why Javascript would take issue with it.

    Read the article

  • Best method to search heriarachal data

    - by WDuffy
    I'm looking at building a facility which allows querying for data with hierarchical filtering. I have a few ideas how I'm going to go about it but was wondering if there are any recommendations or suggestions that might be more efficient. As an example imagine that a user is searching for a job. The job areas would be as follows. 1: Scotland 2: --- West Central 3: ------ Glasgow 4: ------ Etc 5: --- North East 6: ------ Ayrshire 7: ------ Etc A user can search specific (ie Glasgow) or in a larger area (ie Scotland). The two approaches I am considering are 1: keep a note of children in the database for each record (ie cat 1 would have 2, 3, 4 in its children field) and query against that record with a SELECT * FROM Jobs WHERE Category IN Areas.childrenField. 2: Use a recursive function to find all results who have a relation to the selected area The problems I see from both are 1: holding this data in the db will mean having to keep track of all changes to structure 2: Recursion is slow and inefficent Any ideas, suggestion or recommendations on the best approach? I'm using C# ASP.NET with MSSQL 2005 DB.

    Read the article

  • Howto display or view encrypted data in encrypted form?

    - by Brian Gianforcaro
    In the Wikipedia Article on Block Cipher Modes they have a neat little diagram of an unencrypted image, the same image encrypted using ECB mode and another version of the same image encrypted using another method. At university I have developed my own implementation of DES (you can find it here) and we must demo our implementation in a presentation. I would like to display a similar example as shown above using our implementation. However most image files have header blocks associated with them, which when encrypting the file with our implementation, also get encrypted. So when you go to open them in an image viewer, they are assumed to be corrupted and can't be viewed. I was wondering if anybody new of a simple header-less image format which we could use to display these? Or if anyone had any idea's as to how the original creator of the images above achieved the above result? Any help would be appreciated, Thanks Note: I realise rolling your own cryptography library is stupid, and DES is considered broken, and ECB mode is very flawed for any useful cryptography, this was purely an academic exercise for school. So please, no lectures, I know the drill.

    Read the article

  • Generate Spring bean definition from a Java object

    - by joeslice
    Let's suggest that I have a bean defined in Spring: <bean id="neatBean" class="com..." abstract="true">...</bean> Then we have many clients, each of which have slightly different configuration for their 'neatBean'. The old way we would do it was to have a new file for each client (e.g., clientX_NeatFeature.xml) that contained a bunch of beans for this client (these are hand-edited and part of the code base): <bean id="clientXNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="something"/> </bean> Now, I want to have a UI where we can edit and redefine a client's neatBean on the fly. My question is: given a neatBean, and a UI that can 'override' properties of this bean, what would be a straightforward way to serialize this to an XML file as we do [manually] today? For example, if the user set property whatever to be "17" for client Y, I'd want to generate: <bean id="clientYNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="17"/> </bean> Note that moving this configuration to a different format (e.g., database, other-schema'd-xml) is an option, but not really an answer to the question at hand.

    Read the article

  • How to align all fields as label width grows

    - by TheCloudlessSky
    I have a form where the labels are on the left and the fields on the right. This layout works great when the labels have small amounts of text. I can easily set a min-width on the labels to ensure they all have the same distance to the fields. In the first picture below, this works as expected. A problem arises when the label's text becomes too long, it'll either overflow to the next line or push the field on the same line over to the left (as seen in picture 2). This doesn't push the other labels so it is left with a "jagged" look. Ideally, it should like to style it as picture 3 with something like the following markup: <fieldset> <label>Name</label><input type="text" /><br /> <label>Username</label><input type="text" /> </fieldset> I created a jsFiddle to show the issue. Of course, the easy cross-browser way to solve this would be to use tables. That just creates tag-hell for something that should be so simple. Note: this does not need to support IE6.

    Read the article

  • Is there a more concise regular expression to accomplish this task?

    - by mpminnich
    First off, sorry for the lame title, but I couldn't think of a better one. I need to test a password to ensure the following: Passwords must contain at least 3 of the following: upper case letters lower case letters numbers special characters Here's what I've come up with (it works, but I'm wondering if there is a better way to do this): Dim lowerCase As New Regex("[a-z]") Dim upperCase As New Regex("[A-Z]") Dim numbers As New Regex("\d") Dim special As New Regex("[\\\.\+\*\?\^\$\[\]\(\)\|\{\}\/\'\#]") Dim count As Int16 = 0 If Not lowerCase.IsMatch(txtUpdatepass.Text) Then count += 1 End If If Not upperCase.IsMatch(txtUpdatepass.Text) Then count += 1 End If If Not numbers.IsMatch(txtUpdatepass.Text) Then count += 1 End If If Not special.IsMatch(txtUpdatepass.Text) Then count += 1 End If If at least 3 of the criteria have not been met, I handle it. I'm not well versed in regular expressions and have been reading numerous tutorials on the web. Is there a way to combine all 4 regexes into one? But I guess doing that would not allow me to check if at least 3 of the criteria are met. On a side note, is there a site that has an exhaustive list of all characters that would need to be escaped in the regex (those that have special meaning - eg. $, ^, etc.)? As always, TIA. I can't express enough how awesome I think this site is.

    Read the article

  • mod_rewrite failing on uppercase dir

    - by user1855277
    I have a very basic mod_rewrite in a .htaccess file which I'm sure worked last time I looked at it, but now it is doing strange things with the case of the REQUEST_URI. It's intended purpose is to rewrite sub-domains to a given file, passing the subdomain as a php var of bnurl. Here is my code: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI}= "RSDEV/location/" [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} . RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\. [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.co\.uk(:80)? [NC] RewriteRule ^RSDEV/location/$ RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=%1&accesstype=new [NC,L] Now, typing joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/RSDEV/location/ into my web browser comes back with the response "The requested URL /RSDEV/location/ was not found on this server" which is a correct statement because /RSDEV/location/ is not a real directory, but why did it not rewrite to RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=joebloggs&accesstype=new as expected? Now, the really strange thing here is that if I enter joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/rsdev/location/ into my browser (note rsdev is now lowercase), it correctly rewrites as expected. The script newmain.php is in dir RSDEV (uppercase) so if it was going to fail, I would have expected it to fail the other way round with the lowercase rsdev. As you can see, I have [NC] on each line. Is this my mod_rewrite code failing or some other mystical server force keeping me up all night?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456  | Next Page >