Search Results

Search found 14131 results on 566 pages for 'note'.

Page 447/566 | < Previous Page | 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454  | Next Page >

  • Checkbox not checkable in dialog ui

    - by Sable Foste
    I am trying to solve a z-index problem with the jQuery UI Dialog, similar to question Can't select or deselect checkboxes inside jQuery UI Modal Dialog , knowing there is a bug report out there. So in trying to up the z-index as recommended, I added the following code: $('#interface').click(function(evform){ $('#interface').prop('z-index')=99999; }); where the chrome and firefox console.log states: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment HOWEVER, despite the error, the checkbox now works (throwing the console error every time). If I remove the offending line, the checkbox becomes "unclickable". How can I properly code this? My HTML: <div id="dialog" title="Loading..."> <p id="interface">Loading...</p> </div> (by the way, I tried adding inline style to the <p>, and it didn't work: <p id="interface" style="z-index:99999">Loading...</p> And with AJAX, I replace the contents of '#interface' with valid checkbox html such as: <label for="right"> <input name="right" type="checkbox"> </label> and I have the usual jQuery/Dialog UI files included. One final note, I tried to get creative, since this wasn't working and manually switch the checkbox by: if ($(evform.target).prop('type')=="checkbox"){ $(evform.target).checked; } Thank you to anyone willing to help me figure this out!

    Read the article

  • .NET security mechanism to restrict access between two Types in the same project?

    - by jdk
    Question: Is there a mechanism in the .NET Framework to hide one custom Type from another without using separate projects/assemblies? I'm using C# with ASP.NET in a Website project. Note: I'm not talking about access modifiers to hide members of a Type from another type - I mean to hide the Type itself. Background: I'm working in an ASP.NET Website project and the team has decided not to use separate project assemblies for different software layers. Therefore I'm looking for a way to have, for example, a DataAccess/ folder of which I disallow its classes to access other Types in the same ASP.NET Website project. In other words I want to fake the layers and have some kind of security mechanism around each layer to prevent it from accessing another. Obviously there's not a way to enforce this restriction using language-specific OO keywords so I am looking for something else, for example: maybe a permission framework or code access mechanism, maybe something that uses meta data like Attributes. Even something that restricts one namespace from accessing another. I'm unsure the final form it might take. If this were C++ I'd likely be using friend to make as solution, which doesn't translate to C# internal in this case although they're often compared. I don't really care whether the solution actually hides Types from each other or just makes them inaccessible; however I don't want to lock down one Type from all others, another reason access modifiers are not a solution. A runtime or design time answer will suffice. Looking for something easy to implement otherwise it's not worth the effort ...

    Read the article

  • Undefined test not working in javascript.

    - by James South
    I'm getting the error 'foo' is undefined. in my script when i test my function with an undefined parameter. As far as I understand, This shouldn't be happening. My calling code: //var foo var test = peachUI().stringIsNullOrEmpty(foo) ; My function (part of a larger framework). stringIsNullOrEmpty: function (testString) { /// <summary> /// Checks to see if a given string is null or empty. /// </summary> /// <param name="testString" type="String"> /// The string check against. /// </param> /// <returns type="Boolean" /> var $empty = true; if (typeof testString !== "undefined") { if (testString && typeof testString === "string") { if (testString.length > 0) { $empty = false; } } } return $empty; } Any ideas? Please note. I've had a good read of other similar questions before posting this one.

    Read the article

  • Firefox "intelligently" and silently fixes incorrect file references in CSS and Scripts at runtime.

    - by bobsoap
    Well this is a really weird issue, I really didn't find anything on this elsewhere so I thought I'd address it here. Say I have an "image.jpg" and accidentally reference it in the CSS like so: url(imag.jpg) Note the missing "e". Now for me, Firefox is so incredibly clever that it will still find the correct image, but NOT SPIT OUT A WARNING. So I assume that everything is ok. But later, when I test the page in any other browser, all of a sudden the image doesn't display (and rightly so). That's because Firefox thought it was a good idea to correct my error without telling me. This becomes more critical with scripts. Firefox will also auto-correct a typo in a reference. I just wasted a whole hour scratching my head and trying to debug an ajax function in Webkit - turns out, I just had a typo where I included the file. Why on earth does Firefox do this without telling, and where the heck can I turn this off? This has first occured somewhere around FF 3.0 and still persists in 3.6.3. /rant an thank fo any inpu ;)

    Read the article

  • What the heck is the "Structure and Interpretation of Computer Programs" cover drawing about?

    - by Paul Reiners
    What the heck is the Structure and Interpretation of Computer Programs cover drawing about? I mean I know what "eval", "apply", and '?' all mean, but I'm having a hard time deciphering the rest of the picture. Who the heck is the maiden? Does she work for the wizard? Why the heck is she pointing at the table? Is she pointing at that little bowl-type thing? Or the books? Or the table in general? Is she trying to tell the wizard that he should apply some sort of Lisp wizardry to the table or the items on it? Or is she just telling him something prosaic, such as his food is getting cold? What the heck is the one leg on that table that looks like...a leg...with a foot at the end (as legs tend to have)? How does the table balance on one leg? (Or is that another leg in the shadows?) [Note: I'm waiting for a lengthy build to finish in case you were wondering.]

    Read the article

  • jquery problem in IE working fine in FF

    - by Bharanikumar
    function populate_customer_details(){ $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'populate_customer_details.php', data: { email : $('#txt_email_id').val() }, success : function(data){ if(data=="NOROWSFOUND"){ alert("Sorry, Email ID not exist in our database"); document.getElementById("txt_email_id").focus(); }else{ var val = explode_all_into_arr(data,"|=|"); document.getElementById("FirstName").value = val[0]; document.getElementById("LastName").value = val[1]; document.getElementById("mobilecountrycode").value = parseInt(val[2]); document.getElementById("MobileNo").value = val[3]; document.getElementById("homecountrycode").value = parseInt(val[4]); document.getElementById("HomeNo").value = val[5]; document.getElementById("PaxEmail").value = val[6]; document.getElementById("PaxEmailConf").value = val[6]; } }, }); } This is my snippet purpose is getting the customer details and populate into textfield and combo box , That is Firstname will append into Firstname text field , Secondname will append into Secondname text field , Same like mobilecountrycode (but this is dropdown combo), Some time combo selectedindex work fine, but some time not selecting the value , I am not sure what s problem in that... Nothing works in IE , Also showing object expected error in IE , i have ajax_common.js : in this i added above script , in the page top first i included the jquery.js , Then i include ajax_common.js file, But no idea why this problem. Regards (NOTE i included the jquery.js ) ,

    Read the article

  • Why does my program not react to any arguments?

    - by Electric Coffee
    I have a simple test program in C++ that prints out attributes of a circle #include <iostream> #include <stdlib.h> #include "hidden_functions.h" // contains the Circle class using namespace std; void print_circle_attributes(float r) { Circle* c = new Circle(r); cout << "radius: " << c->get_radius() << endl; cout << "diameter: " << c->get_diameter() << endl; cout << "area: " << c->get_area() << endl; cout << "circumference: " << c->get_circumference() << endl; cout << endl; delete c; } int main(int argc, const char* argv[]) { float input = atof(argv[0]); print_circle_attributes(input); return 0; } when I run my program with the parameter 2.4 it outputs: radius: 0.0 diameter: 0.0 area: 0.0 circumference: 0.0 I've previously tested the program without the parameter, but simply using static values, and it ran just fine; so I know there's nothing wrong with the class I made... So what did I do wrong here? Note: the header is called hidden_functions.h because it served to test out how it would work if I had functions not declared in the header

    Read the article

  • Should .net comments start with a capital letter and end with a period?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Depending on the feedback I get, I might raise this "standard" with my colleagues. This might become a custom StyleCop rule. is there one written already? So, Stylecop already dictates this for summary, param, and return documentation tags. Do you think it makes sense to demand the same from comments? On related note: if a comment is already long, then should it be written as a proper sentence? For example (perhaps I tried too hard to illustrate a bad comment): //if exception quit vs. // If an exception occurred, then quit. If figured - most of the time, if one bothers to write a comment, then it might as well be informative. Consider these two samples: //if exception quit if (exc != null) { Application.Exit(-1); } and // If an exception occurred, then quit. if (exc != null) { Application.Exit(-1); } Arguably, one does not need a comment at all, but since one is provided, I would think that the second one is better. Please back up your opinion. Do you have a good reference for the art of commenting, particularly if it relates to .Net? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Desine time XAML serialization problem in VS2010 Designer

    - by Reporting Avatar
    The wired problem is, in VS 2008, everything works fine. In VS2010 while serializing, it is missing the "ReportDimensionElements" so I'm unable to get the values back from the serialized value back from the XAML. It says, "'ReportDimensionElements' is null" am I missing anything silly. Note: I have marked the ReportDimensionElements class with [DefaultValue(null)] for avoiding {x:Null} being serialized. Will it be causing this by any way? Serialized XAML .Net 3.5 <Report> <Report.CategoricalAxis> <CategoricalAxis> <CategoricalAxis.ReportDimensionElements> <ReportDimensionElements Capacity="4"> <ReportDimensionElement DimensionName="Customer" HierarchyName="Customer Geography" LevelName="Country" /> </ReportDimensionElements> </CategoricalAxis.ReportDimensionElements> </CategoricalAxis> </Report.CategoricalAxis> </Report> .Net 4.0 <Report> <Report.CategoricalAxis> <CategoricalAxis> <CategoricalAxis.ReportDimensionElements> <ReportDimensionElement DimensionName="Customer" HierarchyName="Customer Geography" LevelName="Country" /> </CategoricalAxis.ReportDimensionElements> </CategoricalAxis> </Report.CategoricalAxis> </Report> Great Thanks

    Read the article

  • C vs C++ function questions

    - by james
    I am learning C, and after starting out learning C++ as my first compiled language, I decided to "go back to basics" and learn C. There are two questions that I have concerning the ways each language deals with functions. Firstly, why does C "not care" about the scope that functions are defined in, whereas C++ does? For example, int main() { donothing(); return 0; } void donothing() { } the above will not compile in a C++ compiler, whereas it will compile in a C compiler. Why is this? Isn't C++ mostly just an extension on C, and should be mostly "backward compatible"? Secondly, the book that I found (Link to pdf) does not seem to state a return type for the main function. I check around and found other books and websites and these also commonly do not specify return types for the main function. If I try to compile a program that does not specify a return type for main, it compiles fine (although with some warnings) in a C compiler, but it doesn't compile in a C++ compiler. Again, why is that? Is it better style to always specify the return type as an integer rather than leaving it out? Thanks for any help, and just as a side note, if anyone can suggest a better book that I should buy that would be great!

    Read the article

  • Mapping element via joining table with NHibernate

    - by NhibernateIdiot
    This is stuff ive done lots of times before but my mind is just blanking at the moment, i will try and give a simple overview of my current situation. I currently have 3 tables as shown below: Office > id, name Person > id, name Office_Personnel > office_id, person_id I then have a model for Person (id, name) and Office, however the Office model contains personnel information: public class Office { int Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} ICollection<Person> Personnel {get;set;} } Mapping person is easy, but now im a bit stumped as to why office wont map properly. I chose to use a set when I was mapping the Personnel as there shouldn't be any duplicates, however it doesn't seem to work as I would expect... <set name="Personnel" table="office_personnel" cascade="all"> <key column="office_id" /> <one-to-many class="Person"/> </set> Now one thing that strikes me as odd is that there is no indication as to what person should be binding to (person_id). It keeps trying to find *office_id* column within the Person table. I'm sure this is just some simple problem and im being an idiot, but any help would be great! On a side note, I was weighing up if I should even bother having a middle man table, as I could directly put an Office_Id column within the Person table, but im not 100% sure if in my real project the Person class could be in multiple Offices further down the line...

    Read the article

  • C# Linq Select Problem in Method Chain.

    - by Gnought
    Note that the _src inherit IQueryable<U> and V inherit new(); I wrote the following statement, there is no syntax error. IQueryable<V> a = from s in _src where (s.Right - 1 == s.Left) select new V(); But if i re-wrote it as follows, the Visual Studio editor complains an error in the "Select" IQueryable<V> d = _src.Where(s => s.Right - 1 == s.Left).Select(s=> new V()); The Error is: The type arguments cannot be inferred from the usage. Try specifying the type arguments explicitly. Candidates are: System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<V> Select<U,V>(this System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<U>, System.Func<U,V>) (in class Enumerable) System.Linq.IQueryable<V> Select<U,V>(this System.Linq.IQueryable<U>, System.Linq.Expressions.Expression<System.Func<U,V>>) (in class Queryable) Could anyone explain this phenomenon, and what the solution is to fix the error?

    Read the article

  • Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

    - by StackedCrooked
    Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

    Read the article

  • MYSQL inserting records form table A into tables B and C (linked by foreign key) depending on column values in table A

    - by Chez
    Hi All, Have been searching high and low for a simple solution to a mysql insert problem. The problem is as follows: I am putting together an organisational database consisting of departments and desks. A department may or may not have n number of desks. Both departments and desks have their own table linked by a foreign key in desks to the relevant record in departments (i.e. the pk). I have a temporary table which I use to place all new department data (n records long)...In this table n number of desk records for a department follow the department record directly below. In the TEMP table, if a column department_name has a value,it is a department, if it doesn't it will have a value for the column desk and therefore will be a desk which is related to the above department. As I said there maybe several desk records until you get to the next department record. Ok, so what I want to do is the following: Insert the departments into the departments table and its desks into the desks table , generating a foreign key in the desk record to the relevant departments id. In pseudo-ish code: for each record in TEMP table if Department INSERT the record into Departments get the id of the newly created Department record and store it somewhere else if Desk INSERT the desk into the desks table with the relevant departments id as the foreignkey note once again that all departments desks directly follow the department in the TEMP Table Many Thanks

    Read the article

  • Adding UIView on top of all views dynamically during runtime?

    - by Easwaramoorthy Kanagaraj
    Team, I am trying to bring a menu in top of all visible views during runtime. This menu should be easily addable and removable dynamically in certain conditions. To do this, I have tried adding a button view to the UIWindow as a subview during runtime. UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; [button addTarget:self action:nil forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchDown]; [button setTitle:@"Show View" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; button.frame = CGRectMake(80.0, 210.0, 160.0, 40.0); [window addSubview:button]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; [window bringSubviewToFront:button]; But it doesnt worked. Also I have tried to place this button in the root view controller, but no luck again. Edit - Note: This code is not from a UIViewController. I am trying to build a library this will be in that library code. Use case be like you could post NSNotification to enable and disable this menu dynamically during runtime. Please suggest. Thanks !

    Read the article

  • modified closure warning in ReSharper

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I was hoping someone could explain to me what bad thing could happen in this code, which causes ReSharper to give an 'Access to modified closure' warning: bool result = true; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result)) { result = result && ContainsKey(key); } return result; Even if the code above seems safe, what bad things could happen in other 'modified closure' instances? I often see this warning as a result of using LINQ queries, and I tend to ignore it because I don't know what could go wrong. ReSharper tries to fix the problem by making a second variable that seems pointless to me, e.g. it changes the foreach line above to: bool result1 = result; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result1)) Update: on a side note, apparently that whole chunk of code can be converted to the following statement, which causes no modified closure warnings: return keys.Aggregate( true, (current, key) => current && ContainsKey(key) );

    Read the article

  • Logic: Best way to sample & count bytes of a 100MB+ file

    - by Jami
    Let's say I have this 170mb file (roughly 180 million bytes). What I need to do is to create a table that lists: all 4096 byte combinations found [column 'bytes'], and the number of times each byte combination appeared in it [column 'occurrences'] Assume two things: I can save data very fast, but I can update my saved data very slow. How should I sample the file and save the needed information? Here're some suggestions that are (extremely) slow: Go through each 4096 byte combinations in the file, save each data, but search the table first for existing combinations and update it's values. this is unbelievably slow Go through each 4096 byte combinations in the file, save until 1 million rows of data in a temporary table. Go through that table and fix the entries (combine repeating byte combinations), then copy to the big table. Repeat going through another 1 million rows of data and repeat the process. this is faster by a bit, but still unbelievably slow This is kind of like taking the statistics of the file. NOTE: I know that sampling the file can generate tons of data (around 22Gb from experience), and I know that any solution posted would take a bit of time to finish. I need the most efficient saving process

    Read the article

  • Managing server instance identity on EC2

    - by kikibobo
    I recently brought up a cluster on EC2, and I felt like I had to invent a lot of things. I'm wondering what kinds of tools, patterns, ideas are out there for how to deal with this. Some context: I had 3 different kinds of servers, so first I created AMIs for each of them. The first AMI had zookeeper, so step one in deploying the system was to get the zookeeper server running. My script then made a note of the mapping between EC2's completely arbitrary and unpredictable hostnames, and the zookeeper server. Then as I brought up new instances of the other 2 kinds of servers, the first thing I would do is ssh to the new server, and add the zookeeper server to its /etc/hosts file. Then as the server software on each instance starts up, it can find zookeeper. Obviously this is a problem that lots of people have to solve, and it probably works a little bit differently in different clouds. Are there products that address this concept? I was pretty surprised that EC2 didn't provide some kind of way to tie your own name to its name. Thanks for any ideas.

    Read the article

  • How to style "form" field labels in Windows Phone 7?

    - by Jeremy Bell
    Is there any standards guidance on how to style field labels next to form fields in windows phone 7 silverlight applications? For example, let's say I have a StackPanel with the TextBlock label and a TextBox for data entry. Currently I am using the default TextBlock Margin included in the PhoneTextSubtleStyle ("12,0,12,0"), and using a Margin of "0,-12,0,0" to push the TextBox up closer to the label: <StackPanel HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <TextBlock VerticalAlignment="Center" Text="Name" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextSubtleStyle}" /> <TextBox Text="{Binding ItemName, Mode=TwoWay}" TextChanged="TextBox_TextChanged" VerticalAlignment="Center" Width="433" Margin="0,-12,0,0" /> </StackPanel> Note that the TextBox seems to have some internal padding of 12 pixels to the left and right, so that the TextBlock label and the TextBox control visually line up perfectly on the left. The problem is, I see existing apps with widely varying conventions for field label styling. Some do not do the negative margin adjustment, like I have above. Some don't. Some appear to override the label TextBlock Margin so that it is indented an additional 12 pixels on the left (i.e. "24,0,12,0" instead of the default "12,0,12,0"). Some apps put the labels to the left of the fields themselves (I hate that). Is there some standard design guidance on field labels in Windows Phone 7? I read through the design template PDF and could only determine that the field labels should be upper case on the first word (preferably only one word labels), and should NOT have a colon at the end. I didn't see anything with regards to margins or alignment between the label and the field.

    Read the article

  • sIFR multiple calls don't work :(

    - by roxane
    Hello ! I'm trying to use sIFR on my menu and on my headers... but only one call works... the others that I put after never appear :(... Can somebody help me ? Note : I'm using the r436 and below is my code ... var segoe = { src: 'pathto/segoe.swf', ratios: [7, 1.58, 8, 1.49, 10, 1.5, 11, 1.45, 16, 1.46, 21, 1.44, 22, 1.41, 27, 1.42, 30, 1.41, 32, 1.4, 35, 1.41, 36, 1.4, 38, 1.39, 41, 1.4, 58, 1.39, 65, 1.38, 66, 1.39, 102, 1.38, 104, 1.37, 106, 1.38, 107, 1.37, 108, 1.38, 109, 1.37, 110, 1.38, 112, 1.37, 114, 1.38, 120, 1.37, 121, 1.38, 1.37] }; sIFR.activate(segoe); sIFR.replace(segoe, { selector: '#header ul li a span.title', css: ['.sIFR-root { text-align: center; font-size:13px; letter-spacing:2; font-weight: bold; text-transform:uppercase; cursor: pointer; color:#FFFFFF; background-color:#0C2C39; margin:0 3px; }'], wmode: 'transparent' }); sIFR.replace(segoe, { selector: 'h1', css: ['.sIFR-root { text-align: center; font-size:13px; letter-spacing:2; font-weight: bold; text-transform:uppercase; cursor: pointer; color:#000; background-color:#fff; margin:0 3px; }'] });

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to pass Calendar new date in the bean without listener?

    - by isabsent
    I am trying to pass new date from PrimeFaces p:calendar (placed in p:dataTable column) to the backing bean: <p:column > <p:calendar value="#{bean.date}">` <p:ajax /> </p:calendar> </p:column> It does not update bean.date. Variants with <p:ajax update="@this" event="change"/> <p:ajax update="@this" event="select"/> do not update bean.date too. The only way I have found is using of listener. However, I suppose, there should be a way without listener implementation like for simple facelets: <p:column> <h:inputText value="#{bean.note}" > <f:ajax/> </h:inputText> </p:column> that works fine for me. Does anybody know how to get it working!?

    Read the article

  • Search and highlight in html with multiple keywords as a single string

    - by Qiusheng
    In JavaScript, by given a html string with tags like: This string has different fonts. <b>This</b> <i>string</i> <span style="background-color: rgb(212, 239, 181);">has</span> <b>different</b> <i>fonts</i>. When user searches for a search term with multiple words like "different fonts". How can I add highlighting to make the html string look like: <b>This</b> <i>string</i> <span style="background-color: rgb(212, 239, 181);">has</span> <span class="highlight"> <b>different</b> <i>fonts</i> </span>. Please note that the search term is treated as a single string as if the words are in a quote, so I cannot search and highlight each word individually.

    Read the article

  • Div's are not filtered as :hidden when display:none; is appended as style

    - by CodeMonkey
    Hey folks I have some simple HTML: <div id="selectorContainer"> <div id="chainedSelector" style="display: none;"><% Html.RenderPartial("ProjectSuggest/ChainedProjectSelector"); %></div> <div id="suggestSelector"><% Html.RenderPartial("ProjectSuggest/SuggestControl", new SuggestModeDTO{RegistrationMode = Model.RegistrationMode}); %></div> </div> which is two containers for controls. I have jQuery code to toggle between displaying these, but I need to store as a cookie which one was used last time the user was logged in (i.e. which one was visible). The storing of the cookie is not the problem. The problem is that I for some reason am not able to detect which one is the hidden one, using .is(":hidden"), and not able to detect which one is visible using .is(":visible") When I use those two selectors, I always get both. "true" and "true" for both, eventhough one has display: none; and the other doesn't. Please note that they are NOT placed inside a hidden container which otherwise would hide both, so there are not any hidden ancestor containers. Can anyone maybe explain why this could happen? jQuery code containing source for getting the Id's and for getting the selected one (which currently is broken): getChainedSelectorId: function() { return "#chainedSelector"; }, getSuggestSelectorId: function() { return "#suggestSelector"; }, getSelectedSelector: function() { alert($(this.getChainedSelectorId()).is(":hidden")); alert($(this.getSuggestSelectorId()).is(":hidden")); var selected = ($(this.getChainedSelectorId()).is(":visible") ? this.getChainedSelectorId() : this.getSuggestSelectorId()); alert(selected); return selected; }, Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Unknown reason for code executing the way it does in python

    - by Jasper
    Hi I am a beginner programmer, using python on Mac. I created a function as a part of a game which receives the player's input for the main character's name. The code is: import time def newGameStep2(): print ' ****************************************** ' print '\nStep2\t\t\t\tCharacter Name' print '\nChoose a name for your character. This cannot\n be changed during the game. Note that there\n are limitations upon the name.' print '\nLimitations:\n\tYou cannot use:\n\tCommander\n\tLieutenant\n\tMajor\n\t\tas these are reserved.\n All unusual capitalisations will be removed.\n There is a two-word-limit on names.' newStep2Choice = raw_input('>>>') newStep2Choice = newStep2Choice.lower() if 'commander' in newStep2Choice or 'lieutenant' in newStep2Choice or 'major' in newStep2Choice: print 'You cannot use the terms \'commander\', \'lieutenant\' or \'major\' in the name. They are reserved.\n' print time.sleep(2) newGameStep2() else: newStep2Choice = newStep2Choice.split(' ') newStep2Choice = [newStep2Choice[0].capitalize(), newStep2Choice[1].capitalize()] newStep2Choice = ' ' .join(newStep2Choice) return newStep2Choice myVar = newGameStep2() print myVar When I was testing, I inputted 'major a', and when it asked me to input another name, i inputted 'a b'. However, when it returned the output of the function, it returns 'major a'. I went through this with a debugger, yet I still can't seem to find where the problem occurred. Thanks for any help, Jasper

    Read the article

  • How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

    - by Day
    In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 443 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454  | Next Page >