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• Creating 1 page PDF of iPad Screen view - How?

  - by user314695

  Hi All, I've asked this question on a couple other forums and have had zero response, so I'm hoping someone here can help point me in the right direction. I have a pretty simple one screen application for my work. It's basically just a recreation of a 1 page paper report that has a company logo, some labels, a few text boxes and a scroll text box for the report. I need to be able to fill out the report then click a button to save it in a graphical form so I can fax, print or email it later. Currently, I'm just programmatically taking a screen capture and saving it to the photo's library (default for screen capture). Then I can just email it from photo's. This works ok, but is kind of hacky, at best. I've read through the new iPad 3.2 guide for creating PDF's (apparently it's supposed to be much easier than before) but I can not get it to work and I've spent countless hours on it now. I'm hoping someone has the answer for me. Alternatively, if anyone knows how I can redirect where the screen capture is stored (default is in the photo album) then maybe I can make that function work. If I could redirect the screen capture to store in my applications document folder, then I can use MFMailCompose to attach it to an email. Lastly, on a side note, does anyone know of a good way to capture a digital signature via touch. For instance, I'd love to have my users be able to just sign their name via touch at the bottom of the document before I convert to PDF or take a screen capture. Thanks in advance for your help. -Ray

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• ORDERBY "human" alphabetical order using SQL string manipulation

  - by supertrue

  I have a table of posts with titles that are in "human" alphabetical order but not in computer alphabetical order. These are in two flavors, numerical and alphabetical: Numerical: Figure 1.9, Figure 1.10, Figure 1.11... Alphabetical: Figure 1A ... Figure 1Z ... Figure 1AA If I orderby title, the result is that 1.10-1.19 come between 1.1 and 1.2, and 1AA-1AZ come between 1A and 1B. But this is not what I want; I want "human" alphabetical order, in which 1.10 comes after 1.9 and 1AA comes after 1Z. I am wondering if there's still a way in SQL to get the order that I want using string manipulation (or something else I haven't thought of). I am not an expert in SQL, so I don't know if this is possible, but if there were a way to do conditional replacement, then it seems I could impose the order I want by doing this: delete the period (which can be done with replace, right?) if the remaining figure number is more than three characters, add a 0 (zero) after the first character. This would seem to give me the outcome I want: 1.9 would become 109, which comes before 110; 1Z would become 10Z, which comes before 1AA. But can it be done in SQL? If so, what would the syntax be? Note that I don't want to modify the data itself—just to output the results of the query in the order described. This is in the context of a Wordpress installation, but I think the question is more suitably an SQL question because various things (such as pagination) depend on the ordering happening at the MySQL query stage, rather than in PHP.

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• Is it possible to send back a json array along with seperate variables

  - by Scarface

  Hey guys I have an ajax jquery function that receives data from a php script. I want to return an array with all the online users which is retrieved from a mysql statement, and I want to send other separate variables I need for other purposes along with it. If anyone has any ideas, I would greatly appreciate it. NOTE: the example below is to illustrate what I want to do, I understand that json-encoding the array with other variables is dysfunctional. JQUERY $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "parameters", url: "retrieval.php", dataType: 'json', success: function(json) { $('#div1').html(json.array); $('#div2').html(json.variable1); $('#div3').html(json.variable2); } }) PHP $qryuserscount1="SELECT * FROM active_users"; $userscount1=mysql_query($qryuserscount1); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($userscount1)) { $onlineuser= $row['username']; $id=$row['id']; $data[]=$onlineuser.$id; //for example there are 3 users, should send 3 entries back } $data['variable1']='something'; $data['variable2']='something else'; $out = json_encode($data); print $out;

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• How do I execute a sql statement through a variable (dyname sql) that tries to do an insert into a variable table?

  - by Testifier

  If I do what I wanna do with a TEMPORARY TABLE, it works fine: DECLARE @CTRFR VARCHAR(MAX) SET @CTRFR = 'select blah blah blah' -- <-- very long select statement. this returns a 0 or some greater number. Please note! --> I NEED THIS NUMBER. IF EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo][#CTRFRResult]') AND type IN ( N'U' ) ) DROP TABLE [dbo].[#CTRFRResult] CREATE TABLE #CTRFRResult ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into #CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR EXEC(@CTRFR) The above works fine. The problem is that several databases are using the same TEMP table. Therefore I need to use a VARIABLE table (instead of a temporary table). What I have below is not working because it says that the table must be declared. DECLARE @CTRFRResult TABLE ( CTRFRResult VARCHAR(MAX) ) SET @CTRFR = 'insert into @CTRFRResult ' + @CTRFR -- I think the issue is here. EXEC(@CTRFR) Setting @CTRFR to 'insert into...' is not working because I'm assuming the table name is out of scope. How would I go about mimicking the temporary table code using a variable table?

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• .NET security mechanism to restrict access between two Types in the same project?

  - by jdk

  Question: Is there a mechanism in the .NET Framework to hide one custom Type from another without using separate projects/assemblies? I'm using C# with ASP.NET in a Website project. Note: I'm not talking about access modifiers to hide members of a Type from another type - I mean to hide the Type itself. Background: I'm working in an ASP.NET Website project and the team has decided not to use separate project assemblies for different software layers. Therefore I'm looking for a way to have, for example, a DataAccess/ folder of which I disallow its classes to access other Types in the same ASP.NET Website project. In other words I want to fake the layers and have some kind of security mechanism around each layer to prevent it from accessing another. Obviously there's not a way to enforce this restriction using language-specific OO keywords so I am looking for something else, for example: maybe a permission framework or code access mechanism, maybe something that uses meta data like Attributes. Even something that restricts one namespace from accessing another. I'm unsure the final form it might take. If this were C++ I'd likely be using friend to make as solution, which doesn't translate to C# internal in this case although they're often compared. I don't really care whether the solution actually hides Types from each other or just makes them inaccessible; however I don't want to lock down one Type from all others, another reason access modifiers are not a solution. A runtime or design time answer will suffice. Looking for something easy to implement otherwise it's not worth the effort ...

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• Grouping by date, with 0 when count() yields no lines

  - by SCO

  I'm using Postgresql 9 and I'm fighting with counting and grouping when no lines are counted. Let's assume the following schema : create table views { date_event timestamp with time zone ; event_id integer; } Let's imagine the following content : 2012-01-01 00:00:05 2 2012-01-01 01:00:05 5 2012-01-01 03:00:05 8 2012-01-01 03:00:15 20 I want to group by hour, and count the number of lines. I wish I could retrieve the following : 2012-01-01 00:00:00 1 2012-01-01 01:00:00 1 2012-01-01 02:00:00 0 2012-01-01 03:00:00 2 2012-01-01 04:00:00 0 2012-01-01 05:00:00 0 . . 2012-01-07 23:00:00 0 I mean that for each time range slot, I count the number of lines in my table whose date correspond, otherwise, I return a line with a count at zero. The following will definitely not work (will yeld only lines with counted lines 0). SELECT extract ( hour from date_event ),count(*) FROM views where date_event > '2012-01-01' and date_event <'2012-01-07' GROUP BY extract ( hour from date_event ); Please note I might also need to group by minute, or by hour, or by day, or by month, or by year (multiple queries is possible of course). I can only use plain old sql, and since my views table can be very big (100M records), I try to keep performance in mind. How can this be achieved ? Thank you !

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• Desine time XAML serialization problem in VS2010 Designer

  - by Reporting Avatar

  The wired problem is, in VS 2008, everything works fine. In VS2010 while serializing, it is missing the "ReportDimensionElements" so I'm unable to get the values back from the serialized value back from the XAML. It says, "'ReportDimensionElements' is null" am I missing anything silly. Note: I have marked the ReportDimensionElements class with [DefaultValue(null)] for avoiding {x:Null} being serialized. Will it be causing this by any way? Serialized XAML .Net 3.5 <Report> <Report.CategoricalAxis> <CategoricalAxis> <CategoricalAxis.ReportDimensionElements> <ReportDimensionElements Capacity="4"> <ReportDimensionElement DimensionName="Customer" HierarchyName="Customer Geography" LevelName="Country" /> </ReportDimensionElements> </CategoricalAxis.ReportDimensionElements> </CategoricalAxis> </Report.CategoricalAxis> </Report> .Net 4.0 <Report> <Report.CategoricalAxis> <CategoricalAxis> <CategoricalAxis.ReportDimensionElements> <ReportDimensionElement DimensionName="Customer" HierarchyName="Customer Geography" LevelName="Country" /> </CategoricalAxis.ReportDimensionElements> </CategoricalAxis> </Report.CategoricalAxis> </Report> Great Thanks

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• How to load two divs into separate targets with JQuery?

  - by Bussard

  Hi all, I'm trying to achieve two things, both of which I fail to get at. On a server are a series of notes; all contain a div (id=ajxContent). Some notes also contain an additiona div (id=ajxHead). The ajxContent itself contains links (class=clicking) to call the next installment, hence the link destination in a variable. This is my code: $(document).ready(function(){ $( 'a.clicking' ).live('click', function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var theLink = $(this).attr('href'); $('#loadText').load(theLink + '#ajxContent'); $('h1').load(theLink + '#ajxHead'); }); }) Where it fails: 1) the ajxContent gets loaded into the h1 tag as well as in its intended target. 2) when I had set up the code differently, if there was no div id=ajxHead present in a note, the load would nevertheless erase the existing value in the h1 tag. Am I on a totally wrong track here, with two load statements? Input is very welcome, thanks.

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• How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

  - by Day

  In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

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• Exchange Server 2010: move mailboxes from recoveded and mounted edb to user's mailbox [closed]

  - by Cook

  One of our exchange servers crashed, and I am trying to recover the mailboxes. We had 1 exchange 2003 server named "apex" and 1 exchange 2010 server named "2008Enterprise. the exchange 2010 server named "2008Enterprise" crashed. I created a new exchange 2010 server named "Providence". I ran the command on Providence: New-MailboxDatabase -Recovery -Name JBCMail -Server Providence -EdbFilePath "c:\data\Exchange\Mailbox\Mailbox Database 0579285147\Mailbox Database 0579285147.edb" -LogFolderPath "c:\data\Exchange\Mailbox\Mailbox Database 0579285147" this command executed and finished without error I then ran the command: eseutil /p E00 this command was executed from the below directory: c:\data\Exchange\Mailbox\Mailbox Database 0579285147 I then mounted the JBCMail with the mount command note: I do not have my full typed command. Inside my Exchange Management Console (EMC) I can view the new mailbox database named JBCMail. The JBCMail database is show as mounted on the exchange server named Providence. I can see the crashed Exchange server named 2008Exchange. In the EMC the crashed exchange server states the Copy Status under ServerConfiguration-Mailbox is ServiceDown. From here I need to recover three mailboxes The mail boxes are on the apex server. How do I move the mailboxs from apex to Providence? How do I restore the mailboxes from JBCmail mounted database to the user's mailbox? I do not fully understand how to use the Restore-Mailbox command because when I use this command it tries to restore the mailbox to the dead apex server. Restore-Mailbox -ID 'Jason Young' -RecoveryDatabase JBCMail

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• How to style "form" field labels in Windows Phone 7?

  - by Jeremy Bell

  Is there any standards guidance on how to style field labels next to form fields in windows phone 7 silverlight applications? For example, let's say I have a StackPanel with the TextBlock label and a TextBox for data entry. Currently I am using the default TextBlock Margin included in the PhoneTextSubtleStyle ("12,0,12,0"), and using a Margin of "0,-12,0,0" to push the TextBox up closer to the label: <StackPanel HorizontalAlignment="Left"> <TextBlock VerticalAlignment="Center" Text="Name" Style="{StaticResource PhoneTextSubtleStyle}" /> <TextBox Text="{Binding ItemName, Mode=TwoWay}" TextChanged="TextBox_TextChanged" VerticalAlignment="Center" Width="433" Margin="0,-12,0,0" /> </StackPanel> Note that the TextBox seems to have some internal padding of 12 pixels to the left and right, so that the TextBlock label and the TextBox control visually line up perfectly on the left. The problem is, I see existing apps with widely varying conventions for field label styling. Some do not do the negative margin adjustment, like I have above. Some don't. Some appear to override the label TextBlock Margin so that it is indented an additional 12 pixels on the left (i.e. "24,0,12,0" instead of the default "12,0,12,0"). Some apps put the labels to the left of the fields themselves (I hate that). Is there some standard design guidance on field labels in Windows Phone 7? I read through the design template PDF and could only determine that the field labels should be upper case on the first word (preferably only one word labels), and should NOT have a colon at the end. I didn't see anything with regards to margins or alignment between the label and the field.

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• .htaccess file on localhost throwing an error when using a Virtual Host config on my Localhost!!

  - by Chris

  I am trying to set-up my localhost development server. I have everything working but when I try to add an .htaccess it throws this error: Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. Please contact the server administrator, [no address given] and inform them of the time the error occurred, and anything you might have done that may have caused the error. More information about this error may be available in the server error log. I dont know exactly why this is, this is pretty much the exact same setup as the other developers machine, but when using my .htaccess file I get that error. Here is my .htaccess file (NOTE: They are commented because I left my site with this setup. It only lets me view the index page. Without this .htaccess file, I can navigate.): Options -indexes RewriteEngine On ErrorDocument 404 /404 RewriteRule ^battery/([^/]+)$ /browser/product?sku=BATTERY+$1&type=battery RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/product([0-9]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2&id=$3 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([0-9]+)$ /browser/product.php?make=$1&model=$2&year=$3&id=$4 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2&year=$3 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1&model=$2 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/([^/]+)$ /browser/index.php?make=$1 [L,NC] RewriteRule ^vehicles/$ /browser/index.php [L,NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1.php

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• How to convert a byte array of 19200 bytes in size where each byte represents 4 pixels (2 bits per p

  - by Klinger

  I am communicating with an instrument (remote controlling it) and one of the things I need to do is to draw the instrument screen. In order to get the screen I issue a command and the instrument replies with an array of bytes that represents the screen. Below is what the instrument manual has to say about converting the response to the actual screen: The command retrieves the framebuffer data used for the display. It is 19200 bytes in size, 2-bits per pixel, 4 pixels per byte arranged as 320x240 characteres. The data is sent in RLE encoded form. To convert this data into a BMP for use in Windows, it needs to be turned into a 4BPP. Also note that BMP files are upside down relative to this data, i.e. the top display line is the last line in the BMP. I managed to unpack the data, but now I am stuck on how to actually go from the unpacked byte array to a bitmap. My background on this is pretty close to zero and my searches have not revealed much either. I am looking for directions and/or articles I could use to help me undestand how to get this done. Any code or even pseudo code would also help. :-) So, just to summarize it all: How to convert a byte array of 19200 bytes in size, where each byte represents 4 pixels (2 bits per pixel), to a bitmap arranged as 320x240 characters. Thanks in advance.

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• Can a conforming C# compiler optimize away a local (but unused) variable if it is the only strong re

  - by stakx

  The title says it all, but let me explain: void Case_1() { var weakRef = new WeakReference(new object()); GC.Collect(); // <-- doesn't have to be an explicit call; just assume that // garbage collection would occur at this point. if (weakRef.IsAlive) ... } In this code example, I obviously have to plan for the possibility that the new'ed object is reclaimed by the garbage collector; therefore the if statement. (Note that I'm using weakRef for the sole purpose of checking if the new'ed object is still around.) void Case_2() { var unusedLocalVar = new object(); var weakRef = new WeakReference(unusedLocalVar); GC.Collect(); // <-- doesn't have to be an explicit call; just assume that // garbage collection would occur at this point. Debug.Assert(weakReferenceToUseless.IsAlive); } The main change in this code example from the previous one is that the new'ed object is strongly referenced by a local variable (unusedLocalVar). However, this variable is never used again after the weak reference (weakRef) has been created. Question: Is a conforming C# compiler allowed to optimize the first two lines of Case_2 into those of Case_1 if it sees that unusedLocalVar is only used in one place, namely as an argument to the WeakReference constructor? i.e. is there any possibility that the assertion in Case_2 could ever fail?

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• URL path changes between dev and published version

  - by Bob Horn

  I just got Scott Hanselman's chat app with SignalR working with ASP.NET MVC 4. After hours of configuration, trial and error, and getting different versions of Windows to talk to each other on my home network, it's all working except that I'm left with one issue that I'm not sure how to handle. This line of javascript has to change, depending on if I'm running the app through Visual Studio or the published (IIS) version: Works when running within VS: var connection = $.connection('echo'); Works with published version: var connection = $.connection('ChatWithSignalR/echo'); When I run within VS, the URL is: http://localhost:9145/ And the published version is: http://localhost/ChatWithSignalR If I don't change that line of code, and try to run the app within VS, using the javascript that has ChatWithSignalR in it, I get an error like this: Failed to load resource: the server responded with a status of 404 (Not Found) http://localhost:9145/ChatWithSignalR/echo/negotiate?_=1347809290826 What can I do so that I can use the same javascript code and have it work in both scenarios? var connection = $.connection('??????'); Note, this is in my Global.asax.cs: RouteTable.Routes.MapConnection<MyConnection>("echo", "echo/{*operation}");

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• Emailing a fixed document through Outlook

  - by MoominTroll

  I've added functionality to an application that prints out a bunch of information to a FixedDOcument and sends this off to the printer. This works just fine, however the request is that there be an in application function that emails the document using OUtlook and its here that I come unstuck. I'd very much like to just reuse the class that makes the fixed document for printing to generate the text for email, but I'm struggling to do this. I've tried the following... Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.Application oApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.Application(); MailItem email = (MailItem)(oApp.CreateItem(OlItemType.olMailItem)); email.Recipients.Add("[email protected]"); email.Subject = "Hello"; email.Body = "TEST"; FixedDocument doc = CreateReport(); //make my fixed document //this doesn't work, and the parameters it takes suggest it never will email.Attachments.Add(doc, OlAttachmentType.olByValue, 1, null); email.Send(); I can't help but think I'm on completely the wrong tack here, but I don't really want to have to write a bunch of new text formatting (since email.Body only takes a string) when I've already got the content formatted how I want it. Note that the content is all textual, so I don't really care if it gets sent as an attachment or as text in the emails body. Ideally if its sent as an attachment it won't be saved anywhere permanently. Any pointers?

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• Prevent event from parent element to child element in jquery

  - by sonam

  I have binded event as below: $(document).delegate('.budget', 'click', function(e){ if ($(this).hasClass('collapsed')) { $(this).removeClass('collapsed'); $(this).addClass('expanded'); } else if ($(this).hasClass('expanded')) { $(this).removeClass('expanded'); $(this).addClass('collapsed'); } }); Basically this toggles between expand and collapse. I have another event binded as below: $('[id^="tree"]').delegate('.collapsed', 'click', function(e){ var elementId = $(this).attr('id'); hideChildElement(elementId); }); The elements binded by the second event binding are parents of elements binded by first event binding. What happens is that on clicking on the element from the first binding event method also triggers the event binded by second event binding. I want to prevent any events from binding from second event binding to 1st event binding method. If element A is binded to click event from first event binding and B is binded to second event binding (A is inside B or A is child of B), I dont want any event of B to propagate to A. Note I tried e.stopImmediatePropagation(); but did not worked

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• JQuery - Element Selection

  - by user208662

  Hello, I'm relatively new to JQuery. I'm trying to understand how to select a child element. Currently, I have some HTML that is defined as follows: <div id="elem1"> <div class="display">Student 1</div> </div> <div id="elem2"> <div class="display">Student 2</div> </div> <div id="elem3"> <div class="display">Student 3</div> </div> When a user clicks a link, one of the elements (elem1, elem2, or elem3) is going to be passed to a function that is defined as follows: function getNodeDisplay(node) { // NOTE: This does not work as desired return $(node).(#".display").html(); } Unfortunately, this approach does not work. How do I get the HTML associated with an element that has a specific class or a given element? Thank you for your help!

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• Mapping element via joining table with NHibernate

  - by NhibernateIdiot

  This is stuff ive done lots of times before but my mind is just blanking at the moment, i will try and give a simple overview of my current situation. I currently have 3 tables as shown below: Office > id, name Person > id, name Office_Personnel > office_id, person_id I then have a model for Person (id, name) and Office, however the Office model contains personnel information: public class Office { int Id {get;set;} string Name {get;set;} ICollection<Person> Personnel {get;set;} } Mapping person is easy, but now im a bit stumped as to why office wont map properly. I chose to use a set when I was mapping the Personnel as there shouldn't be any duplicates, however it doesn't seem to work as I would expect... <set name="Personnel" table="office_personnel" cascade="all"> <key column="office_id" /> <one-to-many class="Person"/> </set> Now one thing that strikes me as odd is that there is no indication as to what person should be binding to (person_id). It keeps trying to find *office_id* column within the Person table. I'm sure this is just some simple problem and im being an idiot, but any help would be great! On a side note, I was weighing up if I should even bother having a middle man table, as I could directly put an Office_Id column within the Person table, but im not 100% sure if in my real project the Person class could be in multiple Offices further down the line...

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• The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.

  - by Jed

  I am receiving an error that states: "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.". The error is being caused by the fact that I am implementing an HTML form element that uses the POST method and does not explicitly define an .aspx page in its ACTION parameter. For example: <form action="" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> The HTML above is on a file at "/foo/default.aspx". Now, if the user points the URL to the root directory "foo" without specifying the aspx file (i.e. "http://localhost/foo") and then submits the form, the error "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/foo' is not allowed." will be thrown. However, if the user goes to "http://localhost/foo/default.aspx" and then submits the form, all goes well (even if the ACTION parameter is left empty). Note: If I explicitly add the name of the .aspx (default.aspx) page to the ACTION parameter, no errors are thrown. So the example below works fine regardless if the user defines the name of the file in the URL or not. <form action="default.aspx" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> I was curious as to why the error was being thrown, so I read a Microsoft KB that states This problem occurs because a client makes an HTTP request by sending the POST method to a static HTML page. Static HTML pages do not support the POST method. I suppose the core of the explanation makes sense, however in my case, my form is not being sent to a static html page - it's being sent to the same page that the html form lives on (default.aspx)... this is implicit to an ACTION param that is left empty. Is it possible to configure IIS (or otherwise) that will allow us to do form POSTing and keep the ACTION param empty?

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• std::map keys in C++

  - by Soumava

  I have a requirement to create two different maps in C++. The Key is of type CHAR * and the Value is a pointer to a struct. I am filling 2 maps with these pairs, in separate iterations. After creating both maps I need find all such instances in which the value of the string referenced by the CHAR * are same. For this i am using the following code : typedef struct _STRUCTTYPE { .. } STRUCTTYPE, *PSTRUCTTYPE; typedef pair {CHAR *,PSTRUCTTYPE} kvpair; .. CHAR *xyz; PSTRUCTTYPE abc; after filling the information; Map.insert (kvpair(xyz,abc)); the above is repeated x times for the first map, and y times for the second map. after both are filled out; std::map {CHAR *, PSTRUCTTYPE} :: iterator Iter,findIter; for (Iter=iteratedMap-begin();Iter!=iteratedMap-end();mapIterator++) { char *key = Iter-first; printf("%s\n",key); findIter=otherMap-find(key); //printf("%u",findIter-second); if (findIter!=otherMap-end()) { printf("Match!\n"); } } The above code does not show any match, although the list of keys in both maps show obvious matches. My understanding is that the equals operator for CHAR * just equates the memory address of the pointers. My question is, what should i do to alter the equals operator for this type of key or could I use a different datatype for the string? *note : {} has been used instead of angle brackets as the content inside angle brackets was not showing up in the post.

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• grep from a log file to get count

  - by subodh1989

  I have to get certain count from files. The grep statement i am using is like this : counter_pstn=0 completed_count_pstn=0 rec=0 for rec in `(grep "merged" update_completed*.log | awk '{print $1}' | sed 's/ //g' | cut -d':' -f2)` do if [ $counter_pstn -eq 0 ] then completed_count_pstn=$rec else completed_count_pstn=$(($completed_count_pstn+$rec)) fi counter_pstn=$(($counter_pstn+1)) done echo "Completed Orders PSTN Primary " $completed_count_pstn But the log file contains data in this format : 2500 rows merged. 2500 rows merged. 2500 rows merged. 2500 rows merged.2500 rows merged. 2500 rows merged. 2500 rows merged. As a result , it is missing out the count of one merge(eg on line 4 of output).How do i modify the grep or use another function to get the count. NOTE that the 2500 number maybe for different logs. So we have to use "rows merged" pattern to get the count. i have tried -o ,-w grep options,but it is not working. Expected output from above data: 17500 Actual output showing : 15000

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• Should .net comments start with a capital letter and end with a period?

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  Depending on the feedback I get, I might raise this "standard" with my colleagues. This might become a custom StyleCop rule. is there one written already? So, Stylecop already dictates this for summary, param, and return documentation tags. Do you think it makes sense to demand the same from comments? On related note: if a comment is already long, then should it be written as a proper sentence? For example (perhaps I tried too hard to illustrate a bad comment): //if exception quit vs. // If an exception occurred, then quit. If figured - most of the time, if one bothers to write a comment, then it might as well be informative. Consider these two samples: //if exception quit if (exc != null) { Application.Exit(-1); } and // If an exception occurred, then quit. if (exc != null) { Application.Exit(-1); } Arguably, one does not need a comment at all, but since one is provided, I would think that the second one is better. Please back up your opinion. Do you have a good reference for the art of commenting, particularly if it relates to .Net? Thanks.

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• Undefined test not working in javascript.

  - by James South

  I'm getting the error 'foo' is undefined. in my script when i test my function with an undefined parameter. As far as I understand, This shouldn't be happening. My calling code: //var foo var test = peachUI().stringIsNullOrEmpty(foo) ; My function (part of a larger framework). stringIsNullOrEmpty: function (testString) { /// <summary> /// Checks to see if a given string is null or empty. /// </summary> /// <param name="testString" type="String"> /// The string check against. /// </param> /// <returns type="Boolean" /> var $empty = true; if (typeof testString !== "undefined") { if (testString && typeof testString === "string") { if (testString.length > 0) { $empty = false; } } } return $empty; } Any ideas? Please note. I've had a good read of other similar questions before posting this one.

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• how to create an object using self?

  - by Nick

  I thought I understood the use of self while referring to anything in the current class. After encountering this warning and subsequent run failure, I have googled many variants of "define self" or "usage of self" and gotten nowhere. This problem is how to create an object without the warning, and understand why. #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface Foo : NSObject { Foo *obj; } -(void)beta; @end #import "Foo.h" @implementation Foo -(void)beta{ obj = [self new]; // 'Foo' may not respond to '-new' } @end Note, if I substitute Foo for self, there's no problem. I thought the class name and self were equivalent, but obviously the compiler doesn't think so. Perhaps an explanation of what's wrong here will not only solve my problem but also enlighten my understanding of the usage of self. Are there any tutorials about proper usage of self? I couldn't find anything beyond something like "self is the receiver of the message," which I didn't help me at all.

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