Search Results

Search found 14182 results on 568 pages for 'andrew answer'.

Page 462/568 | < Previous Page | 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469  | Next Page >

  • Ordering view by highest group count question - Ruby on Rails

    - by bgadoci
    I've read the couple of questions about this on stack overflow but can't seem to find the answer. I am trying to display the tags in my blog by the ones with the highest count in the tags table. Thanks to KandadaBoggu for helping me get the tags feature of the blog I am designing working. Here is the basics and my question. Tag belongs_to :post and Post has_many :tags. The tags table is simple really, consisting of the normal scaffolded fields plus post_id and tag_name (I actually called the column 'tag_name' instead of just 'name'). in my /views/posts/index.html/erb file I correctly am displaying the tags by group and the amount of times they are being used (appearing in the tags table). I just want to know how to order them by the highest count. Here is the code, and I currently have it set to updated_at: PostsController def index @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'updated_at DESC', :limit => 10) conditions, joins = {}, nil unless(params[:tag_name] || "").empty? conditions = ["tags.tag_name = ? ", params[:tag_name]] joins = :tags end @posts=Post.all(:joins => joins, :conditions=> conditions, :order => 'created_at DESC').paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @posts } format.json { render :json => @posts } format.atom end end

    Read the article

  • Daylight Savings Handling in DateDiff() in MS Access?

    - by PowerUser
    I am fully aware of DateDiff()'s inability to handle daylight savings issues. Since I often use it to compare the number of hours or days between 2 datetimes several months apart, I need to write up a solution to handle DST. This is what I came up with, a function that first subtracts 60 minutes from a datetime value if it falls within the date ranges specified in a local table (LU_DST). Thus, the usage would be: datediff("n",Conv_DST_to_Local([date1]),Conv_DST_to_Local([date2])) My question is: Is there a better way to handle this? I'm going to make a wild guess that I'm not the first person with this question. This seems like the kind of thing that should have been added to one of the core reference libraries. Is there a way for me to access my system clock to ask it if DST was in effect at a certain date & time? Function Conv_DST_to_Local(X As Date) As Date Dim rst As DAO.Recordset Set rst = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("LU_DST") Conv_DST_to_Local = X While rst.EOF = False If X > rst.Fields(0) And X < rst.Fields(1) Then Conv_DST_to_Local = DateAdd("n", -60, X) rst.MoveNext Wend End Function Notes I have visited and imported the BAS file of http://www.cpearson.com/excel/TimeZoneAndDaylightTime.aspx. I spent at least an hour by now reading through it and, while it may do its job well, I can't figure out how to modify it to my needs. But if you have an answer using his data structures, I'll take a look. Timezones are not an issue since this is all local time.

    Read the article

  • Which of these is pythonic? and Pythonic vs. Speed

    - by Kashyap Nadig
    Hi! I'm new to python and just wrote this module level function: def _interval(patt): """ Converts a string pattern of the form '1y 42d 14h56m' to a timedelta object. y - years (365 days), M - months (30 days), w - weeks, d - days, h - hours, m - minutes, s - seconds""" m = _re.findall(r'([+-]?\d*(?:\.\d+)?)([yMwdhms])', patt) args = {'weeks': 0.0, 'days': 0.0, 'hours': 0.0, 'minutes': 0.0, 'seconds': 0.0} for (n,q) in m: if q=='y': args['days'] += float(n)*365 elif q=='M': args['days'] += float(n)*30 elif q=='w': args['weeks'] += float(n) elif q=='d': args['days'] += float(n) elif q=='h': args['hours'] += float(n) elif q=='m': args['minutes'] += float(n) elif q=='s': args['seconds'] += float(n) return _dt.timedelta(**args) My issue is with the for loop here i.e the long if elif block, and was wondering if there is a more pythonic way of doing it. So I re-wrote the function as: def _interval2(patt): m = _re.findall(r'([+-]?\d*(?:\.\d+)?)([yMwdhms])', patt) args = {'weeks': 0.0, 'days': 0.0, 'hours': 0.0, 'minutes': 0.0, 'seconds': 0.0} argsmap = {'y': ('days', lambda x: float(x)*365), 'M': ('days', lambda x: float(x)*30), 'w': ('weeks', lambda x: float(x)), 'd': ('days', lambda x: float(x)), 'h': ('hours', lambda x: float(x)), 'm': ('minutes', lambda x: float(x)), 's': ('seconds', lambda x: float(x))} for (n,q) in m: args[argsmap[q][0]] += argsmap[q][1](n) return _dt.timedelta(**args) I tested the execution times of both the codes using timeit module and found that the second one took about 5-6 seconds longer (for the default number of repeats). So my question is: 1. Which code is considered more pythonic? 2. Is there still a more pythonic was of writing this function? 3. What about the trade-offs between pythonicity and other aspects (like speed in this case) of programming? p.s. I kinda have an OCD for elegant code. EDITED _interval2 after seeing this answer: argsmap = {'y': ('days', 365), 'M': ('days', 30), 'w': ('weeks', 1), 'd': ('days', 1), 'h': ('hours', 1), 'm': ('minutes', 1), 's': ('seconds', 1)} for (n,q) in m: args[argsmap[q][0]] += float(n)*argsmap[q][1]

    Read the article

  • General N-Tier Architecture Question

    - by whatispunk
    In an N-Tier app you're supposed to have a business logic layer and a data access layer. Is it bad to simply have two assemblies: BusinessLogicLayer.dll and DataAccessLayer.dll to handle all this logic? How do you actually represent these layers. It seems silly, the way I've seen it, to have a BusinessLogic class library containing classes like: CustomerBusinessLogic.cs, OrderBusinessLogic.cs, etc. each calling their appropriately named cousin in the DataAccessLayer class library, i.e. CustomerDataAccess.cs, OrderDataAccess.cs. I want to create a web app using MVP and it doesn't seem so cut and dry as this. There are lots of opinions about where the business logic is supposed to be put in MVP and I'm not sure I've found a really great answer yet. I want this project to be easily testable, and I am trying to adhere to TDD methodologies as best I can. I intend to use MSTest and Rhino Mocks for testing. I was thinking of something like the following for my architecture: I'd use LINQ-To-SQL to talk to the database. WCF services to define data contract interfaces for the business logic layer. Then use MVP with ASP.NET Forms for the UI/BLL. Now, this isn't the start of this project, most of the LINQ stuff is already done, so its stuck. The WCF service would replace the existing DataAccessLayer assembly and the UI/BLL would replace the BusinessLogicLayer assembly etc. This sort of makes sense in my head, but its getting really late. Anyone that's traveled down this path have any guidance? Good links? Warnings? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Class/Model Level Validation (as opposed to Property Level)? (ASP.NET MVC 2.0)

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    Basically, what the title says. I have several properties that combine together to really make one logical answer, and i would like to run a server-side validation code (that i write) which take these multiple fields into account and hook up to only one validation output/error message that users see on the webpage. I looked at scott guthries method of extending an attribute and using it in yoru dataannotations declarations, but, as i can see, there is no way to declare a dataannotations-style attribute on multiple properties, and you can only place the declarations (such as [Email], [Range], [Required]) over one property :(. i have looked at the PropertiesMustMatchAttribute in the default mvc 2.0 project that appears when you start a new project, this example is as useful as using a pair of pins to check your motor oil - useless! i have tried this method, however, creating a class level attribute, and have no idea how to display the error from this in my aspx page. i have tried html.ValidationMessage("ClassNameWhereAttributeIsAdded") and a variety of other thing, and it has not worked. and i should mention, there is NOT ONE blog post on doing validation at this level - despite this being a common need in any project or business logic scenario! can anyone help me in having my message displayed in my aspx page, and also if possible a proper document or reference explaining validation at this level?

    Read the article

  • Scheme Infix to Postfix

    - by Cody
    Let me establish that this is part of a class assignment, so I'm definitely not looking for a complete code answer. Essentially we need to write a converter in Scheme that takes a list representing a mathematical equation in infix format and then output a list with the equation in postfix format. We've been provided with the algorithm to do so, simple enough. The issue is that there is a restriction against using any of the available imperative language features. I can't figure out how to do this in a purely functional manner. This is our fist introduction to functional programming in my program. I know I'm going to be using recursion to iterate over the list of items in the infix expression like such. (define (itp ifExpr) ( ; do some processing using cond statement (itp (cdr ifExpr)) )) I have all of the processing implemented (at least as best I can without knowing how to do the rest) but the algorithm I'm using to implement this requires that operators be pushed onto a stack and used later. My question is how do I implement a stack in this function that is available to all of the recursive calls as well?

    Read the article

  • A stupid question regarding google gadgets. How to host a google gadget? How it works?

    - by sintaloo
    Hi, I spent 5 hours by checking google gadgets websites and FAQs. maybe I am really stupid. I have no idea how to host a gadget. What I knew from reading the google website: 1, I can write gadget with xml, javascript etc.. 2, gadget can be added to igoogle etc.. 3, google can host the gadget for you. 4, gadget can be hosted at anywhere??? All of the above information doesn't answer my question. For instance, with jQuery or Dojo Toolkit, I can download the javascript framework and use it. With google gadget, I can not find a download link for the framework. Why? Does google provide its framework? If no, why does google website say it can be hosted anywhere? I am totally confused. A download link is nowhere in google-gadget website. A brief explanation or some helpful links are very welcome!! Thanks a lot!!! Please don't blame me if you think this question is too silly.

    Read the article

  • Paging with Find using Active Record

    - by Brian Rizzo
    I can't seem to find an answer to this question or a good example of how to accomplish what I am trying to do. I'm sure it's been posted or explained somewhere, but I am having trouble finding the exact solution I need. I am using ActiveRecord in Subsonic 3.0.0.3. When I do something like recordset = VehicleModel.Find(x => x.Model.StartsWith(SearchText)); I get back an IList of VehicleModel objects (or more simply a recordset), this is fine until I return too many records. I also cannot order the returned set of records (my grid will do this fine, but i'm sure it will be too slow if i have too many records). Being that Find is returning an IList there isn't much that I can run directly against this (again I may be overlooking something simple so please don't kill me). My question is can someone explain how to find data like i am above, sort it and get a page of data where a page is of size n? Am I going about this wrong? Am I even close to being on the right track?

    Read the article

  • RedirectToAction and validate MVC 2

    - by Dan
    Hi, my problem is the View where the user typed, the validation. I have to take RedirectToAction on the site because on the site upload a file. Thats my code. My model class public class Person { [Required(ErrorMessage= "Please enter name")] public string name { get; set; } } My View <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<MvcWebRole1.Models.Person>" %> Name <h2>Information Data</h2> <%= Html.ValidationSummary() %> <%using (Html.BeginForm ("upload","Home", FormMethod.Post, new{ enctype ="multipart/form-data" })) {%> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <p> <label for="name">name:</label> <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("name", "*") %> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> and the Controller [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult upload(FormCollection form) { Person lastname = new Person(); lastname.name = form["name"]; return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Thx for answer my question In advance

    Read the article

  • PHP, We have sessions, and cookies....I love cookies, but they are blowing my mind right now.

    - by Matt
    I am not sure how to go about accessing the variable I need to set on a cookie... I was thinking about using the $_POST global but I dont know how based on my design if it will work. I am using a master page type design seperating index.php from my function includes and database information and individual pages (that will be returned to an include in index.php based on a $_GET) Okay so back to my question. What is the most efficient way to set a cookie on a design that has a main page that everything will branch from. How would I pull the value. Is $_POST a good enough way to go about it? Also...by saying it must be the first thing sent...does that mean I cannot run any serverside scripts before that? I could definately utilize a login query I think but I dont want to write code just to be dissapointed based on my lack of time and knowledge. I did search for answers...I know this most likely feels like a generic question that could be answered in a difference place...but I know I will get an accurate and professional answer here...so I dont want to bet on the half answers I found otherwise. Of course I will sanitize everything and not store any sensitive information (passwords,address,phone,or anything really for that matter besides some kind of session ID and the username) If this is confusing I am sorry but I am on a gov computer...and they lock these tighter than ft knox...so getting my code on here will be a chore until I get back to my room. Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • IIS: How to get the Metabase path?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i'm trying to get the list of mime types known to an IIS server (which you can see was asked and and answered by me 2 years ago). The copy-pasted answer involves: GetObject("IIS://LocalHost/MimeMap") msdn GetObject("IIS://localhost/mimemap") KB246068 GetObject("IIS://localhost/MimeMap") Scott Hanselman's Blog new DirectoryEntry("IIS://Localhost/MimeMap")) Stack Overflow new DirectoryEntry("IIS://Localhost/MimeMap")) Stack Overflow New DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry("IIS://localhost/MimeMap") Velocity Reviews You get the idea. Everyone agrees that you use a magical path iis://localhost/mimemap. And this works great, except for the times when it doesn't. The only clue i can find as to why it fails, is from an IIS MVP, Chris Crowe's, blog: string ServerName = "LocalHost"; string MetabasePath = "IIS://" + ServerName + "/MimeMap"; // Note: This could also be something like // string MetabasePath = "IIS://" + ServerName + "/w3svc/1/root"; DirectoryEntry MimeMap = new DirectoryEntry(MetabasePath); There are two clues here: He calls iis://localhost/mimemap the Metabase Path. Which sounds to me like it is some sort of "path" to a "metabase". He says that the path to the metabase could be something else; and he gives an example of what it could be like. Right now i, and the entire planet, are hardcoding the "MetabasePath" as iis://localhost/MimeMap What should it really be? What should the code be doing to construct a valid MetabasePath? Note: i'm not getting an access denied error, the error is the same when you have an invalid MetabasePath, e.g. iis://localhost/SoTiredOfThis

    Read the article

  • How to create reactive tasks for programming competitions?

    - by directx
    A reactive task is sometimes seen in the IOI programming competition. Unlike batch tasks, reactive solutions take input from another program as well as outputting it. The program typically 'query' the judge program a certain number of times, then output a final answer. An example The client program accepts lines one by one, and simply echoes it back. When it encountered a line with "done", it exists immediately. The client program in Java looks like this: import java.util.*; class Main{ public static void main (String[] args){ Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); String s; while (!(s=in.nextLine()).equals("done")) System.out.println(s); } } The judge program gives the input and processes output from the client program. In this example, it feeds it a predefined input and checks if the client program has echoed it back correctly. A session might go like this: Judge Client ------------------ Hello Hello World World done I'm having trouble writing the judge program and having it judge the client program. I'd appreciate if someone could write a judge program for my example.

    Read the article

  • NSScrollView frame and flipped documentView

    - by StrAbZ
    Hi, I have problems with NSScrollView, It is not displayed the way I want. Yes I know there is a lot of post about it around the web, I need to override the isFlipped, in order to make it return YES, in my NSView subclass. Ok, it's done, so now, my scrollView scroll from top to bottom, and not in the reverse way, as it was before overriding isFlipped. But, this is the second part, my real problem, which I didn't found any answer on the web, how the hell I'm supposed to code, or create my view in interface builder, if everything is flipped? If I put something at the top, it is displayed a the bottom… do you have any magic trick to handle that? And my last problem, is the NSScrollView frame. before setting the documentView of my scroll view, everything is fine, the scrollView is displayed at the place I choose, but, when I set the document view, it looks like the scrollview frame looks bigger, so I have to resize it…. is this a normal behavior? Thank you very much.

    Read the article

  • Converting an input text value to a decimal number

    - by vitto
    Hi, I'm trying to work with decimal data in my PHP and MySql practice and I'm not sure about how can I do for an acceptable level af accuracy. I've wrote a simple function which recives my input text value and converts it to a decimal number ready to be stored in the database. <?php function unit ($value, $decimal_point = 2) { return number_format (str_replace (",", ".", strip_tags (trim ($value))), $decimal_point); } ?> I've resolved something like AbdlBsF5%?nl with some jQuery code for replace and some regex to keep only numbers, dots and commas. In some country, people uses the comma , to send decimal numbers, so a number like 72.08 is wrote like 72,08. I'd like avoid to forcing people to change their usual chars and I've decided to use a jQuery to keep this too. Now every web developer knows the last validation must be handled by the dynamic page for security reasons. So my answer is should I use something like unit (); function to store data or shoul I also check if users inserts invalid chars like letters or something else? If I try this and send letters, the query works without save the invalid data, I think this isn't bad, but I could easily be wrong because I'm a rookie. What kind of method should I use if I want a number like 99999.99 for my query?

    Read the article

  • How to stop MVC caching the results of invoking and action method?

    - by Trey Carroll
    I am experiencing a problem with IE caching the results of an action method. Other articles I found were related to security and the [Authorize] attribute. This problem has nothing to do with security. This is a very simple "record a vote, grab the average, return the avg and the number of votes" method. The only slightly interesting thing about it is that it is invoked via Ajax and returns a Json object. I believe that it is the Json object that is getting catched. When I run it from FireFox and watch the XHR traffic with Firebug, everything works perfectly. However, under IE 8 the "throbber" graphic doesn't ever have time to show up and the page elements that display the "new" avg and count that are being injected into the page with jQuery are never different. I need a way to tell MVC to never cache this action method. This article seems to address the problem, but I cannot understand it: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1441467/prevent-caching-of-attributes-in-asp-net-mvc-force-attribute-execution-every-tim I need a bit more context for the solution to understand how to extend AuthorizationAttribute. Please address your answer as if you were speaking to someone who lacks a deep understanding of MVC even if that means replying with an article on some basics/prerequisites that are required. Thanks, Trey Carroll

    Read the article

  • Please Help Me with my Homework Problem in C++

    - by sil3nt
    Hey there, this is part of a question i got in class, im at the final stretch but this has become a major problem. In it im given a certain value which is called the "gold value" and it is 40.5, this value changes in input. and i have these constants const int RUBIES_PER_DIAMOND = 5; // relative values. * const int EMERALDS_PER_RUBY = 2; const int GOLDS_PER_EMERALDS = 5; const int SILVERS_PER_GOLD = 4; const int COPPERS_PER_SILVER = 5; const int DIAMOND_VALUE = 50; // gold values. * const int RUBY_VALUE = 10; const int EMERALD_VALUE = 5; const float SILVER_VALUE = 0.25; const float COPPER_VALUE = 0.05; which means that basically for every diamond there are 5 rubies, and for every ruby there are 2 emeralds. So on and so forth. and the "gold value" for every diamond for example is 50 (diamond value = 50) this is how much one diamond is worth in golds. my problem is converting 40.5 into these diamonds and ruby values. I know the answer is 4rubies and 2silvers but how do i write the algorithm for this so that it gives the best estimate for every goldvalue that comes along??

    Read the article

  • Using singleton instead of a global static instance

    - by Farstucker
    I ran into a problem today and a friend recommended I use a global static instance or more elegantly a singleton pattern. I spent a few hours reading about singletons but a few things still escape me. Background: What Im trying to accomplish is creating an instance of an API and use this one instance in all my classes (as opposed to making a new connection, etc). There seems to be about 100 ways of creating a singleton but with some help from yoda I found some thread safe examples. ..so given the following code: public sealed class Singleton { public static Singleton Instance { get; private set; } private Singleton() { APIClass api = new APIClass(); //Can this be done? } static Singleton() { Instance = new Singleton(); } } How/Where would you instantiate the this new class and how should it be called from a separate class? EDIT: I realize the Singleton class can be called with something like Singleton obj1 = Singleton.Instance(); but would I be able to access the methods within the APIs Class (ie. obj1.Start)? (not that I need to, just asking) EDIT #2: I might have been a bit premature in checking the answer but I do have one small thing that is still causing me problems. The API is launching just fine, unfortunately Im able to launch two instances? New Code public sealed class SingletonAPI { public static SingletonAPI Instance { get; private set; } private SingletonAPI() {} static SingletonAPI() { Instance = new SingletonAPI(); } // API method: public void Start() { API myAPI = new API();} } but if I try to do something like this... SingletonAPI api = SingletonAPI.Instance; api.Start(); SingletonAPI api2 = SingletonAPI.Instance; // This was just for testing. api2.Start(); I get an error saying that I cannot start more than one instance.

    Read the article

  • What is happening in this T-SQL code?

    - by Ben McCormack
    I'm just starting to learn T-SQL and could use some help in understanding what's going on in a particular block of code. I modified some code in an answer I received in a previous question, and here is the code in question: DECLARE @column_list AS varchar(max) SELECT @column_list = COALESCE(@column_list, ',') + 'SUM(Case When Sku2=' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [' + CONVERT(varchar, Sku2) + ' - ' + Convert(varchar,Description) +'],' FROM OrderDetailDeliveryReview Inner Join InvMast on SKU2 = SKU and LocationTypeID=4 GROUP BY Sku2 , Description ORDER BY Sku2 Set @column_list = Left(@column_list,Len(@column_list)-1) Select @column_list ---------------------------------------- 1 row is returned: ,SUM(Case When Sku2=157 Then Quantity Else 0 End) As [157 -..., SUM(Case ... The T-SQL code does exactly what I want, which is to make a single result based on the results of a query, which will then be used in another query. However, I can't figure out how the SELECT @column_list =... statement is putting multiple values into a single string of characters by being inside a SELECT statement. Without the assignment to @column_list, the SELECT statement would simply return multiple rows. How is it that by having the variable within the SELECT statement that the results get "flattened" down into one value? How should I read this T-SQL to properly understand what's going on?

    Read the article

  • Android Scaled Drawing to ImageView

    - by user329999
    Newbie question, so there's probably a simple answer to this problem. I'm drawing some simple shapes using canvas.drawCircle(), canvas.drawLine() etc. I originally copied the code from: http://developer.android.com/resources/samples/ApiDemos/src/com/example/android/apis/graphics/DrawPoints.html Which extends a View and draws directly to a canvas. It doesn't load a pre-drawn bitmap because I need my application to turn data into a drawing and the user will enter the data. My changes work, but the drawing is too small (or big) and doesn't fill the screen using all the available screen. Ideally I'd rather use something like an ImageView in .XML like so: If that's possible. The documentation seems to imply that I want to set the scaleType as shown in the above .XML which seems like the simple way to do this. If using an ImageView in .XML is a good idea, then I'm lost on how to draw to the ImageView and could use some guidance on doing that task. If that won't work, then I'll need to do some more thinking about how to get my drawing scaled on the screen and basically I'm lazy and would rather have Android do the work for me. Feel free to suggest some other way that's completely different is this is the wrong solution path. :) Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Reloading a JTree during runtime

    - by Patrick Kiernan
    I create a JTree and model for it out in a class separate to the GUI class. The data for the JTree is extracted from a file. Now in the GUI class the user can add files from the file system to an AWT list. After the user clicks on a file in the list I want the JTree to update. The variable name for the JTree is schemaTree. I have the following code for the when an item in the list is selected: private void schemaListItemStateChanged(java.awt.event.ItemEvent evt) { int selection = schemaList.getSelectedIndex(); File selectedFile = schemas.get(selection); long fileSize = selectedFile.length(); fileInfoLabel.setText("Size: " + fileSize + " bytes"); schemaParser = new XSDParser(selectedFile.getAbsolutePath()); TreeModel model = schemaParser.generateTreeModel(); schemaTree.setModel(model); } I've updated the code to correspond to the accepted answer. The JTree now updates correctly based on which file I select in the list.

    Read the article

  • JQuery Cycle fails on Page Refresh

    - by Darknight
    In a similar issue as this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1719475/jquery-cycle-firefox-squishing-images I've managed to overcome the initial problem using Jeffs answer in the above link. However now I have noticed a new bug, upon page refresh it simply does not work. I have tried a hard refresh (ctrl+F5) but this does not work. However when you come page to the page it loads fine. here is my modified version (taken from Jeff's): <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var imagesRemaining = $('#slideshow img').length; $('#slideshow img').bind('load', function(e) { imagesRemaining = imagesRemaining - 1; if (imagesRemaining == 0) { $('#slideshow').show(); $('#slideshow').cycle({ fx: 'shuffle', speed: 1200 }); } }); }); </script> Any ideas? I've also tried JQuery Live but could not implement it correctly. I've also tried Meta tags to force images to load. But it only works first time round.

    Read the article

  • Flash AS2.0 and JavaScript/jQuery (ExternalInterface) Communication

    - by abysslogic
    Hi there, Im trying to use JS to send data to my Flash AS2.0 music player with ExternalInterface, except there are no good tutorials or guides on ExternalInterface that I can find. I want to be able to change the current song in the player by clicking a JavaScript link, and on page / window load without clicking, play a default song. I dont need a super complicated answer on loading sounds in flash, etc., I am just having a lot of difficulties getting JS to send anything to Flash, and when I get that to work - would I need to put some if / else into the flash to determine if the link has been clicked or not? Thanks edit heres the code as of now: AS 2.0 import flash.external.ExternalInterface; ExternalInterface.addCallback('loadSong', null, flashFunction); function flashFunction (val) { extra = val; } JavaScript var flashObj = document.getElementById('VSPLAYER'); function loadSong(val) { return val } HTML <a href="javascript:loadSong('2')">Play song 2</a> <object id="VSPLAYER" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" data="vs_player.swf" width="280" height="90"> <param name="movie" value="vs_player.swf" /> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always" /> </object>

    Read the article

  • Dynamically created iframe used to download file triggers onload with firebug but not without

    - by justkt
    EDIT: as this problem is now "solved" to the point of working, I am looking to have the information on why. For the fix, see my comment below. I have an web application which repeatedly downloads wav files dynamically (after a timeout or as instructed by the user) into an iframe in order to trigger the a default audio player to play them. The application targets only FF 2 or 3. In order to determine when the file is downloaded completely, I am hoping to use the window.onload handler for the iframe. Based on this stackoverflow.com answer I am creating a new iframe each time. As long as firebug is enabled on the browser using the application, everything works great. Without firebug, the onload never fires. The version of firebug is 1.3.1, while I've tested Firefox 2.0.0.19 and 3.0.7. Any ideas how I can get the onload from the iframe to reliably trigger when the wav file has downloaded? Or is there another way to signal the completion of the download? Here's the pertinent code: HTML (hidden's only attribute is display:none;): <div id="audioContainer" class="hidden"> </div> JavaScript (could also use jQuery, but innerHTML is faster than html() from what I've read): waitingForFile = true; // (declared at the beginning of closure) $("#loading").removeClass("hidden"); var content = "<iframe id='audioPlayer' name='audioPlayer' src='" + /path/to/file.wav + "' onload='notifyLoaded()'></iframe>"; document.getElementById("audioContainer").innerHTML = content; And the content of notifyLoaded: function notifyLoaded() { waitingForFile = false; // (declared at beginning of the closure) $("#loading").addClass("hidden"); } I have also tried creating the iframe via document.createElement, but I found the same behavior. The onload triggered each time with firebug enabled and never without it. EDIT: Fixed the information on how the iframe is being declared and added the callback function code. No, no console.log calls here.

    Read the article

  • What are some funny loading statements to keep users amused?

    - by Oli
    Nobody likes waiting but unfortunately in the Ajax application I'm working on at the moment, there is one fair-sized pause (1-2 seconds a go) that users have to undergo each and every time they want to load up a chunk of data. I've tried to make the load as interactive as possible. There's an animated GIF alongside a very plain, very dull "Loading..." message. So I thought it might be quite fun to come up with a batch of 50-or-so funny-looking messages and pick from them randomly so the user never knows what they're going to see. The time they would have spent growing impatient is fruitfully used. Here's what I've come up with so far, just to give you an idea. var randomLoadingMessage = function() { var lines = new Array( "Locating the required gigapixels to render...", "Spinning up the hamster...", "Shovelling coal into the server...", "Programming the flux capacitor" ); return lines[Math.round(Math.random()*(lines.length-1))]; } (Yes -- I know some of those are pretty lame -- That's why I'm here :) The funniest I see today will get the prestigious "Accepted Answer" award. Others get votes for participation. Enjoy!!

    Read the article

  • JQuery-UI Drag, Drop and Re-Drag Clones on Re-Drag

    - by amarcy
    I am using the following code to extend the JQuery-UI demos included with the download. I am trying to set up a container that the user can drag items into and then move the items around within the container. I incorporated the answer from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/867469/jquery-draggable-clone which works with one problem. <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#droppable").droppable({ accept: '.ui-widget-content', drop: function(event, ui) { if($(ui).parent(":not(:has(#id1))")){ $(this).append($(ui.helper).clone().attr("id", "id1")); } $("#id1").draggable({ containment: 'parent', }); } }); $(".ui-widget-content").draggable({helper: 'clone'}); }); </script> div class="demo"> <div id="draggable" class="ui-widget-content"> <p>Drag me around</p> </div> <div id="droppable" class="ui-widget-header"> <p>Drop here</p> </div> When an item is dropped onto the droppable container it can be dragged one time and when it is dropped after that drag it loses its dragging capability. How do I allow for the item to be dragged multiple times after it has been added to the droppable container?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468 469  | Next Page >