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  • Displaying ppt, doc, and xls in UIWebView doesn't work but pdf does

    - by slugolicious
    It looks like a few people on stackoverflow get this to work but their code isn't posted. I'm using [web loadData:data MIMEType:MIMEType textEncodingName:@"UTF-8" baseURL:nil]; where MIMEType is: @"application/vnd.ms-powerpoint" @"application/vnd.ms-word" @"application/vnd.ms-excel" (BTW, I've seen DOC files use mimetype @"application/msword" but the "vnd" version seems more appropriate. I tried both just in case.) I verified that my 'data' is correct. PDF and TXT files work. When the UIWebView displays PPT, DOC, or XLS files, it's blank. I put NSLOG statements in my UIWebViewDelegate calls. shouldStartLoadWithRequest:<NSMutableURLRequest about:blank> navType:5 webViewDidStartLoad: didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=NSURLErrorDomain Code=100 UserInfo=0x122503a0 "Operation could not be completed. (NSURLErrorDomain error 100.)" didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=WebKitErrorDomain Code=102 UserInfo=0x12253840 "Frame load interrupted" so obviously the load is failing, but why? If I change my mimetype to @"text/plain" for a PPT file, the UIWebView loads fine and displays unprintable characters, as expected. That's telling me the 'data' passed to loadData: is ok. Meaning my mimetypes are bad? And just to make sure my PPT, DOC, and XLS files are indeed ok to display, I created a simple html file with anchor tags to the files. When the html file is displayed in Safari on the iPhone, clicking on the files displays correctly in Safari. I tried to research the error code displayed in didFailLoadWithError (100) but all the documented error codes are negative and greater than 1000 (as seen in NSURLError.h). -(void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { NSLog(@"didFailLoadWithError:%@", error); }

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  • How to debug jQuery ajax POST to .NET webservice

    - by Nick
    Hey all. I have a web service that I have published locally. I wrote an HTML page to test the web service. The webservice is expecting a string that will be XML. When I debug the web service from within VS everything works great. I can use FireBug and see that my web service is indeed being hit by they AJAX call. After deploying the web service locally to IIS it does not appear to be working. I need to know the best way to trouble shoot this problem. My AJAX js looks like this: function postSummaryXml(data) { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'http://localhost/collection/services/datacollector.asmx/SaveSummaryDisplayData', data: { xml: data }, error: function(result) { alert(result); }, success: function(result) { alert(result); } }); The web method looks like so: [WebMethod] public string SaveSummaryDisplayData(string xml) { XmlDocument xmlDocument = new XmlDocument(); xmlDocument.LoadXml(xml); XmlParser parser = new XmlParser(xmlDocument); IModel repository = new Repository(); if(repository.AddRecord("TestData",parser.TestValues)) { return "true"; } return "false"; } } I added the return string to the web method in an attempt to ensure that the web-service is really hit from the ajax. The problem is this: In FF the 'Success' function is always called yet the result is always 'NULL'. And the web method does not appear to have worked (no data saved). In IE the 'Error' function is called and the response is server error: 500. I think (believe it or not) IE is giving me a more accurate indication that something is wrong but I cannnot determine what the issue is. Can someone please suggest how I should expose the specific server error message? Thanks for the help!

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  • Environment variable in xcconfig won't expand in Settings.bundle/Root.plist

    - by AO
    I have defined my own environment variable in a .xcconfig file and based my configurations on that as described at http://www.silverchairsolutions.com/blog/2008/03/automating-cocoa-deployments-with-sparkle-and-xcode. My environment variable is indeed expanded in Info.plist but not in my Settings.bundle/Root.plist. Why won't it expand there? Root.plist looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE plist PUBLIC "-//Apple//DTD PLIST 1.0//EN" "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"> <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>Title</key> <string>${PRODUCT_NAME}</string> <key>PreferenceSpecifiers</key> <array> <dict> <key>DefaultValue</key> <string>${PRODUCT_NAME}</string> <key>Key</key> <string>version</string> <key>Title</key> <string>Version</string> <key>Type</key> <string>PSTitleValueSpecifier</string> </dict> <dict> <key>DefaultValue</key> <string></string> <key>Key</key> <string>atc</string> <key>Title</key> <string>ATC</string> <key>Type</key> <string>PSTitleValueSpecifier</string> </dict> </array>

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  • Will fixed-point arithmetic be worth my trouble?

    - by Thomas
    I'm working on a fluid dynamics Navier-Stokes solver that should run in real time. Hence, performance is important. Right now, I'm looking at a number of tight loops that each account for a significant fraction of the execution time: there is no single bottleneck. Most of these loops do some floating-point arithmetic, but there's a lot of branching in between. The floating-point operations are mostly limited to additions, subtractions, multiplications, divisions and comparisons. All this is done using 32-bit floats. My target platform is x86 with at least SSE1 instructions. (I've verified in the assembler output that the compiler indeed generates SSE instructions.) Most of the floating-point values that I'm working with have a reasonably small upper bound, and precision for near-zero values isn't very important. So the thought occurred to me: maybe switching to fixed-point arithmetic could speed things up? I know the only way to be really sure is to measure it, that might take days, so I'd like to know the odds of success beforehand. Fixed-point was all the rage back in the days of Doom, but I'm not sure where it stands anno 2010. Considering how much silicon is nowadays pumped into floating-point performance, is there a chance that fixed-point arithmetic will still give me a significant speed boost? Does anyone have any real-world experience that may apply to my situation?

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  • Overlay an HTML page with an HTML form

    - by jah
    Hi folks, this is a question about the best way (or least effort of the best ways) to overlay an html page with a form. Best in this context meaning best user experience whilst meeting the functional requirements. Let's say I have a page with a short form on it; the user has to enter some financial details. To assist the user to enter an accurate value for one of the fields there's another, much longer form. The longer form needs to be displayed only if the user requests the help. For users without javascript, clicking a link will submit the short form (persisting already filled fields in a session) and the server will respond with the long form. They'll submit the long form and the server will combine the submitted data with the persisted data and serve the short form again - with the fields populated. For users with javascript I want to overlay the short form page (in a lightbox stylee) with the long form, allow them to populate the long form and then go back to the short form with less round-trips to the server. Do I: Overlay the short form page with an iframe whose target is the long form? Request the long form over ajax and stuff it into a div? Generate the long form entirely on the client-side? Some other wizadry I haven't thought of? A short explanation of the best mechanism will do me very nicely indeed. Thank you very much!

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  • How to test an HTTP 301 redirect?

    - by NoozNooz42
    How can one easily test HTTP return codes, like, say, a 301 redirect? For example, if I want to "see what's going on", I can use telnet to do something like this: ... $ telnet nytimes.com 80 Trying 199.239.136.200... Connected to nytimes.com. Escape character is '^]'. GET / HTTP/1.0 (enter) (enter) HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: Sun-ONE-Web-Server/6.1 Date: Mon, 14 Jun 2010 12:18:04 GMT Content-type: text/html Set-cookie: RMID=007af83f42dd4c161dfcce7d; expires=Tuesday, 14-Jun-2011 12:18:04 GMT; path=/; domain=.nytimes.com Set-cookie: adxcs=-; path=/; domain=.nytimes.com Set-cookie: adxcs=-; path=/; domain=.nytimes.com Set-cookie: adxcs=-; path=/; domain=.nytimes.com Expires: Thu, 01 Dec 1994 16:00:00 GMT Cache-control: no-cache Pragma: no-cache Connection: close <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> ... Which is an easy way to access quite some infos. But now I want to test that a 301 redirect is indeed a 301 redirect. How can I do so? Basically, instead of getting a HTTP/1.1 200 OK I'd like to know how I can get the 301? I know that I can enter the name of the URL in a browser and "see" that I'm redirected, but I'd like to know what tool(s) can be used to actually really "see" the 301 redirect. Btw, I did test with a telnet, but when I enter www.example.org, which I redirected to example.org (without the www), all I can see is an "200 OK", I don't get to see the 301.

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  • ASP.NET MVC and WCF

    - by Michael Stum
    I'm working my way into MVC at the moment, but on my "To learn at some point" list, I also have WCF. I just wonder if WCF is something that should/could be used in an MVC Application or not? The Background is that I want a Desktop Application (.NET 3.5, WPF) interact with my MVC Web Site, and I wonder what the best way to transfer data between the two is. Should I just use special Views/have the controllers return JSON or XML (using the ContentResult)? And maybe even more important, for the other way round, could I just call special controllers? Not sure how Authorization would work in such a context. I can either use Windows Authentication or (if the Site is running forms authentication) have the user store his/her credentials in the application, but I would then essentially create a HTTP Client in my Application. So while MVC = Application seems really easy, Application = MVC does seem to be somewhat tricky and a possible use for WCF? I'm not trying to brute-force WCF in this, but I just wonder if there is indeed a good use case for WCF in an MVC application.

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  • Can't debug Java Windows Services with jhat, jps, jstack

    - by Matthew McCullough
    I frequently showcase the jhat, jps, and jstack tool set to developers on Linux and Mac. However, a developer recently indicated that these are unusable in Windows if the Java app in question is running as a Windows Service. A Sun-filed bug says something very similar, but was closed due to inactivity. I have tested this out for myself, and indeed it appears true, though I can hardly believe it. Here is the setup: Tomcat or similar running as a Windows service with the "Log On As" == "Local System" A user with Admin privileges logged in to the same Windows machine. Admin opens Windows Task Manager, can see java.exe running Admin opens console, types "jps", gets back a list of processes that does not include Tomcat's java service process. As a brute force attempt, get the PID of tomcat as a service from Windows Task Manager. Type jstack < pid . Get a reply: < pid no such process This appears reproducible under Windows XP, Windows 2003 Server, and Windows 7. Java versions 1.5 and 1.6 yield the same outcome. Is there a way from the terminal, even though logged in as Admin, to "sudo up" to get JPS and the other tools to see the java service?

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  • Android: How to get a custom view to redraw partially?

    - by Peterdk
    I have a custom view that fills my entire screen. (A piano keyboard) When a user touches the key, it would cause a invalidate() to be called and the whole keyboard gets redrawn to show the new state with a touched key. Currently the view is very simple, but I plan to add a bit more nice graphics. Since the whole keyboard is dynamically rendered this would make redrawing the entire keyboard more expensive. So I thought, let's look into partial redrawing. Now I call invalidate(Rect dirty) with the correct dirty region. I set my onDraw(Canvas canvas) method to only draw the keys in the dirty region if I do indeed want a partial redraw. This results in those keys being drawn, but the rest of the keyboard is totally black/not drawn at all. Am I wrong in expecting that calling invalidate(Rect dirty) would "cache" the current canvas, and only "allows" drawing in the dirty region? Is there any way I can achieve what I want? (A way to "cache" the canvas and only redraw the dirty area?"

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  • How do you capture a group with regex?

    - by Sylvain
    Hi, I'm trying to extract a string from another using regex. I'm using the POSIX regex functions (regcomp, regexec ...), and I fail at capturing a group ... For instance, let the pattern be something as simple as "MAIL FROM:<(.*)>" (with REG_EXTENDED cflags) I want to capture everything between '<' and '' My problem is that regmatch_t gives me the boundaries of the whole pattern (MAIL FROM:<...) instead of just what's between the parenthesis ... What am I missing ? Thanks in advance, edit: some code #define SENDER_REGEX "MAIL FROM:<(.*)>" int main(int ac, char **av) { regex_t regex; int status; regmatch_t pmatch[1]; if (regcomp(&regex, SENDER_REGEX, REG_ICASE|REG_EXTENDED) != 0) printf("regcomp error\n"); status = regexec(&regex, av[1], 1, pmatch, 0); regfree(&regex); if (!status) printf( "matched from %d (%c) to %d (%c)\n" , pmatch[0].rm_so , av[1][pmatch[0].rm_so] , pmatch[0].rm_eo , av[1][pmatch[0].rm_eo] ); return (0); } outputs: $./a.out "012345MAIL FROM:<abcd>$" matched from 6 (M) to 22 ($) solution: as RarrRarrRarr said, the indices are indeed in pmatch[1].rm_so and pmatch[1].rm_eo hence regmatch_t pmatch[1]; becomes regmatch_t pmatch[2]; and regexec(&regex, av[1], 1, pmatch, 0); becomes regexec(&regex, av[1], 2, pmatch, 0); Thanks :)

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  • jvm version for Websphere 6.1.0.23on Solaris

    - by dr jerry
    Hi I'm at big financial institute and we've an application running on Websphere 6.1. on Solaris. Due to MQ Connectivity we had to install fixpack 6.1.0.23. Unfortunately this broke an ejb (1.1) which is still there as legacy (Test missed it). [3/23/10 11:33:18:703 CET] 00000055 EJBContainerI E WSVR0068E: Attempt to start EnterpriseBean EventRisk_1.0.0#EventRiskEJB.jar#PolicyDataManager failed with exception: java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: com.ibm.ejs.csi.ResRefListImpl.(Lorg/eclipse/jst/j2ee/ejb/EnterpriseBean;Lcom/ibm/ejs/models/base/bindings/ejbbnd/EnterpriseBeanBinding;Lcom/ibm/ejs/models/base/extensions/ejbext/EnterpriseBeanExtension;)V at com.ibm.ws.metadata.ejb.EJBMDOrchestrator.finishBMDInit(EJBMDOrchestrator.java:1364) at com.ibm.ws.runtime.component.EJBContainerImpl.finishDeferredBeanMetaData(EJBContainerImpl.java:4829) at com.ibm.ws.runtime.component.EJBContainerImpl$3.run(EJBContainerImpl.java:4631) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at com.ibm.ws.security.util.AccessController.doPrivileged(AccessController.java:125) at com.ibm.ws.runtime.component.EJBContainerImpl.initializeDeferredEJB(EJBContainerImpl.java:4627) at com.ibm.ejs.container.HomeOfHomes.getHome(HomeOfHomes.java:390) at com.ibm.ejs.container.HomeOfHomes.internalCreateWrapper(HomeOfHomes.java:938) at com.ibm.ejs.container.EJSContainer.createWrapper(EJSContainer.java:4783) at com.ibm.ejs.container.WrapperManager.faultOnKey(WrapperManager.java:545) at com.ibm.ejs.util.cache.Cache.findAndFault(Cache.java:498) at com.ibm.ejs.container.WrapperManager.keyToObject(WrapperManager.java:489) We cannot reproduce the issue on our desktop boxes (it all works fine there) and we do not have direct access to our the Solaris machines (dependent on the deployment department) we do suspect a discrepancy on the jvm but we're not sure. My question is two fold: can you confirm IBM's statement that fixpack 6.1.0.23 for solaris indeed runs on jvm 1.5.0_17b04 our installation tells us ./java -version java version "1.5.0_13" But deploy department is not eager to investigate. Do you see some other solution, apart from hiring big blue's con$ultancy? kind regards, Jeroen.

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  • Strange C++ performance difference?

    - by STingRaySC
    I just stumbled upon a change that seems to have counterintuitive performance ramifications. Can anyone provide a possible explanation for this behavior? Original code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); double dFreq = iFreq; if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... // do some calculations with dFreq... } } While cleaning up this code during a "performance pass," I decided to move the definition of dFreq inside the if block, as it was only used inside the if. There are several calculations involving dFreq so I didn't eliminate it entirely as it does save the cost of multiple run-time conversions from int to double. I expected no performance difference, or if any at all, a negligible improvement. However, the perfomance decreased by nearly 10%. I have measured this many times, and this is indeed the only change I've made. The code snippet shown above executes inside a couple other loops. I get very consistent timings across runs and can definitely confirm that the change I'm describing decreases performance by ~10%. I would expect performance to increase because the int to double conversion would only occur when iFreq != 0. Chnaged code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... double dFreq = iFreq; // do some stuff with dFreq... } } Can anyone explain this? I am using VC++ 9.0 with /O2. I just want to understand what I'm not accounting for here.

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  • Axis2 Class Generation

    - by Jack
    I have an instance of a derived class (called Child) that I would like to send between the client and server of my web service. However, the method that might be returning this instance, is marked as returning an instance of the parent class (called Parent). For example: public class Service{public Parent createInstanceOfParentOrChildObject();} While Child is not a parameter anywhere in the service nor is it ever specifically named as a return type (only Parent is ever named), it is nonetheless generated and returned inside certain methods (and then cast to Parent). I generated the wsdl file using Axis2 1.4.1 java2wsdl and specifying that it include this class (using the -xc parameter). I did not use Axis2 1.5.1 because it was not honoring the -xc parameter though it looks like that bug is supposedly fixed in Axis2 1.6. I even did a quick check of the generated .wsdl file to ensure that it did indeed include a definition for Child (and, of course, Parent). However, when I used wsdl2java to generate the server-side (and client-side) code, Child was not generated. How can I get wsdl2java to generate Child? I realize that I could do this by hand but I don't want to have to do this for both the client and server. I was also hoping that I could make this as easy as possible for people to use my wsdl to generate their own clients.

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  • How Random is System.Guid.NewGuid()? (Take two)

    - by Vilx-
    Before you start marking this as a duplicate, read me out. The other question has a (most likely) incorrect accepted answer. I do not know how .NET generates its GUIDs, probably only Microsoft does, but there's a high chance it simply calls CoCreateGuid(). That function however is documented to be calling UuidCreate(). And the algorithms for creating an UUID are pretty well documented. Long story short, be as it may, it seems that System.Guid.NewGuid() indeed uses version 4 UUID generation algorithm, because all the GUIDs it generates matches the criteria (see for yourself, I tried a couple million GUIDs, they all matched). In other words, these GUIDs are almost random, except for a few known bits. This then again raises the question - how random IS this random? As every good little programmer knows, a pseudo-random number algorithm is only as random as its seed (aka entropy). So what is the seed for UuidCreate()? How ofter is the PRNG re-seeded? Is it cryptographically strong, or can I expect the same GUIDs to start pouring out if two computers accidentally call System.Guid.NewGuid() at the same time? And can the state of the PRNG be guessed if sufficiently many sequentially generated GUIDs are gathered?

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  • How does symbol binding work for shared libraries in linux

    - by bbazso
    When compiling a cpp program with g++ -O0 I noticed that my binary does not contain the symbol for the empty string (basic_string): _S_empty_rep_storage When I do compile this same program with -O2 I notice that the aforementioned symbol is indeed contained within the binary as follows (using nm on the bin): 00000000006029a0 V _ZNSs4_Rep20_S_empty_rep_storageE@@GLIBCXX_3.4 My application uses several .so (dynamic libraries) and when my aplication loads I notice that several of these .so files bind as follows (I set LD_DEBUG=all and ran my program): 28596: binding file /home/bbazso/usr/local/lib/mydynamiclib.so [0] to /usr/lib64/libstdc++.so.6 [0]: normal symbol `_ZNSs4_Rep20_S_empty_rep_storageE' [GLIBCXX_3.4] 28596: binding file /home/bbazso/usr/local/lib/mydynamiclib.so [0] to /home/bbazso/workspace/mytestapplication [0]: normal symbol `_ZNSs4_Rep20_S_empty_rep_storageE' [GLIBCXX_3.4] 28596: binding file /home/bbazso/workspace/mytestapplication [0] to /usr/lib64/libstdc++.so.6 [0]: normal symbol `_ZNSs4_Rep20_S_empty_rep_storageE' [GLIBCXX_3.4]** But I also noticed that one of my .so only binds as follows: 28087: binding file /home/bbazso/usr/local/lib/anotherdynamiclib.so [0] to /usr/lib64/libstdc++.so.6 [0]: normal symbol `_ZNSs4_Rep20_S_empty_rep_storageE' [GLIBCXX_3.4] but never binds to the binary (mytestapplication) as shown above for the mydynamiclib.so. So I was wondering what this actually means? Does this mean that anotherdynamiclib.so will use a different symbol for the empty string above than the rest of the application? I guess what I'm really asking is how does symbol binding work in the context of the example above? Thanks!

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  • Maven doesn't compile target/hibernate3/generated-sources

    - by mmm
    Can someone tell me how to configure maven for it also to compile sources from the target/hibernate3/generated-sources directory? I have already read this and other posts but they don't seem to solve my problem (which indeed seems trivial). I have used the bottom-up approach hibernate configuration for cfg.xml, hbm.xml and POJO generation (i.e. auto-generated the complete hibernate configuration out of an existing database schema). I'm also only using standard maven and hibernate3-plugin directory layouts. Yet, when executing mvn compile in the command-line while my sources are in the src/main/java and the generated sources in /target/hibernate3/generated-sources only the ones from src/main/java get compiled and copied into target/classes. I wouldn't like to generate sources into src/main/java as I'd like mvn clean to clean them. I'd like to solve the problem using command-line, plugins and pom.xml only. Is there a way to configure maven-compiler-plugin to do so? Or is there another way? Regards and thanks for any help.

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  • Forking in PHP on Windows

    - by Doug Kavendek
    We are running PHP on a Windows server (a source of many problems indeed, but migrating is not an option currently). There are a few points where a user-initiated action will need to kick off a few things that take a while and about which the user doesn't need to know if they succeed or fail, such as sending off an email or making sure some third-party accounts are updated. If I could just fork with pcntl_fork(), this would be very simple, but the PCNTL functions are not available in Windows. It seems the closest I can get is to do something of this nature: exec( 'php-cgi.exe somescript.php' ); However, this would be far more complicated. The actions I need to kick off rely on a lot of context that already will exist in the running process; to use the above example, I'd need to figure out the essential data and supply it to the new script in some way. If I could fork, it'd just be a matter of letting the parent process return early, leaving the child to work on a few more things. I've found a few people talking about their own work in getting various PCNTL functions compiled on Windows, but none seemed to have anything available (broken links, etc). Despite this question having practically the same name as mine, it seems the problem was more execution timeout than needing to fork. So, is my best option to just refactor a bit to deal with calling php-cgi, or are there other options? Edit: It seems exec() won't work for this, at least not without me figuring some other aspect of it, as it waits until the call returns. I figured I could use START, sort of like exec( 'start php-cgi.exe somescript.php' );, but it still waits until the other script finishes.

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  • How to mmap the stack for the clone() system call on linux?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    The clone() system call on Linux takes a parameter pointing to the stack for the new created thread to use. The obvious way to do this is to simply malloc some space and pass that, but then you have to be sure you've malloc'd as much stack space as that thread will ever use (hard to predict). I remembered that when using pthreads I didn't have to do this, so I was curious what it did instead. I came across this site which explains, "The best solution, used by the Linux pthreads implementation, is to use mmap to allocate memory, with flags specifying a region of memory which is allocated as it is used. This way, memory is allocated for the stack as it is needed, and a segmentation violation will occur if the system is unable to allocate additional memory." The only context I've ever heard mmap used in is for mapping files into memory, and indeed reading the mmap man page it takes a file descriptor. How can this be used for allocating a stack of dynamic length to give to clone()? Is that site just crazy? ;) In either case, doesn't the kernel need to know how to find a free bunch of memory for a new stack anyway, since that's something it has to do all the time as the user launches new processes? Why does a stack pointer even need to be specified in the first place if the kernel can already figure this out?

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  • ASP.NET Authentication Cookie timout and IIS 7 setting

    - by David Laplante
    Hello, I have an ASP.NET website for which i've set the authetication timeout to 60 days so that my users don't have to log in each time they come back if they checked the "remember me" option. Basic ASP.NET login mechanism... It's working fine on my developpement server as well as on the visual studio built-in web server. I can close the browser, wait around 30-40 minutes and browse back to the site and be automatically logged in. However, I've not moved the site to a hosting provider and it seems that whatever I do to my Web.config file, the cookie expires after around 30 minutes (hard to tell the exact amount of time). I have asked the provider's help support and they basically told me: "Web.config file is to configure your website. Please do not change it if you don't know what you are doing" Frustrating answer indeed... To be sure, I checked everywhere on the net for exceptions, fine prints, in the basic asp.net authentication but found none. I have access to IIS remote management for my site (IIS 7) but don't really know where to look. Can there be something in the IIS setting that is overriding my web.config authentication setting? What should I do... Thanks for you help!

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  • What algorithms are suitable for this simple machine learning problem?

    - by user213060
    I have a what I think is a simple machine learning question. Here is the basic problem: I am repeatedly given a new object and a list of descriptions about the object. For example: new_object: 'bob' new_object_descriptions: ['tall','old','funny']. I then have to use some kind of machine learning to find previously handled objects that had similar descriptions, for example, past_similar_objects: ['frank','steve','joe']. Next, I have an algorithm that can directly measure whether these objects are indeed similar to bob, for example, correct_objects: ['steve','joe']. The classifier is then given this feedback training of successful matches. Then this loop repeats with a new object. a Here's the pseudo-code: Classifier=new_classifier() while True: new_object,new_object_descriptions = get_new_object_and_descriptions() past_similar_objects = Classifier.classify(new_object,new_object_descriptions) correct_objects = calc_successful_matches(new_object,past_similar_objects) Classifier.train_successful_matches(object,correct_objects) But, there are some stipulations that may limit what classifier can be used: There will be millions of objects put into this classifier so classification and training needs to scale well to millions of object types and still be fast. I believe this disqualifies something like a spam classifier that is optimal for just two types: spam or not spam. (Update: I could probably narrow this to thousands of objects instead of millions, if that is a problem.) Again, I prefer speed when millions of objects are being classified, over accuracy. What are decent, fast machine learning algorithms for this purpose?

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  • What vertex shader code should be used for a pixel shader used for simple 2D SpriteBatch drawing in XNA?

    - by Michael
    Preface First of all, why is a vertex shader required for a SilverlightEffect (.slfx file) in Silverlight 5? I'm trying to port a simple 2D XNA game to Silverlight 5 RC, and I would like to use a basic pixel shader. This shader works great in XNA for Windows and Xbox, but I can't get it to compile with Silverlight as a SilverlightEffect. The MS blog for the Silverlight Toolkit says that "there is no difference between .slfx and .fx", but apparently this isn't quite true -- or at least SpriteBatch is working some magic for us in "regular XNA", and it isn't in "Silverlight XNA". If I try to directly copy my pixel shader file into a Silverlight project (and change it to the supported "Effect - Silverlight" importer/processor), when I try to compile I see the following error message: Invalid effect file. Unable to find vertex shader in pass "P0" Indeed, there isn't a vertex shader in my pixel shader file. I haven't needed one with my other 2D XNA apps since I'm just doing basic SpriteBatch drawing. I tried adding a vertex shader to my shader file, using Remi Gillig's comment on this Shawn Hargreaves blog post for guidance, but it doesn't quite work. The shader file successfully compiles, and I see some semblance of my game on screen, but it's tiny, twisted, repeated, and all jumbled up. So clearly something's not quite right. The Real Question So that brings me to my real question: Since a vertex shader is required, is there a basic vertex shader function that works for simple 2D SpriteBatch drawing? And if the vertex shader requires world/view/project matricies as parameters, what values am I supposed to use for a 2D game? Can any shader pros help? Thanks!

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  • Dojo DataGrid, programmatic creation

    - by djna
    I'm trying to create a DataGrid dynamically. Declarative creation is working fine: A source of data: <span dojoType="dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore" jsId="theStore" url="dataonly001.json"> </span> a simple layout: <script type="text/javascript" > var layout = [ { field: 'custId', name: 'Id', } // more items elided ... ]; </script> The grid: <body class="tundra" id="mainbody"> <div id="grid" dojoType="dojox.grid.DataGrid" store="theStore" structure="layout" autoWidth="true" ></div> </body> And I get the grid displayed nicely. Instead, I want to create the grid dynamically. For the sake of figuring out what's broken I've tried to use exactly the same layout and store, removing just teh grid declaration and adding this script: <script type="text/javascript" djConfig="parseOnLoad: true, debugAtAllCosts: true"> dojo.addOnLoad(function(){ // initialise and lay out home page console.log("Have a store:" + theStore); console.log("Have a structure:" + layout); var grid = new dojox.grid.DataGrid({ id:"grid", store : theStore, clientSort : "true", structure : layout }); grid.startup(); dojo.place(grid.domNode, dojo.body(), "first"); }); </script> The effect that I get is a completely empty rectangle is displayed. Using FireBug I can see that the DataGrid widget is created but that it has no rows or columns. So my guess is that the datastore or layout are not being passed correctly. However, it does appear that at the point of creation the values of theStore and layout are correct. Suggestions please, or indeed a working example of a programmic grid might solve the problem.

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  • OpenGl texture mapping blocking colours on FreeType?

    - by Dororo
    I'm using FreeType in order to allow fonts to be used in OpenGL. However, I'm having a problem where I cannot change the font colour whenever I do texture mapping. No matter what I select using glColor3f it will just come out white. The texture works fine. glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glLoadIdentity(); glColor3f(0.5,0.0,0.5); glPushMatrix(); glEnable(GL_BLEND); glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_REPLACE); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texName); glBegin(GL_POLYGON); glTexCoord2f(0,1); glVertex2f(-16,-16); glTexCoord2f(0,0); glVertex2f(-16,16); glTexCoord2f(1,0); glVertex2f(16,16); glTexCoord2f(1,1); glVertex2f(16,-16); glEnd(); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glDisable(GL_BLEND); glPopMatrix(); glColor3f(1,0,0); print(our_font, -300+screenWidth/2.0, screenHeight/2.0, "fifty two - %7.2f", spin); This is the problem code, I can confirm that drawing a polygon beneath this code will indeed make it red. The text is not changing to red though which it should; if you remove the texture mapping above it will turn red again, I can only think it is a problem with enabling and disabling and I've forgotten to do something...?

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  • Lightweight spinlocks built from GCC atomic operations?

    - by Thomas
    I'd like to minimize synchronization and write lock-free code when possible in a project of mine. When absolutely necessary I'd love to substitute light-weight spinlocks built from atomic operations for pthread and win32 mutex locks. My understanding is that these are system calls underneath and could cause a context switch (which may be unnecessary for very quick critical sections where simply spinning a few times would be preferable). The atomic operations I'm referring to are well documented here: http://gcc.gnu.org/onlinedocs/gcc-4.4.1/gcc/Atomic-Builtins.html Here is an example to illustrate what I'm talking about. Imagine a RB-tree with multiple readers and writers possible. RBTree::exists() is read-only and thread safe, RBTree::insert() would require exclusive access by a single writer (and no readers) to be safe. Some code: class IntSetTest { private: unsigned short lock; RBTree<int>* myset; public: // ... void add_number(int n) { // Aquire once locked==false (atomic) while (__sync_bool_compare_and_swap(&lock, 0, 0xffff) == false); // Perform a thread-unsafe operation on the set myset->insert(n); // Unlock (atomic) __sync_bool_compare_and_swap(&lock, 0xffff, 0); } bool check_number(int n) { // Increment once the lock is below 0xffff u16 savedlock = lock; while (savedlock == 0xffff || __sync_bool_compare_and_swap(&lock, savedlock, savedlock+1) == false) savedlock = lock; // Perform read-only operation bool exists = tree->exists(n); // Decrement savedlock = lock; while (__sync_bool_compare_and_swap(&lock, savedlock, savedlock-1) == false) savedlock = lock; return exists; } }; (lets assume it need not be exception-safe) Is this code indeed thread-safe? Are there any pros/cons to this idea? Any advice? Is the use of spinlocks like this a bad idea if the threads are not truly concurrent? Thanks in advance. ;)

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  • FileNotFoundException, although the XML file should be deployed

    - by Bernhard V
    Hi, I've got problems starting my WAR application on a local JBoss. After two other EARs are deployed and the TomcatDeployer begins deploying the WAR, I'm getting the following error message: 2010-04-28 10:01:56,605 ERROR [org.jboss.ejb.plugins.LogInterceptor] [] [main] EJBException in method: public abstract at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenRemote at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenHome.create() throws javax.ejb.CreateException,java.rmi.RemoteException, causedBy: javax.ejb.EJBException: org.springframework.beans.factory.access.BootstrapException: Unable to initialize group definition. Group resource name [classpath*:applicationContext.xml], factory key [contextService]; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'contextService' defined in URL [jar:file:/C:/ta30/nutzb/jboss-4.2.3.GA.ZPV/server/default/deploy/deploy.last/zpv-app-web-frontend-1.0-SNAPSHOT.war/WEB-INF/lib/zpv-comp-ejb-modules-1.0-SNAPSHOT-client.jar!/applicationContext.xml]: Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: IOException parsing XML document from class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml]; nested exception is java.io.FileNotFoundException: class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml] cannot be opened because it does not exist The sad thing is that the resource at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml actually is placed in a JAR in one of my EAR files which should be deployed before the WAR. And at least I get a message that the deployment of the EAR has been successful. I also looked into the JAR with my file archiver and the ContextBasic.xml is indeed there at the right place. Is there a way for me to get sure that the JAR, not the EAR as a whole, is really deployed to the JBoss? I'm already starting to lose my head about this issue. Thank you. Bernhard

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