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  • How do I get SSIS Data Flow to put '0.00' in a flat file?

    - by theog
    I have an SSIS package with a Data Flow that takes an ADO.NET data source (just a small table), executes a select * query, and outputs the query results to a flat file (I've also tried just pulling the whole table and not using a SQL select). The problem is that the data source pulls a column that is a Money datatype, and if the value is not zero, it comes into the text flat file just fine (like '123.45'), but when the value is zero, it shows up in the destination flat file as '.00'. I need to know how to get the leading zero back into the flat file. I've tried various datatypes for the output (in the Flat File Connection Manager), including currency and string, but this seems to have no effect. I've tried a case statement in my select, like this: CASE WHEN columnValue = 0 THEN '0.00' ELSE columnValue END (still results in '.00') I've tried variations on that like this: CASE WHEN columnValue = 0 THEN convert(decimal(12,2), '0.00') ELSE convert(decimal(12,2), columnValue) END (Still results in '.00') and: CASE WHEN columnValue = 0 THEN convert(money, '0.00') ELSE convert(money, columnValue) END (results in '.0000000000000000000') This silly little issue is killin' me. Can anybody tell me how to get a zero Money datatype database value into a flat file as '0.00'?

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  • Getting Facebook Posts Permalink from Facebook Graph API Search

    - by Alexia
    I want to use the Facebook Graph API to search the public status updates concerning a keyword. For example, this works great: http://graph.facebook.com/search?q=obama&type=post It shows me all the posts with the word "obama" in it. If the post is a picture, it actually returns a field called "link" which is the permalink to the picture on the actual Facebook website, in the user's profile. Which is exactly what I want, but for pictures. But if the post in question is just a status update, i.e. just text, all it returns is the 3 fields: message, created_time, and updated_time. How do I view this actual status update on www.facebook.com? I realize I can view it on graph.facebook.com in JSON format, but I want to actually be able to show the permalink to the status update, or post. The final result I would like to retrieve might look something like this: http://www.facebook.com/[user id]/posts/[post id] With the [user id] and [post id] fields swapped out with the actual IDs, obviously. TIA!

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  • Web-design / UI advice

    - by Damian
    I'm working on a website on a Fmylife style. Now the homepage is the page showing the list of the latest posts. But I think there is a problem with that: The most "interesting" page is the one showing the top posts of the last days, but that page has very few visits compared to the main page. I suppose that's only because the main page is the "default" one. So, I've been thinking of making a home page that shows no posts (only one at the top of the page) but 4 big buttons showing the visitors what are the options to browse the content. But I'm also afraid that most users will not click any option and leave the site having seen no posts. So I don't know what to do. Obviously I have no idea of what will be good from a usability/efficiency point of view. Maybe a mix of the two options will be the best, but I don't know how to mix them. Any advice or idea will be greatly appreciated. The current home page looks like this: http://soquestion.latest.secretsapp.appspot.com/latest The new home page would look like this: http://soquestion.latest.secretsapp.appspot.com/

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  • Troubleshoot Page Loading Issue (ActiveX control)

    - by Spence
    Apologies for cryptic title, I'm hoping most people will read this BEFORE trying to move it to server fault. I might try and discourage the "too hard basket, move it to server fault anyway" crowd as well :). I have a page which will open cleanly when it's opened in it's own browser window/tab. The exact same URL, when loaded as part of a frame in a page in the same (local intranet) security zone shows the error: Your security settins do not allow websites to use ActiveX controls installed on your computer. This page may not display correctly. Click Here for options. How do I troubleshoot IE to work out which ActiveX control won't load in the frame but does load if the page is opened directly? Please note that I have dropped the security fully AND I've also moved EVERY setting in IE to enable or allow and restarted the browser but I STILL get the same issue. The two sites are on different machines in the same domain. I can't access website source code but I can ask for it to be fixed, so I'd really appreciate some help on this.

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  • Creating an Ajax.ActionLink that avoids all caching issues

    - by Richard Ev
    I am using an Ajax.ActionLink to display a partial view that shows a settings dialog (the modality of which is arranged using jQuery UI dialog). The issue I am running into is around browser caching. It is important that the user is never shown a cached settings dialog. In an attempt to achieve this I have written the following extension method that has the same method signature as the ActionLink method overload that I am using. /// <summary> /// Defines an AJAX ActionLink that effectively bypasses browser caching issues /// by adding an additional route value that contains a unique (actually DateTime.Now.Ticks) value. /// </summary> public static MvcHtmlString NonCachingActionLink(this AjaxHelper helper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName, System.Web.Routing.RouteValueDictionary routeValues, AjaxOptions ajaxOptions) { routeValues.Add("rnd", DateTime.Now.Ticks); return helper.ActionLink(linkText, actionName, controllerName, routeValues, ajaxOptions); } This works well between browser sessions (as the rnd route value gets re-calculated on page load), but not if the user is on the page, makes settings changes, saves them (which is done with another ajax call) and then re-displays the settings dialog. My next step is to look into creating my own ActionLink equivalent that re-calculates a random query string component as part of the onclick JavaScript event handler. Thoughts please.

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  • About lifecycle of activities

    - by janfsd
    In my application I have several activities, the main screen has 4 buttons that each start a different activity. So one of them is a search activity, once it searches it shows you a result activity. This result activity can be reached from other activities, so in general something like this: Main activity -> Search activity -> Result activity Main acitivty -> someother activity -> Result activity Now, if I have reached this result activity and press back once or twice, and after that press the Home key it will show the Home screen. But if I want to get back to my application by holding the Home button and clicking on my app it will always go back to the Result activity, no matter which activity was the last one I was using. And if I press again back it will take me back to the Home screen. If I try it again it will take me again to the Result activity. The only way to avoid this is to start the application by clicking on the app's icon. And this takes me to the last activity I was using and it remembers the state so if I press back again it doesn't take me to the Home screen, instead to the activity before it. To illustrate this: Main activity -> Search activity -> result activity --back--> Search activity --Home Button--> Home Screen --Hold Home and select the app --> Result activity --back--> Home Screen --Click application icon--> Search activity --back--> Main activity Another thing that happens is that if I press the Home button while on the Result activity, and start the app by clicking the icon, it will take me to the activity prior the the Result one. Why is this happening? Any workarounds?

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  • problems with scrolling a java TextArea

    - by Jonathan
    All, I am running into an issue using JTextArea and JScrollPane. For some reason the scroll pane appears to not recognize the last line in the document, and will only scroll down to the line before it. The scroll bar does not even change to a state where I can slide it until the lines in the document are two greater than the number of lines the textArea shows (it should happen as soon as it is one greater). Has anyone run into this before? What would be a good solution (I want to avoid having to add an extra 'blank' line to the end of the document, which I would have to remove every time I add a new line)? Here is how I instantiate the TextArea and ScrollPane: JFrame frame = new JFrame("Java Chat Program"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); Container pane = frame.getContentPane(); if (!(pane.getLayout() instanceof BorderLayout)) { System.err.println("Error: UI Container does not implement BorderLayout."); System.exit(-1); } textArea = new JTextArea(); textArea.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(500, 100)); textArea.setEditable(false); textArea.setLineWrap(true); textArea.setWrapStyleWord(true); JScrollPane scroller = new JScrollPane(textArea); scroller.setVerticalScrollBarPolicy(ScrollPaneConstants.VERTICAL_SCROLLBAR_ALWAYS); pane.add(scroller, BorderLayout.CENTER); Here is the method I use to add a new line to textArea: public void println(String a) { textArea.append(" "+a+"\n"); textArea.setCaretPosition(textArea.getDocument().getLength()); } Thanks for your help, Jonathan EDIT: Also, as a side note, with the current code I have to manually scroll down. I assumed that setCaretPosition(doc.getLength()) in the println(line) method would automatically set the page to the bottom after a line is entered... Should that be the case, or do I need to do something differently?

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  • Client-Server Networking Between PHP Client and Java Server

    - by Muhammad Yasir
    Hi there, I have a university project which is already 99% completed. It consists of two parts-website (PHP) and desktop (Java). People have their accounts on the website and they wish to query different information regarding their accounts. They send an SMS which is received by desktop application which queries database of website (MySQL) and sends the reply accordingly. This part is working superbly. The problem is that some times website wishes to instruct the desktop application to send a specific SMS to a particular number. Apparently there seems no way other than putting all the load to the DB server... This is how I made it work. Website puts SMS jobs in a specific table. Java application polls this table again and again and if it finds a job, it executes it. Even this part is working correctly but unfortunately it is not acceptable by my university to poll the DB like this. :( The other approach I could think of is to use client-server one. I tried making Java server and its PHP client. So that whenever an SMS is to be sent, the website opens a socket connection to desktop application and sends two strings (cell # and SMS message). Unfortunately I am unable to do this. I was successfully to make a Java server which works fine when connected by a Java client, similarly my PHP client connects correctly to a PHP server, but when I try to cross them, they start hating each other... PHP shows no error but Java gives StreamCorruptedException when it tries to read header of input stream. Could someone please tell what I can try to make PHP client and Java server work together? Or if the said purpose can be achieved by another means, how? Regards, Yasir

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  • Redirect from URL with QueryString to the same URL without QueryString

    - by Slauma
    I have a page request with a QueryString, say http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx?OrderID=1. The page is displayed in a browser. Now there is an asp:LinkButton on the page which should enable the user to open the page without the QueryString (as if he had entered http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx directly in the browser's address bar). I had two ideas: 1) Use the PostBackUrl attribute of the LinkButton: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" PostBackUrl="~/Orders.aspx" /> 2) Use "RedirectUrl" in an event handler: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" /> ...and... protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("~/Orders.aspx"); } In both cases the browser's address bar shows http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx without the QueryString, as I like to have it. But in the first case the page does not change at all. But it should, because I'm evaluating the QueryString in code-behind and control the appearance of the page depending on whether a QueryString exists or not. The second option works as intended. If I am not wrong the second option requires an additional roundtrip: Browser sends request to server Event handler on server side sends Redirect URL to browser Browser sends again request to the server, but with the new URL Server sends new requested page to browser Is this correct at all? Whereas the first option omits the first two steps in the list above, thus saving the additional roundtrip and resulting in: Browser sends request to the server, but with the new URL (the PostbackURL specified in the LinkButton) Server sends new requested page to browser But, as said, the result isn't the same. I'm sure my try to explain the differences between the two options is wrong somewhere. But I don't know where exactly. Can someone explain what's really the difference? Do I really need this second roundtrip of option (2) to achieve what I want? Thanks in advance!

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  • Using SSL and SslStream for peer to peer authentication?

    - by Scott Whitlock
    I need to provide secure communication between various processes that are using TCP/IP sockets for communication. I want both authentication and encryption. Rather than re-invent the wheel I would really like to use SSL and the SslStream class and self-signed certificates. What I want to do is validate the remote process's certificate against a known copy in my local application. (There doesn't need to be a certificate authority because I intend for the certificates to be copied around manually). To do this, I want the application to be able to automatically generate a new certifiate the first time it is run. In addition to makecert.exe, it looks like this link shows a way to automatically generate self-signed certificates, so that's a start. I've looked at the AuthenticateAsServer and AuthenticateAsClient methods of SslStream. You can provide call-backs for verification, so it looks like it's possible. But now that I'm into the details of it, I really don't think it's possible to do this. Am I going in the right direction? Is there a better alternative? Has anyone done anything like this before (basically peer-to-peer SSL rather than client-server)?

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  • How do I handle the browser's "share page" intent in android?

    - by gfxmonk
    I read here ( http://androidlittle.blogspot.com/2009/08/intent-filter-for-share-link.html ) what intent-filter is required to handle the "share link" intent that the android web browser sends. I have placed this inside an block in my AndroidManifest.xml like so: <activity android:name=".ShareLink"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.SEND" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> <data android:mimeType="text/plain" /> </intent-filter> <meta-data/> </activity> I cannot for the life of me get this to be triggered though. When I share a link in the android browser, the emulator log shows it's creating a chooser intent, but doesn't give the details of the intent the chooser is acting on. No chooser window pops up, and the intent gets handled by the SMS application. I have also tried kicking off the intent manually: adb shell am start -D -a android.intent.action.SEND -c android.intent.category.DEFAULT -t text/plain -d http://google.com/ but the response I get is: Starting: Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEND cat=[android.intent.category.DEFAULT] dat=http://google.com/ typ=text/plain } Error: Activity not started, unable to resolve Intent { act=android.intent.action.SEND cat=[android.intent.category.DEFAULT] dat=http://google.com/ typ=text/plain flg=0x10000000 } Can anyone tell me what I'm doing wrong? My main (launcher) activity works fine, so I assume there is no issue with installation on the emulator.

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  • Using db4o with multiple application instances under medium trust

    - by Anders Fjeldstad
    I recently stumbled over the object database engine db4o which I think looks really interesting. I would like to use it in an ASP.NET MVC application that will be deployed to a shared hosting environment under medium trust. Because of the trust level, I'm restricted to using db4o in embedded/in-process mode. That in itself should be no problem, but the hosting provider also transparently runs each web application in multiple (load-balanced) server instances with shared storage, which I would say is normally a very nice feature for a $10/month hoster. However, since an instance of a db4o server with write access (whether in-process or networked) locks the underlying database file, having multiple instances of the application using the same file won't work (or at least I can't see how it would). So the question is: is it possible to use db4o in this specific environment? I have considered letting each application have its own database which is synchronized with a master database using replication (dRS), but that approach will most likely end up with very frequent bi-directional replication (read master changes at beginning of each request, write to master after each change) which I don't think will be very efficient. Summary of the web application/environment characteristics: Read-intensive (but not entirely read-only) Some delay (a few seconds) is acceptible between the time that a change is made and the time when the change shows up in all the application instances' data Must run in medium trust No guarantee that the load-balancer uses "sticky sessions" All suggestions are much appreciated!

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  • jQuery datepicker returns "inst is null" error when loaded via AJAX

    - by Robert
    I'm loading content via an AJAX call into a table row added to the DOM on the fly. I'm calling the datepicker functionality in my callback function and the calendar shows fine. However, when I click on the date, I get an error: inst is null. Here's my code: $(document).ready(function() { $(".edit").live("click", function() { //Delete previously loaded edit row $("#tempEditRow").remove(); //Get the record id of the row to be edited var recordID = $(this).parent("td").parent("tr").attr("id"); //Add the new row to the document $(this).parent("td").parent("tr").after("<tr id=\"tempEditRow\"><td id=\"tempEditCell\" colspan=\"100\"></td></tr>") //Get a reference to the new row var container = $("#tempEditCell"); //Populate the container populateContainer("/wpm/includes/ajax_editApplication.cfm?id=" + recordID, container); }); }); function populateContainer(ajaxUrl, container) { //Populate the container $.ajax({ url: ajaxUrl, cache: false, success: function(html){ $(container).html(html); $('.datepicker').datepicker(); } }); } I've tried deleting the hasDatepicker class, deleting any references to the datepicker, etc. but nothing is working. Thanks in advance for helping!

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  • Java SwingWorker still uses 98% CPU after it's done.

    - by RemiX
    I am new to the Java SwingWorker class, but I'm trying to get it to do some stuff in the background. That part works already, but now, when it is finished, the Windows Task Manager still shows that 70-98% of the CPU is still being used. Before I hit the 'Start' button it is only 3-15% and after I close the program it returns to those values. But what is still happening when the SwingWorker already reported being done?? I'll give you a simplified version of my code: I have this StereoProcessor extending SwingWorker, with doInBackground(): yLoop for(some values y) { for(some values x) { if(isCancelled()) break yLoop; else { setProgress(to some value); // do some non-SingWorker-related stuff } } } return returnValue; I call to this process through another code: stereoProcessor.addPropertyChangeListener(new PropertyChangeListener() { public void propertyChange(PropertyChangeEvent evt) { if(evt.getPropertyName().equals("state")) if(evt.getNewValue().equals(StereoProcessor.StateValue.DONE) { // do stuff } } } }); stereoProcessor.computeSomething(); // this method calls execute() That's about it, so I don't understand what it keeps doing. I tried putting some System.outs in the code in different places, but all stopped printing after a while. Does anyone know what's going on? Edit: I noticed the CPU also keeps running after a simple call to a method in StereoProcessor that doesn't even call execute()...

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  • Silverlight 4, combobox databinding problem

    - by synergetic
    In my Silverlight 4 app, CustomerView (UserControl) shows Customer object as it's DataContext. Customer object has IndustryCode string property. I created combobox called cboIndustryCode and bind it to the IndustryCode property the following way: <ComboBox x:Name="cboIndustryCode" SelectedValue="{Binding IndustryCode, Mode=TwoWay}" ... /> In code-behind I populate cboIndustryCode with List of Industry object, which has Code and Name properties: cboIndustryCode.ItemsSource = industries; //which is of List<Industry> type Now, to show everything properly, in XAML I added the following: <ComboBox x:Name="cboIndustryCode" SelectedValue="{Binding IndustryCode, Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectedValuePath="Code" ... /> So, when I get a customer class from my data layer and set the DataContext to this customer instance, the cboIndustryCode properly displays industry name. But, then I edit customer (not necessarily IndustryCode) and save the object (which resets DataContext = new Customer()) and retrieve the customer again from database, and I see that cboIndustryCode no longer working. It just displays nothing, and if I select new value from the list, it does not update underlying customer object's IndustryCode property. The problem goes away, if I put the following code in the place where I set DataContext to a instance of customer, retrieved from database: Binding binding = new Binding("IndustryCode"); binding.Mode = BindingMode.TwoWay; cboIndustryCode.SetBinding(ComboBox.SelectedValueProperty, binding); So, in short, combobox's binding is reset somehow every time I save my data. Can someone tell me the reason?

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  • Tab bar controller inside a navigation controller, or sharing a navigation root view

    - by Daniel Dickison
    I'm trying to implement a UI structured like in the Tweetie app, which behaves as so: the top-level view controller seems to be a navigation controller, whose root view is an "Accounts" table view. If you click on any account, it goes to the second level, which has a tab bar across the bottom. Each tab item shows a different list and lets you drill down further (the subsequent levels don't show the tab bar). So, this seems like the implementation hierarchy is: UINavigationController Accounts: UITableViewController UITabBarController Tweets: UITableViewController Detail view of a tweet/user/etc Replies: UITableViewController ... This seems to work[^1], but appears to be unsupported according to the SDK documentation for -pushViewController:animated: (emphasis added): viewController: The view controller that is pushed onto the stack. It cannot be an instance of tab bar controller. I would like to avoid private APIs and the like, but I'm not sure why this usage is explicitly prohibited even when it seems to work fine. Anyone know the reason? I've thought about putting the tab bar controller as the main controller, with each of the tabs containing separate navigation controllers. The problem with this is that each nav controller needs to share a single root view controller (namely the "Accounts" table in Tweetie) -- this doesn't seem to work: pushing the table controller to a second nav controller seems to remove it from the first. Not to mention all the book-keeping when selecting a different account would probably be a pain. How should I implement this the Right Way? [^1]: The tab bar controller needs to be subclassed so that the tab bar controller's navigation item at that level stays in sync with the selected tab's navigation item, and the individual tab's table controller's need to push their respective detail views to self.tabBarController.navigationController instead of self.navigationController.

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  • How would i down-sample a .wav file then reconstruct it using nyquist? - in matlab [closed]

    - by martin
    Possible Duplicate: How would i down-sample a .wav file then reconstruct it using nyquist? - in matlab This is all done in MatLab 2010 My objective is to show the results of: undersampling, nyquist rate/ oversampling First i need to downsample the .wav file to get an incomplete/ or impartial data stream that i can then reconstuct. Heres the flow chart of what im going to be doing So the flow is analog signal - sampling analog filter - ADC - resample down - resample up - DAC - reconstruction analog filter what needs to be achieved: F= Frequency F(Hz=1/s) E.x. 100Hz = 1000 (Cyc/sec) F(s)= 1/(2f) Example problem: 1000 hz = Highest frequency 1/2(1000hz) = 1/2000 = 5x10(-3) sec/cyc or a sampling rate of 5ms This is my first signal processing project using matlab. what i have so far. % Fs = frequency sampled (44100hz or the sampling frequency of a cd) [test,fs]=wavread('test.wav'); % loads the .wav file left=test(:,1); % Plot of the .wav signal time vs. strength time=(1/44100)*length(left); t=linspace(0,time,length(left)); plot(t,left) xlabel('time (sec)'); ylabel('relative signal strength') **%this is were i would need to sample it at the different frequecys (both above and below and at) nyquist frequency.*I think.*** soundsc(left,fs) % shows the resaultant audio file , which is the same as original ( only at or above nyquist frequency however) Can anyone tell me how to make it better, and how to do the various sampling at different frequencies?

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  • DataGridView not displaying data in ToolStripDropDown

    - by jblaske
    I'm utilizing the code posted by Jesper Palm here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/280891/make-user-control-display-outside-of-form-boundry /// <summary> /// A simple popup window that can host any System.Windows.Forms.Control /// </summary> public class PopupWindow : System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripDropDown { private System.Windows.Forms.Control _content; private System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripControlHost _host; public PopupWindow(System.Windows.Forms.Control content) { //Basic setup... this.AutoSize = false; this.DoubleBuffered = true; this.ResizeRedraw = true; this._content = content; this._host = new System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripControlHost(content); //Positioning and Sizing this.MinimumSize = content.MinimumSize; this.MaximumSize = content.Size; this.Size = content.Size; content.Location = Point.Empty; //Add the host to the list this.Items.Add(this._host); } } I've translated it to VB: Public Class PopupWindow Inherits System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripDropDown Private _content As System.Windows.Forms.Control Private _host As System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripControlHost Public Sub New(ByVal content As System.Windows.Forms.Control) Me.AutoSize = False Me.DoubleBuffered = True Me.ResizeRedraw = True Me._content = content Me._host = New System.Windows.Forms.ToolStripControlHost(content) Me.MinimumSize = content.MinimumSize Me.MaximumSize = content.MaximumSize Me.Size = content.Size content.Location = Point.Empty Me.Items.Add(Me._host) End Sub End Class It works great with a PictureBox showing its information. But for some reason I cannot get the DataGridView to display anything when it is in the popup. If I pull the grid out of the popup it displays all of its information fine. If I pause during debug, the grid shows that it has all the data in it. It's just not displaying anything. Does anybody have any ideas?

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  • How to Use DataSource Property in DataFormWebPart

    - by Bryan Shen
    I'm writing a custom web part that extends DataFormWebPart. public class MyCustomWebPart : DataFormWebPart{ // other methods public override void DataBind() { XmlDataSource source = new XmlDataSource() { Data = @" <Person> <name cap='true'>Bryan</name> <occupation>student</occupation> </Person> " }; DataSources.Add(source); base.DataBind(); } } The only noticeable thing I do is overriding the DataBind() method, where I use xml as the data source. After I deploy the web part, I set the following XSL to it: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output method="xml" version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xmp> <xsl:copy-of select="*"/> </xmp> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> This xsl will surround the input xml with a tag . So I expected the web part to display the original xml data as I wrote in C# code behind. But what shows up in the web part is this: <Person> <name cap="true" /> <occupation /> </Person> All the values within the inner-most tags disappear. What's going on? Can anybody help me? Thanks.

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  • How to catch an expected (and intended) 302 response code with generic XmlHttpRequest?

    - by Anthony
    So, if you look back at my previous question about Exchange Autodiscover, you'll see that the easiet way to get the autodiscover URL is to send a non-secure, non-authenticated GET request to the server, ala: http://autodiscover.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml The server will respond with a 302 redirect with the correct url in the Location header. I'm trying out something really simple at first with a Chrome extension, where I have: if (req.readyState==4 && req.status==302) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } With another ajax call set up with the full XML Post and the user credentials, But instead Chrome hangs at this point, and a look at the developer panel shows that it is not returning back the response but instead is acting like no response was given, meanwhile showing a Uncaught Error: NETWORK_ERR: XMLHttpRequest Exception 101 in the error log. The way I see it, refering to the exact response status is about the same as "catching" it, but I'm not sure if the problem is with Chrome/WebKit or if this is how XHR requests always handle redirects. I'm not sure how to catch this so that I can get still get the headers from the response. Or would it be possible to set up a secondary XHR such that when it gets the 302, it sends a totally different request? Quick Update I just changed it so that it doesn't check the response code: if (req.readyState==4) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } and instead when I alert out the value it's null. and there is still the same error and no response in the dev console. SO it seems like it either doesn't track 302 responses as responses, or something happens after that wipes that response out?

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  • App.config for SpecFlow not recognized by NUnit GUI runner

    - by INTPnerd
    How do I get my App.config file to be recognized/used by the NUnit GUI runner? I have tried placing it in the top folder of my project and in the same folder as my feature files. Here are the contents of my App.config file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="specFlow" type="TechTalk.SpecFlow.Configuration.ConfigurationSectionHandler, TechTalk.SpecFlow"/> </configSections> <specFlow> <runtime detectAmbiguousMatches="true" stopAtFirstError="false" missingOrPendingStepsOutcome="Error" /> </specFlow> </configuration> Specifically I am trying to tell NUnit to have a fail result when there is a missing or pending step which is why I am specifying "Error" for this. This actually works correctly when I use TestDriven.net but not when I use the NUnit GUI runner. The GUI always shows a green bar and displays the test as Inconclusive instead of Error or Failed

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  • Problems requesting the LDAP: The server is unwilling to process the request.

    - by Flo
    We have written an authentication provider for a SharePoint web application which can requests multiple LDAP directories. One of the LDAP server have to be requested via SSL. So we imported the CA certificate which was used to sign the LDAP server's certificate into the certificate store of the SharePoint server. The following code snippet shows how we authenticate an user. The passed credentials (account, password) belong to the user we want to authenticate. var entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://<ldap-server-address>", "cn=account,ou=sub,o=xyz,c=de", "password", AuthenticationTypes.SecureSocketsLayer); var searcher = new DirectorySearcher(entry); var found = searcher.FindOne(); When the code is processed, the call to searcher.FindOne() throws following exception. System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80072035): The server is unwilling to process the request What circumstance can lead to this error? UPDATE: I found some information about the error message. There the problem seems to be the certificate store, as the user has only stored the certificate in the in the user's store and not in the computer's store. Unfortunately we've already stored it there. So could this be still a certificate issue? UPDATE/SOLUTION: Actually the problem is solved. It seems as if the root CA certificate was imported correctly but the error messages the LDAP server responded was caused by an expired user account our customer gave us for testing.

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  • empty response body in ajax (or 206 Partial Content)

    - by Nikita Rybak
    Hi guys, I'm feeling completely stupid because I've spent two hours solving task which should be very simple and which I solved many times before. But now I'm not even sure in which direction to dig. I fail to fetch static content using ajax from local servers (Apache and Mongrel). I get responses 200 and 206 (depending on the server), empty response text (although Content-Length header is always correct), firebug shows request in red. Javascript is very generic, I'm getting same results even here: http://www.w3schools.com/ajax/tryit.asp?filename=tryajax_first (just change document location to 'http://localhost:3000/whatever') So, it's probably not the cause. Well, now I'm out of ideas. I can also post http headers, if it'll help. Thanks! Response Headers Connection close Date Sat, 01 May 2010 21:05:23 GMT Last-Modified Sun, 18 Apr 2010 19:33:26 GMT Content-Type text/html Content-Length 7466 Request Headers Host localhost:3000 User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; U; Intel Mac OS X 10.6; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Referer http://www.w3schools.com/ajax/tryit_view.asp Origin http://www.w3schools.com Response Headers Date Sat, 01 May 2010 21:54:59 GMT Server Apache/2.2.14 (Unix) mod_ssl/2.2.14 OpenSSL/0.9.8l DAV/2 mod_jk/1.2.28 Etag "3d5cbdb-fb4-4819c460d4a40" Accept-Ranges bytes Content-Length 4020 Cache-Control max-age=7200, public, proxy-revalidate Expires Sat, 01 May 2010 23:54:59 GMT Content-Range bytes 0-4019/4020 Keep-Alive timeout=5, max=100 Connection Keep-Alive Content-Type application/javascript Request Headers Host localhost User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; U; Intel Mac OS X 10.6; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Origin null

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  • Multiple overlay items in android

    - by Bostjan
    I seem to be having a problem with using ItemizedOverlay and OveralyItems in it. I can get the first overlayItem to appear on the map but not any items after that. Code sample is on: http://www.anddev.org/multiple_overlay_items-t12171.html Quick overview here: public class Markers extends ItemizedOverlay { private Context ctx; private ArrayList<OverlayItem> mOverlays = new ArrayList<OverlayItem>(); public Markers(Drawable defaultMarker, Context cont) { super(boundCenterBottom(defaultMarker)); this.ctx = cont; // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int i) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return mOverlays.get(i); } @Override public boolean onTap(GeoPoint p, MapView mapView) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return super.onTap(p, mapView); } @Override protected boolean onTap(int index) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Toast.makeText(this.ctx, mOverlays.get(index).getTitle().toString()+", Latitude: "+mOverlays.get(index).getPoint().getLatitudeE6(), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); return super.onTap(index); } @Override public int size() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return mOverlays.size(); } public void addOverlay(OverlayItem item) { mOverlays.add(item); setLastFocusedIndex(-1); populate(); } public void clear() { mOverlays.clear(); setLastFocusedIndex(-1); populate(); }} Markers usersMarker = new Markers(user,overview.this); GeoPoint p = new GeoPoint((int) (lat * 1E6),(int) (lon * 1E6)); OverlayItem item = new OverlayItem(p,userData[0],userData[3]); item.setMarker(this.user); usersMarker.addOverlay(item); The lines after the class are just samples of how it's used the first marker shows up on the map but if I add any more they don't show up? Is there a problem with the populate() method? I tried calling it manually after adding all markers but it still didn't help. Please, if you have any idea what could be wrong, say so.

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  • Jeditable Datepicker onblur problem

    - by Shobha Deepthi
    Hi, I am using inline editing using Jeditable and datepicker. I have a column in my table which displays Date as a hyperlink. When I click on this it shows me the datepicker. And when a particular date is selected its updated in the backend and the cell now is updated with the changed value. However, am having problem with onblur event while changing month or years. This event gets triggered when I click on "Prev" or "Next" buttons on the datepicker control. This causes an exception when the date is selected. This works fine as long as the date selected is in the current month. I tried all possible solutions listed here: stackoverflow.com/questions/2007205/jeditable-datepicker-causing-blur-when-changing-month If settimeout the control does not change back to a normal hyperlink on closing the datepicker or on a true onblur event. Here's my code, $.editable.addInputType('datepicker', { element : function(settings, original) { var input = $(''); if (settings.width != 'none') { input.width(settings.width); } if (settings.height != 'none') { input.height(settings.height); } input.attr('autocomplete','off'); $(this).append(input); return(input); }, plugin : function(settings, original) { var form = this; settings.onblur = function(e) { t = setTimeout(function() { original.reset.apply(form, [settings, self]); }, 100); }; $(this).find('input').datepicker({ changeMonth: true, changeYear: true, dateFormat: 'dd-M-y', closeAtTop: true, onSelect: function(dateText) { $(this).hide(); $(form).trigger('submit'); } }); }, submit : function(settings, original) { } }); $(function() { $('.edit_eta').editable('update_must_fix_eta.php', { id: 'bugid', name: 'eta', type: 'datepicker', event: 'click', select : true, width: '50px', onblur:'cancel', cssclass : 'editable', indicator : 'Updating ETA, please wait.', style : 'inherit', submitdata:{version:'4.2(4)',tag:'REL_4_2_4',qstr:1} }); }); I tried hacking jeditable.js as mentioned on this link: http://groups.google.com/group/jquery-dev/browse_thread/thread/265340ea692a2f47 Even this does not help. Any help is appreciated.

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