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  • jquery form extension ajax

    - by Craig Wilson
    http://www.malsup.com/jquery/form/#html I have multiple forms on a single page. They all use the same class "myForm". Using the above extension I can get them to successfully process and POST to ajax-process.php <script> // wait for the DOM to be loaded $(document).ready(function() { // bind 'myForm' and provide a simple callback function $('.myForm').ajaxForm(function() { alert("Thank you for your comment!"); }); }); </script> I'm having an issue however with the response. I need to get the comment that the user submitted to be displayed in the respective div that it was submitted from. I can either set this as a hidden field in the form, or as text in the ajax-process.php file. I can't work out how to get the response from ajax-process.php into something I can work with in the script, if I run the following it appends to all the forms (obviously). The only way I can think to do it is to repeat the script using individual DIV ID's instead of a single class. However there must be a way of updating the div that the ajax-process.php returns! // prepare the form when the DOM is ready $(document).ready(function() { // bind form using ajaxForm $('.myForm').ajaxForm({ // target identifies the element(s) to update with the server response target: '.myDiv', // success identifies the function to invoke when the server response // has been received; here we apply a fade-in effect to the new content success: function() { $('.myDiv').fadeIn('slow'); } }); }); Any suggestions?!

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  • Displaying data from linked tables in netbeans JTable

    - by Darc
    I have been writing in java for a few months now and have just started using netbeans. I have spent all day today trying to work out how to connect to an SQL database and display data from 2 tables (ie display the data from from a select statement with an inner join) in a JTable. I have tried using JPQL with the following statment SELECT j, cust.name FROM Job j JOIN j.jobnumber cust where the job table has a field called customer that references id in the customer table. This throws the exception: Caused by: Exception [TOPLINK-8029] (Oracle TopLink Essentials - 2.0.1 (Build b09d-fcs (12/06/2007))): oracle.toplink.essentials.exceptions.EJBQLException Exception Description: Error compiling the query [SELECT j, cust.name FROM Job j JOIN j.jobnumber cust], line 1, column 11: invalid navigation expression [cust.name], cannot navigate expression [cust] of type [java.lang.Integer] inside a query. at oracle.toplink.essentials.exceptions.EJBQLException.invalidNavigation(EJBQLException.java:430) What am i doing wrong? Can anyone point me to some examples of how to make a linked table java application? I am still in the very early stages of development so a complete change is not out of the question if using a mysql database isnt the best way to go about things thanks

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  • jQuery Validation Plugin ErrorPlacement inside two different elements

    - by Andy Poquette
    I'm trying to place separate error messages in separate elements when validating a large form. The form is divided into jQueryUI tabs, then accordions. When there is an error in an element of a tab, I want to append a red exclamation point to the name of the tab, and if the error is in an accordion element, I also want to append the red exclamation point to the name of the accordion element. Subsequently, when the errors are corrected, I would like those red ! to be removed (exactly as the error message beneath the invalid field is removed. So: Tab1 Tab2 Accordion1 Accordion2 Tab3 If the elements in accordion 2 have an error, I want to append a red ! to accordion2 and tab2: Tab1 Tab2! Accordion1 Accordion2! Tab3 Then remove when the elements successfully validate. I've been trying forever, but I can't figure out how to conditionally change the errorElement (a label won't work for the tab and accordion, but is perfect for the actual element)... Hopefully this makes sense, and thanks for any input you can provide.

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  • This process does not work in JavaScript: createElement() -> setAttribute('id') -> getElementById()

    - by kristovaher
    I was so sure that this question has been answered a thousand times before, but I've been unable to find an answer in StackOverflow. If there is already an answer and I was unable to find it then I apologize. I create hidden form elements dynamically like this: submitForm=document.getElementById('my-form'); var element=document.createElement('input'); element.id='hidden-form-data'; // or setAttribute('id','hidden-form-data'); element.name='my-hidden-form-data'; element.type='hidden'; element.value='my-data'; submitForm.appendChild(element); This works and the input field is created and it is taken into account when submitting the form. But I want to remove it after I have dynamically created it. I was sure that creating a new node this way would be 'correct' for browser and DOM, but apparently it is not. This returns null: element=document.getElementById('hidden-form-data'); if(element!=null){ element.parentNode.removeChild(element); } But it never gets removed and is always null. Is there any way I can remove a dynamically created node with an ID? Thank you! Please do not suggest jQuery, it's not possible to use jQuery for this, footprint is too heavy for such a small task I could not get a working answer from here, which was the closest thread I could find.

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  • Doesn't this defeat the whole purpose of having read-only properties?

    - by flockofcode
    I know how to use properties and I understand that they implicitly call underlying get and set accessors, depending on whether we are writing to or reading from a property. static void Main(string[] args) { A a = new A(); (a.b).i = 100; } class A { private B _b = new B(); public B b { get { return _b; } } } class B { public int i; } What code (a.b).i = 100; essentially does is that first property’s get accessor returns a reference to an object _b, and once we have this reference, we are able to access _b’s members and change their values. Thus, in our example, having read only property only prevents outside code from changing the value of a reference variable _b, but it doesn’t prevent outside code from accessing _b’s members. So it seems that property can only detect whether we are trying to read from or write to a variable ( in our case variable _b ) located on the stack, while it’s not able to detect whether we’re trying to also write to members of an object to which the variable on the stack ( assuming this variable is of reference type ) points to. a) But doesn’t that defeat the whole purpose of having read-only properties? Wouldn’t it be more effective if properties had the ability to also detect whether we’re trying to access members of an object returned by get accessor( assuming backing field is of a reference type )? thank you

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  • Why is this ajax call being made even though it shouldn't be

    - by user2921557
    i have this validation script im working on but cant see why im having an issue. You can see that i have a check = false / true, check before it runs the ajax call. However, even if a field is empty and check is set to false, it is still running the call. so: // JavaScript - Update Password AJAX $(document).ready(function () { // When the form is submitted $('.updatepasswordform').submit(function () { var check = true; // Get the values var password1 = $("input[name=password1]").val(); var password2 = $("input[name=password2]").val(); var newpassword = $("input[name=newpassword]").val(); /* Password Validation */ // If fields are empty if (password1 === '') { check = false; $("input[name=password1]").css('border', 'solid 2px red'); } // If fields are empty if (password2 === '') { check = false; $("input[name=password2]").css('border', 'solid 2px red'); } // If fields are empty if (newpassword === '') { check = false; $("input[name=newpassword]").css('border', 'solid 2px red'); } if (check = true) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "process/updatepassword.php", data: $(".updatepasswordform").serialize(), dataType: "json", success: function (response) { /* Checks for database validation, removed for space saving */ } }); } return false; }); });

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  • Saving associated domain classes in Grails

    - by Cesar
    I'm struggling to get association right on Grails. Let's say I have two domain classes: class Engine { String name int numberOfCylinders = 4 static constraints = { name(blank:false, nullable:false) numberOfCylinders(range:4..8) } } class Car { int year String brand Engine engine = new Engine(name:"Default Engine") static constraints = { engine(nullable:false) brand(blank:false, nullable:false) year(nullable:false) } } The idea is that users can create cars without creating an engine first, and those cars get a default engine. In the CarController I have: def save = { def car = new Car(params) if(!car.hasErrors() && car.save()){ flash.message = "Car saved" redirect(action:index) }else{ render(view:'create', model:[car:car]) } } When trying to save, I get a null value exception on the Car.engine field, so obviously the default engine is not created and saved. I tried to manually create the engine: def save = { def car = new Car(params) car.engine = new Engine(name: "Default Engine") if(!car.hasErrors() && car.save()){ flash.message = "Car saved" redirect(action:index) }else{ render(view:'create', model:[car:car]) } } Didn't work either. Is Grails not able to save associated classes? How could I implement such feature?

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  • Rails nested association issue

    - by Ben Langfeld
    Ok, so I'm new to both Ruby and Rails and I'm trying to do what I believe is called a nested association (please correct me if this is the wrong terminology). I currently have a User model and a Domains model and I have many to many associations setup (using has_many :through) between the two, and this works fine. I now want to extend this to allow for a single role per domain per user (eg User1 is a member of Domain1 and has the role "Admin"). I have setup a Roles model with a single field (name:string) and have created three roles. I have also added a role_id column to the join table (memberships). I expected (and this is probably the issue) to be able to just use user1 = User.find(1) user1.domains.first => <some domain object> user1.domains.first.role => <some role object> but this returns a method not defined error. Can anyone tell me what I'm failing to grasp here? My model classes can be seen at http://gist.github.com/388200

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  • Need help getting buttons to work...

    - by Mike Droid
    I am trying to get my first button to update a display number in my view when clicked. This view will have several buttons and "outputs" displayed. After reading examples and Q's here, I finally put something together that runs, but my first button is still not working; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.ship_layout); mSwitcher = (TextSwitcher) findViewById(R.id.eng_val); } private TextSwitcher mSwitcher; // Will be connected with the buttons via XML void onClick(View v){ switch (v.getId()) { case R.id.engplus: engcounter++; updateCounter(); break; case R.id.engneg: engcounter--; updateCounter(); break; } } private void updateCounter() { mSwitcher.setText(String.valueOf(engcounter)); } The .xml for this button is; <TextSwitcher android:id="@+id/eng_val" android:visibility="visible" android:paddingTop="9px" android:paddingLeft="50px" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@+id/build" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/engeq" android:textColor="#DD00ff00" android:textSize="24sp"/> This is within a Relative Layout that appears otherwise OK. When I had set the view to have a TextView with the number set as a string , the number displayed, but I could not figure out how to update the text with a numerical field. That may be my real problem. I have gone through many examples generally referenced from the dev. site (UI, Common Tasks, various samples), and I am still not seeing the connection here... Again, this is simply a try at getting variables to respond to buttons and update on the view. So, a few Q's for anyone that can help; 1) Is there any easier way of doing this (ie. send numerical value to View) ? 2) Why isn't my TextSwitcher displaying the number? 3) Should I be using a TextSwitcher here? 4) Any examples of this you can point me to?

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  • A very interesting MYSQL problem (related to indexing, million records, algorithm.)

    - by terence410
    This problem is pretty hard to describe and therefore difficult to search the answer. I hope some expert could share you opinions on that. I have a table with around 1 million of records. The table structure is similar to something like this: items{ uid (primary key, bigint, 15) updated (indexed, int, 11) enabled (indexed, tinyint, 1) } The scenario is like this. I have to select all of the records everyday and do some processing. It takes around 3 second to handle each item. I have written a PHP script to fetch 200 items each time using the following. select * from items where updated unix_timestamp(now()) - 86400 and enabled = 1 limit 200; I will then update the "updated" field of the selected items to make sure that it wont' be selected again within one day. The selected query is something like that. update items set updated = unix_timestamp(now()) where uid in (1,2,3,4,...); Then, the PHP will continue to run and process the data which doesn't require any MYSQL connection anymore. Since I have million records and each record take 3 seconds to process, it's definitely impossible to do it sequentially. Therefore, I will execute the PHP in every 10 seconds. However, as time goes by and the table growth, the select getting much slower. Sometimes, it take more than 100 seconds to run! Do you guys have any suggestion how may I solve this problem?

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  • stop form during submission if it validates incorrectly

    - by muqman
    I am trying to use JavaScript to validate forms but if the form doesn't validate, I don't want the form to be sent to the "action" page. The validator: <script> function formSubmit() { document.getElementById("signup_form").submit(); var x=document.forms["signup_form"]["tname"].value; if (x==null || x=="") { alert("First name must be filled out"); return false; } } </script> The form itself: <form action="some_file.php" method="post" id="signup_form" name="signup_form" onsubmit="return formSubmit()"> But all this does is if the tname field empty, it will return an alert but as soon as the user hits ok, the form then redirects to some_file.php. What have I missed here? The submit button: <a href="" onclick="return formSubmit(); return false" class="purplebutton">Signup</a> So what have I missed? How do I avoid this in the future?

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  • Code thinks Datagrid footer textbox is empty...

    - by The Sheek Geek
    Hello All, I am working on an .net (C#) web application. Recently a defect came my way that stated that when two users were logged into the application at the same time they both could not update values without one refreshing the page. When I looked into the issue I discovered that the author of the code has used static datasets. I changed the datasets to not be static and everything works great. However, This issue spans many pages in the application and I must fix it everywhere. On some of these pages the application uses datasets to bind data to datagrids. The datagrids are populated with the information in the dataset and the footer contains some textboxes and an add button to add extra rows. Here is where the problem starts: When the page was using static datasets and the user attempted to add a row through the interface everything worked fine. However, when I changed it to use datasets that were not static (they are loaded every time the page loads) and the user attempts to add a row, the code thinks that the textbox is empty (discovered when debugging even though I can see the text that I entered) and empty field validation fails and a message is displayed. Can someone please tell me why on Earth this is happening? Why does it see the text when the dataset is static (the dataset NEVER populates the foot row) and not see the text when it is not static? Some insight would be awesome! Thanks in advance!

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  • Crystal Reports Cross Tab Conditional Formatting

    - by ltran
    I would like to achieve a simplified result similar to the "Color Scale" function in Excel i.e. gradient colouring based on the lowest value (red) to highest value (green), except in my cross tab using Crystal Reports 2008. My cross tab looks a little like this: HOURS L1 L2 L3 L4 Total 1 hours | 5 | 0 | 1 | 16 | 22 | 2 hours | 0 | 1 | 0 | 10 | 11 | 3 hours | 8 | 2 | 6 | 12 | 28 | TOTAL |13 | 3 | 7 | 38 | 61 | The principle of my function is find the maximum value in the cross table then use 20%, 40%, 60%, 80% values to colour the background. Function is as follows (in the format background section): if currentfieldvalue < ((Maximum (MakeArray (CurrentColumnIndex, CurrentRowIndex, 1)))*0.2) then color(255,0,0) else if (currentfieldvalue >= ((Maximum (MakeArray (CurrentColumnIndex, CurrentRowIndex, 1)))*0.2) and currentfieldvalue < ((Maximum (MakeArray (CurrentColumnIndex, CurrentRowIndex, 1)))*0.4)) then color(255,192,0) else if (currentfieldvalue >= ((Maximum (MakeArray (CurrentColumnIndex, CurrentRowIndex, 1)))*0.4) and currentfieldvalue < ((Maximum (MakeArray (CurrentColumnIndex, CurrentRowIndex, 1)))*0.6)) then color(255,255,0) else if (currentfieldvalue >= ((Maximum (MakeArray (CurrentColumnIndex, CurrentRowIndex, 1)))*0.6) and currentfieldvalue < ((Maximum (MakeArray (CurrentColumnIndex, CurrentRowIndex, 1)))*0.8)) then color(146,208,80) else if (currentfieldvalue >= ((Maximum (MakeArray (CurrentColumnIndex, CurrentRowIndex, 1)))*0.8)) then color(0,176,80) It's not elegant, nor does it work properly, any assistance/suggestions would be much appreciated. I wasn't expecting it to be so complicated as originally I was working with the below assuming it would work, except it tells me that "CurrentFieldValue" is not a field. if CurrentFieldValue < ((Maximum (CurrentFieldValue))*0.2) then color(255,0,0) else if ... etc.

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  • making query from different related tables using codeigniter

    - by fatemeh karam
    I'm using codeigniter as i mentioned this is a part of my view code foreach($projects_query as $row)// $row indicates the projects { ?> <tr><td><h3><button type="submit" class="button red-gradient glossy" name = "project_click" > <?php echo $row->txtTaskName; ?></button></h3></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr> <?php foreach($tasks_query as $row2) { // if( $row->txtTaskName == "TestProject") if($row->intTaskID == $row2->intInside)// intInside indicades that the current task($row2) is the subset of which task (system , subsystem or project) { if($row2->intSummary == 0)//if the task(the system) is an executable task & doesn't have any subtask: { $query_team_user_id = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_user_team_task_query($row2->intTaskID);//runs the function and generates a query from tbl_userteamtask where intTaskID equals to the selected row's intTaskID foreach($query_team_user_id as $row_teamid) { $query_teamname = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_team_name($row_teamid->intTeamID); $query_fn_ln = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_fn_ln_from_userid($row_teamid->intUserID); foreach($query_teamname as $row_teamname) {?> <tr><td></td><td></td><td><h4> <?php echo $row2->txtTaskName;?></h4></td> <td><b><font color='#F33558'><?php echo $row_teamname->txtTeamName;?></font></b></td> <?php } foreach($query_fn_ln as $row_f_l_name) {?> <td> <?php echo $row_f_l_name->txtFirstname." ".$row_f_l_name->txtLastname;?></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td> <?php }?> </tr> <?php } } else{ ?> <tr><td></td><td></td><td><h4> <?php echo $row2->txtTaskName;?></h4></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr><?php } foreach($tasks_query as $row_subsystems) { if($row_subsystems->intInside == $row2->intTaskID )//if the task is the subtask of a system(it means the task is a subsystem) { if($row_subsystems->intSummary == 0)//if the task is an executable task & doesn't have any subtask: { $query_team_user_id = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_user_team_task_query($row_subsystems->intTaskID); foreach($query_team_user_id as $row_teamid) {?> <tr><?php $query_teamname = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_team_name($row_teamid->intTeamID); $query_fn_ln = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_fn_ln_from_userid($row_teamid->intUserID); foreach($query_teamname as $row_teamname) {?> <td></td><td></td><td><h5><?php echo $row_subsystems->txtTaskName?></h5><br/></td> <td><b><font color='#F33558'><?php echo $row_teamname->txtTeamName;?></font></b></td><?php } foreach($query_fn_ln as $row_f_l_name) {?> <td><?php echo $row_f_l_name->txtFirstname." ".$row_f_l_name->txtLastname;?></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><?php }?> </tr><?php } } else{ ?><tr><td></td><td></td><td><h5><?php echo $row_subsystems->txtTaskName?></h5></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr><?php } foreach($tasks_query as $row_tasks) { if($row_tasks->intInside == $row_subsystems->intTaskID )//if the task is the subtask of a subsystem { if($row_tasks->intSummary == 0)//if the task is an executable task & doesn't have any subtask: { $query_team_user_id = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_user_team_task_query($row_tasks->intTaskID); foreach($query_team_user_id as $row_teamid) {?> <tr><?php $query_teamname = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_team_name($row_teamid->intTeamID); $query_fn_ln = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_fn_ln_from_userid($row_teamid->intUserID); foreach($query_teamname as $row_teamname) {?> <td></td><td></td><td><b><?php echo $row_tasks->txtTaskName;?></b></td> <td><b><font color='#F33558'><?php echo $row_teamname->txtTeamName;?></font></b></td><?php } foreach($query_fn_ln as $row_f_l_name) {?> <td><?php echo $row_f_l_name->txtFirstname." ".$row_f_l_name->txtLastname;?></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><?php }?> </tr><?php } } } } } } } } }?> and in controller i have $projects_query = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_projects(); $tasks_query = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_systems(); $userteamtask = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_user_team_task(); $data['tasks_query'] = $tasks_query; $data['projects_query'] = $projects_query; $this->load->view('project_view',$data); but as you see I'm calling my model functions within the view how can i do something else to do this i mean not calling my model function in my view I have to add that, my model function have parameters these are the model functions: function get_projects() { $this -> db -> select('*'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_task'); $this -> db -> where('intInside','0'); $query = $this->db->get(); return $query->result(); } function get_systems() { $this -> db -> select('*'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_task '); $this -> db -> where('intInside <> ','0'); $query = $this->db->get(); return $query->result(); } function get_user_team_task_query($task_id)//gets information from tbl_userteamtask where the field intTaskID is equal to $task_id { $this -> db -> select('*'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_userteamtask'); $this -> db -> where('intTaskID',$task_id); $query_teamid = $this->db->get(); return $query_teamid->result(); } function get_user_team_task()//gets information from tbl_userteamtask where the field intTaskID is equal to $task_id { $this -> db -> select('*'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_userteamtask'); // $this -> db -> where('intTaskID',$task_id); $query_teamid = $this->db->get(); return $query_teamid->result(); } function get_team_name($query_teamid) { $this -> db -> select('*'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_team'); $this -> db -> where('intTeamID',$query_teamid); $query_teamname = $this->db->get(); return $query_teamname->result(); } function get_user_name($query_userid) { $this -> db -> select('*'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_user'); $this -> db -> where('intUserID',$query_userid); $query_username = $this->db->get(); return $query_username->result(); } function get_fn_ln_from_userid($selected_id) { $this -> db -> select('tbl_user.intUserID, tbl_user.intPersonID,tbl_person.intPersonID,tbl_person.txtFirstname, tbl_person.txtLastname'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_user , tbl_person'); $where = "tbl_user.intPersonID = tbl_person.intPersonID "; $this -> db -> where($where); $this -> db -> where('tbl_user.intUserID', $selected_id); $query = $this -> db -> get();//makes query from DB return $query->result(); } do I have to use subquery ? is this true? i mean can i do this? foreach( $data as $key => $each ) { $data[$key]['team_id'] = $this->get_user_team_task_query( $each['intTaskID'] ); foreach($data[$key]['team_id'] as $key_teamname => $each) { $data[$key_teamname]['team_name'] = $this->get_team_name( $each['intTeamID'] ); } } the model code: foreach( $data as $key => $each ) { $data[$key]['intTaskID'] = $each['intTaskID']; $data[$key]['team_id'] = $this->get_user_team_task_query( $each['intTaskID'] ); foreach($data[$key]['team_id'] as $key => $each) { $data[$key]['team_name'] = $this->get_team_name( $each['intTeamID'] ); #fetching of the teamname and saving in the array $data[$key]['user_name'] = $this->get_fn_ln_from_userid( $each['intUserID'] ); foreach($data[$key]['user_name'] as $key => $each) { $data[$key]['first_name'] = $each['txtFirstname'] ; $data[$key]['last_name'] = $each['txtLastname'] ; } $data[$key]['first_name'] = $data[$key]['first_name']; $data[$key]['last_name'] = $data[$key]['last_name']; } }

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  • LINQ - 'Could not translate expression' with previously used and proven query condition

    - by tomfumb
    I am fairly new to LINQ and can't get my head around some inconsistency in behaviour. Any knowledgeable input would be much appreciated. I see similar issues on SO and elsewhere but they don't seem to help. I have a very simple setup - a company table and an addresses table. Each company can have 0 or more addresses, and if 0 one must be specified as the main address. I'm trying to handle the cases where there are 0 addresses, using an outer join and altering the select statement accordingly. Please note I'm currently binding the output straight to a GridView so I would like to keep all processing within the query. The following DOES work IQueryable query = from comp in context.Companies join addr in context.Addresses on comp.CompanyID equals addr.CompanyID into outer // outer join companies to addresses table to include companies with no address from addr in outer.DefaultIfEmpty() where (addr.IsMain == null ? true : addr.IsMain) == true // if a company has no address ensure it is not ruled out by the IsMain condition - default to true if null select new { comp.CompanyID, comp.Name, AddressID = (addr.AddressID == null ? -1 : addr.AddressID), // use -1 to represent a company that has no addresses MainAddress = String.Format("{0}, {1}, {2} {3} ({4})", addr.Address1, addr.City, addr.Region, addr.PostalCode, addr.Country) }; but this displays an empty address in the GridView as ", , ()" So I updated the MainAddress field to be MainAddress = (addr.AddressID == null ? "" : String.Format("{0}, {1}, {2} {3} ({4})", addr.Address1, addr.City, addr.Region, addr.PostalCode, addr.Country)) and now I'm getting the Could not translate expression error and a bunch of spewey auto-generated code in the error which means very little to me. The condition I added to MainAddress is no different to the working condition on AddressID, so can anybody tell me what's going on here? Any help greatly appreciated.

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  • Selenium : Handling Loading screens obscuring the web elements. (Java)

    - by Sheldon Cooper
    I'm writing an automated test case for a web page. Here's my scenario. I have to click and type on various web elements in an html form. But, sometimes while typing on a text field, an ajax loading image appears , fogging all elements i want to interact with. So, I'm using web-driver wait before clicking on the actual elements like below, WebdriverWait innerwait=new WebDriverWait(driver,30); innerwait.until(ExpectedConditions.elementToBeClickable(By.xpath(fieldID))); driver.findelement(By.xpath(fieldID)).click(); But the wait function returns the element even if it is fogged by another image and is not clickable. But the click() throws an exception as Element is not clickable at point (586.5, 278). Other element would receive the click: <div>Loading image</div> Do I have to check every time if the loading image appeared before interacting with any elements?.(I can't predict when the loading image will appear and fog all elements.) Is there any efficient way to handle this? Currently I'm using the following function to wait till the loading image disappears, public void wait_for_ajax_loading() throws Exception { try{ Thread.sleep(2000); if(selenium.isElementPresent("id=loadingPanel")) while(selenium.isElementPresent("id=loadingPanel")&&selenium.isVisible("id=loadingPanel"))//wait till the loading screen disappears { Thread.sleep(2000); System.out.println("Loading...."); }} catch(Exception e){ Logger.logPrint("Exception in wait_for_ajax_loading() "+e); Logger.failedReport(report, e); driver.quit(); System.exit(0); } } But I don't know exactly when to call the above function, calling it at a wrong time will fail. Is there any efficient way to check if an element is actually clickable? or the loading image is present? Thanks..

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  • Is it possible to modify the value of a record's primary key in Oracle when child records exist?

    - by Chris Farmer
    I have some Oracle tables that represent a parent-child relationship. They look something like this: create table Parent ( parent_id varchar2(20) not null primary key ); create table Child ( child_id number not null primary key, parent_id varchar2(20) not null, constraint fk_parent_id foreign key (parent_id) references Parent (parent_id) ); This is a live database and its schema was designed long ago under the assumption that the parent_id field would be static and unchanging for a given record. Now the rules have changed and we really would like to change the value of parent_id for some records. For example, I have these records: Parent: parent_id --------- ABC123 Child: child_id parent_id -------- --------- 1 ABC123 2 ABC123 And I want to modify ABC123 in these records in both tables to something else. It's my understanding that one cannot write an Oracle update statement that will update both parent and child tables simultaneously, and given the FK constraint, I'm not sure how best to update my database. I am currently disabling the fk_parent_id constraint, updating each table independently, and then enabling the constraint. Is there a better, single-step way to update this content?

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  • How can I improve this SQL to avoid several problems with its results?

    - by Josh Curren
    I am having some problems with trying to search. Currently this will only return results that have at least 1 row in the maintenance_parts table. I would like it to return results even if there are 0 parts rows. My second problem is that when you search for a vehicle and it should return multiple results (multiple maintenance rows) it will only return 1 result for that vehicle. Some Background Info: The user has 2 fields to fill out. The fields are vehicle and keywords. The vehicle field is meant to allow searching based on the make, model, VIN, truck number (often is 2 - 3 digits or a letter prefix followed by 2 digits), and a few other fields that belong to the truck table. The keywords are meant to search most fields in the maintenance and maintenance_parts tables (things like the description of the work, parts name, parts number). The maintenance_parts table can contain 0, 1, or more rows for each maintenance row. The truck table contains exactly 1 row for every maintenance row. A truck can have multiple maintenance records. "SELECT M.maintenance_id, M.some_id, M.type_code, M.service_date, M.mileage, M.mg_id, M.mg_type, M.comments, M.work_done, MATCH( M.comments, M.work_done) AGAINST( '$keywords' ) + MATCH( P.part_num, P.part_desc, P.part_ref) AGAINST( '$keywords' ) + MATCH( T.truck_number, T.make, T.model, T.engine, T.vin_number, T.transmission_number, T.comments) AGAINST( '$vehicle' ) AS score FROM maintenance M, maintenance_parts P, truck T WHERE M.maintenance_id = P.maintenance_id AND M.some_id = T.truck_id AND M.type_code = 'truck' AND ( (MATCH( T.truck_number, T.make, T.model, T.engine, T.vin_number, T.transmission_number, T.comments) AGAINST( '$vehicle' ) OR T.truck_number LIKE '%$vehicle%') OR MATCH( P.part_num, P.part_desc, P.part_ref) AGAINST( '$keywords' ) OR MATCH( M.comments, M.work_done) AGAINST( '$keywords' ) ) AND M.status = 'A' GROUP BY maintenance_id ORDER BY score DESC, maintenance_id DESC LIMIT 0, $limit"

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  • Will these security functions be enough? (PHP)

    - by ggfan
    I am trying to secure my site so I don't have sql injections and xss scripting. Here's my code. //here's the from, for brevity, i just show a field for users to put firstname <form> <label for="first_name" class="styled">First Name:</label> <input type="text" id="first_name" name="first_name" value="<?php if (!empty($first_name)) echo $first_name; ?>" /><br /> //submit button etc </form> if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { //gets rid of extra whitesapce and escapes $first_name = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['first_name'])); //check if $first_name is a string if(!is_string($first_name) { echo "not string"; } //then insert into the database. ....... } mysqli_real_espace_string: I know that this func escapes certain letters like \n \r, so when the data gets inputted into the dbc, it would have '\' next to all the escaped letters? --Will this script be enough to prevent most sql injections? just escaping and checking if the data is a string. For integers values(like users putting in prices), i just: is_numeric(). --How should I use htmlspecialchars? Should I use it only when echoing and displaying user data? Or should I also use this too when inputting data to a dbc? --When should I use strip_tags() or htmlspecialchars? SOO with all these function... if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { //gets rid of extra whitesapce and escapes $first_name = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['first_name'])); //check if $first_name is a string if(!is_string($first_name) { echo "not string"; } //gets rid of any <,>,& htmlspecialchars($first_name); //strips any tags with the first name strip_tags($first_name) //then insert into the database. ....... } Which funcs should I use for sql injections and which ones should I use for xss?

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  • How to Sort a TreeList in Sitecore 6 in the Source

    - by Scott
    My team uses Sitecore 6 as content management system and then .Net to interface with Sitecore API. In many of our templates we make use of a Treelist. When adding a new item to the selected items Treelist it automatically puts the item at the bottom of the list. In some lists they get very large. In most cases end users would like to see these lists sorted descending by a Date field that is part of the templates that can be added as selected to the Treelist. Programmatically on the .Net side its very easy to handle this using Linq OrderByDescending and all displays great in the site to visitors. What I am trying to figure out is how to get it to display the same in Sitecore Content Editor. I've not found anything from Google search other than there seems to be a SortBy you can specify in the source but I tried this and can't get it to have any effect. Has anyone dealt with this before? Again, main goal is to sort items in a Treelist in the Sitecore Content Editor itself. Thanks for any input anyone has.

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  • Passing XML data and user from coldfusion page to .NET page

    - by Mark Rullo
    I'd appreciate some input on this situation, I can't figure out the best way to do this. I have some data that's being prepared for me in a ColdFusion app and in an IFrame within the CF app we want to display some graphs (not strictly an image, it's an entire page) being generated on the .NET side of things. I'd like to pass XML data from the CF side to .NET as well as the user. On the .NET side I'm putting the data in a session so the user can sift through it without the need to have it re-queried and re-passed from CF. What I've tried: Generating XML with CF, putting it in a hidden form field, auto-submitting (with JS) a the form to the .NET side. The issue I'm having with this approach is the encoding being done on the form post. The data has entries like <entry data="hello &amp; goodbye">. It's an issue because it's being URL encdeded, Posted, and when I get it on the .NET side I get <entry data="hello & goodbye"> which isn't properly formed XML. What I'd like to avoid: An intermediary DB approach (dropping the data in a DB on CF, picking it up with .NET) I'd like to only display what is passed to the page. I have security concerns with the data, it's very sensitive. Passing the data to a webservice, returning a GUID, forwarding the user with a URL Parameter to access the passed in data. I think that'd be risky if someone happened on a link to that data. I can't take that risk. I was thinking of passing the data with JSON, but I'm very unfamiliar with it. Thoughts? Thanks for your time folks.

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  • MS Access Form - Horizontal Anchor Affecting Data Update

    - by nicholas
    Running Access 2007 with a databound form. The form Record Source is set to a query, and all fields in the form have a defined Control Source; nothing fancy, just field names. The form is a Single form with record navigation buttons which perform a "Next Record" and "Previous Record" actions. As I navigate the records the controls in the header update correctly. However, if I change a control Horizontal Anchor property to "Right" the fields no longer update on record navigation. This is observed for both text box and combo box controls. I can switch the anchoring back to "Left" and the updating works as it should. Is there some reason anchoring would affect a control updating of in an Access form? Or is this a bug that has been observed before? The only workaround I can think of is to assign the control text/value property in the form OnCurrent event, but this seems somewhat sloppy. Am I missing something here?

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  • Overlaying several CLR reference fields with each other in explicit struct?

    - by thr
    Edit: I'm well aware of that this works very well with value types, my specific question is about using this for reference types. I've been tinkering around with structs in .NET/C#, and I just found out that you can do this: using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Foo { } class Bar { } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Explicit)] struct Overlaid { [FieldOffset(0)] public object AsObject; [FieldOffset(0)] public Foo AsFoo; [FieldOffset(0)] public Bar AsBar; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var overlaid = new Overlaid(); overlaid.AsObject = new Bar(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsBar); overlaid.AsObject = new Foo(); Console.WriteLine(overlaid.AsFoo); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Basically circumventing having to do dynamic casting during runtime by using a struct that has an explicit field layout and then accessing the object inside as it's correct type. Now my question is: Can this lead to memory leaks somehow, or any other undefined behavior inside the CLR? Or is this a fully supported convention that is usable without any issues? I'm aware that this is one of the darker corners of the CLR, and that this technique is only a viable option in very few specific cases.

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  • How to update csv column names with database table header

    - by user1523311
    I am facing this problem some past days and now frustrate because I have to do it. I need to update my CSV file columns name with database table header. My database table fields are different from CSV file. Now the problem is that first I want to update column name of CSV file with database table headers and then import its data with field mapping into database. Please help me I don't know how I can solve this. This is my php code: $file = $_POST['fileName']; $filename = "../files/" . $file; $list = $_POST['str']; $array_imp = implode(',', $list); $array_exp = explode(',', $array_imp); $fp = fopen("../files/" . $file, "w"); $num = count($fp); for ($c = 0; $c < $num; $c++) { if ($fp[c] !== '') { fputcsv($fp, $array_exp); } } fclose($fp);

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  • Risky Business with LINQ to SQL and OR Designer?

    - by Toadmyster
    I have two tables with a one to many relationship in SQL 2008. The first table (BBD) PK | BBDataID | int       | Floor_Qty | tinyint       | Construct_Year | char(4)       | etc, etc describes the data common to all buildings and the second (BBDCerts) PK | BBDCertsID | int       | BBDataID | int       | Certification_Type | varchar(20)       | etc, etc is a collection of certifications for a particular building. Thus, the primary key in BBD (BBDataID) is mapped to the corresponding field in BBDCerts via an FK relationship, but BBDCertsID is the second table's primary key and BBDataID is not because it will not be unique. My problem is that I want to be able to use the OR generated data context to get at the list of certs when I access a particular record in the BBD table. For instance: Dim vals = (From q in db.BBD Where q.BBDataID = x Select q.Floor_Qty, q.Construct_Year, q.BBDCerts).SingleOrDefault and later be able to access a particular certification like this: vals.BBDCerts.Certification_Type.First Now, the automatic associations created when the SQL tables are dropped on the design surface don't generate the EntityRef associations that are needed to access the other table using the dot notation. So, I have to use the OR designer to make the BBDCerts BBDataID a primary key (this doesn't affect the actual database), and then manually change the association properties to the appropriate OneToMany settings. There might be a better way to approach this solution but my question is, is the way I've done it safe? I've done a barrage of tests and the correct cert is referenced or updated every time. Frankly, the whole thing makes me nervous.

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