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  • Need some help understanding this problem

    - by Legend
    I was wondering if someone could help me understand this problem. I prepared a small diagram because it is much easier to explain it visually. Problem I am trying to solve: 1. Constructing the dependency graph Given the connectivity of the graph and a metric that determines how well a node depends on the other, order the dependencies. For instance, I could put in a few rules saying that node 3 depends on node 4 node 2 depends on node 3 node 3 depends on node 5 But because the final rule is not "valuable" (again based on the same metric), I will not add the rule to my system. 2. Execute the request order Once I built a dependency graph, execute the list in an order that maximizes the final connectivity. First and foremost, I am wondering if I constructed the problem correctly and if I should be aware of any corner cases. Secondly, is there a closely related algorithm that I can look at? Currently, I am thinking of something like Feedback Arc Set or the Secretary Problem but I am a little confused at the moment. Any suggestions? PS: I am a little confused about the problem myself so please don't flame on me for that. If any clarifications are needed, I will try to update the question.

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  • Amazone API ItemSearch returns (400) Bad Request.

    - by BuzzBubba
    I'm using a simple example from Amazon documentation for ItemSearch and I get a strange error: "The remote server returned an unexpected response: (400) Bad Request." This is the code: public static void Main() { //Remember to create an instance of the amazon service, including you Access ID. AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient service = new AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient(new BasicHttpBinding(), new EndpointAddress( "http://webservices.amazon.com/onca/soap?Service=AWSECommerceService")); AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient client = new AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient( new BasicHttpBinding(), new EndpointAddress("http://webservices.amazon.com/onca/soap?Service=AWSECommerceService")); // prepare an ItemSearch request ItemSearchRequest request = new ItemSearchRequest(); request.SearchIndex = "Books"; request.Title = "Harry+Potter"; request.ResponseGroup = new string[] { "Small" }; ItemSearch itemSearch = new ItemSearch(); itemSearch.Request = new ItemSearchRequest[] { request }; itemSearch.AWSAccessKeyId = accessKeyId; // issue the ItemSearch request try { ItemSearchResponse response = client.ItemSearch(itemSearch); // write out the results foreach (var item in response.Items[0].Item) { Console.WriteLine(item.ItemAttributes.Title); } } catch(Exception e) { Console.ForegroundColor = ConsoleColor.Red; Console.WriteLine(e.Message); Console.ForegroundColor = ConsoleColor.White; Console.WriteLine("Press any key to quit..."); Clipboard.SetText(e.Message); } Console.ReadKey(); What is wrong?

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  • How do I make JPA POJO classes + Netbeans forms play well together?

    - by Zak
    I started using netbeans to design forms to edit the instances of various classes I have made in a small app I am writing. Basically, the app starts, an initial set of objects is selected from the DB and presented in a list, then an item in the list can be selected for editing. When the editor comes up it has form fields for many of the data fields in the class. The problem I run into is that I have to create a controller that maps each of the data elements to the correct form element, and create an inordinate number of small conversion mapping lines of code to convert numbers into strings and set the correct element in a dropdown, then another inordinate amount of code to go back and update the underlying object with all the values from the form when the save button is clicked. My question is; is there a more directly way to make the editing of the form directly modify the contents of my class instance? I would like to be able to have a default mapping "controller" that I can configure, then override the getter/setter for a particular field if needed. Ideally, there would be standard field validation for things like phone numbers, integers, floats, zip codes, etc... I'm not averse to writing this myself, I would just like to see if it is already out there and use the right tool for the right job.

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  • ASP can't connect to SQL Server database

    - by birdus
    I'm trying to get a classic ASP application to connect to a local SQL Server 2008 database. The app and database were built by someone else. I'm just trying to get them installed and running on my machine (Windows 7). I'm getting the following error when when the ASP app tries to connect to the database: Could not connect to database: Error Number: -2147467259 Error Message: [ConnectionOpen (Connect()).] does not exist or access denied. I don't see any messages in the Windows Event Viewer. I'm looking at: Event Viewer-Windows Logs-Application. It's a fresh database install using a simple restore. The SQL Server install uses the default instance. SQL Server and Windows authentication are both allowed. I left the existing connection string (in the ASP code) in tact and just tried adding that to my SQL Server installation. Here's the connection string: strConn = "PROVIDER=SQLOLEDB;SERVER=localhost;UID=TheUser;PWD=ThePassword;DATABASE=TheDatabase;" To add that user to SQL Server, I went to Security/Logins in SSMS and added the user and the password. I selected the database in question as the Default database. I thought that might do the trick, but it didn't. Then, I went into TheDatabase, then went into Security there. I added a new user there, referencing the new user I had already added in server Security. Under Owned Schemas, I clicked db_owner and under Role Members I checked db_accessadmin and db_owner. None of this gave the ASP application access to the database. The sid values match in sys.database_principals and sys.server_principals for the login in question. I am able to login to SSMS using this login. The app needs to execute selects against the database like this: oConn.Execute('select * from someTable') I'm not a DBA and am sort of grasping at straws here. How do I get this thing connected? Thanks, Jay

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  • How can I intercept an exception occurred during serialization in WCF?

    - by bonomo
    I have a legit data object with all data contract / data member attributes. For some reason the WCF service crashes after the operation has completed and the result is passed as a return value. I believe it has something to do with WCF not being able to serialize that result properly. The test client doesn't say anything specific: The underlying connection was closed: The connection was closed unexpectedly. Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.RequestChannel.Request(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.RequestChannelBinder.Request(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) Exception rethrown at [0]: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) at IFacade.PickSecurities(String pattern, Int32 atMost) at FacadeClient.PickSecurities(String pattern, Int32 atMost) Inner Exception: The underlying connection was closed: The connection was closed unexpectedly. at System.Net.HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) I am in control of creating the instance of the service using a customized service host factory. I know I can set up trace listeners and check the logs, but it's a lot of hassle to do. So I would rather handle it explicitly on the server at the time it happens. So I how can I intercept that exception programmatically and return an appropriate fault meassage?

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  • ASP.NEt MVC 2 application error on IIS7 works fine on local machine

    - by aspCoolguy
    My ASP.NET MVC2 application is developed using 1. VS 2010 2. Linq To SQL for Models Here is Call controller code: namespace CallTrackMVC.Controllers { public class CallController : Controller { private CallTrackRepository repository; public CallController():this(new CallTrackRepository()) { } public CallController(CallTrackRepository newRepository) { repository = newRepository; } } } Error on IIS7 when browsing the Call Create page is NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] CallTrackMVC.Models.ExecOfficeDataContext..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Models\ExecOffice.designer.cs:71 CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Controllers\CallController.cs:16 [TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +117 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +247 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +106 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +102 [InvalidOperationException: **An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.**] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +541 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +85 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +165 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +80 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +389 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371 Code in Global.asax is protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestion would be a great help.

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  • How do I initialize the controls in an InsertItemTemplate?

    - by Slauma
    I have - for instance - an asp:FormView which supports Read, Insert, Update, Delete and is bound to a DataSource: <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource1" > <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </EditItemTemplate> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </InsertItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> If I am in Read-Mode or Edit-Mode the control is initialized with the property MyText of the current object which is bound to the FormView. But when I go to Insert-Mode I do not have a "current object" (FormView1.DataItem is indeed null) and the controls are empty. If I want to have my TextBox control initialized with a specific value how can I do that? In which event can I hook in to set default values to the controls in the InsertItemTemplate? Especially I have in mind using an ObjectDataSource. I was expecting that the InsertItemTemplate is initialized with a business object which underlies my ObjectDataSource and which is created by the ASP.NET framework simply by using its default constructor when the InsertItemTemplate gets activated. In the default constructor I would init the class members to the default values I'd like to have in my controls of the InsertItemTemplate. But unfortunately that's not the case: No "default" object is created and bound to the FormView. So it seems I have to initialize all controls separately or to create the default object manually and bind it to the InsertItemTemplate of the FormView. But how and where can I do that? Thanks in advance!

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  • How to get components from a JFrame with a GridLayout?

    - by NlightNfotis
    I have a question about Java and JFrame in particular. Let's say I have a JFrame that I am using with a GridLayout. Supposing that I have added JButtons in the JFrame, how can I gain access to the one I want using it's position (by position, I mean a x and a y, used to define the exact place on the Grid). I have tried several methods, for instance getComponentAt(int x, int y), and have seen that those methods do not work as intended when combined with GridLayout, or at least don't work as intended in my case. So I tried using getComponent(), which seems fine. The latest method, that seems to be on a right track for me is (assuming I have a JFrame with a GridLayout with 7 rows and 7 columns, x as columns, y as rows): public JButton getButtonByXAndY(int x, int y) { return (JButton) this.getContentPane().getComponent((y-1) * 7 + x); } Using the above, say I want to get the JButton at (4, 4), meaning the 25th JButton in the JFrame, I would index through the first 21 buttons at first, and then add 4 more, finally accessing the JButton I want. Problem is this works like that in theory only. Any ideas? P.S sorry for linking to an external website, but stack overflow won't allow me to upload the image, because I do not have the required reputation.

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  • Mapping Vectors

    - by Dan Snyder
    Is there a good way to map vectors? Here's an example of what I mean: vec0 = [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0] vec1 = [1,4,2,7,3,2] vec2 = [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0] vec2 = [7,2,7,9,9,6,1,0,4] vec4 = [0,0,0,0,0,0] mainvec = [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,4,2,7,3,2,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,7,2,7,9,9,6,1,0,4,0,0,0,0,0,0] Lets say mainvec doesn't exist (I'm just showing it to you so you can see the general data structure in mind. Now say I want mainvec(12) which would be 4. Is there a good way to map the call of these vectors without just stitching them together into a mainvec? I realize I could make a bunch of if statements that test the index of mainvec and I can then offset each call depending on where the call is within one of the vectors, so for instance: mainvec(12) = vec1(1) which I could do by: mainvec(index) if (index >=13) vect1(index-11); I wonder if there's a concise way of doing this without if statements. Any Ideas?

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  • Axis2 SOAP Envelope Header Information

    - by BigZig
    I'm consuming a web service that places an authentication token in the SOAP envelope header. It appears (through looking at the samples that came with the WS WSDL) that if the stub is generated in .NET, this header information is exposed through a member variable in the stub class. However, when I generate my Axis2 java stub using WSDL2Java it doesn't appear to be exposed anywhere. What is the correct way to extract this information from the SOAP envelope header? WSDL: http://www.vbar.com/zangelo/SecurityService.wsdl C# Sample: using System; using SignInSample.Security; // web service using SignInSample.Document; // web service namespace SignInSample { class SignInSampleClass { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { // login to the Vault and set up the document service SecurityService secSvc = new SecurityService(); secSvc.Url = "http://localhost/AutodeskDM/Services/SecurityService.asmx"; secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue = new SignInSample.Security.SecurityHeader(); secSvc.SignIn("Administrator", "", "Vault"); DocumentServiceWse docSvc = new DocumentServiceWse(); docSvc.Url = "http://localhost/AutodeskDM/Services/DocumentService.asmx"; docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue = new SignInSample.Document.SecurityHeader(); docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.Ticket = secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.Ticket; docSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.UserId = secSvc.SecurityHeaderValue.UserId; } } } The sample illustrates what I'd like to do. Notice how the secSvc instance has a SecurityHeaderValue member variable that is populated after a successful secSvc.SignIn() invocation. Here's some relevant API documentation regarding the SignIn method: Although there is no return value, a successful sign in will populate the SecurityHeaderValue of the security service. The SecurityHeaderValue information is then used for other web service calls.

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  • MySQL - Structure for Permissions to Objects

    - by Kerry
    What would be an ideal structure for users permissions of objects. I've seen many related posts for general permissions, or what sections a user can access, which consists of a users, userGroups and userGroupRelations or something of that nature. In my system there are many different objects that can get created, and each one has to be able to be turned on or off. For instance, take a password manager that has groups and sub groups. Group 1 Group 2 Group 3 Group 4 Group 5 Group 6 Group 7 Group 8 Group 9 Group 10 Each group can contain a set of passwords. A user can be given read, write, edit and delete permissions to any group. More groups can get created at any point in time. If someone has permission to a group, I should be able to make him have permissions to all sub groups OR restrict it to just that group. My current thought is to have a users table, and then a permissions table with columns like: permission_id (int) PRIMARY_KEY user_id (int) INDEX object_id (int) INDEX type (varchar) INDEX read (bool) write (bool) edit (bool) delete (bool) This has worked in the past, but the new system I'm building needs to be able to scale rapidly, and I am unsure if this is the best structure. It also makes the idea of having someone with all subgroup permissions of a group more difficult. So, as a question, should I use the above structure? Or can someone point me in the direction of a better one?

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  • Latex multicols. Can I group content so it won't split over cols and/or suggest colbreaks?

    - by valadil
    Hi. I'm trying to learn LaTeX. I've been googling this one for a couple days, but I don't speak enough LaTeX to be able to search for it effectively and what documentation I have found is either too simple or goes way over my head (http://www.uoregon.edu/~dspivak/files/multicol.pdf) I have a document using the multicol package. (I'm actually using multicols* so that the first col fills before the second begins instead of trying to balance them, but I don't think that's relevant here.) The columns output nicely, but I want to be able to indicate that some content won't be broken up into different columns. For instance, aaaaaaaa bbbbbbb aaaaaaaa bbbbbbb aaaaaaaa ccccccc bbbbbbbb ccccccc That poor attempt at ascii art columns is what's happening. I'd like to indicate that the b block is a whole unit that shouldn't be broken up into different columns. Since it doesn't fit under the a block, the entirety of the b block should be moved to the second column. Should b be wrapped in something? Is there a block/float/section/box/minipage/paragraph structure I can use? Something specific to multicol? Alternatively is there a way that I can suggest a columnbreak? I'm thinking of something like \- that suggests a hyphenated line break if its convenient, but this would go between blocks. Thanks!

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  • Execute a function to affect different template class instances

    - by Samer Afach
    I have a complicated problem, and I need help. I have a base case, class ParamBase { string paramValue; //... } and a bunch of class templates with different template parameters. template <typename T> class Param : public ParamBase { T value; //... } Now, each instance of Param has different template parameter, double, int, string... etc. To make it easier, I have a vector to their base class pointers that contains all the instances that have been created: vector<ParamBase*> allParamsObjects; The question is: How can I run a single function (global or member or anything, your choice), that converts all of those different instances' strings paramValue with different templates arguments and save the conversion result to the appropriate type in Param::value. This has to be run over all objects that are saved in the vector allParamsObjects. So if the template argument of the first Param is double, paramValue has to be converted to double and saved in value; and if the second Param's argument is int, then the paramValue of the second has to be converted to int and saved in value... etc. I feel it's almost impossible... Any help would be highly appreciated :-)

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  • iOS - Passing variable to view controller

    - by gj15987
    I have a view with a view controller and when I show this view on screen, I want to be able to pass variables to it from the calling class, so that I can set the values of labels etc. First, I just tried creating a property for one of the labels, and calling that from the calling class. For example: SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] init]; vc.myLabel.text = self.teamCount; [self presentModalViewController:vc animated:YES]; [vc release]; However, this didn't work. So I tried creating a convenience initializer. SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] initWithTeamCount:self.teamCount]; And then in the SetTeamsViewController I had - (id)initWithTeamCount:(int)teamCount { self = [super initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization self.teamCountLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",teamCount]; } return self; } However, this didn't work either. It's just loading whatever value I've given the label in the nib file. I've littered the code with NSLog()s and it is passing the correct variable values around, it's just not setting the label. Any help would be greatly appreciated. EDIT: I've just tried setting an instance variable in my designated initializer, and then setting the label in viewDidLoad and that works! Is this the best way to do this? Also, when dismissing this modal view controller, I update the text of a button in the view of the calling ViewController too. However, if I press this button again (to show the modal view again) whilst the other view is animating on screen, the button temporarily has it's original value again (from the nib). Does anyone know why this is?

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  • How do common web frameworks (Django, Rails, Symfony, etc) handle multiple instances of the same plu

    - by Steven Wei
    Do any of the popular web frameworks solve this problem well? Here's an example: suppose you're running one of these web frameworks and you want to install a blog plugin. Except instead of a single blog, you need to run two separate instances of the blog plugin, and you want to keep them segregated. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a user authentication plugin, because you want to segregate your administrative users from your customer user accounts. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a wiki plugin for different parts of your site, or multiple instances of a comments plugin, or whatever else. It seems to me that at the basic level, each instance of plugin would need to be able to configured with a different set of database tables, and would need to be 'installed' at a different URL path. My experience is mostly with Django and Symfony, and I haven't seen a clean solution to this problem in either of them. They both tend to assume that each plugin (or app, in Django's case) is only ever going to be installed once. I'm curious if the Rails folks have figured out a clean solution to this problem, or any other framework authors (in any language). And if you were going to design a solution to this problem, what would it look like?

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  • Java: Generics, Class.isaAssignableFrom, and type casting

    - by bguiz
    This method that uses method-level generics, that parses the values from a custom POJO, JXlistOfKeyValuePairs (which is exactly that). The only thing is that both the keys and values in JXlistOfKeyValuePairs are Strings. This method wants to taken in, in addition to the JXlistOfKeyValuePairs instance, a Class<T> that defines which data type to convert the values to (assume that only Boolean, Integer and Float are possible). It then outputs a HashMap with the specified type for the values in its entries. This is the code that I have got, and it is obviously broken. private <T extends Object> Map<String, T> fromListOfKeyValuePairs(JXlistOfKeyValuePairs jxval, Class<T> clasz) { Map<String, T> val = new HashMap<String, T>(); List<Entry> jxents = jxval.getEntry(); T value; String str; for (Entry jxent : jxents) { str = jxent.getValue(); value = null; if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Float.class)) { value = (T)(Float.parseFloat(str)); } else { logger.warn("Unsupporteded value type encountered in key-value pairs, continuing anyway: " + clasz.getName()); } val.put(jxent.getKey(), value); } return val; } This is the bit that I want to solve: if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } I get: Inconvertible types required: T found: Boolean Also, if possible, I would like to be able to do this with more elegant code, avoiding Class#isAssignableFrom. Any suggestions? Sample method invocation: Map<String, Boolean> foo = fromListOfKeyValuePairs(bar, Boolean.class);

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  • Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

    - by David
    I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

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  • SQL-Server: Is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution

    - by Arj
    Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to reliably detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

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  • problem adding object to hashtable

    - by daemonkid
    I am trying to call a class method dynamically depending on a condition. This is how I am doing it I have three classes implement a single interface interface IReadFile { string DoStuff(); } The three classes A,B,C implement the interface above. I am trying to add them to a hashtable with the code below _HashT.Add("a", new classA()); _HashT.Add("b", new classB()); _HashT.Add("c", new classC()); This compiles fine, but gives a runtime error.{Object reference not set to an instance of an object.} I was planning to return the correct class to the interface type depending on a parameter that matches the key value. say if I send in a. ClassA is returned to the interface type and the method is called. IReadFile Obj = (IReadFile )_HashT["a"].GetType(); obj.DoStuff(); How do I correct the part above where the objects need to be added to the hashtable? Or do I need to use a different approach? All the classes are in the same assembly and namespace. Thanks for your time.

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  • Can't iterate over a list class in Python

    - by Vicky
    I'm trying to write a simple GUI front end for Plurk using pyplurk. I have successfully got it to create the API connection, log in, and retrieve and display a list of friends. Now I'm trying to retrieve and display a list of Plurks. pyplurk provides a GetNewPlurks function as follows: def GetNewPlurks(self, since): '''Get new plurks since the specified time. Args: since: [datetime.datetime] the timestamp criterion. Returns: A PlurkPostList object or None. ''' offset = jsonizer.conv_datetime(since) status_code, result = self._CallAPI('/Polling/getPlurks', offset=offset) return None if status_code != 200 else \ PlurkPostList(result['plurks'], result['plurk_users'].values()) As you can see this returns a PlurkPostList, which in turn is defined as follows: class PlurkPostList: '''A list of plurks and the set of users that posted them.''' def __init__(self, plurk_json_list, user_json_list=[]): self._plurks = [PlurkPost(p) for p in plurk_json_list] self._users = [PlurkUser(u) for u in user_json_list] def __iter__(self): return self._plurks def GetUsers(self): return self._users def __eq__(self, other): if other.__class__ != PlurkPostList: return False if self._plurks != other._plurks: return False if self._users != other._users: return False return True Now I expected to be able to do something like this: api = plurk_api_urllib2.PlurkAPI(open('api.key').read().strip(), debug_level=1) plurkproxy = PlurkProxy(api, json.loads) user = plurkproxy.Login('my_user', 'my_pass') ps = plurkproxy.GetNewPlurks(datetime.datetime(2009, 12, 12, 0, 0, 0)) print ps for p in ps: print str(p) When I run this, what I actually get is: <plurk.PlurkPostList instance at 0x01E8D738> from the "print ps", then: for p in ps: TypeError: __iter__ returned non-iterator of type 'list' I don't understand - surely a list is iterable? Where am I going wrong - how do I access the Plurks in the PlurkPostList?

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  • Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

    - by mr.b
    In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

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  • How can I get the type I want?

    - by Danny Chen
    There are a lot of such classes in my project (very old and stable code, I can't do many changes to them, maybe slight changes are OK) public class MyEntity { public long ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Salary { get; set; } public static GetMyEntity ( long ID ) { MyEntity e = new MyEntity(); // load data from DB and bind to this instance return e; } } For some reasons, now I need to do this: Type t = Type.GetType("XXX"); // XXX is one of the above classes' name MethodInfo staticM= t.GetMethods(BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Static).FirstOrDefault();// I'm sure I can get the correct one var o = staticM.Invoke(...); //returns a object, but I want the type above! If I pass "MyEntity" at beginning, I hope I can get o as MyEntity! Please NOTE that I know the "name of the class" only. MyEntity e = staticM.Invoke(...) as MyEntity; can't be used here.

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  • Unable to get data from a WCF client

    - by Scott
    I am developing a DLL that will provide sychronized time stamps to multiple applications running on the same machine. The timestamps are altered in a thread that uses a high performance timer and a scalar to provide the appearance of moving faster than real-time. For obvious reasons I want only 1 instance of this time library, and I thought I could use WCF for the other processes to connect to this and poll for timestamps whenever they want. When I connect however I never get a valid time stamp, just an empty DateTime. I should point out that the library does work. The original implementation was a single DLL that each application incorporated and each one was synced using windows messages. I'm fairly sure it has something to do with how I'm setting up the WCF stuff, to which I am still pretty new. Here are the contract definitions: public interface ITimerCallbacks { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void TimerElapsed(String id); } [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof(ITimerCallbacks))] public interface ISimTime { [OperationContract] DateTime GetTime(); } Here is my class definition: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class SimTimeServer: ISimTime The host setup: // set up WCF interprocess comms host = new ServiceHost(typeof(SimTimeServer), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ISimTime), new NetNamedPipeBinding(), "SimTime"); host.Open(); and the implementation of the interface function server-side: public DateTime GetTime() { if (ThreadMutex.WaitOne(20)) { RetTime = CurrentTime; ThreadMutex.ReleaseMutex(); } return RetTime; } Lastly the client-side implementation: Callbacks myCallbacks = new Callbacks(); DuplexChannelFactory pipeFactory = new DuplexChannelFactory(myCallbacks, new NetNamedPipeBinding(), new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://localhost/SimTime")); ISimTime pipeProxy = pipeFactory.CreateChannel(); while (true) { string str = Console.ReadLine(); if (str.ToLower().Contains("get")) Console.WriteLine(pipeProxy.GetTime().ToString()); else if (str.ToLower().Contains("exit")) break; }

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  • Integrate OpenId into an existing site

    - by Andrea
    I have a working web application which already has a login and registration system. I'm looking for some advice on how to do it. Until now, users have a username, an email, a password and some optional fields. The registrartion is the usual process with email confirmation. Now I'd like to allow users to use OpenId. So I have added an openid field to the table. There are two different login forms, and users which are already registered can add their openid info and use either login form. The problem is with new users who come on the site for the first time and try to login with OpenId. I create a new user for them, and I don't need a password, but still I need at least a username, which is used on the site (I'm not sure if the email is needed). So my problems are: 1) How do I manage validation? Some fields are required for some users, (e.g. a password) but not for some others. I mean, I can do this, but it immediately gets messy. 2) Should I ask for a username and email on the first OpenId login? On the one hand I'd say yes, but I fear this vanishes the advantages of using OpenId, that is, not having to provide details. 3) I could get the details via SReg or AttributeExchange, but most providers have a bad support for those. For instance my Gmail OpenId account does not tell the email (!). Is there some place to learn more about the current support for these extensions?

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  • Trying to make a plugin system in C++/Qt

    - by Pirate for Profit
    I'm making a task-based program that needs to have plugins. Tasks need to have properties which can be easily edited, I think this can be done with Qt's Meta-Object Compiler reflection capabilities (I could be wrong, but I should be able to stick this in a QtPropertyBrowser?) So here's the base: class Task : public QObject { Q_OBJECT public: explicit Task(QObject *parent = 0) : QObject(parent){} virtual void run() = 0; signals: void taskFinished(bool success = true); } Then a plugin might have this task: class PrinterTask : public Task { Q_OBJECT public: explicit PrinterTask(QObject *parent = 0) : Task(parent) {} void run() { Printer::getInstance()->Print(this->getData()); // fictional emit taskFinished(true); } inline const QString &getData() const; inline void setData(QString data); Q_PROPERTY(QString data READ getData WRITE setData) // for reflection } In a nutshell, here's what I want to do: // load plugin // find all the Tasks interface implementations in it // have user able to choose a Task and edit its specific Q_PROPERTY's // run the TASK It's important that one .dll has multiple tasks, because I want them to be associated by their module. For instance, "FileTasks.dll" could have tasks for deleting files, making files, etc. The only problem with Qt's plugin setup is I want to store X amount of Tasks in one .dll module. As far as I can tell, you can only load one interface per plugin (I could be wrong?). If so, the only possible way to do accomplish what I want is to create a FactoryInterface with string based keys which return the objects (as in Qt's Plug-And-Paint example), which is a terrible boilerplate that I would like to avoid. Anyone know a cleaner C++ plugin architecture than Qt's to do what I want? Also, am I safely assuming Qt's reflection capabilities will do what I want (i.e. able to edit an unknown dynamically loaded tasks' properties with the QtPropertyBrowser before dispatching)?

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