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• drupal: standard way for creating a slug from a string

  - by egarcia

  Hi there, A slug on this context is a string that its safe to use as an identifier, on urls or css. For example, if you have this string: I'd like to eat at McRunchies! Its slug would be: i-d-like-to-eat-at-mcrunchies- I want to know whether there's a standard way of building such strings on Drupal (or php functions available from drupal). More precisely, inside a Drupal theme. Context: I'm modifying a drupal theme so the html of the nodes it generates include their taxonomy terms as css classes on their containing div. Trouble is, some of those terms' names aren't valid css class names. I need to "slugify" the them. I've read that some people simply do this: str_replace(" ", "-", $term->name) This isn't really a enough for me. It doesn't replace uppercase letters with downcase, but more importantly, doesn't replace non-ascii characters (like à or é) by their ascii equivalents. Is there a function in drupal 6 (or the php libs) that provides a way to slugify a string, and can be used on a template.php file of a drupal theme?

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• How to store some of the entity's values in another table using hibernate?

  - by nimcap

  Hi guys, is there a simple way to persist some of the fields in another class and table using hibernate. For example, I have a Person class with name, surname, email, address1, address2, city, country fields. I want my classes to be: public class Person { private String name; private String surname; private String email; private Address address; // .. } public class Address { private Person person; // to whom this belongs private String address1; private String address2; private String city; private Address country; // .. } and I want to store Address in another table. What is the best way to achieve this? Edit: I am using annotations. It does not have to be the way I described, I am looking for best practices. PS. If there is a way to make Address immutable (to use as a value object) that is even better, or maybe not because I thought everything from wrong perspective :)

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• Resolve php endless recursion issue

  - by Matt

  Hey all, I'm currently running into an endless recursion situation. I'm implementing a message service that calls various object methods.. it's quite similar to observer pattern.. Here's whats going on: Dispatcher.php class Dispatcher { ... public function message($name, $method) { // Find the object based on the name $object = $this->findObjectByName($name); // Slight psuedocode.. for ease of example if($this->not_initialized($object)) $object = new $object(); // This is where it locks up. } return $object->$method(); ... } class A { function __construct() { $Dispatcher->message("B", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class A"; } } class B { function __construct() { // Assume $Dispatcher is the classes $Dispatcher->message("A", "getName"); } public function getName() { return "Class B"; } } It locks up when neither object is initialized. It just goes back and forth from message each other and no one can be initialized. I'm looking for some kind of queue implementation that will make messages wait for each other.. One where the return values still get set. I'm looking to have as little boilerplate code in class A and class B as possible Any help would be immensely helpful.. Thanks! Matt Mueller

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• jquery: Writing a method

  - by Mark

  This is the same question as this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2890620/jquery-running-a-function-in-a-context-and-adding-to-a-variable But that question was poorly posed. Trying again, I'm trying to do something like this: I have a bunch of elements I want to grab data from, the data is in the form of classes of the element children. <div id='container'> <span class='a'></span> <span class='b'></span> <span class='c'></span> </div> <div id='container2'> <span class='1'></span> <span class='2'></span> <span class='3'></span> </div> I have a method like this: jQuery.fn.grabData = function(expr) { return this.each(function() { var self = $(this); self.find("span").each(function (){ var info = $(this).attr('class'); collection += info; }); }); }; I to run the method like this: var collection = ''; $('#container').grabData(); $('#container2').grabData(); The collection should be adding to each other so that in the end I get this console.log(collection); : abc123 But collection is undefined in the method. How can I let the method know which collection it should be adding to? Thanks.

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• JSF - Creating an overlay for popup panels.

  - by Ben

  Hi, I've created an overlay that will popup whenever someone wants to upload a file to the system. The Gui looks like this (when the overlay is up) I have two problems with this: I attached a a4j:support object that, onclick, makes the overlay disappear. The problem with this is that when I click the upload button on the upload component, support catches the click event and closes the overlay with the upload component before I have the chance to finish the operation. I chose two different style classes. One for the overlay and one for the upload panel. But the styling of the overlay takes over the upload component and it becomes transparent as well. The implementation looks something like this: <h:panelgroup layout="block" styleClass="overlayClass"> <rich:fileUpload styleClass="uploadStyleClass"... /> <a4j:support event="onclick" action="#{mrBean.switchOverlayState}" reRender="..."/> </h:panelGroup> The CSS: .overlayClass { Opacity: 0.5; position: fixed; left: 0; right: 0; top: 0; bottom: 0; background: #000; } .uploadStyleClass { opacity: 1.0; ... } Thanks for the help!

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• C# Hiding, overriding and calling function from base class.

  - by Lukasz Lysik

  I'm learning C# and I encountered the following problem. I have two classes: base and derived: class MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyBase::MyMethod()"); } } class MyDerived: MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyDerived::MyMethod()"); } } For now, without virtual and override key words. When I compile this I get the warning (which is of course expected) that I try to hide MyMethod from MyBase class. What I want to do is to call the method from the base class having an instance of derived class. I do this like this: MyDerived myDerived = new MyDerived(); ((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod(); It works fine when I do not specify any virtual, etc. keywords in the methods. I tried to put combination of the keywords and I got the following results: | MyBase::MyMethod | MyDerived::MyMethod | Result printed on the console | | -----------------|---------------------|-------------------------------| | - | - | MyBase::MyMethod() | | - | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | override | MyDerived::MyMethod() | I hope the table is clear to you. I have two questions: Is it the correct way to call the function from the base class (((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod();)? I know about base keyword, but it can be called only from the inside of the derived class. Is it right? Why in the last case (with virtual and override modifiers) the method which was called came from the derived class? Would you please explain that?

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• Which is the better C# class design for dealing with read+write versus readonly

  - by DanM

  I'm contemplating two different class designs for handling a situation where some repositories are read-only while others are read-write. (I don't foresee any need to a write-only repository.) Class Design 1 -- provide all functionality in a base class, then expose applicable functionality publicly in sub classes public abstract class RepositoryBase { protected virtual void SelectBase() { // implementation... } protected virtual void InsertBase() { // implementation... } protected virtual void UpdateBase() { // implementation... } protected virtual void DeleteBase() { // implementation... } } public class ReadOnlyRepository : RepositoryBase { public void Select() { SelectBase(); } } public class ReadWriteRepository : RepositoryBase { public void Select() { SelectBase(); } public void Insert() { InsertBase(); } public void Update() { UpdateBase(); } public void Delete() { DeleteBase(); } } Class Design 2 - read-write class inherits from read-only class public class ReadOnlyRepository { public void Select() { // implementation... } } public class ReadWriteRepository : ReadOnlyRepository { public void Insert() { // implementation... } public void Update() { // implementation... } public void Delete() { // implementation... } } Is one of these designs clearly stronger than the other? If so, which one and why? P.S. If this sounds like a homework question, it's not, but feel free to use it as one if you want :)

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• How am I able to create A List<T> containing a generic Interface?

  - by Conrad Clark

  I have a List which must contain IInteract Objects. But IInteract is a generic interface which requires 2 type arguments. My main idea is iterate through a list of Objects and "Interact" one with another if they didn't interact yet. So i have this object List<IObject> WorldObjects = new List<IObject>(); and this one: private List<IInteract> = new List<IInteract>(); Except I can't compile the last line because IInteract requires 2 type arguments. But I don't know what the arguments are until I add them. I could add interactions between Objects of Type A and A... or Objects of Type B and C. I want to create "Interaction" classes which do something with the "acting" object and the "target" object, but I want them to be independent from the objects... so I could add an Interaction between for instance... "SuperUltraClass" and... an "integer". Am I using the wrong approach?

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• Constructor and Destructors in C++ [Not a question] [closed]

  - by Jack

  I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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• Is there any reason to use C instead of C++ for embedded development?

  - by Piotr Czapla

  Question I have two compilers on my hardware C++ and C89 I'm thinking about using C++ with classes but without polymorphism (to avoid vtables). The main reasons I’d like to use C++ are: I prefer to use “inline” functions instead of macro definitions. I’d like to use namespaces as I prefixes clutter the code. I see C++ a bit type safer mainly because of templates, and verbose casting. I really like overloaded functions and constructors (used for automatic casting). Do you see any reason to stick with C89 when developing for very limited hardware (4kb of RAM)? Conclusion Thank you for your answers, they were really helpful! I though the subject through and I will stick with C mainly because: It is easier to predict actual code in C and this is really important if you have only 4kb of ram. My team consists of C developers mainly so advance features of C++ won't be frequently used. I've found a way to inline functions in my C compiler (C89). It is hard to accept one answer as you provided so many good answers. Unfortunately I can't create a wiki and accept it so I will choose one answer that made me think most.

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• What scenarios are possible where the VS C# compiler would not compile a reference of a reference?

  - by SuperKing

  Hello, I'm probably asking this question wrong (and that may be why Google isn't helping), but here goes: In Visual Studio I am compiling a C# project (let's call it Project A, the startup project) which has a reference to Project B. Project B has a reference to a Project C, so when A gets built, the dlls for B gets placed in the bin directory of A, as does the dll for C (because B requires C, and A requires B). However, I have apparently made some change recently so that the dll for Project C does not go into the bin directory of Project A when rebuilding the solution. I have no idea what I've done to make this happen. I have not modified the setup of the solution itself, and I have only added additional references to the project files. Code wise, I have commented out most of the actual code in Project B that references classes in Project C, but did not remove the reference from the project itself (I don't think this matters). I was told that perhaps the C# compiler was optimizing somehow so that it was not building Project C, but really I'm out of ideas. I would think someone has run into something similar before Any thoughts? Thanks!

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• Auto-implemented getters and setters vs. public fields

  - by tclem

  I see a lot of example code for C# classes that does this: public class Point { public int x { get; set; } public int y { get; set; } } Or, in older code, the same with an explicit private backing value and without the new auto-implemented properties: public class Point { private int _x; private int _y; public int x { get { return _x; } set { _x = value; } } public int y { get { return _y; } set { _y = value; } } } My question is why. Is there any functional difference between doing the above and just making these members public fields, like below? public class Point { public int x; public int y; } To be clear, I understand the value of getters and setters when you need to do some translation of the underlying data. But in cases where you're just passing the values through, it seems needlessly verbose.

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• UIViewController memory management

  - by jAmi

  Hi I have a very basic issue of memory management with my UIViewController (or any other object that I create); The problem is that in Instruments my Object allocation graph is always rising even though I am calling release on then assigning them nil. I have 2 UIViewController sub-classes each initializing with a NIB; I add the first ViewController to the main window like [window addSubView:first.view]; Then in my first ViewController nib file I have a Button which loads the second ViewController like : -(IBAction)loadSecondView{ if(second!=nil){ //second is set as an iVar and @property (nonatomic, retain)ViewController2* sceond; [second release]; second=nil; } second=[[ViewController2* second]initWithNibName:@"ViewController2" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubView:second.view]; } In my (second) ViewController2 i have a button with an action method -(IBAction) removeSecond{ [self.view removeFromSuperView]; } Please let me know if the above scheme works in a managed way for memory...? In Instruments It does not show release of any allocation and keeps the bar status graph keeps on rising.

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 - How do I use an Interface as the Type for a Strongly Typed View

  - by Rake36

  I'd like to keep my concrete classes separate from my views. Without using strongly typed views, I'm fine. I just use a big parameter list in the controller method signatures and then use my service layer factory methods to create my concrete objects. This is actually just fine with me, but it got me thinking and after a little playing, I realized it was literally impossible for a controller method to accept an interface as a method parameter - because it has no way of instantiating it. Can't create a strongly-typed view using an interface through the IDE either (which makes sense actually). So my question. Is there some way to tell the controller how to instantiate the interface parameter using my service layer factory methods? I'd like to convert from: [Authorize] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [UrlRoute(Path = "Application/Edit/{id}")] public ActionResult Edit(String id, String TypeCode, String TimeCode, String[] SelectedSchoolSystems, String PositionChoice1, String PositionChoice2, String PositionChoice3, String Reason, String LocationPreference, String AvailableDate, String RecipientsNotSelected, String RecipientsSelected) { //New blank app IApplication _application = ApplicationService.GetById(id); to something like [Authorize] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [UrlRoute(Path = "Application/Edit/{id}")] public ActionResult Edit(String id, IApplication app) { //Don't need to do this anymore //IApplication _application = ApplicationService.GetById(id);

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• Rails: Getting rid of "X is invalid" validation errors

  - by DJTripleThreat

  I have a sign-up form that has nested associations/attributes whatever you want to call them. My Hierarchy is this: class User < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_authentic belongs_to :user_role, :polymorphic => true end class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :user, :as => :user_role, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :user, :allow_destroy => true validates_associated :user end class Employee < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :user, :as => :user_role, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :user, :allow_destroy => true validates_associated :user end I have some validation stuff in these classes as well. My problem is that if I try to create and Customer (or Employee etc) with a blank form I get all of the validation errors I should get plus some Generic ones like "User is invalid" and "Customer is invalid" If I iterate through the errors I get something like: user.login can't be blank User is invalid customer.whatever is blah blah blah...etc customer.some_other_error etc etc Since there is at least one invalid field in the nested User model, an extra "X is invalid" message is added to the list of errors. This gets confusing to my client and so I'm wondering if there is a quick way to do this instead of having to filer through the errors myself.

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• Stop Child Elements from Inheriting Parent Style, Broken Tabs Javascript

  - by WillingLearner

  I am using the flowplayer jquery tabs plugin: http://flowplayer.org/tools/tabs/index.html Im having mucho difficulty when placing my child elements inside the panes divs, and stopping them from inheriting the style of the container pane div. Its breaking my layout to pieces and i need to know how to override the style and just keep the container panes div only to itself. Also, im having a devil of a time trying to call 2 different sets of tabs and panes. Im not getting the classes and IDs right, the javascript, or something along those lines. How would i set this up so i can call (tabs A / panes A) and then (tabs B / panes B), css wise, and javascript wise? My current javascript is: <!-- This JavaScript snippet activates the tabs --> <script> // perform JavaScript after the document is scriptable. $(function() { // setup ul.tabs to work as tabs for each div directly under div.panes $("ul.tabs").tabs("div.panes1 > div"); //$("ul.tabs.myprofile").tabs("div.panes > div"); }); </script> This only works for 1 set of tabs and panes on a page. Dosent help me much if i want to call 2 totally different sets. Ive gone over the documentation many times but im still not getting it. Please help me find a solution to BOTH of my problems. Thanks.

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• Does QThread::sleep() require the event loop to be running?

  - by suszterpatt

  I have a simple client-server program written in Qt, where processes communicate using MPI. The basic design I'm trying to implement is the following: The first process (the "server") launches a GUI (derived from QMainWindow), which listens for messages from the clients (using repeat fire QTimers and asynchronous MPI receive calls), updates the GUI depending on what messages it receives, and sends a reply to every message. Every other process (the "clients") runs in an infinite loop, and all they are intended to do is send a message to the server process, receive the reply, go to sleep for a while, then wake up and repeat. Every process instantiates a single object derived from QThread, and calls its start() method. The run() method of these classes all look like this: from foo.cpp: void Foo::run() { while (true) { // Send message to the first process // Wait for a reply // Do uninteresting stuff with the reply sleep(3); // also tried QThread::sleep(3) } } In the client's code, there is no call to exec() anywhere, so no event loop should start. The problem is that the clients never wake up from sleeping (if I surround the sleep() call with two writes to a log file, only the first one is executed, control never reaches the second). Is this because I didn't start the event loop? And if so, what is the simplest way to achieve the desired functionality?

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• What can cause my code to run slower when the server JIT is activated?

  - by durandai

  I am doing some optimizations on an MPEG decoder. To ensure my optimizations aren't breaking anything I have a test suite that benchmarks the entire codebase (both optimized and original) as well as verifying that they both produce identical results (basically just feeding a couple of different streams through the decoder and crc32 the outputs). When using the "-server" option with the Sun 1.6.0_18, the test suite runs about 12% slower on the optimized version after warmup (in comparison to the default "-client" setting), while the original codebase gains a good boost running about twice as fast as in client mode. While at first this seemed to be simply a warmup issue to me, I added a loop to repeat the entire test suite multiple times. Then execution times become constant for each pass starting at the 3rd iteration of the test, still the optimized version stays 12% slower than in the client mode. I am also pretty sure its not a garbage collection issue, since the code involves absolutely no object allocations after startup. The code consists mainly of some bit manipulation operations (stream decoding) and lots of basic floating math (generating PCM audio). The only JDK classes involved are ByteArrayInputStream (feeds the stream to the test and excluding disk IO from the tests) and CRC32 (to verify the result). I also observed the same behaviour with Sun JDK 1.7.0_b98 (only that ist 15% instead of 12% there). Oh, and the tests were all done on the same machine (single core) with no other applications running (WinXP). While there is some inevitable variation on the measured execution times (using System.nanoTime btw), the variation between different test runs with the same settings never exceeded 2%, usually less than 1% (after warmup), so I conclude the effect is real and not purely induced by the measuring mechanism/machine. Are there any known coding patterns that perform worse on the server JIT? Failing that, what options are available to "peek" under the hood and observe what the JIT is doing there?

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• Why are my events being called more than once?

  - by Arms

  In my Flash project I have a movieclip that has 2 keyframes. Both frames contain 1 movieclip each. frame 1 - Landing frame 2 - Game The flow of the application is simple: User arrives on landing page (frame 1) User clicks "start game" button User is brought to the game page (frame 2) When the game is over, the user can press a "play again" button which brings them back to step 1 Both Landing and Game movieclips are linked to separate classes that define event listeners. The problem is that when I end up back at step 1 after playing the game, the Game event listeners fire twice for their respective event. And if I go through the process a third time, the event listeners fire three times for every event. This keeps happening, so if I loop through the application flow 7 times, the event listeners fire seven times. I don't understand why this is happening because on frame 1, the Game movieclip (and I would assume its related class instance) does not exist - but I'm clearly missing something here. I've run into this problem in other projects too, and tried fixing it by first checking if the event listeners existed and only defining them if they didn't, but I ended up with unexpected results that didn't really solve the problem. I need to ensure that the event listeners only fire once. Any advice & insight would be greatly appreciated, thanks!

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• Dynamic Method Creation

  - by TJMonk15

  So, I have been trying to research this all morning, and have had no luck. I am trying to find a way to dynamically create a method/delegate/lambda that returns a new instance of a certain class (not known until runtime) that inherits from a certain base class. I can guarantee the following about the unknown/dynamic class It will always inherit from one known Class (Row) It will have atleast 2 constructors (one accepting a long, and one accepting an IDataRecord) I plan on doign the following: Finding all classes that have a certain attribute on them Creating a delegate/method/lambda/whatever that creates a new instance of the class Storing the delegate/whatever along with some properties in a struct/class Insert the struct into a hashtable When needed, pull the info out of the hashtable and calling the delegate/whatever to get a new instance of the class and returning it/adding it to a list/etc. I need help only with #2 above!!! I have no idea where to start. I really just need some reference material to get me started, or some keywords to throw into google. This is for a compact/simple to use ORM for our office here. I understand the above is not simple, but once working, should make maintaining the code incredibly simple. Please let me know if you need any more info! And thanks in advance! :)

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• Building asynchronous cache pattern with JSP

  - by merweirdo

  I have a JSP that will take some 8 minutes to render. The code logic itself can not be made more efficient (it will update often and be updated by basically a pointy haired boss). I tried wrapping it with a caching layer like <%@ taglib uri="/WEB-INF/classes/oscache.tld" prefix="oscache" %> <oscache:cache time="60"> <div class="pagecontent"> ..... my logic </div> </oscache:cache> This is nice until the 60 seconds is over. The next query after that blocks until the 8 minutes of rendering is done with again. I would need a way to build a pattern something like: If there is no version of the dynamic content in the cache run the actual logic (and populate the cache for subsequent requests) If there is a non-expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic from the cache If there is an expired version of the dynamic content in the cache serve the output of the JSP logic still from the cache AND run the JSP logic in the background so that the cache gets updated transparently to the user - avoiding the user have to wait for 8 minutes I found out that at least EHCache might be able to do some asynchronous cache updating but it did not sadly seem to apply to the JSP tags... Also I have to take in 10-20 parameters for the actual logic of the JSP and some of them should be used as a key for caching. Code example and/or pointers would be greatly appreciated. I do not frankly care if the solution provided is extremely ugly. I just want a simple 5 minute caching with asynchronous cache update taking into account some parameters as a key.

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• Should I choose <button> element or css buttons?

  - by Kenny Bones

  Ok, here's the thing. I've done a webpage which contains forms and so I added buttons as elements and this works great. I created their own css classes and use graphics as background images for each of them. All working great (these are submit buttons btw) Anyway, I've also got a jQuery script from before that takes all a href hyperlinks and add content from a set div from an external file and adds to a div in my current page, all in one animation. But this would probably not work with form buttons? In any case I need to be able to have these buttons work as traditional hyperlinks anyway. So what do I do? I thought about using css-buttons alltogether, but I'm not able to have them stack vertically. Using float left or right just put the buttons outside of their parent containers (probably a different fix for that). But in any case, using css buttons, that wouldn't work as a submit button for the forms anyway would it? Should I perhaps use both form buttons and css buttons? What do you do?

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• WCF service reference namespace differs from original

  - by Thorarin

  I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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• Is there an ORM that supports composition w/o Joins

  - by Ken Downs

  EDIT: Changed title from "inheritance" to "composition". Left body of question unchanged. I'm curious if there is an ORM tool that supports inheritance w/o creating separate tables that have to be joined. Simple example. Assume a table of customers, with a Bill-to address, and a table of vendors, with a remit-to address. Keep it simple and assume one address each, not a child table of addresses for each. These addresses will have a handful of values in common: address 1, address 2, city, state/province, postal code. So let's say I'd have a class "addressBlock" and I want the customers and vendors to inherit from this class, and possibly from other classes. But I do not want separate tables that have to be joined, I want the columns in the customer and vendor tables respectively. Is there an ORM that supports this? The closest question I have found on StackOverflow that might be the same question is linked below, but I can't quite figure if the OP is asking what I am asking. He seems to be asking about foregoing inheritance precisely because there will be multiple tables. I'm looking for the case where you can use inheritance w/o generating the multiple tables. Model inheritance approach with Django's ORM

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• Reading same file from multiple threads in C#

  - by Gustavo Rubio

  Hi. I was googling for some advise about this and I found some links. The most obvious was this one but in the end what im wondering is how well my code is implemented. I have basically two classes. One is the Converter and the other is ConverterThread I create an instance of this Converter class that has a property ThreadNumber that tells me how many threads should be run at the same time (this is read from user) since this application will be used on multi-cpu systems (physically, like 8 cpu) so it is suppossed that this will speed up the import The Converter instance reads a file that can range from 100mb to 800mb and each line of this file is a tab-delimitted value record that is imported to another destination like a database. The ConverterThread class simply runs inside the thread (new Thread(ConverterThread.StartThread)) and has event notification so when its work is done it can notify the Converter class and then I can sum up the progress for all these threads and notify the user (in the GUI for example) about how many of these records have been imported and how many bytes have been read. It seems, however that I'm having some trouble because I get random errors about the file not being able to be read or that the sum of the progress (percentage) went above 100% which is not possible and I think that happens because threads are not being well managed and probably the information returned by the event is malformed (since it "travels" from one thread to another) Do you have any advise on better practices of implementation of threads so I can accomplish this? Thanks in advance.

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