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  • Limit the number of service calls in a RESTful application

    - by Slavo
    Imagine some kind of a banking application, with a screen to create accounts. Each Account has a Currency and a Bank as a property, Currency being a separate class, as well as Bank. The code might look something like this: public class Account { public Currency Currency { get; set; } public Bank Bank { get; set; } } public class Currency { public string Code { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Bank { public string Name { get; set; } public string Country { get; set; } } According to the REST design principles, each resource in the application should have its own service, and each service should have methods that map nicely to the HTTP verbs. So in our case, we have an AccountService, CurrencyService and BankService. In the screen for creating an account, we have some UI to select the bank from a list of banks, and to select a currency from a list of currencies. Imagine it is a web application, and those lists are dropdowns. This means that one dropdown is populated from the CurrencyService and one from the BankService. What this means is that when we open the screen for creating an account, we need to make two service calls to two different services. If that screen is not by itself on a page, there might be more service calls from the same page, impacting the performance. Is this normal in such an application? If not, how can it be avoided? How can the design be modified without going away from REST?

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  • When using Data Annotations with MVC, Pro and Cons of using an interface vs. a MetadataType

    - by SkippyFire
    If you read this article on Validation with the Data Annotation Validators, it shows that you can use the MetadataType attribute to add validation attributes to properties on partial classes. You use this when working with ORMs like LINQ to SQL, Entity Framework, or Subsonic. Then you can use the "automagic" client and server side validation. It plays very nicely with MVC. However, a colleague of mine used an interface to accomplish exactly the same result. it looks almost exactly the same, and functionally accomplishes the same thing. So instead of doing this: [MetadataType(typeof(MovieMetaData))] public partial class Movie { } public class MovieMetaData { [Required] public object Title { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(5)] public object Director { get; set; } [DisplayName("Date Released")] [Required] public object DateReleased { get; set; } } He did this: public partial class Movie :IMovie { } public interface IMovie { [Required] object Title { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(5)] object Director { get; set; } [DisplayName("Date Released")] [Required] object DateReleased { get; set; } } So my question is, when does this difference actually matter? My thoughts are that interfaces tend to be more "reusable", and that making one for just a single class doesn't make that much sense. You could also argue that you could design your classes and interfaces in a way that allows you to use interfaces on multiple objects, but I feel like that is trying to fit your models into something else, when they should really stand on their own. What do you think?

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  • Automation Error upon running VBA script in Excel

    - by brohjoe
    Hi guys, I'm getting an Automation error upon running VBA code in Excel 2007. I'm attempting to connect to a remote SQL Server DB and load data to from Excel to SQL Server. The error I get is, "Run-time error '-2147217843(80040e4d)': Automation error". I checked out the MSDN site and it suggested that this may be due to a bug associated with the sqloledb provider and one way to mitigate this is to use ODBC. Well I changed the connection string to reflect ODBC provider and associated parameters and I'm still getting the same error. Here is the code with ODBC as the provider: Dim cnt As ADODB.Connection Dim rst As ADODB.Recordset Dim stSQL As String Dim wbBook As Workbook Dim wsSheet As Worksheet Dim rnStart As Range Public Sub loadData() 'This was set up using Microsoft ActiveX Data Components version 6.0. 'Create ADODB connection object, open connection and construct the connection string object. Set cnt = New ADODB.Connection cnt.ConnectionString = _ "Driver={SQL Server}; Server=onlineSQLServer2010.foo.com; Database=fooDB Uid=logonalready;Pwd='helpmeOB1';" cnt.Open On Error GoTo ErrorHandler 'Open Excel and run query to export data to SQL Server. strSQL = "SELECT * INTO SalesOrders FROM OPENDATASOURCE('Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0', & _ "'Data Source=C:\Database.xlsx; Extended Properties=Excel 12.0')...[SalesOrders$]" cnt.Execute (strSQL) 'Error handling. ErrorExit: 'Reclaim memory from the connection objects Set rst = Nothing Set cnt = Nothing Exit Sub ErrorHandler: MsgBox Err.Description, vbCritical Resume ErrorExit 'clean up and reclaim memory resources. cnt.Close If CBool(cnt.State And adStateOpen) Then Set rst = Nothing Set cnt = Nothing End If End Sub

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  • What is the Best way to databind an ASP.NET TreeView for table with many to many parent child relati

    - by Matt W
    I've got a table which has the usual ParentID, ChildID as it's first two columns in a self-referencing tree data structure. My issue is that when I pull this out and use the following code: DataSet set = DA.GetNewCategories(); set.Relations.Add( new DataRelation("parentChildCategories", set.Tables[0].Columns["CategoryParentID"], set.Tables[0].Columns["CategoryID"]) ); StringBuilder buildXml = new StringBuilder(); StringWriter writer = new StringWriter(buildXml); set.WriteXml(writer); TreeView2.DataSource = new HierarchicalDataSet(set, "CategoryID", "CategoryParentID"); TreeView2.DataBind(); I get the error: These columns don't currently have unique values I believe this is because my data has children with multiple parent nodes. This is fine for my application - I don't mind if one row of data is rendered in multiple nodes of my TreeView. Could someone shed light on this please? It doesn't seem unreasonable to have a DataSet render XML which has nodes appearing in multiple places, but I can't figure out how to do it. Thanks, Matt.

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  • Using JUnit with App Engine and Eclipse

    - by Mark M
    I am having trouble setting up JUnit with App Engine in Eclipse. I have JUnit set up correctly, that is, I can run tests that don't involve the datastore or other services. However, when I try to use the datastore in my tests they fail. The code I am trying right now is from the App Engine site (see below): http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/tools/localunittesting.html#Running_Tests So far I have added the external JAR (using Eclipse) appengine-testing.jar. But when I run the tests I get the exception below. So, I am clearly not understanding the instructions to enable the services from the web page mentioned above. Can someone clear up the steps needed to make the App Engine services available in Eclipse? java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: com/google/appengine/api/datastore/dev/LocalDatastoreService at com.google.appengine.tools.development.testing.LocalDatastoreServiceTestConfig.tearDown(LocalDatastoreServiceTestConfig.java:138) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.testing.LocalServiceTestHelper.tearDown(LocalServiceTestHelper.java:254) at com.cooperconrad.server.MemberTest.tearDown(MemberTest.java:28) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.junit.runners.model.FrameworkMethod$1.runReflectiveCall(FrameworkMethod.java:44) at org.junit.internal.runners.model.ReflectiveCallable.run(ReflectiveCallable.java:15) at org.junit.runners.model.FrameworkMethod.invokeExplosively(FrameworkMethod.java:41) at org.junit.internal.runners.statements.RunAfters.evaluate(RunAfters.java:37) at org.junit.runners.BlockJUnit4ClassRunner.runChild(BlockJUnit4ClassRunner.java:73) at org.junit.runners.BlockJUnit4ClassRunner.runChild(BlockJUnit4ClassRunner.java:46) at org.junit.runners.ParentRunner.runChildren(ParentRunner.java:180) at org.junit.runners.ParentRunner.access$000(ParentRunner.java:41) at org.junit.runners.ParentRunner$1.evaluate(ParentRunner.java:173) at org.junit.internal.runners.statements.RunBefores.evaluate(RunBefores.java:28) at org.junit.internal.runners.statements.RunAfters.evaluate(RunAfters.java:31) at org.junit.runners.ParentRunner.run(ParentRunner.java:220) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit4.runner.JUnit4TestReference.run(JUnit4TestReference.java:46) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.TestExecution.run(TestExecution.java:38) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:467) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:683) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.run(RemoteTestRunner.java:390) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.main(RemoteTestRunner.java:197) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.google.appengine.api.datastore.dev.LocalDatastoreService at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:202) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248) ... 25 more Here is the actual code (pretty much copied from the site): package com.example; import static org.junit.Assert.*; import org.junit.After; import org.junit.Before; import org.junit.Test; import com.google.appengine.api.datastore.DatastoreService; import com.google.appengine.api.datastore.DatastoreServiceFactory; import com.google.appengine.api.datastore.Entity; import com.google.appengine.api.datastore.Query; import com.google.appengine.tools.development.testing.LocalDatastoreServiceTestConfig; import com.google.appengine.tools.development.testing.LocalServiceTestHelper; public class MemberTest { private final LocalServiceTestHelper helper = new LocalServiceTestHelper(new LocalDatastoreServiceTestConfig()); @Before public void setUp() { helper.setUp(); } @After public void tearDown() { helper.tearDown(); } // run this test twice to prove we're not leaking any state across tests private void doTest() { DatastoreService ds = DatastoreServiceFactory.getDatastoreService(); assertEquals(0, ds.prepare(new Query("yam")).countEntities()); ds.put(new Entity("yam")); ds.put(new Entity("yam")); assertEquals(2, ds.prepare(new Query("yam")).countEntities()); } @Test public void testInsert1() { doTest(); } @Test public void testInsert2() { doTest(); } @Test public void foo() { assertEquals(4, 2 + 2); } }

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  • Keys and terminology

    - by nabbed
    I have a predicament related to terminology. Our system processes events. Events are dispatched to a node based on the value of some field (or set of fields). We call this set of fields the key. We call the value of that set of fields the key value. What adds confusion is that each event is essentially a bag of key-value pairs (i.e., a hash map). So the word key is used for two different purposes: 1) to describe the set of fields on which the event is dispatched, and 2) as a field name. So if you had a collection of key-value pairs, and a set of those key-value pairs made up a database-style key, what terminology would you use to distinguish those two? (One further complication is that the key on which the event is dispatched is not always unique. For instance, if we dispatch on userid, and that user performs multiple actions, we will process multiple events with the same userid value. So maybe key is the wrong word to describe the set of fields on which we dispatch an event).

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  • Collection is empty when it arrives on the client

    - by digiduck
    One of my entities has an EntitySet< property with [Composition], [Include] and [Association] attributes. I populate this collection in my domain service but when I check its contents when it is received on the client, the collection is empty. I am using Silverlight 4 RTM as well as RIA Services 1.0 RTM. Any ideas what I am doing wrong? Here is the code on my service side: public class RegionDto { public RegionDto() { Cities = new EntitySet<CityDto>(); } [Key] public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } [Include] [Composition] [Association("RegionDto_CityDto", "Id", "RegionId")] public EntitySet<CityDto> Cities { get; set; } } public class CityDto { [Key] public int Id { get; set; } public int RegionId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } [EnableClientAccess()] public class RegionDomainService : LinqToEntitiesDomainService<RegionEntities> { public IEnumerable<RegionDto> GetRegions() { var regions = (ObjectContext.Regions .Select(x => new RegionDto { Id = x.ID, Name = x.Name })).ToList(); foreach (var region in regions) { var cities = (ObjectContext.Cities .Where(x => x.RegionID == region.Id) .Select(x => new CityDto { Id = x.ID, Name = x.Name })).ToList(); foreach (var city in cities) { region.Cities.Add(city); } } // each region's Cities collection is populated at this point // however when the client receives it, the Cities collections are all empty return regions; } }

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  • Fluent NHibernate Automap does not take into account IList<T> collections as indexed

    - by Francisco Lozano
    I am using automap to map a domain model (simplified version): public class AppUser : Entity { [Required] public virtual string NickName { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.Password)] public virtual string PassKey { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.EmailAddress)] public virtual string EmailAddress { get; set; } public virtual IList<PreferencesDescription> PreferencesDescriptions { get; set; } } public class PreferencesDescription : Entity { public virtual AppUser AppUser { get; set; } public virtual string Content{ get; set; } } The PreferencesDescriptions collection is mapped as an IList, so is an indexed collection (when I require standard unindexed collections I use ICollection). The fact is that fluent nhibernate's automap facilities map my domain model as an unindexed collection (so there's no "position" property in the DDL generated by SchemaExport). ¿How can I make it without having to override this very case - I mean, how can I make Fluent nhibernate's automap make always indexed collections for IList but not for ICollection

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  • Lotus Notes - Export emails to plain text file

    - by mbeckish
    I am setting up a Lotus Notes account to accept emails from a client, and automatically save each email as a plain text file to be processed by another application. So, I'm trying to create my very first Agent in Lotus to automatically export the emails to text. Is there a standard, best practices way to do this? I've created a LotusScript Agent that pretty much works. However, there is a bug - once the Body of the memo exceeds 32K characters, it starts inserting extra CR/LF pairs. I am using Lotus Notes 7.0.3. Here is my script: Sub Initialize On Error Goto ErrorCleanup Dim session As New NotesSession Dim db As NotesDatabase Dim doc As NotesDocument Dim uniqueID As Variant Dim curView As NotesView Dim docCount As Integer Dim notesInputFolder As String Dim notesValidOutputFolder As String Dim notesErrorOutputFolder As String Dim outputFolder As String Dim fileNum As Integer Dim bodyRichText As NotesRichTextItem Dim bodyUnformattedText As String Dim subjectText As NotesItem ''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' 'INPUT OUTPUT LOCATIONS outputFolder = "\\PASCRIA\CignaDFS\CUser1\Home\mikebec\MyDocuments\" notesInputFolder = "IBEmails" notesValidOutputFolder = "IBEmailsDone" notesErrorOutputFolder="IBEmailsError" ''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''''' Set db = session.CurrentDatabase Set curview = db.GetView(notesInputFolder ) docCount = curview.EntryCount Print "NUMBER OF DOCS " & docCount fileNum = 1 While (docCount > 0) 'set current doc to Set doc = curview.GetNthDocument(docCount) Set bodyRichText = doc.GetFirstItem( "Body" ) bodyUnformattedText = bodyRichText.GetUnformattedText() Set subjectText = doc.GetFirstItem("Subject") If subjectText.Text = "LotusAgentTest" Then uniqueID = Evaluate("@Unique") Open "\\PASCRIA\CignaDFS\CUser1\Home\mikebec\MyDocuments\email_" & uniqueID(0) & ".txt" For Output As fileNum Print #fileNum, "Subject:" & subjectText.Text Print #fileNum, "Date:" & Now Print #fileNum, bodyUnformattedText Close fileNum fileNum = fileNum + 1 Call doc.PutInFolder(notesValidOutputFolder) Call doc.RemoveFromFolder(notesInputFolder) End If doccount = doccount-1 Wend Exit Sub ErrorCleanup: Call sendErrorEmail(db,doc.GetItemValue("From")(0)) Call doc.PutInFolder(notesErrorOutputFolder) Call doc.RemoveFromFolder(notesInputFolder) End Sub Update Apparently the 32KB issue isn't consistent - so far, it's just one document that starts getting extra carriage returns after 32K.

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  • Mimicking a HBox / VBox with CSS

    - by Daniel Hai
    I'm an old school tables guy, and am pretty baffled when it comes to modern HTML. I'm trying to something as simple as vertical / horizontal layouts (i.e. Flex's hbox/vbox), but am having major difficulty replicating them. An old table would look something like this for an HBox: <table width="100%" height="100"> <tr valign="middle"> <td nowrap style="background-color:#CCC">I am text on grey</td> <td width="50%" valign="top">displays top</td> <td width="50%" align="right">Autosize Fill (displays bottom right)</td> </tr> </table> Now I'm trying to do this with div's, but to no avail. When using display:inline, I cannot set a percentage width -- it only takes explicit widths. When using float:left, settings 100% percentage width causes it to really be 100% and pushes the next div down. Here's the code I've been playing with: <html> <head> </head> <style type="text/css"> div.test { background-color: #EE9; padding:5px;} body { font-family: Arial; } ul { list-style-type:none; } ul li { float:left; } .hboxinline div { display: inline; } .hboxfloat div { float:left; } .cellA { background-color:#CCC; width:100%; } .cellB { background-color:#DDD; min-width:100; } .cellC { background-color:#EEE; min-width:200; } </style> <body> A = 100%, b = 100, c = 200 <div class="test">old school table <table cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td class="cellA">A</td> <td class="cellB">B</td> <td class="cellC">C</td> </tr> </table></div> <br/> <div class="test"> float:left <div class="hboxinline"> <div class="cellA">A</div> <div class="cellB">B</div> <div class="cellC">C</div> </div> </div> <br/> <div class="test">ul / li <ul class="ulli"> <li class="cellA">A</li> <li class="cellB">B</li> <li class="cellC">C</li> </ul> </div> <br/> <div class="test"> display:inline <div class="hboxfloat"> <div class="cellA">A</div> <div class="cellB">B</div> <div class="cellC">C</div> </div> </div> </body> </html>

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  • In which order is model binding and validation done in ASP.NET MVC 2?

    - by Simon Bartlett
    I am using ASP.NET MVC 2, and am using a view-model per view approach. I am also using Automapper to map properties from my domain-model to the view-model. Take this example view-model (with Required data annotation attributes for validation purposes): public class BlogPost_ViewModel { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Title { get; set; } [Required] public string Text { get; set; } } In the post editor view I am using a rich text editor (CKeditor). Because CKeditor is a HTML editor, I ideally need CKeditor to HTMLencode the user's input when the form is submitted, so that ASP.NET's input validation does not complain. This is not a problem as CKeditor has this functionality built in, however I need CKeditor's output decoded before mapping back to the domain object (via Automapper). I am wanting to add a new property (to the view-model above) to solve this, as follows: public string HTMLEncodedText { get { return HTMLEncode(Text); } set { Text = HTMLDecode(value); } } I can then bind this property to CKeditor in the view, but still use Automapper to map the 'Text' property in the controller - all without having to turn input-validation off. My question is: do you know how the model binding and validation process in ASP.NET MVC 2 works? Are all model properties binded before validation is carried out? Or is each individual property get validated when it is being set. I think ideally for my idea to work, all properties need to be set before the model is validated.

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  • "interface not found" in WCF Moniker without registration for excel

    - by tbischel
    I'm trying to connect excel to a WCF service, but I can't seem to get even a trivial case to work... I get an Invalid Syntax error when I try and create the proxy in excel. I've attached the visual studio debugger to excel, and get that the real error is "interface not found". I know the service works because the test client created by visual studio is ok... so the problem is in the VBA moniker string. I'm hoping to find one of two things: 1) a correction to my moniker string that will make this work, or 2) an existing sample project to download that has the source for both the host and client that does work. Here is the code for my VBA client: Dim addr As String addr = "service:mexAddress=net.tcp://localhost:7891/Test/WcfService1/Service1/mex, " addr = addr + "address=net.tcp://localhost:7891/Test/WcfService1/Service1/, " addr = addr + "contract=IService1, contractNamespace=http://tempuri.org, " addr = addr + "binding=NetTcpBinding_IService1, bindingNamespace=""http://tempuri.org""" MsgBox (addr) Dim service1 As Object Set service1 = GetObject(addr) MsgBox service1.Test(12) I have the following service: [ServiceContract] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] string GetData(int value); } public class Service1 : IService1 { public string GetData(int value) { return string.Format("You entered: {0}", value); } } It has the following config file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" /> </system.web> <!-- When deploying the service library project, the content of the config file must be added to the host's app.config file. System.Configuration does not support config files for libraries. --> <system.serviceModel> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="WcfService1.Service1Behavior" name="WcfService1.Service1"> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="" contract="WcfService1.IService1"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:7891/Test/WcfService1/Service1/" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="WcfService1.Service1Behavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="false" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> </configuration>

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  • What is the best practice for using lock within inherited classes

    - by JDMX
    I want to know if one class is inheriting from another, is it better to have the classes share a lock object that is defined at the base class or to have a lock object defined at each inheritance level. A very simple example of a lock object on each level of the class public class Foo { private object thisLock = new object(); private int ivalue; public int Value { get { lock( thisLock ) { return ivalue; } } set { lock( thisLock ) { ivalue= value; } } } } public class Foo2: Foo { private object thisLock2 = new object(); public int DoubleValue { get { lock( thisLock2 ) { return base.Value * 2; } } set { lock( thisLock2 ) { base.Value = value / 2; } } } } public class Foo6: Foo2 { private object thisLock6 = new object(); public int TripleDoubleValue { get { lock( thisLock6 ) { return base.DoubleValue * 3; } } set { lock( thisLock6 ) { base.DoubleValue = value / 3; } } } } A very simple example of a shared lock object public class Foo { protected object thisLock = new object(); private int ivalue; public int Value { get { lock( thisLock ) { return ivalue; } } set { lock( thisLock ) { ivalue= value; } } } } public class Foo2: Foo { public int DoubleValue { get { lock( thisLock ) { return base.Value * 2; } } set { lock( thisLock ) { base.Value = value / 2; } } } } public class Foo6: Foo2 { public int TripleDoubleValue { get { lock( thisLock ) { return base.DoubleValue * 3; } } set { lock( thisLock ) { base.DoubleValue = value / 3; } } } } Which example is the preferred way to manage locking within an inherited class?

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  • Create variable names using a loop in Java?

    - by SeerUK
    Hi, first time poster, long time reader so be gentle with me :) See the following code which works to generate me timestamps for the beginning and end of every month in a financial year. int year = 2010; // Financial year runs from Sept-Aug so earlyMonths are those where year = FY-1 and lateMonths are those where year = FY int[] earlyMonths = {8, 9, 10, 11}; // Sept to Dec int earlyYear = year -1; for (int i : earlyMonths) { month = i; Calendar cal = Calendar.getInstance(); cal.clear(); cal.set(earlyYear,month,1,0,0,0); Long start = cal.getTimeInMillis(); cal.clear(); cal.set(earlyYear,month,1); lastDayofMonth = cal.getActualMaximum(GregorianCalendar.DAY_OF_MONTH); cal.set(earlyYear,month,lastDayofMonth,23,59,59); Long end = cal.getTimeInMillis(); } int[] lateMonths = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}; // Jan to Aug for (int i : lateMonths) { month = i; Calendar cal = Calendar.getInstance(); cal.clear(); cal.set(year,month,1,0,0,0); Long start = cal.getTimeInMillis(); cal.clear(); cal.set(year,month,1); lastDayofMonth = cal.getActualMaximum(GregorianCalendar.DAY_OF_MONTH); cal.set(year,month,lastDayofMonth,23,59,59); Long end = cal.getTimeInMillis(); } So far so good, but in order to use these results I need these timestamps to be output to variables named by month (to be used in a prepared statement later in the code. e.g. SeptStart = sometimestamp, SeptEnd = some timestamp etc etc. I don't know if it is possible to declare new variables based on the results of each loop. Any ideas?

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  • FlashBuilder 4 and Zend Framework error

    - by sig
    I am trying to use adobe flash builder 4 with a php service. I had it set up an older macbook running leopard, but just tried to set it up on my new laptop running snow leopard. I did all the same steps.. set the Flex Server to be PHP, set the web root and url. Then I go to Data-Connect To PHP and point it to a php file I have in my web root. It says it needs to install Zend, and claims it does so successfully, but then when I try to continue, I get an error. I don't understand.. this same setup works on my older laptop. (Yes, I checked the amf.production was false) Unable to retrieve operations and entities from the file Make sure that Zend Framework is installed correctly and the parameter "amf.production" is not set to true in the amf_config.ini file located in the project output folder. false), true);$default_config-merge(new Zend_Config_Ini($configfile, 'zendamf'));$default_config-setReadOnly();$amf = $default_config-amf;// Store configuration in the registryZend_Registry::set("amf-config", $amf);// Initialize AMF Server$server = new Zend_Amf_Server();$server-setProduction($amf-production);if(isset($amf-directories)) { $dirs = $amf-directories-toArray(); foreach($dirs as $dir) { // get the first character of the path. // If it does not start with slash then it implies that the path is relative to webroot. Else it will be treated as absolute path $length = strlen($dir); $firstChar = $dir; if($length = 1) $firstChar = $dir[0]; if($firstChar != "/"){ // if the directory is ./ path then we add the webroot only. if($dir == "./"){ $server-addDirectory($webroot); }else{ $tempPath = $webroot . "/" . $dir; $server-addDirectory($tempPath); } }else{ $server-addDirectory($dir); } }}// Initialize introspector for non-productionif(!$amf-production) { $server-setClass('Zend_Amf_Adobe_Introspector', '', array("config" = $default_config, "server" = $server)); $server-setClass('Zend_Amf_Adobe_DbInspector', '', array("config" = $default_config, "server" = $server));}// Handle requestecho $server-handle();

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  • Why isn't my new object being seen? C#

    - by Dan
    I am getting ready to take a class at a college on C#. I have been reading up on it a lot and decided to start a fun project. Here is what my project consists of: Main Control Form Configuration Form Arduino Program.cs calls Configuration.cs at start. This is where pin modes for the Arduino are set and where a timer is set. When I set these values, they get sent to MainControl.cs. When I hit the "Save" button in Configuration.cs, a MainControl.cs object is created [[I am correct in that?]] All of those values that were sent by Configuration.cs had corresponding setters that set private static variables in MainControl.cs [[ I don't really know if that is the preferred way, I am most definetly open to any suggestion anyone has]] MainControl.cs uses its default constructor, and this constructor calls a method that creates an arduino object from one of the private variables (serialPort) [[ Using this Arduino class Firmata.NET ]] When the arduino object is created, I know (I guess I do) because the form takes a few seconds to come up (As opposed to not using serial port) My problem is this: I do not understand why nothing can see the object I have been very wordy, I apologize if I wasn't concise. Here is the code: public partial class CMainControl : Form { private static string serialPort; public CMainControl() { InitializeComponent(); createArduino(); updateConfig(); // Change label values to values set in configuration } private void createArduino() { Arduino arduino = new Arduino(serialPort); } In Configuration.cs, when I set the serial port through a combobox, the value is sent to MainControl.cs just fine. Here is the error I get: Error 1 The name 'arduino' does not exist in the current context C:\Programming\Visual Studio\Workhead Demo\Workhead Demo\CMainControl.cs 94 13 Workhead Demo Please let me know if anyone can help and/or offer pointers, and please let me know if I didn't post or format anything correctly. Thank you very much :)

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  • Custom WPF TreeView

    - by Robert
    I have a custom class that I would like to bind a WPF TreeView that has three tiers. Each tier needs to be bound like this: Monitor --> LCD --> Samsung 1445 LCD --> CRT --> Sony 125 CRT Here is the example code: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); SystemInventory sysInventory = new SystemInventory(); //Possibly do something like this. _myTreeView.DataContext = sysInventory.DeviceGroupInstances; } public class SystemInventory { public ObservableCollection<DeviceGroup> DeviceGroupInstances { get; set; } public SystemInventory() { DeviceGroupInstances = new ObservableCollection<DeviceGroup>(); DeviceGroupInstances.Add(new DeviceGroup("Monitor")); } } public class DeviceGroup { public string DeviceGroupName { get; set; } public ObservableCollection<DeviceType> DeviceTypeInstances { get; set; } public DeviceGroup(string deviceGroupName) { DeviceTypeInstances = new ObservableCollection<DeviceType>(); DeviceGroupName = deviceGroupName; if (deviceGroupName == "Monitor") { DeviceTypeInstances.Add(new DeviceType("LCD")); DeviceTypeInstances.Add(new DeviceType("CRT")); } } } public class DeviceType { public string DeviceTypeName { get; set; } public ObservableCollection<DeviceInstance> DeviceInstances { get; set; } public DeviceType(string deviceGroupName) { DeviceInstances = new ObservableCollection<DeviceInstance>(); DeviceTypeName = deviceGroupName; if (deviceGroupName == "Monitor") { DeviceInstances.Add(new DeviceInstance("Samsung 1445 LCD")); } else { DeviceInstances.Add(new DeviceInstance("Sony 125 CRT")); } } } public class DeviceInstance { public string DeviceInstanceName { get; set; } public DeviceInstance(string instanceName) { DeviceInstanceName = instanceName; } } }

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  • python scritp problem once build and package it

    - by Apache
    hi expert, i've written python script to scan wifi and send data to the server, i set interval value, so it keep on scanning and send the data, it read from config.txt file where i set the interval value to scan, i also add yes/no in my config file, so is 'no' it will scan only once and if 'yes' it will scan according to the interval level, my code as below import time,..... from threading import Event, Thread class RepeatTimer(Thread): def __init__(self, interval, function, iterations=0, args=[], kwargs={}): Thread.__init__(self) self.interval = interval self.function = function self.iterations = iterations self.args = args self.kwargs = kwargs self.finished = Event() def run(self): count = 0 while not self.finished.is_set() and (self.iterations <= 0 or count < self.iterations): self.finished.wait(self.interval) if not self.finished.is_set(): self.function(*self.args, **self.kwargs) count += 1 def cancel(self): self.finished.set() def scanWifi(self): #scanning process and sending data done here obj = JW() if status == "yes": t = RepeatTimer(int(intervalTime),obj.scanWifi) t.start() else: obj.scanWifi() once i package my code, its only run when i set my config file set to 'no' where it scan only once, but when i set my config file to 'yes', there is no progress at all, so i found that there is problem with my class RepeatTimer(Timer) once build, but don't know how to solve can anyone help me thanks

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  • Entity Framework self referencing entity deletion.

    - by Viktor
    Hello. I have a structure of folders like this: Folder1 Folder1.1 Folder1.2 Folder2 Folder2.1 Folder2.1.1 and so on.. The question is how to cascade delete them(i.e. when remove folder2 all children are also deleted). I can't set an ON DELETE action because MSSQL does not allow it. Can you give some suggesions? UPDATE: I wrote this stored proc, can I just leave it or it needs some modifications? SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO CREATE PROCEDURE sp_DeleteFoldersRecursive @parent_folder_id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; IF @parent_folder_id = 0 RETURN; CREATE TABLE #temp(fid INT ); DECLARE @Count INT; INSERT INTO #temp(fid) SELECT FolderId FROM Folders WHERE FolderId = @parent_folder_id; SET @Count = @@ROWCOUNT; WHILE @Count > 0 BEGIN INSERT INTO #temp(fid) SELECT FolderId FROM Folders WHERE EXISTS (SELECT FolderId FROM #temp WHERE Folders.ParentId = #temp.fid) AND NOT EXISTS (SELECT FolderId FROM #temp WHERE Folders.FolderId = #temp.fid); SET @Count = @@ROWCOUNT; END DELETE Folders FROM Folders INNER JOIN #temp ON Folders.FolderId = #temp.fid; DROP TABLE #temp; END GO

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  • Using .NET XmlSerializer with get properties and setter functions

    - by brone
    I'm trying to use XmlSerializer from C# to save out a class that has some values that are read by properties (the code being just a simple retrieval of field value) but set by setter functions (since there is a delegate called if the value changes). What I'm currently doing is this sort of thing. The intended use is to use the InT property to read the value, and use SetInT to set it. Setting it has side-effects, so a method is more appropriate than a property here. XmlSerializationOnly_InT exists solely for the benefit of the XmlSerializer (hence the name), and shouldn't be used by normal code. class X { public double InT { get { return _inT; } } public void SetInT(double newInT) { if (newInT != _inT) { _inT = newInT; Changed();//includes delegate call; potentially expensive } } private double _inT; // not called by normal code, as the property set is not just a simple // field set or two. [XmlElement(ElementName = "InT")] public double XmlSerializationOnly_InT { get { return InT; } set { SetInT(value); } } } This works, it's easy enough to do, and the XML file looks like you'd expect. It's manual labour though, and a bit ugly, so I'm only somewhat satisfied. What I'd really like is to be able to tell the XML serialization to read the value using the property, and set it using the setter function. Then I wouldn't need XmlSerializationOnly_InT at all. I seem to be following standard practise by distinguishing between property sets and setter functions in this way, so I'm sure I'm not the only person to have encountered this (though google suggests I might be). What have others done in this situation? Is there some easy way to persuade the XmlSerializer to handle this sort of thing better? If not, is there perhaps some other easy way to do it?

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  • Automation Error when exporting Excel data to SQL Server

    - by brohjoe
    I'm getting an Automation error upon running VBA code in Excel 2007. I'm attempting to connect to a remote SQL Server DB and load data to from Excel to SQL Server. The error I get is, "Run-time error '-2147217843(80040e4d)': Automation error". I checked out the MSDN site and it suggested that this may be due to a bug associated with the sqloledb provider and one way to mitigate this is to use ODBC. Well I changed the connection string to reflect ODBC provider and associated parameters and I'm still getting the same error. Here is the code with ODBC as the provider: Dim cnt As ADODB.Connection Dim rst As ADODB.Recordset Dim stSQL As String Dim wbBook As Workbook Dim wsSheet As Worksheet Dim rnStart As Range Public Sub loadData() 'This was set up using Microsoft ActiveX Data Components version 6.0. 'Create ADODB connection object, open connection and construct the connection string object. Set cnt = New ADODB.Connection cnt.ConnectionString = "Driver={SQL Server}; Server=onlineSQLServer2010.foo.com; Database=fooDB;Uid=logonalready;Pwd='helpmeOB1';" cnt.Open On Error GoTo ErrorHandler 'Open Excel and run query to export data to SQL Server. strSQL = "SELECT * INTO SalesOrders FROM OPENDATASOURCE('Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0'," & _ "'Data Source=C:\Database.xlsx; Extended Properties=Excel 12.0')...[SalesOrders$]" cnt.Execute (strSQL) 'Error handling. ErrorExit: 'Reclaim memory from the connection objects Set rst = Nothing Set cnt = Nothing Exit Sub ErrorHandler: MsgBox Err.Description, vbCritical Resume ErrorExit 'clean up and reclaim memory resources. If CBool(cnt.State And adStateOpen) Then Set rst = Nothing Set cnt = Nothing cnt.Close End If End Sub

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  • SQL Server SELECT stored procedure according to combobox.selectedvalue

    - by Jay
    In order to fill a datagridview according to the selectedvalue of a combobox I've tried creating a stored procedure. However, as I'm not 100% sure what I'm doing, depending on the WHERE statement at the end of my stored procedure, it either returns everything within the table or nothing at all. This is what's in my class: Public Function GetAankoopDetails(ByRef DisplayMember As String, ByRef ValueMember As String) As DataTable DisplayMember = "AankoopDetailsID" ValueMember = "AankoopDetailsID" If DS.Tables.Count > 0 Then DS.Tables.Remove(DT) End If DT = DAC.ExecuteDataTable(My.Resources.S_AankoopDetails, _Result, _ DAC.Parameter(Const_AankoopID, AankoopID), _ DAC.Parameter("@ReturnValue", 0)) DS.Tables.Add(DT) Return DT End Function Public Function GetAankoopDetails() As DataTable If DS.Tables.Count > 0 Then DS.Tables.Remove(DT) End If DT = DAC.ExecuteDataTable(My.Resources.S_AankoopDetails, _Result, _ DAC.Parameter(Const_AankoopID, AankoopID), _ DAC.Parameter("@ReturnValue", 0)) DS.Tables.Add(DT) Return DT End Function This is the function in the code behind the form I've written in order to fill the datagridview: Private Sub GridAankoopDetails_Fill() Try Me.Cursor = Cursors.WaitCursor dgvAankoopDetails.DataSource = Nothing _clsAankoopDetails.AankoopDetailsID = cboKeuze.SelectedValue dgvAankoopDetails.DataSource = _clsAankoopDetails.GetAankoopDetails Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("An error occurred while trying to fill the data grid: " & ex.Message, "Oops!", MessageBoxButtons.OK) Finally Me.Cursor = Cursors.Default End Try End Sub And finally, this is my stored procedure: (do note that I'm not sure what I'm doing here) USE [Budget] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[S_AankoopDetails] Script Date: 04/12/2010 03:10:52 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[S_AankoopDetails] ( @AankoopID int, @ReturnValue int output ) AS declare @Value int set @Value =@@rowcount if @Value = 0 begin SELECT dbo.tblAankoopDetails.AankoopDetailsID, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.AankoopID, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.ArtikelID, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.Aantal, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.Prijs, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.Korting, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.SoortKorting, dbo.tblAankoopDetails.UitgavenDeelGroepID FROM dbo.tblAankoopDetails INNER JOIN dbo.tblAankoop ON dbo.tblAankoopDetails.AankoopID = dbo.tblAankoop.AankoopID INNER JOIN dbo.tblArtikel ON dbo.tblAankoopDetails.ArtikelID = dbo.tblArtikel.ArtikelID INNER JOIN dbo.tblUitgavenDeelGroep ON dbo.tblAankoopDetails.UitgavenDeelGroepID = dbo.tblUitgavenDeelGroep.UitgavenDeelGroepID WHERE dbo.tblAankoopDetails.Deleted = 0 and dbo.tblAankoopDetails.AankoopID = @AankoopID ORDER BY AankoopID if @@rowcount >0 begin set @ReturnValue=999 end else begin set @ReturnValue=997 end end if @Value >0 begin --Dit wil zeggen dat ik een gebruiker wil ingeven die reeds bestaat. (998) set @ReturnValue=998 end Does anyone know what I need to do to resolve this?

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  • Ajax model binding of a complex type

    - by David G
    I am trying to do something along the lines of the following where I have a Controller with an method similar to: public ActionResult Insert(Author author) { //do something... } Where the Author type looks like: public class Author { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public Book[] Books { get; set; } public Author() { Books = new Book[0]; } } public class Book { public string Title { get; set; } public int NumberOfPages { get; set; } } From a page I want to submit data using JQuery and Ajax something like function addAuthor() { var auth = { 'FirstName': 'Roald', 'LastName': 'Dahl', 'Books': [ { 'Title': 'Charlie and the Chocolate Factory', 'NumberOfPages': 264 }, { 'Title': 'The Twits', 'NumberOfPages': 316 } ] }; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "/Insert", data: auth }); } MVC binds the Author object (FirstName and LastName are set) but doesn't bind the Books property. Why is that and how can I submit an object containing an Array (or a Collection) as a property through AJAX?

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  • Match entities fulfilling filter (strict superset of search)

    - by Jon
    I have an entity (let's say Person) with a set of arbitrary attributes with a known subset of values. I need to search for all of these entities that match all my filter conditions. That is, given a set of Attributes A, I need to find all people that have a set of Attributes that are a superset of A. For example, my table structures look like this: Person: id | name 1 | John Doe 2 | Jane Roe 3 | John Smith Attribute: id | attr_name 1 | Sex 2 | Eye Color ValidValue: id | attr_id | value_name 1 | 1 | Male 2 | 1 | Female 3 | 2 | Blue 4 | 2 | Green 5 | 2 | Brown PersonAttributes id | person_id | attr_id | value_id 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 2 | 1 | 2 | 3 3 | 2 | 1 | 2 4 | 2 | 2 | 4 5 | 3 | 1 | 1 6 | 3 | 2 | 4 In JPA, I have entities built for all of these tables. What I'd like to do is perform a search for all entities matching a given set of attribute-value pairs. For instance, I'd like to be able to find all males (John Doe and John Smith), all people with green eyes (Jane Roe or John Smith), or all females with green eyes (Jane Roe). I see that I can already take advantage of the fact that I only really need to match on value_id, since that's already unique and tied to the attr_id. But where can I go from there? I've been trying to do something like the following, given that the ValidValue is unique in all cases: select distinct p from Person p join p.personAttributes a where a.value IN (:values) Then I've tried putting my set of required values in as "values", but that gives me errors no matter how I try to structure that. I also have to get a little more complicated, as follows, but at this point I'd be happy with solving the first problem cleanly. However, if it's possible, the Attribute table actually has a field for default value: id | attr_name | default_value 1 | Sex | 1 2 | Eye Color | 5 If the value you're searching on happens to be the default value, I want it to return any people that have no explicit value set for that attribute, because in the application logic, that means they inherit the default value. Again, I'm more concerned about the primary question, but if someone who can help with that also has some idea of how to do this one, I'd be extremely grateful.

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  • Files not waiting for each other

    - by Sunny
    I have two batch files as follows in which file2.bat is dependent on file1.bat's output: file1.bat @ECHO OFF setlocal enabledelayedexpansion SET "keystring1=" ( FOR /f "delims=" %%a IN ( Source.txt ) DO ( ECHO %%a|FIND "Appprocess.exe" >NUL IF NOT ERRORLEVEL 1 SET keystring1=%%a FOR %%b IN (App1 App2 App3 App4 App5 App6 ) DO ( ECHO %%a|FIND "%%b" >NUL IF NOT ERRORLEVEL 1 IF DEFINED keystring1 CALL ECHO(%%keystring1%% %%b&SET "keystring1=" )))>result.txt GOTO :EOF file2.bat @echo off setlocal enabledelayedexpansion (for /f "tokens=1,2" %%a in (memory.txt) do ( for /f "tokens=5" %%c in ('find " %%a " ^< result.txt ') do echo %%c %%b ))> new.txt file1.bat usually takes 60 sec to complete its execution. In master.bat file i am calling above two files as: call file1.bat call file2.bat but file2.bat is not waiting for file1.bat to complete its execution. Even , i tried to call file2.bat within file1.bat as below but still its not waiting for file1.bat to get completed: @ECHO OFF setlocal enabledelayedexpansion SET "keystring1=" ( FOR /f "delims=" %%a IN ( Source.txt ) DO ( ECHO %%a|FIND "HsvDataSource.exe" >NUL IF NOT ERRORLEVEL 1 SET keystring1=%%a FOR %%b IN (EUHFMPROD USHFMPROD TL2TEST GSHFMPROD TL2PROD GSARCH1213 TL2FY13) DO ( ECHO %%a|FIND "%%b" >NUL IF NOT ERRORLEVEL 1 IF DEFINED keystring1 CALL ECHO(%%keystring1%% %%b&SET "keystring1=" )))>file2.txt GOTO :EOF call file1.bat I also tried below start option, but no effect.: start file1.bat /wait call file2.bat Not getting ..why its happening..?

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