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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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  • Bidirectional URL Rewriting/Redirecting in IIS7.5

    - by David Foster
    First off, I'd like to apologise for the ludicrous title. I'm not trying to sound cool or clever by using the word 'bidirectional', I just genuinely couldn't think of another way to describe it. Promise. On to my problem. I have the following in the <system.webserver>/<rewrite>/<rules> section of my Web.config. <!-- Who We Are --> <rule name="1A"> <match url="^whoweare.aspx$" /> <action type="Redirect" url="who-we-are" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> <rule name="1B"> <match url="^who-we-are$" /> <action type="Rewrite" url="whoweare.aspx" /> </rule> <!-- What We Do --> <rule name="2A"> <match url="^whatwedo.aspx$" /> <action type="Redirect" url="what-we-do" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> <rule name="2B"> <match url="^what-we-do$" /> <action type="Rewrite" url="whatwedo.aspx" /> </rule> Now this works tremendously. Effectively, if you visit the URL http://example.com/whoweare.aspx (which is the actual URL of the page), you'll be 301 redirected to the URL http://example.com/who-we-are (the virtual URL), and if you visit the virtual URL, you'll be rewritten to the actual URL. This means super sexy URLs without duplication, and it doesn't result in reciprocal rewriting either, so smiles all round. My question is this: could this be done more elegantly? It's a little cumbersome having to write out two rules to ensure that one is redirected to the other, and the other is rewritten to the one. Is it possible to write one rule which will achieve the functionality of the above two?

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  • Which functions in the C standard library commonly encourage bad practice?

    - by Ninefingers
    Hello all, This is inspired by this question and the comments on one particular answer in that I learnt that strncpy is not a very safe string handling function in C and that it pads zeros, until it reaches n, something I was unaware of. Specifically, to quote R.. strncpy does not null-terminate, and does null-pad the whole remainder of the destination buffer, which is a huge waste of time. You can work around the former by adding your own null padding, but not the latter. It was never intended for use as a "safe string handling" function, but for working with fixed-size fields in Unix directory tables and database files. snprintf(dest, n, "%s", src) is the only correct "safe strcpy" in standard C, but it's likely to be a lot slower. By the way, truncation in itself can be a major bug and in some cases might lead to privilege elevation or DoS, so throwing "safe" string functions that truncate their output at a problem is not a way to make it "safe" or "secure". Instead, you should ensure that the destination buffer is the right size and simply use strcpy (or better yet, memcpy if you already know the source string length). And from Jonathan Leffler Note that strncat() is even more confusing in its interface than strncpy() - what exactly is that length argument, again? It isn't what you'd expect based on what you supply strncpy() etc - so it is more error prone even than strncpy(). For copying strings around, I'm increasingly of the opinion that there is a strong argument that you only need memmove() because you always know all the sizes ahead of time and make sure there's enough space ahead of time. Use memmove() in preference to any of strcpy(), strcat(), strncpy(), strncat(), memcpy(). So, I'm clearly a little rusty on the C standard library. Therefore, I'd like to pose the question: What C standard library functions are used inappropriately/in ways that may cause/lead to security problems/code defects/inefficiencies? In the interests of objectivity, I have a number of criteria for an answer: Please, if you can, cite design reasons behind the function in question i.e. its intended purpose. Please highlight the misuse to which the code is currently put. Please state why that misuse may lead towards a problem. I know that should be obvious but it prevents soft answers. Please avoid: Debates over naming conventions of functions (except where this unequivocably causes confusion). "I prefer x over y" - preference is ok, we all have them but I'm interested in actual unexpected side effects and how to guard against them. As this is likely to be considered subjective and has no definite answer I'm flagging for community wiki straight away. I am also working as per C99.

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  • Flash -> ByteArray -> AMFPHP -> Invalid Image !??

    - by undefined
    Hi, Im loading images into Flash and using JPGEncoder to encode the image to a ByteArray and send this to AMF PHP which writes out the bytearray to a file. This all appears to work correctly and I can download the resulting file in Photoshop CS4 absolutely fine. When i try to open it from the desktop or open it back in Flash it doesnt work... Picasa my default image browser says "Invalid" Here is the code i use to write the bytearray to a file - $jpg = $GLOBALS["HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA"]; file_put_contents($filename, $jpg); That's it ... I use the NetConnection class to connect and call the service, do I need to say Im sending jpg data? I assumed that JPGEncoder took care of that. How can I validate the bytearray before writing the file? Do I need to set MIME type or something .. excuse the slightly noob questions, a little knowledge can be a dangerous thing. Thanks --------------------------------------- PART II ------------------------------------------ Here is some code - 1) load the image into Flash player item.load(); function _onImageDataLoaded(evt:Event):void { var tmpFileRef:FileReference=FileReference(evt.target); image_loader=new Loader ; image_loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, _onImageLoaded); image_loader.loadBytes(tmpFileRef.data); } function _onImageLoaded(evt:Event):void { bitmap=Bitmap(evt.target.content); bitmap.smoothing=true; if (bitmap.width>MAX_WIDTH||bitmap.height>MAX_HEIGHT) { resizeBitmap(bitmap); } uploadResizedImage(bitmap); } function resizeBitmap(target:Bitmap):void { if (target.height>target.width) { target.width=MAX_WIDTH; target.scaleY=target.scaleX; } else if (target.width >= target.height) { target.height=MAX_HEIGHT; target.scaleX=target.scaleY; } } function uploadResizedImage(target:Bitmap):void { var _bmd:BitmapData=new BitmapData(target.width,target.height); _bmd.draw(target, new Matrix(target.scaleX, 0, 0, target.scaleY)); var encoded_jpg:JPGEncoder=new JPGEncoder(90); var jpg_binary:ByteArray=encoded_jpg.encode(_bmd); _uploadService=new NetConnection(); _uploadService.objectEncoding=ObjectEncoding.AMF3 _uploadService.connect("http://.../amfphp/gateway.php"); _uploadService.call("UploadService.receiveByteArray",new Responder(success, error), jpg_binary, currentImageFilename); } Many thanks for you help

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  • Reliable way of generating unique hardware ID

    - by mr.b
    Question: what's the best way to accomplish following. I have to come up with unique ID for each networked client, such that: it (ID) should persist once client software is installed on target computer, and should continue to persist if software is re-installed on same computer and same OS installment, it should not change if hardware configuration is modified in most ways (except changing the motherboard) When hard drive with client software installed is cloned to another computer with identical hardware configuration (or, as similar as possible), client software should be aware of that change. A little bit of explanation and some back-story: This question is basically age old question that also touches topic of software copy-protection, as some of mechanisms used in that area are mentioned here. I should be clear at this point that I'm not looking for a copy-protection scheme. Please, read on. :) I'm working on a client-server software that is supposed to work in local network. One of problems I have to solve is to identify each unique client in network (not so much of a problem), so that I can apply certain attributes to every specific client, retain and enforce those attributes during deployment lifetime of a specific client. While I was looking for a solution, I was aware of following: Windows activation system uses some kind of heavy fingerprinting mechanism, that is extremely sensitive to hardware modifications, Disk imaging software copies along all Volume IDs (tied to each partition when formatted), and custom, uniquely generated IDs during installation process, during first run, or in any other way, that is strictly software in its nature, and stored in registry or on hard drive, so it's very easy to confuse two Obvious choice for this kind of problem would be to find out BIOS identifiers (not 100% sure if this is unique through identical motherboard models, though), as that's the only thing I can rely on, that isn't duplicated, transferred by cloning, and that can't be changed (at least not by using some user-space program). Everything else fails as either being not reliable (MAC cloning, anyone?), or too demanding (in terms that it's too sensitive to configuration changes). Am I missing something obvious here? Sub-question that I'd like to ask is, am I doing it correctly, architecture-wise? Perhaps there is a better tool for task that I have to accomplish... Another approach I had in mind is something similar to handshake mechanism, where server maintains internal lookup table of connected client IDs (which can be even completely software-based and non-unique at any given moment), and tells client to come up with different ID during handshake, if duplicate ID is provided upon connection. That approach, unfortunately, doesn't play nicely with one of requirements to tie attributes to specific client during lifetime.

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  • Firebug not breaking on errors

    - by stormdrain
    Hi. I reinstalled Firefox today, because... whatever. I reinstalled firebug, therefully, and now when I try to use it, it's all different. I believe it is the same version I had before. In fact, I even went digging through my trash and replaced the new firebug with the one I removed with the old Firefox. They ended up being the same version (1.5.3). My issue is, when I have an error in my script somewhere, it used to be that if on the script pane of firebug, the script would break on the error, and the script page would go to the offending line, highlighted, and all was right with the world. Now, it logs the error in the console, and that's it. I've spent the better part of the last hour trying to convince myself this isn't worth an ulcer; I am losing the battle, though. I've searched Google, put ads on Craigslist, even thought about becoming a cop. There were some examples on the Firebug dox, but none of them helped. A bunch of old references to a mysterious (break on all errors) option; an option which I think I might have set by accident--there is a little red circle-slash on my pause button (that's what she said), but there the script continues, all on its own. There was a guide somewhere on the firebug pages that spoke of setting the breakpoint next to the error in the console. I, however, don't have this option for some reason. The line of code is there in the console, but no breakpoint button next to it. This, however, would not be ideal even if it worked. I liked it when I could have the script page open, and if there were errors it would jump to that line. I could try to fix it, and re-load the page. If that line was fixed, GREAT, on to the next error on the page -- which would be highlighted and ready. I would like to offer a solicitation of help. Help.

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  • jquery.ui sortable using a table and item:tr , placeholder difficulties

    - by greg
    Hi I would really like to give some sortable goodness to the myriad old tables I have created. A little work has a proof of concept behaving ok. My one sticking point is that the placeholder does not work at all in IE 7 when using item:TR . It works OK in FF. I can make an perform correctly. It seems to be specific to tables and Any ideas, I have been running through forums, not seeing a lot of people using sortable with tables. <style type="text/css"> .dndPlaceHolder { background-color:Red ; color:Red; height: 20px; line-height:30px; border: solid 2px black; } .dndItem { background-color: #c0c0c0; border:solid 1px black; padding:5px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" > $(function() { $("#myTable").sortable( { placeholder:'dndPlaceHolder', distance:15, items:'tr', forcePlaceholderSize:true, change : dndChange, update : dndUpdate } ); $("#myTable").disableSelection(); $("#myList").sortable( { placeholder:'dndPlaceHolder', distance:15, items:'li', forcePlaceholderSize:true, change : dndChange, update : dndUpdate } ); $("#myList").disableSelection(); }); function dndChange(event,ui){ } function dndUpdate(event,ui){ var msg = ''; } </script> <table id='myTable' > <tr class='dndItem' id='1'> <td>0 Active - Active</td> </tr> <tr class='dndItem' id='2'> <td>1 Closed - Closed</td> </tr> <tr class='dndItem' id='3'> <td>2 OnHold - On Hold</td> </tr> <tr class='dndItem' id='4'> <td>3 Pending - Pending</td> </tr> </table> <BR> <UL id='myList' > <li class='dndItem' id='1'>0 Active - Active</li> <li class='dndItem' id='2'>1 Closed - Closed</li> <li class='dndItem' id='3'>2 OnHold - On Hold</li> <li class='dndItem' id='4'>3 Pending - Pending</li> </ul>

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  • impersonation and BackgroundWorker

    - by Lucian D
    Hello guys, I have a little bit of a problem when trying to use the BackgroundWorker class with impersonation. Following the answers from google, I got this code to impersonate public class MyImpersonation{ WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext; [DllImport("advapi32.dll")] public static extern int LogonUserA(String lpszUserName, String lpszDomain, String lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, ref IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("advapi32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] public static extern int DuplicateToken(IntPtr hToken, int impersonationLevel, ref IntPtr hNewToken); [DllImport("advapi32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] public static extern bool RevertToSelf(); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] public static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); public bool impersonateValidUser(String userName, String domain, String password) { WindowsIdentity tempWindowsIdentity; IntPtr token = IntPtr.Zero; IntPtr tokenDuplicate = IntPtr.Zero; if (RevertToSelf()) { if (LogonUserA(userName, domain, password, LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE, LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT, ref token) != 0) { if (DuplicateToken(token, 2, ref tokenDuplicate) != 0) { tempWindowsIdentity = new WindowsIdentity(tokenDuplicate); impersonationContext = tempWindowsIdentity.Impersonate(); if (impersonationContext != null) { CloseHandle(token); CloseHandle(tokenDuplicate); return true; } } } } if (token != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(token); if (tokenDuplicate != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(tokenDuplicate); return false; } } It worked really well until I've used it with the BackgroundWorker class. In this case, I've added a impersonation in the the code that runs asynchronously. I have no errors, but the issue I'm having is that the impersonation does not work when it is used in the async method. In code this looks something like this: instantiate a BGWorker, and add an event handler to the DoWork event: _bgWorker = new BackgroundWorker(); _bgWorker.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(_bgWorker_DoWork); in the above handler, a impersonation is made before running some code. private void _bgWorker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { MyImpersonation myImpersonation = new MyImpersonation(); myImpersonation.impersonateValidUser(user, domain, pass) //run some code... myImpersonation.undoImpersonation(); } the code is launched with BGWorker.RunWorkerAsync(); As I said before, no error is thrown, only that the code acts as if I did't run any impersonation, that is with it's default credentials. Moreover, the impersonation method returns true, so the impersonation took place at a certain level, but probably not on the current thread. This must happen because the async code runs on another thread, so there must be something that needs to be added to the MyImpersonation class. But what?? :) Thanks in advance, Lucian

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  • Reflection - SetValue of array within class?

    - by Jaymz87
    OK, I've been working on something for a while now, using reflection to accomplish a lot of what I need to do, but I've hit a bit of a stumbling block... I'm trying to use reflection to populate the properties of an array of a child property... not sure that's clear, so it's probably best explained in code: Parent Class: Public Class parent Private _child As childObject() Public Property child As childObject() Get Return _child End Get Set(ByVal value As child()) _child = value End Set End Property End Class Child Class: Public Class childObject Private _name As String Public Property name As String Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _name = value End Set End Property Private _descr As String Public Property descr As String Get Return _descr End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _descr = value End Set End Property End Class So, using reflection, I'm trying to set the values of the array of child objects through the parent object... I've tried several methods... the following is pretty much what I've got at the moment (I've added sample data just to keep things simple): Dim Results(1) As String Results(0) = "1,2" Results(1) = "2,3" Dim parent As New parent Dim child As childObject() = New childObject() {} Dim PropInfo As PropertyInfo() = child.GetType().GetProperties() Dim i As Integer = 0 For Each res As String In Results Dim ResultSet As String() = res.Split(",") ReDim child(i) Dim j As Integer = 0 For Each PropItem As PropertyInfo In PropInfo PropItem.SetValue(child, ResultSet(j), Nothing) j += 1 Next i += 1 Next parent.child = child This fails miserably on PropItem.SetValue with ArgumentException: Property set method not found. Anyone have any ideas? @Jon :- Thanks, I think I've gotten a little further, by creating individual child objects, and then assigning them to an array... The issue is now trying to get that array assigned to the parent object (using reflection). It shouldn't be difficult, but I think the problem comes because I don't necessarily know the parent/child types. I'm using reflection to determine which parent/child is being passed in. The parent always has only one property, which is an array of the child object. When I try assigning the child array to the parent object, I get a invalid cast exception saying it can't convert Object[] to . EDIT: Basically, what I have now is: Dim PropChildInfo As PropertyInfo() = ResponseObject.GetType().GetProperties() For Each PropItem As PropertyInfo In PropChildInfo PropItem.SetValue(ResponseObject, ResponseChildren, Nothing) Next ResponseObject is an instance of the parent Class, and ResponseChildren is an array of the childObject Class. This fails with: Object of type 'System.Object[]' cannot be converted to type 'childObject[]'.

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  • How to write a buffer-overflow exploit in GCC,windows XP,x86?

    - by Mask
    void function(int a, int b, int c) { char buffer1[5]; char buffer2[10]; int *ret; ret = buffer1 + 12; (*ret) += 8;//why is it 8?? } void main() { int x; x = 0; function(1,2,3); x = 1; printf("%d\n",x); } The above demo is from here: http://insecure.org/stf/smashstack.html But it's not working here: D:\test>gcc -Wall -Wextra hw.cpp && a.exe hw.cpp: In function `void function(int, int, int)': hw.cpp:6: warning: unused variable 'buffer2' hw.cpp: At global scope: hw.cpp:4: warning: unused parameter 'a' hw.cpp:4: warning: unused parameter 'b' hw.cpp:4: warning: unused parameter 'c' 1 And I don't understand why it's 8 though the author thinks: A little math tells us the distance is 8 bytes. My gdb dump as called: Dump of assembler code for function main: 0x004012ee <main+0>: push %ebp 0x004012ef <main+1>: mov %esp,%ebp 0x004012f1 <main+3>: sub $0x18,%esp 0x004012f4 <main+6>: and $0xfffffff0,%esp 0x004012f7 <main+9>: mov $0x0,%eax 0x004012fc <main+14>: add $0xf,%eax 0x004012ff <main+17>: add $0xf,%eax 0x00401302 <main+20>: shr $0x4,%eax 0x00401305 <main+23>: shl $0x4,%eax 0x00401308 <main+26>: mov %eax,0xfffffff8(%ebp) 0x0040130b <main+29>: mov 0xfffffff8(%ebp),%eax 0x0040130e <main+32>: call 0x401b00 <_alloca> 0x00401313 <main+37>: call 0x4017b0 <__main> 0x00401318 <main+42>: movl $0x0,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x0040131f <main+49>: movl $0x3,0x8(%esp) 0x00401327 <main+57>: movl $0x2,0x4(%esp) 0x0040132f <main+65>: movl $0x1,(%esp) 0x00401336 <main+72>: call 0x4012d0 <function> 0x0040133b <main+77>: movl $0x1,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x00401342 <main+84>: mov 0xfffffffc(%ebp),%eax 0x00401345 <main+87>: mov %eax,0x4(%esp) 0x00401349 <main+91>: movl $0x403000,(%esp) 0x00401350 <main+98>: call 0x401b60 <printf> 0x00401355 <main+103>: leave 0x00401356 <main+104>: ret 0x00401357 <main+105>: nop 0x00401358 <main+106>: add %al,(%eax) 0x0040135a <main+108>: add %al,(%eax) 0x0040135c <main+110>: add %al,(%eax) 0x0040135e <main+112>: add %al,(%eax) End of assembler dump. Dump of assembler code for function function: 0x004012d0 <function+0>: push %ebp 0x004012d1 <function+1>: mov %esp,%ebp 0x004012d3 <function+3>: sub $0x38,%esp 0x004012d6 <function+6>: lea 0xffffffe8(%ebp),%eax 0x004012d9 <function+9>: add $0xc,%eax 0x004012dc <function+12>: mov %eax,0xffffffd4(%ebp) 0x004012df <function+15>: mov 0xffffffd4(%ebp),%edx 0x004012e2 <function+18>: mov 0xffffffd4(%ebp),%eax 0x004012e5 <function+21>: movzbl (%eax),%eax 0x004012e8 <function+24>: add $0x5,%al 0x004012ea <function+26>: mov %al,(%edx) 0x004012ec <function+28>: leave 0x004012ed <function+29>: ret In my case the distance should be - = 5,right?But it seems not working.. Why function needs 56 bytes for local variables?( sub $0x38,%esp )

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  • Configuring Unity with a closed generic constructor parmater

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I've been trying to read the article here but I still can't understand it. I have a constructor resembling the following: IOrderStore orders = new OrderStore(new Repository<Order>(new OrdersDataContext())); The constructor for OrderStore: public OrderStore(IRepository<Order> orderRepository) Constructor for Repository<T>: public Repository(DataContext dataContext) How do I set this up in the Unity config file? UPDATE: I've spent the last few hours banging my head against this, and although I'm not really any closer to getting it right I think at least I can be a little more specific about the problem. I've got my IRespository<T> working ok: <typeAlias alias="IRepository" type="MyAssembly.IRepository`1, MyAssembly" /> <typeAlias alias="Repository" type="MyAssembly.Repository`1, MyAssembly" /> <typeAlias alias="OrdersDataContext" type="MyAssembly.OrdersDataContext, MyAssembly" /> <types> <type type="OrdersDataContext"> <typeConfig> <constructor /> <!-- ensures paramaterless constructor used --> </typeConfig> </type> <type type="IRepository" mapTo="Repository"> <typeConfig> <constructor> <param name="dataContext" parameterType="OrdersDataContext"> <dependency /> </param> </constructor> </typeConfig> </type> </types> So now I can get an IRepository like so: IRepository rep = _container.Resolve(); and that all works fine. The problem now is when trying to add the configuration for IOrderStore <type type="IOrderStore" mapTo="OrderStore"> <typeConfig> <constructor> <param name="ordersRepository" parameterType="IRepository"> <dependency /> </param> </constructor> </typeConfig> </type> When I add this, Unity blows up when trying to load the config file. The error message is OrderStore does not have a constructor that takes the parameters (IRepository`1). What I think this is complaining about is because the OrderStore constructor takes a closed IRepository generic type, ie OrderStore(IRepository<Order>) and not OrderStore(IRepository<T>) I don't have any idea how to resolve this.

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  • OpenGL FrameBuffer Objects weird behavior

    - by Ben Jones
    My algorithm is this: Render the scene to a FBO with shadow mapping from multiple locations Render the scene to the screen with shadow mapping ...black magic that I still have to imlement... Combine the samples from step 1 with the image from step 2 I'm trying to debug steps 1 and 2 and am coming across STRANGE behavior. My algorithm for each shadow mapped pass is: render the scene to a FBO connected to a depth array texture from the POV of each light render the scene from the viewpoint and use vertex/frag shaders to compare the depths When I run my algorithm this way: render from point to FBO render from point to screen glutSwapBuffers() The normal vectors in the screen pass appear to be incorrect (inverted possibly). I'm pretty sure that's the issue because my diffuse lighting calculation is incorrect, but the material colors are correct, and the shadows appear in the correct places. So, it seems like the only thing that could be the culprit is the normals. However if I do render from point to FBO render from point to Screen glutSwapBuffers() //wrong here render from point to Screen glutSwapBuffers() the second pass is correct. I assume there's a problem with my framebuffer calls. Can anyone see what the problem is from the log below? Its from a bugle trace grepped for 'buffer' with a few edits to make it a little more clear. Thanks! [INFO] trace.call: glGenFramebuffersEXT(1, 0xdfeb90 - { 1 }) [INFO] trace.call: glGenFramebuffersEXT(1, 0xdfebac - { 2 }) [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 1) [INFO] trace.call: glDrawBuffer(GL_NONE) [INFO] trace.call: glReadBuffer(GL_NONE) [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 0) //start render to FBO [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 2) [INFO] trace.call: glReadBuffer(GL_NONE) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTexture2DEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_COLOR_ATTACHMENT0, GL_TEXTURE_2D, 2, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTexture2DEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, GL_TEXTURE_2D, 3, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glDrawBuffer(GL_COLOR_ATTACHMENT0) //bind to the FBO attached to a depth tex array for shadows [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 1) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTextureLayerARB(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, 1, 0, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //draw geometry //bind to the FBO I want the shadow mapped image rendered to [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 2) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //draw geometry //draw to screen pass //again shadow mapping FBO [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 1) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTextureLayerARB(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, 1, 0, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //draw geometry //bind to the screen [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //finished, swap buffers [INFO] trace.call: glXSwapBuffers(0xd5fc10, 0x05800002) //INCORRECT OUTPUT //second try at render to screen: [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 1) [INFO] trace.call: glFramebufferTextureLayerARB(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, GL_DEPTH_ATTACHMENT, 1, 0, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) //draw geometry [INFO] trace.call: glBindFramebufferEXT(GL_FRAMEBUFFER, 0) [INFO] trace.call: glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT) draw geometry [INFO] trace.call: glXSwapBuffers(0xd5fc10, 0x05800002) //correct output

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  • CSS Rollover button bug

    - by Nick
    Hi Everyone, I'm trying to create a drop down button and its almost working except one little bug. I have several big buttons that change background color when the user hovers over them and one of them, the language button, displays several suboptions inside itself when the user hovers over it. That all works fine except the language button doesn't change its background color when the user hovers over it. It does change its color if the cursor is just inside the button but not if it touches the 3 sub options. What i need is a technique or a rule that states that the button will change background color if user hovers over it or if the user hovers over one of its children elements. How do I achieve this? Here's the markup: <ul> <li><a href="/home/" title="Go to the Home page" class="current"><span>Home</span></a></li> <li><a href="/about-us/" title="Go to the About Us page" class="link"><span>About us</span></a></li> <li><a href="/products/" title="Go to the Products page" class="link"><span>Products</span></a></li> <li><a href="/services/" title="Go to the Services page" class="link"><span>Services</span></a></li> <li><a href="/news/" title="Go to the News page" class="link"><span>News</span></a></li> <li><a href="/dealers/" title="Go to the Dealers page" class="link"><span>Dealers</span></a></li> <li id="Rollover"><a href="" title="select language" class="link"><span>Language</span></a> <ul> <li><a href="/english/">English</a></li> <li><a href="/french/">French</a></li> <li><a href="/spanish/">Spanish</a></li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="/contact-us/" title="Go to the contacts page" class="link"><span>Contact us</span></a></li> </ul> Thanks in advance!

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  • Toolbar items in sub-nib

    - by roe
    This question has probably been asked before, but my google-fu must be inferior to everybody else's, cause I can't figure this out. I'm playing around with the iPhone SDK, and I'm building a concept app I've been thinking about. If we have a look at the skeleton generated with a navigation based app, the MainWindow.xib contains a navigation controller, and within that a root-view controller (and a navigation bar and toolbar if you play around with it a little). The root-view controller has the RootViewController-nib associated with it, which loads the table-view. So far so good. To add content to the tool bar and to the navigation bar, I'm supposed to add those to in the hierarchy below the Root View Controller (which works, no problem). However, what I can't figure out is, this is all still within the MainWindow.xib (or, at runtime, nib). How would I define a xib in order for it to pick up tool bar items from that? I want to do (the equivalent of, just reusing the name here) RootViewController *controller = [[RootViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; and have the navigation controller pick-up on the tool bar items defined in that nib. The logical place to put it would be in the hierarchy under File's Owner (which is of type RootViewController), but it doesn't appear to be possible. Currently, I'm assigning these (navigationItem and toolbarItems) manually in the viewDidLoad method, or define them in the MainWindow.xib directly to be loaded when the app initializes. Any ideas? Edit I guess I'll try to explain with a picture. This is the Interface Builder of the main window, pretty much as it comes out of the wizard to create a navigation based project. I've added a toolbar item for clarity though. You can see the navigation controller, with a toolbar and a navigation bar, and the root view controller. Basically, the Root View Controller has a bar button item and a navigation item as you can see. The thing is, it's also got a nib associated with it, which, when loaded will instantiate a view, and assign it to the view outlet of the controller (which in that nib is File's Owner, of type RootViewController, as should be). How can I get the toolbar item, and the navigation item, into the other nib, the RootViewController.nib so I can remove them here. The RootViewController.nib adds everything else to the Root View Controller, why not these items? The background for this is that I want to simply instantiate RootViewController, initialize it with its own nib (i.e. initWithNibName:nil shown above), and push it onto the navigation controller, without having to add the navigation/toolbar items in coding (as I do it now).

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  • angular-ui maps javascript error

    - by Will Lopez
    I'm having an issue with angularui. This error came from angular-google-maps.js: Error: [$compile:ctreq] Controller 'googleMap', required by directive 'rectangle', can't be found! http://errors.angularjs.org/1.2.16/$compile/ctreq?p0=googleMap&p1=rectangle at http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:78:12 at getControllers (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:6409:19) at nodeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:6580:35) at compositeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5986:15) at compositeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5989:13) at compositeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5989:13) at nodeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:6573:24) at compositeLinkFn (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5986:15) at Scope.publicLinkFn [as $transcludeFn] (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/angular.js:5891:30) at link (http://localhost:62874/Scripts/ui-bootstrap-tpls-0.12.0.min.js:9:8037) <div class="rectangle grid-style ng-scope ng-isolate-scope" data-ng-grid="pipelineGrid"> I'm a little confused because the controller isn't trying to inject the angular-ui map directive: appRoot.controller('PipelineController', ["$scope", "$location", "$resource", function ($scope, $location, $resource) { ... Here's the html: <div class="container"> <tabset> <tab heading="Upload File"> <p>Tab 1 content</p> </tab> <tab heading="Data Maintenance"> Tab 2 content <div ng-controller="PipelineController"> <div id="mapFilter" class="panel panel-default"> <div class="panel-heading text-right"> <div class="input-group"> <input type="text" class="form-control" ng- model="pipelineGrid.filterOptions.filterText" placeholder="enter filter" /> <span class="input-group-addon"><span class="glyphicon glyphicon- filter"></span></span> </div> </div> <div class="panel-body"> <div class="rectangle grid-style" data-ng-grid="pipelineGrid"> </div> </div> </div> </div> </tab> </tabset> </div> Thank you!

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  • Is this a good way to do a game loop for an iPhone game?

    - by Danny Tuppeny
    Hi all, I'm new to iPhone dev, but trying to build a 2D game. I was following a book, but the game loop it created basically said: function gameLoop update() render() sleep(1/30th second) gameLoop The reasoning was that this would run at 30fps. However, this seemed a little mental, because if my frame took 1/30th second, then it would run at 15fps (since it'll spend as much time sleeping as updating). So, I did some digging and found the CADisplayLink class which would sync calls to my gameLoop function to the refresh rate (or a fraction of it). I can't find many samples of it, so I'm posting here for a code review :-) It seems to work as expected, and it includes passing the elapsed (frame) time into the Update method so my logic can be framerate-independant (however I can't actually find in the docs what CADisplayLink would do if my frame took more than its allowed time to run - I'm hoping it just does its best to catch up, and doesn't crash!). // // GameAppDelegate.m // // Created by Danny Tuppeny on 10/03/2010. // Copyright Danny Tuppeny 2010. All rights reserved. // #import "GameAppDelegate.h" #import "GameViewController.h" #import "GameStates/gsSplash.h" @implementation GameAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController; - (void) applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // Create an instance of the first GameState (Splash Screen) [self doStateChange:[gsSplash class]]; // Set up the game loop displayLink = [CADisplayLink displayLinkWithTarget:self selector:@selector(gameLoop)]; [displayLink setFrameInterval:2]; [displayLink addToRunLoop:[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] forMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode]; } - (void) gameLoop { // Calculate how long has passed since the previous frame CFTimeInterval currentFrameTime = [displayLink timestamp]; CFTimeInterval elapsed = 0; // For the first frame, we want to pass 0 (since we haven't elapsed any time), so only // calculate this in the case where we're not the first frame if (lastFrameTime != 0) { elapsed = currentFrameTime - lastFrameTime; } // Keep track of this frames time (so we can calculate this next time) lastFrameTime = currentFrameTime; NSLog([NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f", elapsed]); // Call update, passing the elapsed time in [((GameState*)viewController.view) Update:elapsed]; } - (void) doStateChange:(Class)state { // Remove the previous GameState if (viewController.view != nil) { [viewController.view removeFromSuperview]; [viewController.view release]; } // Create the new GameState viewController.view = [[state alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, IPHONE_WIDTH, IPHONE_HEIGHT) andManager:self]; // Now set as visible [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } - (void) dealloc { [viewController release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } @end Any feedback would be appreciated :-) PS. Bonus points if you can tell me why all the books use "viewController.view" but for everything else seem to use "[object name]" format. Why not [viewController view]?

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  • Semi-complex aggregate select statement confusion

    - by Ian Henry
    Alright, this problem is a little complicated, so bear with me. I have a table full of data. One of the table columns is an EntryDate. There can be multiple entries per day. However, I want to select all rows that are the latest entry on their respective days, and I want to select all the columns of said table. One of the columns is a unique identifier column, but it is not the primary key (I have no idea why it's there; this is a pretty old system). For purposes of demonstration, say the table looks like this: create table ExampleTable ( ID int identity(1,1) not null, PersonID int not null, StoreID int not null, Data1 int not null, Data2 int not null, EntryDate datetime not null ) The primary key is on PersonID and StoreID, which logically defines uniqueness. Now, like I said, I want to select all the rows that are the latest entries on that particular day (for each Person-Store combination). This is pretty easy: --Figure 1 select PersonID, StoreID, max(EntryDate) from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) Where dbo.dayof() is a simple function that strips the time component from a datetime. However, doing this loses the rest of the columns! I can't simply include the other columns, because then I'd have to group by them, which would produce the wrong results (especially since ID is unique). I have found a dirty hack that will do what I want, but there must be a better way -- here's my current solution: select cast(null as int) as ID, PersonID, StoreID, cast(null as int) as Data1, cast(null as int) as Data2, max(EntryDate) as EntryDate into #StagingTable from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) update Target set ID = Source.ID, Data1 = Source.Data1, Data2 = Source.Data2, from #StagingTable as Target inner join ExampleTable as Source on Source.PersonID = Target.PersonID and Source.StoreID = Target.StoreID and Source.EntryDate = Target.EntryDate This gets me the correct data in #StagingTable but, well, look at it! Creating a table with null values, then doing an update to get the values back -- surely there's a better way to do this? A single statement that will get me all the values the first time? It is my belief that the correct join on that original select (Figure 1) would do the trick, like a self-join or something... but how do you do that with the group by clause? I cannot find the right syntax to make the query execute. I am pretty new with SQL, so it's likely that I'm missing something obvious. Any suggestions? (Working in T-SQL, if it makes any difference)

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  • Is there an algorithm for converting quaternion rotations to Euler angle rotations?

    - by Will Baker
    Is there an existing algorithm for converting a quaternion representation of a rotation to an Euler angle representation? The rotation order for the Euler representation is known and can be any of the six permutations (i.e. xyz, xzy, yxz, yzx, zxy, zyx). I've seen algorithms for a fixed rotation order (usually the NASA heading, bank, roll convention) but not for arbitrary rotation order. Furthermore, because there are multiple Euler angle representations of a single orientation, this result is going to be ambiguous. This is acceptable (because the orientation is still valid, it just may not be the one the user is expecting to see), however it would be even better if there was an algorithm which took rotation limits (i.e. the number of degrees of freedom and the limits on each degree of freedom) into account and yielded the 'most sensible' Euler representation given those constraints. I have a feeling this problem (or something similar) may exist in the IK or rigid body dynamics domains. Solved: I just realised that it might not be clear that I solved this problem by following Ken Shoemake's algorithms from Graphics Gems. I did answer my own question at the time, but it occurs to me it may not be clear that I did so. See the answer, below, for more detail. Just to clarify - I know how to convert from a quaternion to the so-called 'Tait-Bryan' representation - what I was calling the 'NASA' convention. This is a rotation order (assuming the convention that the 'Z' axis is up) of zxy. I need an algorithm for all rotation orders. Possibly the solution, then, is to take the zxy order conversion and derive from it five other conversions for the other rotation orders. I guess I was hoping there was a more 'overarching' solution. In any case, I am surprised that I haven't been able to find existing solutions out there. In addition, and this perhaps should be a separate question altogether, any conversion (assuming a known rotation order, of course) is going to select one Euler representation, but there are in fact many. For example, given a rotation order of yxz, the two representations (0,0,180) and (180,180,0) are equivalent (and would yield the same quaternion). Is there a way to constrain the solution using limits on the degrees of freedom? Like you do in IK and rigid body dynamics? i.e. in the example above if there were only one degree of freedom about the Z axis then the second representation can be disregarded. I have tracked down one paper which could be an algorithm in this pdf but I must confess I find the logic and math a little hard to follow. Surely there are other solutions out there? Is arbitrary rotation order really so rare? Surely every major 3D package that allows skeletal animation together with quaternion interpolation (i.e. Maya, Max, Blender, etc) must have solved exactly this problem?

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  • DataTable identity column not set after DataAdapter.Update/Refresh on table with "instead of"-trigge

    - by Arno
    Within our unit tests we use plain ADO.NET (DataTable, DataAdapter) for preparing the database resp. checking the results, while the tested components themselves run under NHibernate 2.1. .NET version is 3.5, SqlServer version is 2005. The database tables have identity columns as primary keys. Some tables apply instead-of-insert/update triggers (this is due to backward compatibility, nothing I can change). The triggers generally work like this: create trigger dbo.emp_insert on dbo.emp instead of insert as begin set nocount on insert into emp ... select @@identity end The insert statement issued by the ADO.NET DataAdapter (generated on-the-fly by a thin ADO.NET wrapper) tries to retrieve the identity value back into the DataRow: exec sp_executesql N' insert into emp (...) values (...); select id, ... from emp where id = @@identity ' But the DataRow's id-Column is still 0. When I remove the trigger temporarily, it works fine - the id-Column then holds the identity value set by the database. NHibernate on the other hand uses this kind of insert statement: exec sp_executesql N' insert into emp (...) values (...); select scope_identity() ' This works, the NHibernate POCO has its id property correctly set right after flushing. Which seems a little bit counter-intuitive to me, as I expected the trigger to run in a different scope, hence @@identity should be a better fit than scope_identity(). So I thought no problem, I will apply scope_identity() instead of @@identity under ADO.NET as well. But this has no effect, the DataRow value is still not updated accordingly. And now for the best part: When I copy and paste those two statements from SqlServer profiler into a Management Studio query (that is including "exec sp_executesql"), and run them there, the results seem to be inverse! There the ADO.NET version works, and the NHibernate version doesn't (select scope_identity() returns null). I tried several times to verify, but to no avail. Of course this just shows the resultset coming from the database, whatever happens inside NHibernate and ADO.NET is another topic. Also, several session properties defined by T-SQL SET are different in the two scenarios (Management Studio query vs. application at runtime) This is a real puzzle to me. I would be happy about any insights on that. Thank you!

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  • Streaming Video with Blackberry Simulator

    - by Jenny
    So, I wrote a quick little app for the iphone that takes in an http URL, and plays the .mp4 video located at that URL (it does more than that, of course, but that's the meat of it). Naturally, I wanted to have it on more than just a single mobile platform, so I decided to target Blackberry next. However, I'm running into a lot of problems with the Blackberry Environment. First of all, I learn that I can only download 256k files! I learn how to set that variable in my MDS simulator (and learn that this is NOT a production solution, because any end users will have to have their BES or MDS admin change the setting there). Then, I find a video less than 2 MB I can practice with. Going to the browser prompts me to save the video (rather than it playing in the browser like I expected). After saving the video, it refuses to play, saying it's the wrong format. So. I can't find a reference to IF Blackberry can stream with HTTP (i"ve heard it CAN use RTSP, though, and heard some rumors that it can't use HTTP, which would really suck). I also can't find a reference to what format blackberry uses (although I can find a million programs that will convert one file to the 'blackberry' format). Surely SOMEONE must have tried to stream video with the blackberry before. How did they go about doing so? Is it just a hopeless pipedream? Will I have to go with RTSP? Sorry for the lack of a concrete question...I'm just really lost, and I hate how so many tutorials or forum posts seem to assume I know the capabilities of the Blackberry... Edit: I finally found out that the .3gp (which I'd never heard of ) format is what Blackberry uses. Still have no idea how to stream videos off the web, though. I found a tutorial: http://www.blackberry.com/knowledgecenterpublic/livelink.exe/fetch/2000/348583/800332/1089414/How%5FTo%5F-%5FPlay%5Fvideo%5Fwithin%5Fa%5FBlackBerry%5Fsmartphone%5Fapplication.html?nodeid=1383173&vernum=0 That seemed to be useful, but the code doesn't work if you give it a URL (even though it claims it does).

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  • Tridion Installation

    - by Kevin Brydon
    I am currently upgrading an installation of Tridion from 5.3 to 2011 starting almost from scratch (aside from migrating the database), brand new virtual servers. I just want to ask for some advice on my current server setup... a sanity check. All servers are running Windows Server 2008. The pages on our website are all classic ASP. Database SQL Server cluster. The 5.3 database has been migrated using the DatabaseManager. This is pretty standard and works well (in test anyway). Content Manager A single server to run the Content Manager and the Publisher. There are around 10 people using it at any one time so not under a particularly heavy load. Content Data Store Filesystem located somewhere on the network. One directory for live and one for staging. Content Delivery Two servers (cd1 and cd2) each with the the following server roles installed. cd1 writes to a filesystem content data store for the live website, cd2 writes to the content data store for the staging website. Presentation Two public facing web servers (web1 and web2) serving both the live and staging websites. The web servers read directly from the content data store as its a filesystem. Each of the web servers have the Content Delivery Server installed so that I can use dynamic linking (and other features?). I've so far set up everything but the web servers. Any thoughts? edit Thanks to Ram S who linked me to a decent walkthrough, upvoted. I suppose I should have posed some questions as I didn't really ask a question. I guess I'm a little confused over the content deliver aspect. I have the Content Delivery split in two separate parts. cd1 and cd2 do the work of shifting information from the Content Manager to the Staging/Live web directories. web1 and web2 should do the work of serving the web pages to the outside world and will interact with the content data store (file system). Is this a correct setup? I need some parts of the Content Delivery on my web servers right? Theoretically I could get rid of the cd1 and cd2 servers and use web1 and web2 to do the deployment right? But I suspect this will put the web servers under unnecessary strain should there ever be a big publish. I've been reading the 2011 Installation Manual, Content Delivery section, and I'm finding it quite hard to get my head around!

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  • How to avoid using duplicate savepoint names in nested transactions in nested stored procs?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a pattern that I almost always follow, where if I need to wrap up an operation in a transaction, I do this: BEGIN TRANSACTION SAVE TRANSACTION TX -- Stuff IF @error <> 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX COMMIT TRANSACTION That's served me well enough in the past, but after years of using this pattern (and copy-pasting the above code), I've suddenly discovered a flaw which comes as a complete shock. Quite often, I'll have a stored procedure calling other stored procedures, all of which use this same pattern. What I've discovered (to my cost) is that because I'm using the same savepoint name everywhere, I can get into a situation where my outer transaction is partially committed - precisely the opposite of the atomicity that I'm trying to achieve. I've put together an example that exhibits the problem. This is a single batch (no nested stored procs), and so it looks a little odd in that you probably wouldn't use the same savepoint name twice in the same batch, but my real-world scenario would be too confusing to post. CREATE TABLE Test (test INTEGER NOT NULL) BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (1) COMMIT TRAN TX BEGIN TRAN SAVE TRAN TX INSERT INTO Test(test) VALUES (2) COMMIT TRAN TX DELETE FROM Test ROLLBACK TRAN TX COMMIT TRAN TX SELECT * FROM Test DROP TABLE Test When I execute this, it lists one record, with value "1". In other words, even though I rolled back my outer transaction, a record was added to the table. What's happening is that the ROLLBACK TRANSACTION TX at the outer level is rolling back as far as the last SAVE TRANSACTION TX at the inner level. Now that I write this all out, I can see the logic behind it: the server is looking back through the log file, treating it as a linear stream of transactions; it doesn't understand the nesting/hierarchy implied by either the nesting of the transactions (or, in my real-world scenario, by the calls to other stored procedures). So, clearly, I need to start using unique savepoint names instead of blindly using "TX" everywhere. But - and this is where I finally get to the point - is there a way to do this in a copy-pastable way so that I can still use the same code everywhere? Can I auto-generate the savepoint name on the fly somehow? Is there a convention or best-practice for doing this sort of thing? It's not exactly hard to come up with a unique name every time you start a transaction (could base it off the SP name, or somesuch), but I do worry that eventually there would be a conflict - and you wouldn't know about it because rather than causing an error it just silently destroys your data... :-(

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  • Lawler's Algorithm Implementation Assistance

    - by Richard Knop
    Here is my implemenation of Lawler's algorithm in PHP (I know... but I'm used to it): <?php $jobs = array(1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6); $jobsSubset = array(2, 5, 6); $n = count($jobs); $processingTimes = array(2, 3, 4, 3, 2, 1); $dueDates = array(3, 15, 9, 7, 11, 20); $optimalSchedule = array(); foreach ($jobs as $j) { $optimalSchedule[] = 0; } $dicreasedCardinality = array(); for ($i = $n; $i >= 1; $i--) { $x = 0; $max = 0; // loop through all jobs for ($j = 0; $j < $i; $j++) { // ignore if $j already is in the $dicreasedCardinality array if (false === in_array($j, $dicreasedCardinality)) { // if the job has no succesor in $jobsSubset if (false === isset($jobs[$j+1]) || false === in_array($jobs[$j+1], $jobsSubset)) { // here I find an array index of a job with the maximum due date // amongst jobs with no sucessor in $jobsSubset if ($x < $dueDates[$j]) { $x = $dueDates[$j]; $max = $j; } } } } // move the job at the end of $optimalSchedule $optimalSchedule[$i-1] = $jobs[$max]; // decrease the cardinality of $jobs $dicreasedCardinality[] = $max; } print_r($optimalSchedule); Now the above returns an optimal schedule like this: Array ( [0] => 1 [1] => 1 [2] => 1 [3] => 3 [4] => 2 [5] => 6 ) Which doesn't seem right to me. The problem might be with my implementation of the algorithm because I am not sure I understand it correctly. I used this source to implement it: http://www.google.com/books?id=aSiBs6PDm9AC&pg=PA166&dq=lawler%27s+algorithm+code&lr=&hl=sk&cd=4#v=onepage&q=&f=false The description there is a little confusing. For example, I didn't quite get how is the subset D defined (I guess it is arbitrary). Could anyone help me out with this? I have been trying to find some sources with simpler explanation of the algorithm but all sources I found were even more complicated (with math proofs and such) so I am stuck with the link above. Yes, this is a homework, if it wasn't obvious. I still have few weeks to crack this but I have spent few days already trying to get how exactly this algorithm works with no success so I don't think I will get any brighter during that time.

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  • Dojo Table not Rendering in IE6

    - by Mike Carey
    I'm trying to use Dojo (1.3) checkBoxes to make columns appear/hide in a Dojo Grid that's displayed below the checkBoxes. I got that functionality to work fine, but I wanted to organize my checkBoxes a little better. So I tried putting them in a table. My dojo.addOnLoad function looks like this: dojo.addOnLoad(function(){ var checkBoxes = []; var container = dojo.byId('checkBoxContainer'); var table = dojo.doc.createElement("table"); var row1= dojo.doc.createElement("tr"); var row2= dojo.doc.createElement("tr"); var row3= dojo.doc.createElement("tr"); dojo.forEach(grid.layout.cells, function(cell, index){ //Add a new "td" element to one of the three rows }); dojo.place(addRow, table); dojo.place(removeRow, table); dojo.place(findReplaceRow, table); dojo.place(table, container); }); What's frustrating is: 1) Using the Dojo debugger I can see that the HTML is being properly generated for the table. 2) I can take that HTML and put just the table in an empty HTML file and it renders the checkBoxes in the table just fine. 3) The page renders correctly in Firefox, just not IE6. The HTML that is being generated looks like so: <div id="checkBoxContainer"> <table> <tr> <td> <div class="dijitReset dijitInline dijitCheckBox" role="presentation" widgetid="dijit_form_CheckBox_0" wairole="presentation"> <input class="dijitReset dijitCheckBoxInput" id="dijit_form_CheckBox_0" tabindex="0" type="checkbox" name="" dojoattachevent= "onmouseover:_onMouse,onmouseout:_onMouse,onclick:_onClick" dojoattachpoint="focusNode" unselectable="on" aria-pressed="false"/> </div> <label for="dijit_form_CheckBox_0"> Column 1 </label> </td> <td> <div class="dijitReset dijitInline dijitCheckBox" role="presentation" widgetid="dijit_form_CheckBox_1" wairole="presentation"> <input class="dijitReset dijitCheckBoxInput" id="dijit_form_CheckBox_1" tabindex="0" type="checkbox" name="" dojoattachevent= "onmouseover:_onMouse,onmouseout:_onMouse,onclick:_onClick" dojoattachpoint="focusNode" unselectable="on" aria-pressed="false"/> </div> </td> </tr> <tr> ... </tr> </table> </div> I would have posted to the official DOJO forums, but it says they're deprecated and they're using a mailing list now. They said if a mailing list doesn't work for you, use stackoverflos.com. So, here I am! Thanks for any insight you can provide.

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  • Asynchronous sockets in C#

    - by IVlad
    I'm confused about the correct way of using asynchronous socket methods in C#. I will refer to these two articles to explain things and ask my questions: MSDN article on asynchronous client sockets and devarticles.com article on socket programming. My question is about the BeginReceive() method. The MSDN article uses these two functions to handle receiving data: private static void Receive(Socket client) { try { // Create the state object. StateObject state = new StateObject(); state.workSocket = client; // Begin receiving the data from the remote device. client.BeginReceive( state.buffer, 0, StateObject.BufferSize, 0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } private static void ReceiveCallback( IAsyncResult ar ) { try { // Retrieve the state object and the client socket // from the asynchronous state object. StateObject state = (StateObject) ar.AsyncState; Socket client = state.workSocket; // Read data from the remote device. int bytesRead = client.EndReceive(ar); if (bytesRead > 0) { // There might be more data, so store the data received so far. state.sb.Append(Encoding.ASCII.GetString(state.buffer,0,bytesRead)); // Get the rest of the data. client.BeginReceive(state.buffer,0,StateObject.BufferSize,0, new AsyncCallback(ReceiveCallback), state); } else { // All the data has arrived; put it in response. if (state.sb.Length > 1) { response = state.sb.ToString(); } // Signal that all bytes have been received. receiveDone.Set(); } } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } While the devarticles.com tutorial passes null for the last parameter of the BeginReceive method, and goes on to explain that the last parameter is useful when we're dealing with multiple sockets. Now my questions are: What is the point of passing a state to the BeginReceive method if we're only working with a single socket? Is it to avoid using a class field? It seems like there's little point in doing it, but maybe I'm missing something. How can the state parameter help when dealing with multiple sockets? If I'm calling client.BeginReceive(...), won't all the data be read from the client socket? The devarticles.com tutorial makes it sound like in this call: m_asynResult = m_socClient.BeginReceive (theSocPkt.dataBuffer,0,theSocPkt.dataBuffer.Length, SocketFlags.None,pfnCallBack,theSocPkt); Data will be read from the theSocPkt.thisSocket socket, instead of from the m_socClient socket. In their example the two are one and the same, but what happens if that is not the case? I just don't really see where that last argument is useful or at least how it helps with multiple sockets. If I have multiple sockets, I still need to call BeginReceive on each of them, right?

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