Search Results

Search found 13501 results on 541 pages for 'dimensional model'.

Page 458/541 | < Previous Page | 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465  | Next Page >

  • Why would a SQL query JOIN on the same table twice with the same condition?

    - by Scott Leis
    I'm working on changes to a SQL Server v8 database developed by someone else, and have found something that seems (based on my limited SQL knowledge) strange and pointless. One of the views has a query that does a LEFT OUTER JOIN twice on the same table with the same condition. Is there any reason for doing this? The query is below. See the second- and third-last lines that both join the "te_SDE_Survey" table on the "SDE_ID" field. Also note these lines set two different aliases for the table, and both aliases are used in the SELECT part of the query. SELECT vs.SLMS_Code, vs.Retail_Date, vs.TagNo, vs.Rego, vs.Model, vs.Company, vs.AccountType, viqdp.SDE_ID, bd.Debit_Date, isu.Survey_Date, CASE WHEN isu.Q6 IS NOT NULL THEN isu.Q6 ELSE CASE WHEN returned_surveys.survey_date IS NULL THEN CASE WHEN (viqdp.expiryDate < getdate() AND cs.sup1 IS NULL AND cs.sup2 IS NULL AND cs.sup3 IS NULL AND cs.sup5 IS NULL AND cs.sup8 IS NULL AND cs.sup9 IS NULL) THEN 'E' WHEN (viqdp.expiryDate < getdate() AND cs.sup1 = 'F' AND cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F' AND cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN cs.sup1 = 'T' THEN 'S' WHEN cs.sup2 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup3 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup5 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup8 = 'T' AND (cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN cs.sup9 = 'T' AND (cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN (cs.sup8 = 'T' OR cs.sup9 = 'T') AND (cs.sup2 = 'T' OR cs.sup3 = 'T' OR cs.sup5 = 'T') THEN 'S' END WHEN (tey.survey_expire_method = 'pre2008') THEN CASE WHEN (datediff(month, viqdp.generate_date, returned_surveys.survey_date) 1) THEN 'E' END WHEN (tey.survey_expire_method = 'expiryDateColumn') THEN CASE WHEN (returned_surveys.survey_date viqdp.expiryDate) THEN 'E' END END END AS score_or_exclusion_status, CASE WHEN (bd.explanation IS NULL) THEN '' ELSE bd.explanation END AS explanation, tey.te_Year FROM dbo.te_Vehicle_Sale vs INNER JOIN dbo.te_Year tey ON vs.Retail_Date = tey.Start_Date AND vs.Retail_Date <= tey.End_Date LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.Bad_Data bd ON vs.TagNo = bd.TagNo LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_Vehicle_SDESurvey viqdp ON vs.TagNo = viqdp.TagNo LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Survey isu ON viqdp.SDE_ID = isu.SDE_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Survey returned_surveys ON viqdp.SDE_ID = returned_surveys.SDE_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Contact_Suppression cs ON viqdp.SDE_ID = cs.SDE_ID

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate - Cascade delete a child object when no explicit parent->child relationship exists

    - by John Price
    I've got an application that keeps track of (for the sake of an example) what drinks are available at a given restaurant. My domain model looks like: class Restaurant { public IEnumerable<RestaurantDrink> GetRestaurantDrinks() { ... } //other various properties } class RestaurantDrink { public Restaurant Restaurant { get; set; } public Drink { get; set; } public string DrinkVariety { get; set; } //"fountain drink", "bottled", etc. //other various properties } class Drink { public string Name { get; set; } public string Manufacturer { get; set; } //other various properties } My db schema is (I hope) about what you'd expect; "RestaurantDrinks" is essentially a mapping table between Restaurants and Drinks with some extra properties (like "DrinkVariety" tacked on). Using Fluent NHibernate to set up mappings, I've set up a "HasMany" relationship from Restaurants to RestaurantDrinks that causes the latter to be deleted when its parent Restaurant is deleted. My question is, given that "Drink" does not have any property on it that explicitly references RestaurantDrinks (the relationship only exists in the underlying database), can I set up a mapping that will cause RestaurantDrinks to be deleted if their associated Drink is deleted? Update: I've been trying to set up the mapping from the "RestaurantDrink" end of things using References(x => x.Drink) .Column("DrinkId") .Cascade.All(); But this doesn't seem to work (I still get an FK violation when deleting a Drink).

    Read the article

  • Trouble with data not saving with bindings and shared NSUserDefaults in IB

    - by Chief
    I'm having a bit of a strange issue that I can't quite figure out. I'm somewhat of a n00b to Interface Builder. What I am trying to do seems like it should be simple, but it's not working for some reason. In interface builder I have a preferences window with a simple NSTextField. I have set the value binding to the Shared User Defaults Controller with the controller key "values" and model key "test". I build/run my app and open the preferences window, type some random value into said text field, close the window. Command-Q the app. Then in a shell i do a "defaults read com.xxx.yyy" for my app and the key and value are nowhere to be found. That being said, it seems like the next time I fire up the app and change the value it works but only if I switch focus off of the NSTextField before closing the window. In the documentation for NSUserDefaults it says that the shared controller saves values immediately, am I missing something stupid here? Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • UX question: is better to have "serious delete" or have "trash"

    - by ftrotter
    I am developing an application that allows for a user to manage some individual data points. One of the things that my users will want to do is "delete" but what should that mean? For a web application is it better to present a user with the option to have serious delete or to use a "trash" system? Under "serious delete" (would love to know if there is a better name for this...) you click "delete" and then the user is warned "this is final and tragic action. Once you do this you will not be able to get -insert data point name here- back, even if you are crying..." Then if they click delete... well it truly is gone forever. Under the "trash" model, you never trust that the user really wants to delete... instead you remove the data point from the "main display" and put into a bucket called "the trash". This gets it out of the users way, which is what they usually want, but they can get it back if they make a mistake. Obviously this is the way most operating systems have gone. The advantages of "serious delete" are: Easy to implement Easy to explain to users The disadvantages of "serious delete" are: it can be tragically final sometimes, cats walk on keyboards The advantages of the "trash" system are: user is safe from themselves bulk methods like "delete a bunch at once" make more sense saves support headaches The disadvantages of the "trash" system are": For sensitive data, you create an illusion of destruction users think something is gone, but it is not. Lots of subtle distinctions make implementation more difficult Do you "eventually" delete the contents of the trash? My question is which one is the right design pattern for modern web applications? With enough discussion to justify your answer... Would love to be pointed towards some relevant research. -FT

    Read the article

  • Localizing DataAnnotations Custom Validation Attribute

    - by Gabe G
    Hello SO, I'm currently working in an MVC 2 app which has to have everything localized in n-languages (currently 2, none of them english btw). I validate my model classes with DataAnnotations but when I wanted to validate a DateTime field found out that the DataTypeAttribute returns always true, no matter it was a valid date or not (that's because when I enter a random string "foo", the IsValid() method checks against "01/01/0001 ", dont know why). Decided to write my own validator extending ValidationAtribute class: public class DateTimeAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime result; if (value.ToString().Equals("01/01/0001 0:00:00")) { return false; } return DateTime.TryParse(value.ToString(), out result); } } Now it checks OK when is valid and when it's not, but my problem starts when I try to localize it: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_Required")] [CustomValidation.DateTime(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_DataType")] public DateTime INS_DATA { get; set; } If I put nothing in the field I get a localized MSG (MSG being my resource class) for the key=INS_DATA_Required but if I put a bad-formatted date I get the "The value 'foo' is not valid for INS_DATA" default message and not the localized MSG. What am I misssing?

    Read the article

  • Help with debugging COM errors? (.mdi to .pdf file conversions using Microsoft Office Document Imagi

    - by RyanW
    I thought I had a working solution for converting .mdi files to PDF using the Microsoft Office Document Imaging object model. The solution is in a Windows Service, but now I'm running into some errors that I'm having trouble tracking down info on. The exception I get is: The server threw an exception. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80010105 (RPC_E_SERVERFAULT)) System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80010105): The server threw an exception. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80010105 (RPC_E_SERVERFAULT)) at MODI.DocumentClass.Create(String FileOpen) at DocumentStore.Mdi2PDF(String path, String newPath) Then, in the Event Viewer there is the following Application error: Faulting application MyWindowsServiceName.exe, version 1.0.0.0, time stamp 0x4b97f185, faulting module mso.dll, version 12.0.6425.1000, time stamp 0x49d65443, exception code 0xc0000005, fault offset 0x0000bd8e, process id 0xa5c, application start time 0x01cac08cf032914b. Here's the method that is doing the conversion: private int? Mdi2PDF(String path, String newPath) { int? pageCount = null; string tmpTif = Path.GetTempFileName(); MODI.Document mdiDoc = new MODI.Document(); mdiDoc.Create(path); mdiDoc.SaveAs(tmpTif, MODI.MiFILE_FORMAT.miFILE_FORMAT_TIFF_LOSSLESS, MODI.MiCOMP_LEVEL.miCOMP_LEVEL_HIGH); mdiDoc.Close(false); pageCount = Tiff2PDF(tmpTif, newPath); if (File.Exists(tmpTif)) File.Delete(tmpTif); return pageCount; } I removed all threading from the service invoking this, so that only the primary thread was initializing the MODI object, but still got the error, so it doesn't appear to be threading related. I also built a a console apps converting hundreds of documents and DID NOT get the exception. So, it seems to be caused by creating too many instances of the MODI object, but only instantiated within a Service? Doesn't quite make sense. Anybody have any clues about these errors and how to debug them further?

    Read the article

  • Database warehouse design: fact tables and dimension tables

    - by morpheous
    I am building a poor man's data warehouse using a RDBMS. I have identified the key 'attributes' to be recorded as: sex (true/false) demographic classification (A, B, C etc) place of birth date of birth weight (recorded daily): The fact that is being recorded My requirements are to be able to run 'OLAP' queries that allow me to: 'slice and dice' 'drill up/down' the data and generally, be able to view the data from different perspectives After reading up on this topic area, the general consensus seems to be that this is best implemented using dimension tables rather than normalized tables. Assuming that this assertion is true (i.e. the solution is best implemented using fact and dimension tables), I would like to seek some help in the design of these tables. 'Natural' (or obvious) dimensions are: Date dimension Geographical location Which have hierarchical attributes. However, I am struggling with how to model the following fields: sex (true/false) demographic classification (A, B, C etc) The reason I am struggling with these fields is that: They have no obvious hierarchical attributes which will aid aggregation (AFAIA) - which suggest they should be in a fact table They are mostly static or very rarely change - which suggests they should be in a dimension table. Maybe the heuristic I am using above is too crude? I will give some examples on the type of analysis I would like to carryout on the data warehouse - hopefully that will clarify things further. I would like to aggregate and analyze the data by sex and demographic classification - e.g. answer questions like: How does male and female weights compare across different demographic classifications? Which demographic classification (male AND female), show the most increase in weight this quarter. etc. Can anyone clarify whether sex and demographic classification are part of the fact table, or whether they are (as I suspect) dimension tables.? Also assuming they are dimension tables, could someone elaborate on the table structures (i.e. the fields)? The 'obvious' schema: CREATE TABLE sex_type (is_male int); CREATE TABLE demographic_category (id int, name varchar(4)); may not be the correct one.

    Read the article

  • Add KO "data-bind" attribute on $(document).ready

    - by M.Babcock
    Preface I've rarely ever been a JS developer and this is my first attempt at doing something with Knockout.js. The question to follow likely illustrates both points. Backgound I have a fairly complex MVC3 application that I'm trying to get to work with KO (v2.0.0.0). My MVC app is designed to generically control which fields appear in the view (and how they are added to the view). It makes use of partial views to decide what to draw in the view based on the user's permissions (If the user is in group A then show control A, if the user in group B then show control B or possibly if the user is in group A don't include the control at all). Also, my model is very flat so I'm not sure the built-in ability to apply my ViewModel to a specific portion of the view will help. My solution to this problem is to provide an action in my controller that responds with an object in JSON format with that contains the JQuery selector and the content to assign to the "data-bind" attribute and bind the ViewModel to the View in the $(document).ready event using the values provided. Failed Proof-of-concept My first attempt at proving that this works doesn't actually seem to work, and by "doesn't work" I mean it just doesn't bind the values at all (as can be seen in this jsfiddle). I've tried it with the applyBindings inside of the ready event and not, but it doesn't seem to make any bit of difference. Question What am I doing wrong? Or is this just not something that can work with KO (though I've seen at least one example online doing the same thing and it supposedly works)? Like I said in the preface, I've only ever pretended to be a JS developer (though I've generally gotten it to work in the past) so I'm at a loss where to start trying to figure out what I'm doing wrong. Hopefully this isn't a real noob question.

    Read the article

  • How do I refer to a constant URL in my route configuration?

    - by Remnant
    Suppose I have the following within a webpage <% using (Html.BeginForm("ShowData", "Summary")) %> <% { %> <div class="dropdown"><%=Html.DropDownList("CourseSelection", Model.CourseList, new { @class = "dropdown", onchange="this.form.submit();" })%> </div> <% } %> When the user makes a selection from the dropdown the form is submitted and I would like it to link to another page with a URL as follows: http://localhost:1721/Summary I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute(null, "Summary", new { controller = "Summary", action = "ShowData", CourseSelection = (string) null }); routes.MapRoute("Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Login", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); When a user selects an item in the dropdownlist, the URL returned is: http://localhost:1721/Summary/ShowData?CourseSelection = UserSelection Clearly the first route in the list is not being matched. I don't want the URL to show the action name and parameter. I simply want to show "Summary" which is what I have hard coded in the URL. How do I achieve this?

    Read the article

  • Nested Forms not passing belongs_to :id

    - by Bill Christian
    I have the following model class Project < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :assignments, :conditions => {:deleted_at => nil} has_many :members, :conditions => {:deleted_at => nil} accepts_nested_attributes_for :members, :allow_destroy => true end class Member < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :project belongs_to :person belongs_to :role has_many :assignments, :dependent => :destroy, :conditions => {:deleted_at => nil} accepts_nested_attributes_for :assignments, :allow_destroy => true validates_presence_of :role_id validates_presence_of :project_id end and I assume the controller will populate the member.project_id upon project.save for each nested member record. However, I get a validation error stating the project_id is blank. My controller method: def create # @project is created in before_filter if @project.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully created project." redirect_to @project else render :action => 'new' end end Do I need to manually set the project_id in each nested member record? Or what is necessary for the controller to populate when it creates the member records?

    Read the article

  • org.apache.jasper.JasperException .... Unterminated &lt;%@ page tag

    - by Ankur
    I get org.apache.jasper.JasperException: /index.jsp(2,1) Unterminated <%@ page tag The page tags look like this: <%@ page import="java.util.*" %> <%@ page import="au.edu.uwa.peb.autoextractor.model.ScanResultItem"; %> This seems to indicate to me that a < does not have a corresponding tag ... is this so ... my IDE does not highlight any errors so how can I find this unterminated tag. Is there a JSP validation tool that I can use, perhaps online? The stack trace looks like this: org.apache.jasper.compiler.DefaultErrorHandler.jspError(DefaultErrorHandler.java:40) org.apache.jasper.compiler.ErrorDispatcher.dispatch(ErrorDispatcher.java:407) org.apache.jasper.compiler.ErrorDispatcher.jspError(ErrorDispatcher.java:132) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Parser.parseDirective(Parser.java:520) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Parser.parseTagFileDirectives(Parser.java:1784) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Parser.parse(Parser.java:127) org.apache.jasper.compiler.ParserController.doParse(ParserController.java:255) org.apache.jasper.compiler.ParserController.parseDirectives(ParserController.java:120) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.generateJava(Compiler.java:165) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:332) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:312) org.apache.jasper.compiler.Compiler.compile(Compiler.java:299) org.apache.jasper.JspCompilationContext.compile(JspCompilationContext.java:586) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:317) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:342) org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:267) javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717)

    Read the article

  • Rails 3 - Category Filter Using Select - Load Partial Via Ajax

    - by fourfour
    Hey. I am trying to filter Client Comments by using a select and rendering it in a partial. Right now the partial loads @client.comments. I have a Category model with a Categorizations join. This all works, just need to know how to get the select to call the filter action and load the partial with ajax. Thanks for you help. Categories controller: def filter_category @categories = Category.all respond_to do |format| format.js # filter.rjs end end filter.js.erb: page.replace_html 'client-not-inner', :partial => 'comments', :locals => { :com => Category.first.comments } show.html.erb (clients) <% form_tag(filter_category_path(:id), :method => :put, :class => 'categories', :remote => true, :controller => 'categoires', :action => 'filter') do %> <label>Categories</label> <%= select_tag(:category, options_for_select(Category.all.map {|category| [category.name, category.id]}, @category_id)) %> <% end %> <div class="client-note-inner"> <%= render :partial => 'comments', :locals => { :com => @comments } %> </div><!--end client-note-inner--> Hope that makes sense. Cheers.

    Read the article

  • Java AtomicInteger: what are the differences between compareAndSet and weakCompareAndSet?

    - by WizardOfOdds
    (note that this question is not about CAS, it's about the "May fail spuriously" Javadoc). The only difference in the Javadoc between these two methods from the AtomicInteger class is that the weakCompareAndSet contains the comment: "May fail spuriously". Now unless my eyes are cheated by some spell, both method do look to be doing exactly the same: public final boolean compareAndSet(int expect, int update) { return unsafe.compareAndSwapInt(this, valueOffset, expect, update); } /* ... * May fail spuriously. */ public final boolean weakCompareAndSet(int expect, int update) { return unsafe.compareAndSwapInt(this, valueOffset, expect, update); } So I realize that "May" doesn't mean "Must" but then why don't we all start adding this to our codebase: public void doIt() { a(); } /** * May fail spuriously */ public void weakDoIt() { a(); } I'm really confused with that weakCompareAndSet() that appears to do the same as the compareAndSet() yet that "may fail spuriously" while the other can't. Apparently the "weak" and the "spurious fail" are in a way related to "happens-before" ordering but I'm still very confused by these two AtomicInteger (and AtomicLong etc.) methods: because apparently they call exactly the same unsafe.compareAndSwapInt method. I'm particularly confused in that AtomicInteger got introduced in Java 1.5, so after the Java Memory Model change (so it is obviously not something that could "fail spuriously in 1.4" but whose behavior changed to "shall not fail spuriously in 1.5").

    Read the article

  • asp mvc unit test HttpContext.Current.Cache?

    - by Paul Creasey
    Here is the first part of my controller code: public class ControlMController : Controller { IControlMService _controlMservice; public IList<User> Users { get { if (System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Cache["users"] == null) { System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Cache["users"] = _controlMservice.GetUsers(); } return (IList<User>)System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Cache["users"]; } } public ControlMController(IControlMService controlMservice) { this._controlMservice = controlMservice; var users = Users; ViewData["Users"] = users; ViewData["jqSelectUsers"] = string.Join(";", users.Select(x => x.UserID + ":" + x.Name).ToArray()); } I'm trying to test it, and because i'm caching using the HttpContext, i'm struggling with null reference exceptions. I've tried using MvcContrib.TestHelper; here is my sample test... [TestMethod] public void EventDetails_Returns_view_with_correct_event() { var builder = new TestControllerBuilder(); var controller = builder.CreateController<ControlMController>( new ControlMService( new MockControlMRepository() )); var view = (controller.EventDetails(1) as ViewResult); Assert.AreEqual(1, (view.ViewData.Model as Event).EventId); } (I haven't quite got round to using DI for my tests! I'm still getting the same null reference exception when the code hits the httpcontext: Error 1 TestCase 'SupportTool.Tests.Services.ControlM.ControlMControllerTests.EventDetails_Returns_view_with_correct_event' failed: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at SupportTool.web.Controllers.ControlMController.get_Users() Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Validation Summary for Collections

    - by Myster
    Hi All, EDIT: upgraded this question to MVC 2.0 With asp.net MVC 2.0 is there an existing method of creating Validation Summary that makes sense for models containing collections? If not I can create my own validation summary Example Model: public class GroupDetailsViewModel { public string GroupName { get; set; } public int NumberOfPeople { get; set; } public List<Person> People{ get; set; } } public class Person { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please enter your Email Address")] [RegularExpression(@"^([a-zA-Z0-9_\-\.]+)@((\[[0-9]{1,3}\.[0-9]{1,3}\.[0-9]{1,3}\.)|(([a-zA-Z0-9\-]+\.)+))([a-zA-Z]{2,4}|[0-9]{1,3})(\]?)$", ErrorMessage = "Please enter a valid Email Address")] public string EmailAddress { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please enter your Phone Number")] public string Phone { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please enter your First Name")] public string FirstName { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please enter your Last Name")] public string LastName { get; set; } } The existing summary <%=Html.ValidationSummary %> if nothing is entered looks like this. The following error(s) must be corrected before proceeding to the next step * Please enter your Email Address * Please enter your Phone Number * Please enter your First Name * Please enter your Last Name * Please enter your Email Address * Please enter your Phone Number * Please enter your First Name * Please enter your Last Name The design calls for headings to be inserted like this: The following error(s) must be corrected before proceeding to the next step Person 1 * Please enter your Email Address * Please enter your Phone Number * Please enter your First Name * Please enter your Last Name Person 2 * Please enter your Email Address * Please enter your Phone Number * Please enter your First Name * Please enter your Last Name

    Read the article

  • Matlab crashes on library initialize when called from Java

    - by David Sauter
    Hello everyone. The setup I have is I'm using a Java application to call native C-code with JNI, which in turn starts up the MATLAB runtime and calls functions on it (I know there are other solutions to call MATLAB methods from Java). The problem is that the MATLAB engine crashes at some point during the initialization and I don't know what's causing it exactly. The crash causes my jvm to terminate, I assume it's some kind of memory corruption. The C++ code calling MATLAB functions that is actually crashing is JNIEXPORT void JNICALL some_jni_vodoo_initializeLibrary(JNIEnv* env, jclass thisClass) { try { if (!mclInitializeApplication(NULL, 0)) { THROW_EXCEPTION(env, "Could not initialize the application properly."); return; } if (!<library>Initialize()) { THROW_EXCEPTION(env, "Could not initialize the library."); return; } } ... The function <library>Initialize() crashes here, the Java error log reads Stack Trace: [0] jmi.dll:0x793f4175(0x7934cdca, 1, 0x7937e67c "à;.y`[email protected] in C:\BUILD_ARE..", 0x792d6a32) [1] jvm.dll:0x792df9a5(0xc0000005, 0x79356791, 0x4961b400 "Ð\8y", 0x6d8b29de) [2] jvm.dll:0x792e0431(0x8b515008, 0x70f0e8ce, 0x8b5ffffa, 0xc25d5ec6) ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Fatal Java Exception detected at Fri Apr 30 11:08:08 2010 ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Configuration: MATLAB Version: 7.8.0.347 (R2009a) MATLAB License: unknown Operating System: Microsoft Windows Vista Window System: Version 6.0 (Build 6002: Service Pack 2) Processor ID: x86 Family 6 Model 10 Stepping 5, GenuineIntel Virtual Machine: Java is not enabled Default Encoding: windows-1252 Java is not enabled I really have no idea what could be wrong. Is there not enough memory from the jvm? I guess the problem is somehow related to Java, since calling the JNI functions from a simple test C++ program works fine... Thanks

    Read the article

  • Modeling a Generic Relationship in a Database

    - by StevenH
    This is most likely one for all you sexy DBAs out there: How would I effieciently model a relational database whereby I have a field in an "Event" table which defines a "SportType". This "SportsType" field can hold a link to different sports tables E.g. "FootballEvent", "RubgyEvent", "CricketEvent" and "F1 Event". Each of these Sports tables have different fields specific to that sport. My goal is to be able to genericly add sports types in the future as required, yet hold sport specific event data (fields) as part of my Event Entity. Is it possible to use an ORM such as NHibernate / Entity framework which would reflect such a relationship? I have thrown together a quick C# example to express my intent at a higher level: public class Event<T> where T : new() { public T Fields { get; set; } public Event() { EventType = new T(); } } public class FootballEvent { public Team CompetitorA { get; set; } public Team CompetitorB { get; set; } } public class TennisEvent { public Player CompetitorA { get; set; } public Player CompetitorB { get; set; } } public class F1RacingEvent { public List<Player> Drivers { get; set; } public List<Team> Teams { get; set; } } public class Team { public IEnumerable<Player> Squad { get; set; } } public class Player { public string Name { get; set; } public DateTime DOB { get; set;} }

    Read the article

  • WPF MVVM Chart change axes

    - by c0uchm0nster
    I'm new to WPF and MVVM. I'm struggling to determine the best way to change the view of a chart. That is, initially a chart might have the axes: X - ID, Y - Length, and then after the user changes the view (either via lisbox, radiobutton, etc) the chart would display the information: X - Length, Y - ID, and after a third change by the user it might display new content: X - ID, Y - Quality. My initial thought was that the best way to do this would be to change the bindings themselves. But I don't know how tell a control in XAML to bind using a Binding object in the ViewModel, or whether it's safe to change that binding in runtime? Then I thought maybe I could just have a generic Model that has members X and Y and populate them as needed in the viewmodel? My last thought was that I could have 3 different chart controls and just hide and show them as appropriate. What is the CORRECT/SUGGESTED way to do this in the MVVM pattern? Any code examples would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Debugging SIGABRT within NSManagedObjectContext -save:

    - by westsider
    From inside NSManagedObjectContext -save: I am getting this message: Assertion failed: (_Unwind_SjLj_Resume() can't return), function _Unwind_SjLj_Resume, file /SourceCache/libunwind/libunwind-24.1/src/Unwind-sjlj.c, line 326. Program received signal: “SIGABRT”. warning: Unable to read symbols for /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/DeviceSupport/4.2.1 (8C148)/Symbols/Developer/usr/lib/libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib (file not found). This happens when I delete an Experiment object with to-many with Run which has to-many with Sample which has to-one with Data. Experiment also has to-many with Page which has to-many with Display which has to-many to Run. I mention this to point out the cyclical nature of the graph. Here is a simplified graph of model: I had been using Delete Rules but have now switched to "No Action" delete rules in combination with -prepareForDeletion methods for all of these classes. This change made no difference. In both cases, the error message is the same. Interestingly, when I relaunch the app, all the objects that were marked for deletion have been deleted. Also, if an Experiment has no Run objects, then deletion works without incidence. For that matter, deleting a single Run from an Experiment also works. I am hoping that someone has seen something like this and can offer advice on what would cause this. Or, if someone has advice on how to get libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib for iOS 4.2.1, that might also be helpful. Update: I followed advice found here and was able to get Xcode to find libXcodeDebuggerSupport.dylib for iOS 4.2.1. But this did not help at all in diagnosing problem - which persists.

    Read the article

  • Is there something like a "long running offline transaction" for NHibernate or any other ORM?

    - by Vilx-
    In essence this is a followup of this question. I'm beginning to feel that I should give up the whole idea, but I'll give it one more shot. What I want is pretty much like a DB transaction. It should track my changes to the DB and then in the end allow me to either commit or rollback them. If I insert an object, I should get it back in my next (appropriate) SELECT query. If I delete it, future SELECT queries should not return it. Etc. But there is one catch - this transaction would be very long running. It would start when the user opened a form (I'm talking about Windows Forms here), and the commit/rollback would be when the user closed it(with OK/Cancel). So it could take anywhere between seconds and days. This requirement rules out a standard DB transaction because that would lock the tables/rows it touched, and other users wouldn't be able to use the system. Also the transaction should not commit ANY changes to the DB until it was really committed. So if one user makes some changes, others don't see them until OK button is hit. This prevents errors in case the computer crashes or is disconnected from the network. I'm quite OK if the solution puts constraints on my model (I'm using MSSQL 2008, btw). I can design the DB/code any way I like. I'm also fine with the idea that a commit could fail because someone already modified one of the objects my transaction touched. Is there anything like this? I looked at NHibernate.Burrow, but I'm not sure that that's the thing I want. Added: It's the very beginning of the project so I'm not tied to NHibernate. I started out with it but I can still change easily.

    Read the article

  • Html.LabelFor and Html.TextBoxFor generate empy html code

    - by Ceridan
    I'm writing my first ASP.NET MVC application and there is one big problem for me. I want to make a control which will represent a form, but when I try to generate labels and textboxes it returns to me empty page. So, this is my model file (MyModel.cs): namespace MyNamespace.Models { public class MyModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "You have to fill this field")] [DisplayName("Input name")] public string Name{ get; set; } } } This is MyFormControlView.ascx file with my control: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<MyNamespace.Models.MyModel>"%> <div> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { Html.LabelFor(m => m.Name); Html.TextBoxFor(m => m.Name); Html.ValidationMessageFor(m => m.Name); } %> </div> And this is my Index.aspx file where I render the control: <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Main.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<System.Collections.IEnumerable>" %> <asp:Content runat="server" ID="MainContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent"> This is my control test! <%Html.RenderPartial("MyFormControlView", new MyNamespace.Models.MyModel { Name = "MyTestName"}); %> </asp:Content> So, when I run my application the result is lonely caption: "This is my control test!" and there are no label or textbox on the generated page. If I inspect the source code of the generated page I can see my block, but it's inner text is empty. Please, could you help me?

    Read the article

  • Backend raising (INotify)PropertyChanged events to all connected clients?

    - by Jörg Battermann
    One of our 'frontend' developers keeps requesting from us backend developers that the backend notifies all connected clients (it's a client/server environment) of changes to objects. As in: whenever one user makes a change, all other connected clients must be notified immediately of the change. At the moment our architecture does not have a notification system of that kind and we don't have a sort of pub/sub model for explicitly chosen objects (e.g. the one the frontend is currently implementing).. which would make sense in such a usecase imho, but obviously requires extra implementation. However, I thought frontends typically check for locks for concurrently existing user changes on the same object and rather pull for changes / load on demand and in the background rather than the backend pushing all changes to all clients for all objects constantly.. which seems rather excessive to me. However, it's being argumented that e.g. the MS Entity Framework does in fact publish (INotify)PropertyChanged not only for local changes, but for all such changes including other client connections, but I have found no proof or details regarding this. Can anyone shed some light into this? Do other e.g. ORMs etc provide broadcasted (INotify)PropertyChanged events on entities?

    Read the article

  • Error generating Interface with svcutil.exe

    - by capdragon
    Can someone help me generate the Interface (c#) file for the following OGC schema? Schema files: Download Schema Files Link I need to create web services for the Ordering wsdl in the schema zip file above. I've been at it for days now with no luck generating the interface. I've tried: svcutil.exe thewsdl.wsdl /language:c# /out:ITheInterface.cs svcutil Order.wsdl /out:IOrder.cs svcutil Order.wsdl Order.xsd ..\ws-addressing\ws-addr.xsd /out:IOrder.cs svcutil Order.wsdl Order.xsd ws-addr.xsd /out:IOrder.cs and i get the following error: Microsoft (R) Service Model Metadata Tool [Microsoft (R) Windows (R) Communication Foundation, Version 4.0.30319.1] Copyright (c) Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. Error: Cannot read ws-addr.xsd. Cannot load file D:\Documents\DEV\SARPilot\Docs\eoschema\schema\OrderSchema\ws-addr.xsd as an Assembly. Check the FusionLogs f or more Information. Could not load file or assembly 'file:///D:\Documents\DEV\SARPilot\Docs\eoschema\schema\OrderSchema\ws-addr.xsd' or one of its dependencies. The module was expected to contain an assembly manifest.

    Read the article

  • Use spring tag in XSLT

    - by X-Pippes
    I have a XSL/XML parser to produce jsp/html code. Using MVC model I need to accees spring library in order to perform i18n translation. Thus, given the xml <a> ... <country>EN</country> ... </a> and using <spring:message code="table_country_code.EN"/> tag, choose based on the browser language, the transalation into England, Inglaterra, etc... However, the XSL do not support <spring:message> tag. The idea is to have a XSLT with something like this <spring:message code="table_country_code.><xsl:value-of select="country"/>"/>` I also tried to create the spring tag in Java when I make a parse to create the XML but I sill have the same error. ERROR [STDERR] (http-0.0.0.0-8080-1) file:///C:/Software/Jboss/jboss-soa-p-5/jboss-as/bin/jstl:; Line #5; Column #58; The prefix "spring" for element "spring:message" is not bound. How can I resolve?

    Read the article

  • Surprising results with .NET multi-theading algorithm

    - by Myles J
    Hi, I've recently wrote a C# console time tabling algorithm that is based on a combination of a genetic algorithm with a few brute force routines thrown in. The initial results were promising but I figured I could improve the performance by splitting the brute force routines up to run in parallel on multi processor architectures. To do this I used the well documented Producer/Consumer model (as documented in this fantastic article http://www.albahari.com/threading/part2.aspx#_ProducerConsumerQWaitHandle). I changed my code to create one thread per logical processor during the brute force routines. The performance gains on my work station were very pleasing. I am running Windows XP on the following hardware: Intel Core 2 Quad CPU 2.33 GHz 3.49 GB RAM Initial tests indicated average performance gains of approx 40% when using 4 threads. The next step was to deploy the new multi-threading version of the algorithm to our higher spec UAT server. Here is the spec of our UAT server: Windows 2003 Server R2 Enterprise x64 8 cpu (Quad-Core) AMD Opteron 2.70 GHz 255 GB RAM After running the first round of tests we were all extremely surprised to find that the algorithm actually runs slower on the high spec W2003 server than on my local XP work station! In fact the tests seem to indicate that it doesn't matter how many threads are generated (tests were ran with the app spawning between 2 to 32 threads). The algorithm always runs significantly slower on the UAT W2003 server? How could this be? Surely the app should run faster on a 8 cpu (Quad-Core) than my 2 Quad work station? Why are we seeing no performance gains with the multi-threading on the W2003 server whilst the XP workstation tests show gains of up to 40%? Any help or pointers would be appreciated. Regards Myles

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465  | Next Page >