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• How to speed up WPF programs?

  - by Sam

  I love programming with and for Windows Presentation Framework. Mostly I write browser-like apps using WPF and XAML. But what really annoys me is the slowness of WPF. A simple page with only a few controls loads fast enough, but as soon as a page is a teeny weeny bit more complex, like containing a lot of data entry fields, one or two tab controls, and stuff, it gets painful. Loading of such a page can take more than one second. Seconds, indeed, especially on not so fast computers (read: the customers computers) it can take ages. Same with changing values on the page. Everything about the WPF UI is somehow sluggy. This is so mean! They give me this beautiful framework, but make it so excruciatingly slow so I'll have to apologize to our customers all the time! My Question: How do you speed up WPF? How do you profile bottlenecks? How do you deal with the slowness? Since this seems to be an universal problem with WPF, I'm looking for general advice, useful for many situations and problems. Some other related questions: What tools do you use for WPF development Tools to develop WPF or Silverlight applications

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• iPad: Move UIView with animation, then move it back

  - by Joel

  I have the following code in a UIView subclass that will move it off the screen with an animation: float currentX = xposition; //variables that store where the UIView is located float currentY = yposition; float targetX = -5.0f - self.width; float targetY = -5.0f - self.height; moveX = targetX - currentX; //stored as an instance variable so I can hang on to it and move it back moveY = targetY - currentY; [UIView beginAnimations:@"UIBase Hide" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:duration]; self.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeTranslation(moveX,moveY); [UIView commitAnimations]; It works just great. I've changed targetX/Y to 0 to see if it does indeed move to the specified point, and it does. The problem is when I try and move the view back to where it was originally: moveX = -moveX; moveY = -moveY; [UIView beginAnimations:@"UIBase Show" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:duration]; self.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeTranslation(moveX,moveY); [UIView commitAnimations]; This puts the UIView about 3x as far as it should. So the view usually gets put off the right side of the screen (depending on where it is). Is there something with the CGAffineTransforMakeTranslation function that I should know? I read the documentation, and from what I can tell, it should be doing what I'm expecting it to do. Anyone have a suggestion of how to fix this? Thanks.

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• Encrypting using RSA via COM Interop = "The requested operation requires delegation to be enabled on

  - by Mr AH

  Hi Guys, So i've got this little static method in a .Net class which takes a string, uses some stored public key and returns the encrypted version of that key. This is basically so some user entered data can be saved an encrypted, then retrieved and decrypted at a later date. Pretty basic stuff and the unit test works fine. However, part of the application is in classic ASP. This then uses some COM visible version of the class to go off and invoke the method on the real class and return the same string to the COM client (classic ASP). I use this kind of stuff all the time, but in this case we have a major problem. As the method is doing something with RSA keys and has to access certain machine information to do so, we get the error: "The requested operation requires delegation to be enabled on the machine. I've searched around a lot, but can't really understand what this means. I assume I am getting this error on the COM but not the UT because the UT runs as me (Administrator) and classic ASP as IWAM. Anyone know what I need to do to enable IWAM to do this? Or indeed if this is the real problem here?

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• CSS overflow and word-wrap behaviour not helping me at all

  - by henriquev

  You can see how the filename field should look at http://www.plifk.com/henvic/114 and how it breaks the layout at http://www.plifk.com/henvic/159 If I used 108574main-neutron-star-and-a-very-bad-overfow-will-happen-here-so-sad.mpg I would not get an overflow, but in the first line "108574main-neutron-star-and-a-very-" and in the second line a "bad-overfow-happens.mpg". What can I do to avoid getting an overflow? Please know that I don't want to use quirks (like PHP's wordwrap, neither JavaScript if possible) and I've tried some ways in CSS with word-wrap, etc, but nothing worked out. I've also tried word-break: break-all (tested on Firefox only) but it didn't work also. Even the overflow: hidden; is not working... I'm not very familiar with web designing (indeed I try to do everything by the standards, etc) and I'm completely lost right now. The uncompressed CSS file can be seen at http://pastebin.ca/1802451 Now... I really understand that this is expected once the word-wrap is supposed for text, not characters. But hey, even with break-all it doesn't do anything. How can? Thank you very much in advance.

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• Program and debugger quit without indication of problem

  - by spender

  OK, not quite a Heisenbug but similar in nature. I'm developing a WPF application. When debugging, the logic reaches a certain point, then the application quits for no reason. VS debugger catches nothing and the only indication of a problem is the following in the output window: The program '[6228] SomeApp.vshost.exe: Managed (v4.0.30319)' has exited with code 1073741855 (0x4000001f). When debugging the release version, or indeed running the debug build out of the debugger (in fact all combos that aren't running the debug version in debugger), everything works fine. I'm trying to catch unhandled exceptions with the following code: AppDomain .CurrentDomain .UnhandledException += (sender, e) => { Debug.WriteLine("Unhandled Exception " + e.ExceptionObject); }; Application .Current .DispatcherUnhandledException += (sender1, e1) => { Debug.WriteLine("DispatcherUnhandledException " + e1.Exception); }; ...but I'm not catching anything. I'm considering peppering the app with debug output statements, but it's highly asynchronous so reading this will be both arduous and tedious. So tell me, if you can... how do I start figuring WTF is going on?

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• Using a dynamic <script> (a <script> appended to the DOM by JavaScript) to load and initialize Click

  - by Bungle

  I'm creating an HTML/JavaScript widget to be used on third-party sites. This widget is generated by a <script> that our customers will insert on their page. The <script> creates an <iframe> in the customer's domain, and then creates and inserts all of that <iframe>'s content using JavaScript. It's important that this <iframe> contain Clicky's tracking code to monitor clicks on outbound links. Unfortunately, I'm not having any luck getting Clicky to work when I append the requisite <script> elements to the <iframe> using JavaScript. I first tried simply appending the Clicky tracking code to the <iframe> after appending some test outbound links, hoping that Clicky could attach to those automatically as it does on a static page. That didn't seem to work, so my next inclination was to use the "advanced_disable" custom option and use clicky.log() on the links I want to track. Here's a link to a test page that's along those lines: http://onespot.wsj.com/static/clicky_iframe_test.html When clicking a link on that test page, the action is not logged in Clicky, and a JavaScript error appears: clicky is not defined This ("clicky") appears to be defined in http://static.getclicky.com/js, which I confirmed through the Firebug console is indeed loading before I click a test outbound link. Has anyone successfully loaded Clicky in this way? If so, could you provide some sample code, a link to a working implementation, or some feedback on what's wrong with my code? I would also be interested to know if this is even possible. Thanks very much for any help or advice!

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• Writing an efficient cron job script utilizing Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap.

  - by fireeyedboy

  I'm new to the IMAP protocol and Zend_Mail_Storage and I'm writing a small php script for a cron job that should regularly poll an IMAP account and check for new messages, and send an e-mail if new messages have arrived. As you can imagine, I want to only poll the IMAP account for relevant messages, and I only want to send a new e-mail if new messages have arrived since the last polled new message. So I thought of keeping track of the last message I polled with some unique identifier for a message. But I'm a bit uncertain about whether the methods I want to utilize for this do what I expect them to do though. So my questions are: Does the iterator position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap actually resemble some IMAP unique identifier for messages, or is it simply only and internal position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? For instance, if I tell it to seek() to message 5 (which I stored from an earlier session) will it indeed seek to the appropriate message on the IMAP server, even if for instance messages have been deleted since last session? Would keeping track of this latest polled message id in a file suffice for a cron job that, say, polls the account every 5 or 10 minutes? Or is this too naive, and should I be using a database for instance. Or is there maybe a much easier way to keep track of such state with Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? Also, do I need to poll every IMAP folder? Or is everything accumulated when I poll INBOX? If you could shed some light on any of these matters, I'ld appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

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• powershell errors on remove-item command

  - by Lachlan

  Hi, I've written a powershell script which removes folders more than 7 days old. It seems to be removing the folders, but for some reason its giving me errors. I was wondering if anyone might be able to tell me why? The script is... $rootBackupFolder = "\server\share" get-childitem $rootBackupFolder | where {$.PSIsContainer -AND $.Name -match ("^CVSRepository_(19|20)[0-9]0-9(0[1-9]|[12][0-9]|3[01])$") -AND $_.LastWriteTime -le (Get-Date).AddDays(-7)} | remove-item -recurse -force Their are 2 errors I get, this first is this one... (Get-Date).AddDays(-7)} | remove-item <<<< -recurse -force Remove-Item : Cannot remove item \server\share\CVSRepository_20100305\somesubfolder\sumotherfolder: Could not find a part of the path '\server\share\CVSRepository_20100305\somesubfolder\sumotherfolder'. The other error is this... (Get-Date).AddDays(-7)} | remove-item <<<< -recurse -force Remove-Item : Cannot remove item \server\share\CVSRepository_2010031 2\somesubfolder\: Access to the path 'Rdl' is denied.At C:\CVSRepository_BackupScript\Backup.ps1:43 char:38+ (Get-Date).AddDays(-7)} | remove-item <<<< -recurse -force Any ideas? The script is running under a domain account which has privs to delete the remote folders. And in fact it is indeed deleting the folders! But giving me errors... Thanks, Lachlan

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• jQuery scrollTop() doesn't seem to work in Safari or Chrome (Windows)

  - by Pointy

  I've got a simple setup to allow a "help"-style window to be loaded and scrolled to a particular point on the page. More or less the code looks like this: var target = /* code */; target.offsetParent().scrollTop(target.offset().top - fudgeValue); The target of the scroll and the fudge value are determined by a couple of hints dropped on the page, and I'm having no problems with that part of this mechanism anywhere. In Firefox and IE8, the above code works exactly like I want: the scrolled box (in this case, the page body) correctly scrolls the contained stuff to the right point in the window when it's told to do so. In Chrome and Safari, however, the call to scrollTop() apparently does nothing at all. All the numbers are OK, and the target refers to the right thing (and the offsetParent() is indeed the body element), but nothing at all happens. As far as I can tell from googling around, this is supposed to work. Is there something funny about the renderer under Safari and Chrome? This is jQuery 1.3.2 if that matters. Test page: http://gutfullofbeer.net/scrolltop.html

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• FileNotFoundException, altough the XML file should be deployed

  - by Bernhard V

  Hi, I've got problems starting my WAR application on a local JBoss. After two other EARs are deployed and the TomcatDeployer begins deploying the WAR, I'm getting the following error message: 2010-04-28 10:01:56,605 ERROR [org.jboss.ejb.plugins.LogInterceptor] [] [main] EJBException in method: public abstract at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenRemote at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenHome.create() throws javax.ejb.CreateException,java.rmi.RemoteException, causedBy: javax.ejb.EJBException: org.springframework.beans.factory.access.BootstrapException: Unable to initialize group definition. Group resource name [classpath*:applicationContext.xml], factory key [contextService]; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'contextService' defined in URL [jar:file:/C:/ta30/nutzb/jboss-4.2.3.GA.ZPV/server/default/deploy/deploy.last/zpv-app-web-frontend-1.0-SNAPSHOT.war/WEB-INF/lib/zpv-comp-ejb-modules-1.0-SNAPSHOT-client.jar!/applicationContext.xml]: Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: IOException parsing XML document from class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml]; nested exception is java.io.FileNotFoundException: class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml] cannot be opened because it does not exist The sad thing is that the resource at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml actually is placed in a JAR in one of my EAR files which should be deployed before the WAR. And at least I get a message that the deployment of the EAR has been successful. I also looked into the JAR with my file archiver and the ContextBasic.xml is indeed there at the right place. Is there a way for me to get sure that the JAR, not the EAR as a whole, is really deployed to the JBoss? I'm already starting to lose my head about this issue. Thank you. Bernhard

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• Manual drag-drop operations in Flex

  - by Yarin

  This is a two-part problem: A) I'm implementing several irregular drag-drop operations in Flex (e.g. DataGrid ItemRenderer into Tree). My preference was modifying DragManager operations to meet my needs, and in fact using DragManager allows me to do everything I need, but I'm having serious issues with performance. For example, dragging anything over a many-columned DataGrid, whether the drag was initiated with DragManager.doDrag, or just using native ListBase drag-drop functionality, slows the drag movement to a crawl. Even if the DataGrid is disabled/ not listenening for any move/drag events, this happens. On the other hand, if the drag is initiated by calling .startDrag() on the Sprite, the drag is smooth and performs great over DataGrids and everything else. So part A would be: Is there a reason why .startDrag() operations work so well, while drags initiated through DragManager.doDrag suffer so badly when over certain components? B) If indeed the solution is to handle drag-drops using .startDrag(), how would I go about determining what component the mouse is over when the drag is released? In my example, my dragged object is brought up to the top level of the display list, and so is being moved around in stage coordinates. mouseMove, mouseOver events don't fire on the components I'm dragging over because the mouse is constantly over the dragged component, so I would need some sort of stage.coordinate - visibleComponentAtThatCoordinate conversion. Any thoughts on this? Thanks alot!-- Yarin

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• apache: cgi links lead to a "you have chosen to open foo.cgi", although scriptalias is set

  - by Xiong Chiamiov

  Following this guide on CentOS 5.2, just getting nagios set up for the first time. The main page shows up just fine, but when I try to view any of the pages that should be generated by a cgi process, firefox prompts me to save the .cgi instead, so apache's obviously not understanding that it needs to run the cgi and get back some html from it. The odd thing is, though, that, as far as I can tell, apache should be running these files as cgi. nagios.conf: # SAMPLE CONFIG SNIPPETS FOR APACHE WEB SERVER # Last Modified: 11-26-2005 # # This file contains examples of entries that need # to be incorporated into your Apache web server # configuration file. Customize the paths, etc. as # needed to fit your system. ScriptAlias /nagios/cgi-bin/ "/usr/lib/nagios/cgi/" # SSLRequireSSL Options +ExecCGI AddHandler cgi-script .cgi AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all # Order deny,allow # Deny from all # Allow from 127.0.0.1 AuthName "Nagios Access" AuthType Basic AuthUserFile /etc/nagios/htpasswd.users Require valid-user Alias /nagios "/usr/share/nagios/" # SSLRequireSSL DirectoryIndex index.php Options None AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all # Order deny,allow # Deny from all # Allow from 127.0.0.1 AuthName "Nagios Access" AuthType Basic AuthUserFile /etc/nagios/htpasswd.users Require valid-use Either the ScriptAlias directive or ExecCGI option should be triggering this, but neither of them seems to have any effect. This config file is being parsed by apache, because if I move it out of conf.d, /nagios gives a 404. The .cgi files are indeed in the /nagios/cgi-bin/ directory, so I didn't specify the incorrect directory. Searching seemed to only provide people who had difficulty with permissions, which is not the issue here. This seems to me to be a pretty basic thing, but even with the excellent apache documentation, I'm at a bit of a loss (been using cherokee too much lately :) ).

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• JEE6 Global JNDI Name and Maven Deployment

  - by wobblycogs

  I'm having some problems with the global JNDI names of my EJB resources which is (or at least will) cause my JNDI look ups to fail. The project is being developed on Netbeans and is a standard Maven Web Application. When my application is deployed to GF3.0 the application name is set to something like: com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT which is all well and good from Netbeans point of view because it ensures the name is unique but it also means all the EJBs get global names such as this: java:global/com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT/CustomerService This, of course, is going to cause problems because every time the version changes all the global names change (I've tested this by changing the version and the names indeed changed). The name is being generated from the POM file and it's a concatenation of: <groupId>com.example</groupId> <artifactId>myapp</artifactId> <packaging>war</packaging> <version>1.0-SNAPSHOT</version> Up until now I've got away with just injecting all the resources using @EJB but now I need to access the CustomerService EJB from a JSF Converter so I'm doing a JNDI look up like this: try { Context ctx = new InitialContext(); CustomerService customerService = (CustomerService)ctx.lookup( "java:global/com.example_myapp_war_1.0-SNAPSHOT/CustomerService" ); return customerService.get(submittedValue); } catch( Exception e ) { logger.error( "Failed to convert customer.", e ); return null; } which will clearly break when the application is properly released and the module name changes. So, the million dollar question: how can I set the modle name in maven or how do I recover the module name so that I can programatically build the JNDI name at runtile. I've tried setting it in the web.xml file as suggested by that link but it was ignored. I think I'd rather build the name at runtime as that means there is less scope for screw ups when the application is deployed. Many thanks for any help, I've been tearing my hair out all day on this.

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• How to validate selects / inserts are hitting the right server with MySQL Master/Slave

  - by bwizzy

  I've got a rails app using the master_slave_adapter plugin (http://github.com/mauricio/master_slave_adapter/tree/master) to send all selects to a slave, and all other statements to the master. Replication is setup using Mysql master / slave. I'm trying to validate that all the SQL statements are indeed going to the right place. Selects to the slave (db2), inserts to the master (db1) but I'm not sure how to do it. I've tried using tcpdump on the webservers: sudo /usr/sbin/tcpdump -q -i eth0 dst port 3306 and this is the output for a page request with a ton of selects: 10:32:36.570930 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 0 10:32:36.576805 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 0 10:32:36.577201 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 0 10:32:36.577980 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 86 10:32:36.578186 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 21 10:32:36.578359 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 27 10:32:36.578522 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 5 10:32:36.578741 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 13 10:32:36.579611 IP web2.mydomain.com.57524 > db1.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 29 10:32:36.588201 IP web2.mydomain.com.45978 > db2.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 0 10:32:36.588323 IP web2.mydomain.com.45978 > db2.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 0 10:32:36.588677 IP web2.mydomain.com.45978 > db2.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 0 10:32:36.588784 IP web2.mydomain.com.45978 > db2.mydomain.com.mysql: tcp 86 It doesn't look like all the selects are going to the slave. Maybe this isn't the right way to test, anyone know a better way?

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• Linq - how does it work??

  - by clarkeyboy

  Hey, I have just been looking into Linq with ASP.Net. It is very neat indeed. I was just wondering - how do all the classes get populated? I mean in ASP.Net, suppose you have a Linq file called Catalogue, and you then use a For loop to loop through Catalogue.Products and print each Product name. How do the details get stored? Does it just go through the Products table on page load and create another instance of class Product for each row, effectively copying an entire table into an array of class Product? If so, I think I have created a system very much like this, in the sense that there is a SiteContent module with an instance of each Manager class - for example there is UserManager, ProductManager, SettingManager and alike. UserManager contains an instance of the User class for each row in the Users table. They also contain methods such as Create, Update and Remove. These Managers and their "Items" are created on every page load. This just makes it nice and easy to access users, products, settings etc in every page as far as I, the developer, am concerned. Any any subsequent pages I need to create, I just need to reference SiteContent.UserManager to access a list of users, rather than executing a query from within that page (ie this method separates out data access from the workings of the page, in the same way as using code behind separates out the workings of the page from how the page is layed out). However the problem is that this technique seems rather slow. I mean it is effectively creating a database on every page load, taking data from another database. I have taken measures such as preventing, for example, the ProductManager from being created if it is not referenced on page load. Therefore it does not load data into storage when it is not needed. My question is basically whether my technique does the exact same thing as Linq, in the sense of duplicating data from tables into properties of classes.. Thanks in advance for any advice or answers about this. Regards, Richard Clarke

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• Xcode Link Frameworks "Relative to Current SDK" Doesn't Work When Mixing Mac Framework and iPhone St

  - by bl4th3rsk1t3

  I have a framework of code I maintain. It's got mac and iphone objective-c code. And some of it is shared. I'm not having any problems with code. It's a problem with Xcode. Let's just call my framework "AwesomeKit" for this problem. The first thing I did was create an xcode Framework project called "AwesomeKit". Add source files to it, link against the common mac frameworks: foundation, cocoa, carbon, etc. It compiles fine. Then, add a new "static library" target, let's call it "AwesomeKit-iPhone" and set the base SDK in the build settings to iphone device 3.1.3. The problem comes when I try to add "Existing Frameworks" to the AweseomKit-iPhone target. -First change the current build target to AwesomeKit-iPhone. -Right click on any group and select "Add Existing Frameworks..." -Choose UIKit.framework UIKit will immediately be highlighted red, as if it's missing. It is indeed missing because Xcode uses the "Relative SDK" setting from the "Mac OS 10.6" SDK. When it should be using it relative to the current target's base sdk iphone device 3.1.3. What the heck? Has anyone experienced this? This is really annoying.

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• How to check whether a user belongs to an AD group and nested groups?

  - by elsharpo

  hi guys, I have an ASP.NET 3.5 application using Windows Authentication and implementing our own RoleProvider. Problem is we want to restrict access to a set of pages to a few thousand users and rathern than inputing all of those one by one we found out they belong to an AD group. The answer is simple if the common group we are checking membership against the particular user is a direct member of it but the problem I'm having is that if the group is a member of another group and then subsequently member of another group then my code always returns false. For example: Say we want to check whether User is a member of group E, but User is not a direct member of *E", she is a member of "A" which a member of "B" which indeed is a member of E, therefore User is a member of *E" One of the solutions we have is very slow, although it gives the correct answer using (var context = new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain)) { using (var group = GroupPrincipal.FindByIdentity(context, IdentityType.Name, "DL-COOL-USERS")) { var users = group.GetMembers(true); // recursively enumerate return users.Any(a => a.Name == "userName"); } } The original solution and what I was trying to get to work, using .NET 3.5 System.DirectoryServices.AccountManagement and it does work when users are direct members of the group in question is as follows: public bool IsUserInGroup(string userName, string groupName) { var cxt = new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, "DOMAIN"); var user = UserPrincipal.FindByIdentity(cxt, IdentityType.SamAccountName, userName); if (user == null) { return false; } var group = GroupPrincipal.FindByIdentity(cxt, groupName); if (group == null) { return false; } return user.IsMemberOf(group); } The bottom line is, we need to check for membership even though the groups are nested in many levels down. Thanks a lot!

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• Java: What are the various available security settings for applets

  - by bguiz

  I have an applet that throws this exception when trying to communicate with the server (running on localhost). This problem is limited to Applets only - a POJO client is able to communicate with the exact same server without any problem. Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-1" java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.net .SocketPermission 127.0.0.1:9999 connect,resolve) at java.security.AccessControlContext.checkPermission(AccessControlContext.java:323) My applet.policy file's contents is: grant { permission java.security.AllPermission; }; My question is what are the other places where I need to modify my security settings to grant an Applet more security settings? Thank you. EDIT: Further investigation has lead me to find that this problem only occurs on some machines - but not others. So it could be a machine level (global) setting that is causing this, rather than a application-specific setting such as the one in the applet.policy file. EDIT: Another SO question: Socket connection to originating server of an unsigned Java applet This seems to describe the exact same problem, and Tom Hawtin - tackline 's answer provides the reason why (a security patch released that disallows applets from connecting to localhost). Bearing this in mind, how do I grant the applet the security settings such that in can indeed run on my machine. Also why does it run as-is on other machines but not mine?

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• How can parallelism affect number of results?

  - by spender

  I have a fairly complex query that looks something like this: create table Items(SomeOtherTableID int,SomeField int) create table SomeOtherTable(Id int,GroupID int) with cte1 as ( select SomeOtherTableID,COUNT(*) SubItemCount from Items t where t.SomeField is not null group by SomeOtherTableID ),cte2 as ( select tc.SomeOtherTableID,ROW_NUMBER() over (partition by a.GroupID order by tc.SubItemCount desc) SubItemRank from Items t inner join SomeOtherTable a on a.Id=t.SomeOtherTableID inner join cte1 tc on tc.SomeOtherTableID=t.SomeOtherTableID where t.SomeField is not null ),cte3 as ( select SomeOtherTableID from cte2 where SubItemRank=1 ) select * from cte3 t1 inner join cte3 t2 on t1.SomeOtherTableID<t2.SomeOtherTableID option (maxdop 1) The query is such that cte3 is filled with 6222 distinct results. In the final select, I am performing a cross join on cte3 with itself, (so that I can compare every value in the table with every other value in the table at a later point). Notice the final line : option (maxdop 1) Apparently, this switches off parallelism. So, with 6222 results rows in cte3, I would expect (6222*6221)/2, or 19353531 results in the subsequent cross joining select, and with the final maxdop line in place, that is indeed the case. However, when I remove the maxdop line, the number of results jumps to 19380454. I have 4 cores on my dev box. WTF? Can anyone explain why this is? Do I need to reconsider previous queries that cross join in this way?

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• How to avoid XCode framework weak-linking problems?

  - by Frank R.

  Hi, I'm building an application that takes advantage of Mac OS X 10.6-only technologies, but without giving up backwards compatibility to 10.5 Leopard. The way I do this is by setting the 10.6 SDK as the base SDK, weak-linking all frameworks and setting the deployment target to 10.5 as described in: http://developer.apple.com/mac/library/DOCUMENTATION/MacOSX/Conceptual/BPFrameworks/Concepts/WeakLinking.html This works fine; before making a call that is Snow Leopard-only I need to check that the selector or indeed the class actually exist. Or I can just check the OS version before making the call. The problem is that this is incredibly fragile. If I make a single call that is 10.6 only I blow Leopard-compatibility. So using even the normal code code completion feature can be dangerous. My question: is there any way of checking which calls are not defined on 10.5 before doing a release build? Some kind of static analysis, or even just a trick (a target set the other SDK?) would do. I obviously should test on a Leopard machine before releasing anything, but even so I can't possibly go through all paths of the program before every release. Any advice would be appreciated. Best regards, Frank

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• How to produce an HTTP 403-equivalent WCF Message from an IErrorHandler?

  - by Andras Zoltan

  I want to write an IErrorHandler implementation that will handle AuthenticationException instances (a proprietary type), and then in the implementation of ProvideFault provide a traditional Http Response with a status code of 403 as the fault message. So far I have my first best guess wired into a service, but WCF appears to be ignoring the output message completely, even though the error handler is being called. At the moment, the code looks like this: public class AuthWeb403ErrorHandler : IErrorHandler { #region IErrorHandler Members public bool HandleError(Exception error) { return error is AuthenticationException; } public void ProvideFault(Exception error, MessageVersion version, ref Message fault) { //first attempt - just a stab in the dark, really HttpResponseMessageProperty property = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); property.SuppressEntityBody = true; property.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.Forbidden; property.StatusDescription = "Forbidden"; var m = Message.CreateMessage(version, null); m.Properties[HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name] = property; fault = m; } #endregion } With this in place, I just get the standard WCF html 'The server encountered an error processing the request. See server logs for more details.' - which is what would happen if there was no IErrorHandler. Is this a feature of the behaviours added by WebServiceHost? Or is it because the message I'm building is simply wrong!? I can verify that the event log is indeed not receiving anything. My current test environment is a WebGet method (both XML and Json) hosted in a service that is created with the WebServiceHostFactory, and Asp.Net compatibility switched off. The service method simply throws the exception in question.

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• UDK SettingsScene variable

  - by Ricket

  I am in the process of porting a script from UT3 to UDK. The script is for class ZOUIFrontEnd_MainMenu extends UTUIFrontEnd_MainMenu. I'm getting the following compiler error: C:\UDK\UDK-2010-03\Development\Src\FixIt\Classes\ZOUIFrontEnd_MainMenu.uc(18) : Error, Bad or missing expression in Call to 'OpenSceneByName', parameter 1 The referenced line is as follows: OpenSceneByName(SettingsScene); Okay, so I figured the OpenSceneByName function changed in UDK. Tracing the path of inheritance all the way up to UDKUIScene.uc, I found the definition: function UIScene OpenSceneByName(string SceneToOpen, bool bSkipAnimation=false, optional delegate<OnSceneActivated> SceneDelegate=None) Assuming SettingsScene is a string, everything looks fine, right? So I figured I would find SettingsScene to make sure it's a string. Well doing a search for "SettingsScene" in all files turned up only one other line; UTGameReplicationInfo.uc line 334: UTPC.OpenUIScene(class'UTUIFrontEnd_MainMenu'.default.SettingsScene); But UTUIFrontEnd_MainMenu doesn't have a SettingsScene variable in it! Just to check, I changed my line of code to match: OpenSceneByName(class'UTUIFrontEnd_MainMenu'.default.SettingsScene); And indeed, I get the following compile error now: C:\UDK\UDK-2010-03\Development\Src\FixIt\Classes\ZOUIFrontEnd_MainMenu.uc(18) : Error, Unknown Property 'SettingsScene' in 'Class UTGame.UTUIFrontEnd_MainMenu' How does UTGameReplicationInfo.uc successfully compile? Where is the SettingsScene variable?

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• Base64 en/decoding between xstream and iPhone SDK

  - by Matt McMinn

  I am passing a byte array from a java server to an iPad client in XML. The server is using xstream to convert the byte array to XML with the EncodedByteArrayConverter, which should convert the array to Base 64. Using xstream, I can decode the xml back to the proper byte array in a java client, but in the iPad client, I'm getting an invalid length error. To do my decoding, I'm using the code at the bottom of this page. The length of the string is indeed not a multiple of 4, so there must be something strange with my string - although since xstream can decode it just fine, I'm guessing there's just something I need to to on the iPad side to get it to decode. I've tried cutting off padding at the end of the string to get it down to the right size, and that does allow the decoder to work, but I end up with JPG's that have invalid headers, and are not displayable. On the server side, I'm using the following code: Object rtrn = getByteArray(); XStream xstream = new XStream(); String xml = xstream.toXML(rtrn); On the client side, I'm calling the above decoder from the XML parsing callback like this: -(void)parser:(NSXMLParser *)parser foundCharacters:(NSString *)string { NSLog(@"Converting data; string length: %d", [string length]); //NSLog(@"%@", string); NSData *data = [Base64 decode:string]; NSLog(@"converted data length: %d", [data length]); } Any ideas what could be going wrong?

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• Bypass all cacheing on jQuery.autocomplete(1.02)

  - by technicalbloke

  I am using jQuery.autocomplete(1.02) on my search box and I want exact string and substring matching. I don't care (yet!) about the database load, I'm happy for it to fire off a query every keystroke and bypass the caching entirely - I just don't want anything missed. To this end I have tried setting cacheLength=1, the minimum permitted, but the autocomplete function refuses to fire off a GET request for each key up. searchbox GET_request 'a' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=a 'ar' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=ar 'ars' -> http://localhost/service_search_request?q=ars Instead, it sends the first and the third and misses the second, giving me the wrong results for 'ar' :-/ I've cleared my cache and sessions but it looks like some sort of caching is still going on. AFAIK I have no proxying going on and I'm shift-refreshing each time. It looks likely then that this behavior is from jQuery.autocomplete itself. So my questions are... A) Does this seem likely? i.e. is it a feature, or maybe a bug? B) If so is there a clean way around it?... C) If not, what autocomplete would you use instead? Naturally D) No you're just using it incorrectly you douche! is always a possibility, and indeed the one I'd prefer having spent time going down this road - assuming it comes with a link to the docs I've failed to find / read! Cheers, Roger :)

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• Asp.Net MVC Tutorial Unit Tests

  - by Nicholas

  I am working through Steve Sanderson's book Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and I having some issues with two unit tests which produce errors. In the example below it tests the CheckOut ViewResult: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ViewResult CheckOut(Cart cart, FormCollection form) { // Empty carts can't be checked out if (cart.Lines.Count == 0) { ModelState.AddModelError("Cart", "Sorry, your cart is empty!"); return View(); } // Invoke model binding manually if (TryUpdateModel(cart.ShippingDetails, form.ToValueProvider())) { orderSubmitter.SubmitOrder(cart); cart.Clear(); return View("Completed"); } else // Something was invalid return View(); } with the following unit test [Test] public void Submitting_Empty_Shipping_Details_Displays_Default_View_With_Error() { // Arrange CartController controller = new CartController(null, null); Cart cart = new Cart(); cart.AddItem(new Product(), 1); // Act var result = controller.CheckOut(cart, new FormCollection { { "Name", "" } }); // Assert Assert.IsEmpty(result.ViewName); Assert.IsFalse(result.ViewData.ModelState.IsValid); } I have resolved any issues surrounding 'TryUpdateModel' by upgrading to ASP.NET MVC 2 (Release Candidate 2) and the website runs as expected. The associated error messages are: *Tests.CartControllerTests.Submitting_Empty_Shipping_Details_Displays_Default_View_With_Error: System.ArgumentNullException : Value cannot be null. Parameter name: controllerContext* and the more detailed at System.Web.Mvc.ModelValidator..ctor(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext controllerContext) at System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.OnModelUpdated(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) at System.Web.Mvc.DefaultModelBinder.BindComplexModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.TryUpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, String prefix, String[] includeProperties, String[] excludeProperties, IValueProvider valueProvider) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.TryUpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, IValueProvider valueProvider) at WebUI.Controllers.CartController.CheckOut(Cart cart, FormCollection form) Has anyone run into a similar issue or indeed got the test to pass?

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