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• Mysqld not starting due to apparent db corruption

  - by pitosalas

  I am very new at admining mysql, and bad for me, something caused the db to get clobbered. There are many error messages in the log that I am not sure how to safely proceed. Can you give some tips? Here's the log: 110107 15:07:15 mysqld started 110107 15:07:15 InnoDB: Database was not shut down normally! InnoDB: Starting crash recovery. InnoDB: Reading tablespace information from the .ibd files... InnoDB: Restoring possible half-written data pages from the doublewrite InnoDB: buffer... 110107 15:07:15 InnoDB: Starting log scan based on checkpoint at InnoDB: log sequence number 35 515914826. InnoDB: Doing recovery: scanned up to log sequence number 35 515915839 InnoDB: 1 transaction(s) which must be rolled back or cleaned up InnoDB: in total 1 row operations to undo InnoDB: Trx id counter is 0 1697553664 110107 15:07:15 InnoDB: Starting an apply batch of log records to the database... InnoDB: Progress in percents: 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 InnoDB: Apply batch completed InnoDB: Starting rollback of uncommitted transactions InnoDB: Rolling back trx with id 0 1697553198, 1 rows to undoInnoDB: Error: trying to access page number 3522914176 in space 0, InnoDB: space name ./ibdata1, InnoDB: which is outside the tablespace bounds. InnoDB: Byte offset 0, len 16384, i/o type 10 110107 15:07:15InnoDB: Assertion failure in thread 3086403264 in file fil0fil.c line 3922 InnoDB: We intentionally generate a memory trap. InnoDB: Submit a detailed bug report to http://bugs.mysql.com. InnoDB: If you get repeated assertion failures or crashes, even InnoDB: immediately after the mysqld startup, there may be InnoDB: corruption in the InnoDB tablespace. Please refer to InnoDB: http://dev.mysql.com/doc/mysql/en/Forcing_recovery.html InnoDB: about forcing recovery. mysqld got signal 11; This could be because you hit a bug. It is also possible that this binary or one of the libraries it was linked against is corrupt, improperly built, or misconfigured. This error can also be caused by malfunctioning hardware. We will try our best to scrape up some info that will hopefully help diagnose the problem, but since we have already crashed, something is definitely wrong and this may fail. key_buffer_size=0 read_buffer_size=131072 max_used_connections=0 max_connections=100 threads_connected=0 It is possible that mysqld could use up to key_buffer_size + (read_buffer_size + sort_buffer_size)*max_connections = 217599 K bytes of memory Hope that's ok; if not, decrease some variables in the equation. thd=(nil) Attempting backtrace. You can use the following information to find out where mysqld died. If you see no messages after this, something went terribly wrong... Cannot determine thread, fp=0xbffc55ac, backtrace may not be correct. Stack range sanity check OK, backtrace follows: 0x8139eec 0x83721d5 0x833d897 0x833db71 0x832aa38 0x835f025 0x835f7a3 0x830a77e 0x8326b57 0x831c825 0x8317b8d 0x82a9e66 0x8315732 0x834fc9a 0x828d7c3 0x81c29dd 0x81b5620 0x813d9fe 0x40fdf3 0x80d5ff1 New value of fp=(nil) failed sanity check, terminating stack trace! Please read http://dev.mysql.com/doc/mysql/en/Using_stack_trace.html and follow instructions on how to resolve the stack trace. Resolved stack trace is much more helpful in diagnosing the problem, so please do resolve it The manual page at http://www.mysql.com/doc/en/Crashing.html contains information that should help you find out what is causing the crash. 110107 15:07:15 mysqld ended

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• Issue in nginx proxying to apache

  - by Luis Masuelli

  My current nginx configuration is as follows: specific configuration for (currently two) domains: server { listen 443 ssl; server_name studiotv.service.tebusco.lan phpmyadmin.service.tebusco.lan; ssl_certificate /home/administrador/nginx-confs/ssl/service.tebusco.lan.crt; ssl_certificate_key /home/administrador/nginx-confs/ssl/service.tebusco.lan.key; location / { proxy_pass http://127.0.0.1:8180; proxy_set_header Host $http_host:8180; } } default configuration for unmatched ssl connections: server { listen 443 default ssl; ssl_certificate /home/administrador/nginx-confs/ssl/service.tebusco.lan.crt; ssl_certificate_key /home/administrador/nginx-confs/ssl/service.tebusco.lan.key; location / { return 403; } } http configuration: server { listen 80; rewrite ^ https://$host$request_uri? permanent; } The intention is clear: Redirect http traffic to https. Proxy each https:// call from phpmyadmin.service.tebusco.lan and studiotv.service.tebusco.lan to apache2. This includes passing a host header, which is detected. Each unmatched ssl connection must return a 403 in nginx. Does not even reach apache2. In the apache2 side of the life, I have a default site, and a non-default site which will match studiotv.service.tebusco.lan: 000-default.conf file (available and enabled): <VirtualHost 127.0.0.1:8180> # The ServerName directive sets the request scheme, hostname and port that # the server uses to identify itself. This is used when creating # redirection URLs. In the context of virtual hosts, the ServerName # specifies what hostname must appear in the request's Host: header to # match this virtual host. For the default virtual host (this file) this # value is not decisive as it is used as a last resort host regardless. # However, you must set it for any further virtual host explicitly. ServerName localhost ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost DocumentRoot /var/www/html <Directory /var/www/html> Order deny,allow Require all granted </Directory> </VirtualHost> # vim: syntax=apache ts=4 sw=4 sts=4 sr noet studiotv.conf file (available and enabled): <VirtualHost *:8180> ServerName studiotv.service.tebusco.lan ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot /var/www/studiotv <Directory /var/www/studiotv/> Options -Indexes +FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order deny,allow Allow from all Require all granted </Directory> # Available loglevels: trace8, ..., trace1, debug, info, notice, warn, # error, crit, alert, emerg. # It is also possible to configure the loglevel for particular # modules, e.g. #LogLevel info ssl:warn # No usamos ${APACHE_LOG_DIR} sino en su lugar /var/log/<host> ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/studiotv/error.log CustomLog /var/log/apache2/studiotv/access.log combined </VirtualHost> # vim: syntax=apache ts=4 sw=4 sts=4 sr noet However, when I hit the browser with http://studiotv.service.tebusco.lan, the default php page is shown instead. Question: What am I missing? (apache 2.4.7, nginx 1.6.0, ubuntu server 14.04).

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• Network update solutions for a company of ~20 (5 local, 15 remote)?

  - by Margaret

  Hi all This is probably going to be a bit up in the air, because we're still in the "reaching towards solutions" phase, but I figured I'd see what you guys had to say. Plus I honestly know very little about systems and what is good and bad pratice. My organisation has always more or less worked on the concept of local machines; since it primarily employed contractors who were working from home, each of those people was largely responsible for their own machine and backup procedures and the like. We're now expanding, though we're still reasonably small (we're up to about 20 staff members). Most people still work remotely, but we have a central office where about five people are working. But we're getting large enough that we're starting to think it would be a good idea to have a central file server, and things like that - if someone gets hit by a bus, we want someone else to know where to look for the files to continue their work. A lot of the people who work for us remotely work on projects for other companies as well, so I don't want to force them to log in to our server whenever they're on a network. But I do want to make connection to be as painless as possible to do so, to improve utilisation. The other thing is that we're getting more people who would like to remote into the office server and do their work there. Our current remote connection application is an SSH install that allows people access to the network; the problem is, it's a black box to me, and I've never understood how to even connect to it (despite supposedly being de facto sysadmin). Thus far I've been able to bounce questions about how to get it working to the guy who does know it well, but he's leaving the company soon. So we probably need a solution for this that I actually understand. We were knocking around the idea of implementing a VPN with some form of remote desktop, and someone mentioned that this was largely a matter of purchasing a router capable of it; I'm not sure of the truth of that statement. This is what we have in the office: Two shiny new i7 servers, each running Windows Server 2008. Precise eventual layout is still being debated, a little, but the current suggestion is that one is primary database crunching, while the other is a warm backup of the databases, along with running Reporting Services. They currently have SQL Server 2008 installed on them, which is being connected to via the 'sa' account. We're hoping to make each person use their own account (preferably one tied to the 'central' password we set up, so we can use Windows Authentication). An older server, running XP Pro, that we are currently using as a test bed for a project that requires access to older versions of software. This machine is also being used to take backups, but I'm thinking of moving that functionality elsewhere. A spare desktop from a guy who left the company (XP Pro). We're thinking of bumping up the hard disk space and using it as the magical file server that's going to solve one particular everything. Assorted desktops, laptops, etc, at least one for each person in the office (mix of Win XP and Win 7; occasionally a person who normally works remotely might drop in to the office and bring a laptop bearing Vista, but it's pretty rare). All are set up as local user accounts at the moment; I don't know if it's the best arrangement. Purchasing more hardware is not a big problem, but we figure we might as well make use of what we've got first. Is Active Directory a big magic wand that's going to solve all the world's problems? Is there some other arrangement we should be looking to instead?

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• Distributed and/or Parallel SSIS processing

  - by Jeff

  Background: Our company hosts SaaS DSS applications, where clients provide us data Daily and/or Weekly, which we process & merge into their existing database. During business hours, load in the servers are pretty minimal as it's mostly users running simple pre-defined queries via the website, or running drill-through reports that mostly hit the SSAS OLAP cube. I manage the IT Operations Team, and so far this has presented an interesting "scaling" issue for us. For our daily-refreshed clients, the server is only "busy" for about 4-6 hrs at night. For our weekly-refresh clients, the server is only "busy" for maybe 8-10 hrs per week! We've done our best to use some simple methods of distributing the load by spreading the daily clients evenly among the servers such that we're not trying to process daily clients back-to-back over night. But long-term this scaling strategy creates two notable issues. First, it's going to consume a pretty immense amount of hardware that sits idle for large periods of time. Second, it takes significant Production Support over-head to basically "schedule" the ETL such that they don't over-lap, and move clients/schedules around if they out-grow the resources on a particular server or allocated time-slot. As the title would imply, one option we've tried is running multiple SSIS packages in parallel, but in most cases this has yielded VERY inconsistent results. The most common failures are DTExec, SQL, and SSAS fighting for physical memory and throwing out-of-memory errors, and ETLs running 3,4,5x longer than expected. So from my practical experience thus far, it seems like running multiple ETL packages on the same hardware isn't a good idea, but I can't be the first person that doesn't want to scale multiple ETLs around manual scheduling, and sequential processing. One option we've considered is virtualizing the servers, which obviously doesn't give you any additional resources, but moves the resource contention onto the hypervisor, which (from my experience) seems to manage simultaneous CPU/RAM/Disk I/O a little more gracefully than letting DTExec, SQL, and SSAS battle it out within Windows. Question to the forum: So my question to the forum is, are we missing something obvious here? Are there tools out there that can help manage running multiple SSIS packages on the same hardware? Would it be more "efficient" in terms of parallel execution if instead of running DTExec, SQL, and SSAS same machine (with every machine running that configuration), we run in pairs of three machines with SSIS running on one machine, SQL on another, and SSAS on a third? Obviously that would only make sense if we could process more than the three ETL we were able to process on the machine independently. Another option we've considered is completely re-architecting our SSIS package to have one "master" package for all clients that attempts to intelligently chose a server based off how "busy" it already is in terms of CPU/Memory/Disk utilization, but that would be a herculean effort, and seems like we're trying to reinvent something that you would think someone would sell (although I haven't had any luck finding it). So in summary, are we missing an obvious solution for this, and does anyone know if any tools (for free or for purchase, doesn't matter) that facilitate running multiple SSIS ETL packages in parallel and on multiple servers? (What I would call a "queue & node based" system, but that's not an official term). Ultimately VMWare's Distributed Resource Scheduler addresses this as you simply run a consistent number of clients per VM that you know will never conflict scheduleing-wise, then leave it up to VMWare to move the VMs around to balance out hardware usage. I'm definitely not against using VMWare to do this, but since we're a 100% Microsoft app stack, it seems like -someone- out there would have solved this problem at the application layer instead of the hypervisor layer by checking on resource utilization at the OS, SQL, SSAS levels. I'm open to ANY discussion on this, and remember no suggestion is too crazy or radical! :-) Right now, VMWare is the only option we've found to get away from "manually" balancing our resources, so any suggestions that leave us on a pure Microsoft stack would be great. Thanks guys, Jeff

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• Log transport and aggregation at scale

  - by markdrayton

  How're you analysing log files from UNIX/Linux machines? We run several hundred servers which all generate their own log files, either directly or through syslog. I'm looking for a decent solution to aggregate these and pick out important events. This problem breaks down into 3 components: 1) Message transport The classic way is to use syslog to log messages to a remote host. This works fine for applications that log into syslog but less useful for apps that write to a local file. Solutions for this might include having the application log into a FIFO connected to a program to send the message using syslog, or by writing something that will grep the local files and send the output to the central syslog host. However, if we go to the trouble of writing tools to get messages into syslog would we be better replacing the whole lot with something like Facebook's Scribe which offers more flexibility and reliability than syslog? 2) Message aggregation Log entries seem to fall into one of two types: per-host and per-service. Per-host messages are those which occur on one machine; think disk failures or suspicious logins. Per-service messages occur on most or all of the hosts running a service. For instance, we want to know when Apache finds an SSI error but we don't want the same error from 100 machines. In all cases we only want to see one of each type of message: we don't want 10 messages saying the same disk has failed, and we don't want a message each time a broken SSI is hit. One approach to solving this is to aggregate multiple messages of the same type into one on each host, send the messages to a central server and then aggregate messages of the same kind into one overall event. SER can do this but it's awkward to use. Even after a couple of days of fiddling I had only rudimentary aggregations working and had to constantly look up the logic SER uses to correlate events. It's powerful but tricky stuff: I need something which my colleagues can pick up and use in the shortest possible time. SER rules don't meet that requirement. 3) Generating alerts How do we tell our admins when something interesting happens? Mail the group inbox? Inject into Nagios? So, how're you solving this problem? I don't expect an answer on a plate; I can work out the details myself but some high-level discussion on what is surely a common problem would be great. At the moment we're using a mishmash of cron jobs, syslog and who knows what else to find events. This isn't extensible, maintainable or flexible and as such we miss a lot of stuff we shouldn't. Updated: we're already using Nagios for monitoring which is great for detected down hosts/testing services/etc but less useful for scraping log files. I know there are log plugins for Nagios but I'm interested in something more scalable and hierarchical than per-host alerts.

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• MySQL crash. Unknown cause. Signal 11

  - by fortmac

  This is a database that I installed ~6 months ago and had been running fine. This is currently running in Ubuntu 12.04. Attempting to connect to MySQL causes this error: ERROR 2002 (HY000): Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock' (111) Then theres: $ sudo mysqld which returns: 130702 15:38:54 [Note] Plugin 'FEDERATED' is disabled. 130702 15:38:54 InnoDB: The InnoDB memory heap is disabled 130702 15:38:54 InnoDB: Mutexes and rw_locks use GCC atomic builtins 130702 15:38:54 InnoDB: Compressed tables use zlib 1.2.3.4 130702 15:38:54 InnoDB: Initializing buffer pool, size = 128.0M 130702 15:38:54 InnoDB: Completed initialization of buffer pool 130702 15:38:54 InnoDB: highest supported file format is Barracuda. InnoDB: The log sequence number in ibdata files does not match InnoDB: the log sequence number in the ib_logfiles! 130702 15:38:54 InnoDB: Database was not shut down normally! InnoDB: Starting crash recovery. InnoDB: Reading tablespace information from the .ibd files... InnoDB: Restoring possible half-written data pages from the doublewrite InnoDB: buffer... 130702 15:38:55 InnoDB: Waiting for the background threads to start 130702 15:38:56 InnoDB: 1.1.8 started; log sequence number 5201901917 130702 15:38:56 [Note] Server hostname (bind-address): '127.0.0.1'; port: 3306 130702 15:38:56 [Note] - '127.0.0.1' resolves to '127.0.0.1'; 130702 15:38:56 [Note] Server socket created on IP: '127.0.0.1'. 130702 15:38:56 [Note] Event Scheduler: Loaded 0 events 130702 15:38:56 [Note] mysqld: ready for connections. Version: '5.5.28-0ubuntu0.12.04.3' socket: '/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock' port: 3306 (Ubuntu) 19:39:02 UTC - mysqld got signal 11 ; This could be because you hit a bug. It is also possible that this binary or one of the libraries it was linked against is corrupt, improperly built, or misconfigured. This error can also be caused by malfunctioning hardware. We will try our best to scrape up some info that will hopefully help diagnose the problem, but since we have already crashed, something is definitely wrong and this may fail. key_buffer_size=16777216 read_buffer_size=131072 max_used_connections=1 max_threads=151 thread_count=1 connection_count=1 It is possible that mysqld could use up to key_buffer_size + (read_buffer_size + sort_buffer_size)*max_threads = 346681 K bytes of memory Hope that's ok; if not, decrease some variables in the equation. Thread pointer: 0x7f9509e51530 Attempting backtrace. You can use the following information to find out where mysqld died. If you see no messages after this, something went terribly wrong... stack_bottom = 7f94f1d3de60 thread_stack 0x30000 mysqld(my_print_stacktrace+0x29)[0x7f95083427b9] mysqld(handle_fatal_signal+0x483)[0x7f9508209b43] /lib/x86_64-linux-gnu/libpthread.so.0(+0xfcb0)[0x7f9506f5bcb0] mysqld(+0x320e1c)[0x7f9508113e1c] mysqld(_ZN4JOIN15alloc_func_listEv+0x9c)[0x7f950812391c] mysqld(_ZN4JOIN7prepareEPPP4ItemP10TABLE_LISTjS1_jP8st_orderS7_S1_S7_P13st_select_lexP18st_select_lex_unit+0x918)[0x7f9508124658] mysqld(_Z12mysql_selectP3THDPPP4ItemP10TABLE_LISTjR4ListIS1_ES2_jP8st_orderSB_S2_SB_yP13select_resultP18st_select_lex_unitP13st_select_lex+0x130)[0x7f950812d060] mysqld(_Z13handle_selectP3THDP3LEXP13select_resultm+0x17c)[0x7f9508132fbc] mysqld(+0x2f6714)[0x7f95080e9714] mysqld(_Z21mysql_execute_commandP3THD+0x16d8)[0x7f95080f1178] mysqld(_Z11mysql_parseP3THDPcjP12Parser_state+0x10f)[0x7f95080f5e0f] mysqld(_Z16dispatch_command19enum_server_commandP3THDPcj+0x1380)[0x7f95080f7260] mysqld(_Z24do_handle_one_connectionP3THD+0x1bd)[0x7f950819b80d] mysqld(handle_one_connection+0x50)[0x7f950819b870] /lib/x86_64-linux-gnu/libpthread.so.0(+0x7e9a)[0x7f9506f53e9a] /lib/x86_64-linux-gnu/libc.so.6(clone+0x6d)[0x7f9506684cbd] Trying to get some variables. Some pointers may be invalid and cause the dump to abort. Query (7f94e0004b80): is an invalid pointer Connection ID (thread ID): 1 Status: NOT_KILLED The manual page at http://dev.mysql.com/doc/mysql/en/crashing.html contains information that should help you find out what is causing the crash. I'm at a loss. What other reports would be useful in diagnosing this? /var/log/mysql.err & /var/log/mysql.log are empty.

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• Linux: find out what process is using all the RAM?

  - by Timur

  Before actually asking, just to be clear: yes, I know about disk cache, and no, it is not my case :) Sorry, for this preamble :) I'm using CentOS 5. Every application in the system is swapping heavily, and the system is very slow. When I do free -m, here is what I got: total used free shared buffers cached Mem: 3952 3929 22 0 1 18 -/+ buffers/cache: 3909 42 Swap: 16383 46 16337 So, I actually have only 42 Mb to use! As far as I understand, -/+ buffers/cache actually doesn't count the disk cache, so I indeed only have 42 Mb, right? I thought, I might be wrong, so I tried to switch off the disk caching and it had no effect - the picture remained the same. So, I decided to find out who is using all my RAM, and I used top for that. But, apparently, it reports that no process is using my RAM. The only process in my top is MySQL, but it is using 0.1% of RAM and 400Mb of swap. Same picture when I try to run other services or applications - all go in swap, top shows that MEM is not used (0.1% maximum for any process). top - 15:09:00 up 2:09, 2 users, load average: 0.02, 0.16, 0.11 Tasks: 112 total, 1 running, 111 sleeping, 0 stopped, 0 zombie Cpu(s): 0.0%us, 0.0%sy, 0.0%ni,100.0%id, 0.0%wa, 0.0%hi, 0.0%si, 0.0%st Mem: 4046868k total, 4001368k used, 45500k free, 748k buffers Swap: 16777208k total, 68840k used, 16708368k free, 16632k cached PID USER PR NI VIRT RES SHR S %CPU %MEM TIME+ SWAP COMMAND 3214 ntp 15 0 23412 5044 3916 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.00 17m ntpd 2319 root 5 -10 12648 4460 3184 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.00 8188 iscsid 2168 root RT 0 22120 3692 2848 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.00 17m multipathd 5113 mysql 18 0 474m 2356 856 S 0.0 0.1 0:00.11 472m mysqld 4106 root 34 19 251m 1944 1360 S 0.0 0.0 0:00.11 249m yum-updatesd 4109 root 15 0 90152 1904 1772 S 0.0 0.0 0:00.18 86m sshd 5175 root 15 0 90156 1896 1772 S 0.0 0.0 0:00.02 86m sshd Restart doesn't help, and, by they way is very slow, which I wouldn't normally expect on this machine (4 cores, 4Gb RAM, RAID1). So, with that - I'm pretty sure that this is not a disk cache, who is using the RAM, because normally it should have been reduced and let other processes to use RAM, rather then go to swap. So, finally, the question is - if someone has any ideas how to find out what process is actually using the memory so heavily?

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• What networking hardware do I need in this situation (Fairpoint [ISP] "E-DIA" connection)?

  - by Tegeril

  Right away you'd probably want to say, "Well just ask Fairpoint." I've done that, a number of times in as many different ways I can phrase it and just keep hitting a brick wall where they will not commit to giving any useful information and instead recommend contracting an outside firm and spending a pile of money. Anyway... I'm trying to help a family member out with an office connection that is being setup. I've managed to scrape tiny details here and there from our discussions with the ISP (Fairpoint in Maine) about what is going to be done and what is going to be needed. This is the connection that is being setup: http://www.fairpoint.com/enterprise/vantagepoint/e-dia/index.jsp Information I have been given: Via this connection I can get IPs across different C blocks if that were necessary (it is not) Fairpoint is bringing hardware with them that they claim simply does the conversion from whatever line is coming in the building to ethernet, they have referred to this as the "Fairpoint Netvanta" which I know suggests a line of products that I have looked up, but some (most? all?) of those seems to handle all the routing that I saw. Fairpoint says that I need to bring my own router to sit behind their device. They have literally declined to even suggest products that have worked for other clients in the past and fall back on "any business router works, not a home router." That alone makes my head spin. Detail and clarity hit a brick wall from there. At one moment I got them to cough up that the router I provide needs to be able to do VPN tunneling but they typically fall back to "not a home router" and I was even given "just a business router, Cisco or something, it'll be $500-$1000". Now I know that VPN tunneling routers exist well below that price point and since this connection is going to one machine, possibly two only via ethernet, my desire to purchase networking hardware that over-delivers what I need is not very high. They are literally setting all this up, have provided no configuration details for after they finish, and expect me to just plunk a $500+ router behind it and cross my fingers or contract out to a third party company. If there were other options available for the location, I would have dropped them in a second, but there aren't. The device that is connected requires a static IP and I'm honestly a bit hazy on the necessity of an additional router behind their device and generally a bit over my head. I presume that the router needs to be able to serve external static IPs to its clients, but I really don't know what is going to show up when they come to do the install. This was originally going to be run via an ADSL bridge modem with a range of static IPs (which is easy and is currently setup properly) but the location is too far from the telco to get speeds that we really want for upload and this is also a connection that needs high availability. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated (I see a number of options in the Cisco Small Business line and other competitors that aren't going to break the bank…), especially if you've worked with Fairpoint before! Thanks for reading my wall of text.

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• Linux software RAID6: 3 drives offline - how to force online?

  - by Ole Tange

  This is similar to 3 drives fell out of Raid6 mdadm - rebuilding? except that it is not due to a failing cable. Instead the 3rd drive fell offline during rebuild of another drive. The drive failed with: kernel: end_request: I/O error, dev sdc, sector 293732432 kernel: md/raid:md0: read error not correctable (sector 293734224 on sdc). After rebooting both these sectors and the sectors around them are fine. This leads me to believe the error is intermittent and thus the device simply took too long to error correct the sector and remap it. I expect that no data was written to the RAID after it failed. Therefore I hope that if I can kick the last failing device online that the RAID is fine and that the xfs_filesystem is OK, maybe with a few missing recent files. Taking a backup of the disks in the RAID takes 24 hours, so I would prefer that the solution works the first time. I have therefore set up a test scenario: export PRE=3 parallel dd if=/dev/zero of=/tmp/raid${PRE}{} bs=1k count=1000k ::: 1 2 3 4 5 parallel mknod /dev/loop${PRE}{} b 7 ${PRE}{} \; losetup /dev/loop${PRE}{} /tmp/raid${PRE}{} ::: 1 2 3 4 5 mdadm --create /dev/md$PRE -c 4096 --level=6 --raid-devices=5 /dev/loop${PRE}[12345] cat /proc/mdstat mkfs.xfs -f /dev/md$PRE mkdir -p /mnt/disk2 umount -l /mnt/disk2 mount /dev/md$PRE /mnt/disk2 seq 1000 | parallel -j1 mkdir -p /mnt/disk2/{}\;cp /bin/* /mnt/disk2/{}\;sleep 0.5 & mdadm --fail /dev/md$PRE /dev/loop${PRE}3 /dev/loop${PRE}4 cat /proc/mdstat # Assume reboot so no process is using the dir kill %1; sync & kill %1; sync & # Force fail one too many mdadm --fail /dev/md$PRE /dev/loop${PRE}1 parallel --tag -k mdadm -E ::: /dev/loop${PRE}? | grep Upda # loop 2,5 are newest. loop1 almost newest => force add loop1 Next step is to add loop1 back - and this is where I am stuck. After that do a xfs-consistency check. When that works, check that the solution also works on real devices (such a 4 USB sticks).

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• Incremental RPM package version "numbers" for x.y.z > x.y.z-beta (or alpha, rc, etc)

  - by Jonathan Clarke

  In order to publish RPM packages of several different versions of some software, I'm looking for a way to specify version "numbers" that are considered "upgrades", and include the differentiation of several pre-release versions, such as (in order): "2.4.0 alpha 1", "2.4.0 alpha 2", "2.4.0 alpha 3", "2.4.0 beta 1", "2.4.0 beta 2", "2.4.0 release candidate", "2.4.0 final", "2.4.1", "2.4.2", etc. The main issue I have with this is that RPM considers that "2.4.0" comes earlier than "2.4.0.alpha1", so I can't just add the suffix on the end of the final version number. I could try "2.4.0.alpha1", "2.4.0.beta1", "2.4.0.final", which would work, except for the "release candidate" that would be considered later than "2.4.0.final". An alternative I considered is using the "epoch:" section of the RPM version number (the epoch: prefix is considered before the main version number so that "1:2.4.0" is actually earlier than "2:1.0.0"). By putting a timestamp in the epoch: field, all the versions get ordered as expected by RPM, because their versions appear to increment in time. However, this fails when new releases are made on several major versions at the same time (for example, 2.3.2 is released after 2.4.0, but their version for RPM are "20121003:2.3.2" and "20120928:2.4.0" and systems on 2.3.2 can't get "upgraded" to 2.4.0, because rpm sees it as an older version). In this case, yum/zypper/etc refuse to upgrade to 2.4.0, thus my problem. What version numbers can I use to achieve this, and make sure that RPM always considers the version numbers to be in order. Or if not version numbers, other mechanism in RPM packaging? Note 1: I would like to keep the "Release:" field of the spec file for it's original purpose (several releases of packages, including packaging changes, for the same version of the packaged software). Note 2: This should work on current production versions of major distributions, such as RHEL/CentOS 6 and SLES 11. But I'm interested in solutions that don't, too, so long as they don't involve recompiling rpm! Note 3: On Debian-like systems, dpkg uses a special component in the version number which is the "~" (tilde) character. This causes dpkg to count the suffix as "negative" ordering, so that "2.4.0~anything" will come before "2.4.0". Then, normal ordering applies after the "~", so "2.4.0~alpha1" comes before "2.4.0~beta1" because "alpha" comes before "beta" alphabetically. I'm not necessarily looking to use the same scheme for RPM packages (I'm pretty sure no such equivalent exists), so this is just FYI.

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• WPF: Setting DataContext of a UserControl with Binding not working in XAML

  - by Grant Crofton

  Hi, I'm trying to get my first WPF app working using MVVM, and I've hit a little binding problem. The setup is that I have a view & viewModel which holds User details (the parent), and to try and keep things simple I've put a section of that view into a separate view & viewModel (the child). The child view is defined as a UserControl. The issue I'm having is how to set the DataContext of the child view (the UserControl). My parent ViewModel has a property which exposes the child ViewModel, like so: class ParentViewModel: INotifyPropertyChanged { public ChildViewModel childViewModel { get; set; } //... } In the XAML for my parent view (which has it's DataContext set to the ParentViewModel), I try to set the DataContext of the child view as follows: <views:ChildView x:Name="ChildView" DataContext="{Binding childViewModel}"/> However, this doesn't work. The DataContext of the child view is set to the same DataContext as the parent view (i.e. the ParentViewModel), as if I wasn't setting it at all. I also tried setting the DataContext in the child view itself, which also doesn't work: <UserControl x:Class="DietRecorder.Client.View.ChildView" DataContext="childViewModel" I have found a couple of ways around this. In the child view, I can bind everything by including the ChildViewModel in the path: <SomeControl Visibility="{Binding Path=childViewModel.IsVisible}"> but I don't want the child view to have this level of awareness of the hierarchy. Setting the DataContext in code also works - however, I have to do this after showing the parent view, otherwise the DataContext just gets overwritten when I call Show(): parentView.Show(); parentView.ChildView.DataContext = parentViewModel.childViewModel; This code also makes me feel uneasy, what with the LOD violation and all. It's just the DataContext that seems to be the problem - I can bind other things in the child, for example I tried binding the FontSize to an int property just to test it: <views:ChildView x:Name="ChildView" FontSize="{Binding Path=someVal}"/> And that works fine. But I'm sure binding the DataContext should work - I've seen similar examples of this kind of thing. Have I missed something obvious here? Is there a reason this won't work? Is there a spelling mistake somewhere? (I renamed things for your benefit so you won't be able to help me there anyway). Any thoughts welcome. Thanks, Grant

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• Json.Net Issues: StackOverflowException is thrown when serialising circular dependent ISerializable object with ReferenceLoopHandling.Ignore

  - by keyr

  I have a legacy application that used binary serialisation to persist the data. Now we wanted to use Json.net 4.5 to serialise the data without much changes to the existing classes. Things were working nice till we hit a circular dependent class. Is there any workaround to solve this problem? Sample code as shown below [Serializable] class Department : ISerializable { public Employee Manager { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public Department() { } public Department( SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context ) { Manager = ( Employee )info.GetValue( "Manager", typeof( Employee ) ); Name = ( string )info.GetValue( "Name", typeof( string ) ); } public void GetObjectData( SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context ) { info.AddValue( "Manager", Manager ); info.AddValue( "Name", Name ); } } [Serializable] class Employee : ISerializable { [NonSerialized] //This does not work [XmlIgnore]//This does not work private Department mDepartment; public Department Department { get { return mDepartment; } set { mDepartment = value; } } public string Name { get; set; } public Employee() { } public Employee( SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context ) { Department = ( Department )info.GetValue( "Department", typeof( Department ) ); Name = ( string )info.GetValue( "Name", typeof( string ) ); } public void GetObjectData( SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context ) { info.AddValue( "Department", Department ); info.AddValue( "Name", Name ); } } And the test code Department department = new Department(); department.Name = "Dept1"; Employee emp1 = new Employee { Name = "Emp1", Department = department }; department.Manager = emp1; Employee emp2 = new Employee() { Name = "Emp2", Department = department }; IList<Employee> employees = new List<Employee>(); employees.Add( emp1 ); employees.Add( emp2 ); var memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); var formatter = new BinaryFormatter(); formatter.Serialize( memoryStream, employees ); memoryStream.Seek( 0, SeekOrigin.Begin ); IList<Employee> deserialisedEmployees = formatter.Deserialize( memoryStream ) as IList<Employee>; //Works nicely JsonSerializerSettings jsonSS= new JsonSerializerSettings(); jsonSS.TypeNameHandling = TypeNameHandling.Objects; jsonSS.TypeNameAssemblyFormat = FormatterAssemblyStyle.Full; jsonSS.Formatting = Formatting.Indented; jsonSS.ReferenceLoopHandling = ReferenceLoopHandling.Ignore; //This is not working!! //jsonSS.ReferenceLoopHandling = ReferenceLoopHandling.Serialize; //This is also not working!! jsonSS.PreserveReferencesHandling = PreserveReferencesHandling.All; string jsonAll = JsonConvert.SerializeObject( employees, jsonSS ); //Throws stackoverflow exception Edit1: The issue has been reported to Json (http://json.codeplex.com/workitem/23668)

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• No mapping found for HTTP request with URI: in a Spring MVC app

  - by Ravi

  Hello All, I'm getting this error. my web.xml has this <servlet> <servlet-name>springweb</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>/WEB-INF/web-application-config.xml</param-value> </init-param> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>springweb</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/app/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> I have this in my web-application-config.xml <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.UrlBasedViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"/> </bean> <bean name="/Scheduling.htm" class="com.web.SchedulingController"/> my com.web.SchedulingController looks like this /* * To change this template, choose Tools | Templates * and open the template in the editor. */ package com.web; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletResponse; import org.springframework.web.servlet.ModelAndView; import org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.Controller; public class SchedulingController implements Controller{ public ModelAndView handleRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("/jsp/Scheduling_main.jsp"); modelAndView.addObject("message","Hello World MVC!!"); return modelAndView; } } When I hit this controller with the URL http://localhost:8080/project1/app/Scheduling.htm The Scheduling_main.jsp gets displayed but the images are not displayed properly. Also the js and css file are not getting rendered. I'm accessing the images like this <img src="jquerylib/images/save_32x32.png" title="Save Appointment"> If I change the URL mapping in the servlet definition to *.htm, the images get displayed fine. Can you point out where I'm missing out. Here is complete error message WARN [PageNotFound] No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/mavenproject1/app/jquerylib/images/save_32x32.png] in DispatcherServlet with name 'springweb' Thanks a lot. Ravi

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• WPF storyboard animation issue when using VisualBrush

  - by Flack

  Hey guys, I was playing around with storyboards, a flipping animation, and visual brushes. I have encountered an issue though. Below is the xaml and code-behind of a small sample I quickly put together to try to demonstrate the problem. When you first start the app, you are presented with a red square and two buttons. If you click the "Flip" button, the red square will "flip" over and a blue one will appear. In reality, all that is happening is that the scale of the width of the StackPanel that the red square is in is being decreased until it reaches zero and then the StackPanel where a blue square is, whose width is initially scaled to zero, has its width increased. If you click the "Flip" button a few times, the animation looks ok and smooth. Now, if you hit the "Reflection" button, a reflection of the red/blue buttons is added to their respective StackPanels. Hitting the "Flip" button now will still cause the flip animation but it is no longer a smooth animation. The StackPanels width often does not shrink to zero. The width shrinks somewhat but then just stops before being completely invisible. Then the other StackPanel appears as usual. The only thing that changed was adding the reflection, which is just a VisualBrush. Below is the code. Does anyone have any idea why the animations are different between the two cases (stalling in the second case)? Thanks. <Window xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xml:lang="en-US" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2006" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" x:Class="WpfFlipTest.Window1" x:Name="Window" Title="Window1" Width="214" Height="224"> <Window.Resources> <Storyboard x:Key="sbFlip"> <DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames BeginTime="00:00:00" Storyboard.TargetName="redStack" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.RenderTransform).(ScaleTransform.ScaleX)"> <SplineDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="00:00:00.4" Value="0"/> </DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames> <DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames BeginTime="00:00:00.4" Storyboard.TargetName="blueStack" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.RenderTransform).(ScaleTransform.ScaleX)"> <SplineDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="00:00:00.8" Value="1"/> </DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> <Storyboard x:Key="sbFlipBack"> <DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames BeginTime="00:00:00" Storyboard.TargetName="blueStack" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.RenderTransform).(ScaleTransform.ScaleX)"> <SplineDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="00:00:00.4" Value="0"/> </DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames> <DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames BeginTime="00:00:00.4" Storyboard.TargetName="redStack" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.RenderTransform).(ScaleTransform.ScaleX)"> <SplineDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="00:00:00.8" Value="1"/> </DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </Window.Resources> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="Gray"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <StackPanel Name="redStack" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="0" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5"> <StackPanel.RenderTransform> <ScaleTransform/> </StackPanel.RenderTransform> <Border Name="redBorder" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="4" Width="Auto" Height="Auto"> <Button Margin="0" Name="redButton" Height="75" Background="Red" Width="105" /> </Border> <Border Width="{Binding ElementName=redBorder, Path=ActualWidth}" Height="{Binding ElementName=redBorder, Path=ActualHeight}" Opacity="0.2" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="4" Name="redRefelction" Visibility="Collapsed"> <Border.OpacityMask> <LinearGradientBrush StartPoint="0,0" EndPoint="0,1"> <LinearGradientBrush.GradientStops> <GradientStop Offset="0" Color="Black"/> <GradientStop Offset=".6" Color="Transparent"/> </LinearGradientBrush.GradientStops> </LinearGradientBrush> </Border.OpacityMask> <Border.Background> <VisualBrush Visual="{Binding ElementName=redButton}"> <VisualBrush.Transform> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="1" ScaleY="-1" CenterX="52.5" CenterY="37.5" /> </VisualBrush.Transform> </VisualBrush> </Border.Background> </Border> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Name="blueStack" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="0" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5"> <StackPanel.RenderTransform> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="0"/> </StackPanel.RenderTransform> <Border Name="blueBorder" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="4" Width="Auto" Height="Auto"> <Button Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" Margin="0" Width="105" Background="Blue" Name="blueButton" Height="75"/> </Border> <Border Width="{Binding ElementName=blueBorder, Path=ActualWidth}" Height="{Binding ElementName=blueBorder, Path=ActualHeight}" Opacity="0.2" BorderBrush="Transparent" BorderThickness="4" Name="blueRefelction" Visibility="Collapsed"> <Border.OpacityMask> <LinearGradientBrush StartPoint="0,0" EndPoint="0,1"> <LinearGradientBrush.GradientStops> <GradientStop Offset="0" Color="Black"/> <GradientStop Offset=".6" Color="Transparent"/> </LinearGradientBrush.GradientStops> </LinearGradientBrush> </Border.OpacityMask> <Border.Background> <VisualBrush Visual="{Binding ElementName=blueButton}"> <VisualBrush.Transform> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="1" ScaleY="-1" CenterX="52.5" CenterY="37.5" /> </VisualBrush.Transform> </VisualBrush> </Border.Background> </Border> </StackPanel> <Button Grid.Row="1" Click="FlipButton_Click" Height="19.45" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="76">Flip</Button> <Button Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1" Click="ReflectionButton_Click" Height="19.45" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="76">Reflection</Button> </Grid> </Window> Here are the button click handlers: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Data; using System.Windows.Documents; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Imaging; using System.Windows.Navigation; using System.Windows.Shapes; using System.Windows.Media.Animation; namespace WpfFlipTest { public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); } bool flipped = false; private void FlipButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Storyboard sbFlip = (Storyboard)Resources["sbFlip"]; Storyboard sbFlipBack = (Storyboard)Resources["sbFlipBack"]; if (flipped) { sbFlipBack.Begin(); flipped = false; } else { sbFlip.Begin(); flipped = true; } } bool reflection = false; private void ReflectionButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { if (reflection) { reflection = false; redRefelction.Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; blueRefelction.Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; } else { reflection = true; redRefelction.Visibility = Visibility.Visible; blueRefelction.Visibility = Visibility.Visible; } } } } UPDATE: I have been testing this some more to try to find out what is causing the issue I am seeing and I believe I found what is causing the issue. Below I have pasted new xaml and code-behind. The new sample below is very similar to the original sample, with a few minor modifications. The xaml basically consists of two stack panels, each containing two borders. The second border in each stack panel is a visual brush (a reflection of the border above it). Now, when I click the "Flip" button, one stack panel gets its ScaleX reduced to zero, while the second stack panel, whose initial ScaleX is zero, gets its ScaleX increased to 1. This animation gives the illusion of flipping. There are also two textblocks which display the scale factor of each stack panel. I added those to try to diagnose my issue. The issue is (as described in the oringal post) that the flipping animation is not smooth. Every time I hit the flip button, the animation starts but whenever the ScaleX factor gets to around .14 to .16, the animation looks like it stalls and the stack panels never have there ScaleX reduced to zero, so they never totally disappear. Now, the strange thing is that if I change the Width/Height properties of the "frontBorder" and "backBorder" borders defined below to use explict values instead of Auto, such as Width=105 and Height=75 (to match the button in the border) everything works fine. The animation stutters the first two or three times I run it but after that the flips are smooth and flawless. (BTW, when an animation is run for the first time, is there something going on in the background, some sort of initialization, that causes it to be a little slow the first time?) Is it possible that the Auto Width/Height of the borders are causing the issue? I can reproduce it everytime but I am not sure why Auto Width/Height would be a problem. Below is the sample. Thanks for the help. <Window x:Class="FlipTest.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Window.Resources> <Storyboard x:Key="sbFlip"> <DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames BeginTime="00:00:00" Storyboard.TargetName="front" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.RenderTransform).(ScaleTransform.ScaleX)"> <SplineDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="00:00:00.5" Value="0"/> </DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames> <DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames BeginTime="00:00:00.5" Storyboard.TargetName="back" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.RenderTransform).(ScaleTransform.ScaleX)"> <SplineDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="00:00:00.5" Value="1"/> </DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> <Storyboard x:Key="sbFlipBack"> <DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames BeginTime="00:00:00" Storyboard.TargetName="back" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.RenderTransform).(ScaleTransform.ScaleX)"> <SplineDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="00:00:00.5" Value="0"/> </DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames> <DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames BeginTime="00:00:00.5" Storyboard.TargetName="front" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.RenderTransform).(ScaleTransform.ScaleX)"> <SplineDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="00:00:00.5" Value="1"/> </DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </Window.Resources> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White" ShowGridLines="True"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <StackPanel x:Name="front" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5"> <StackPanel.RenderTransform> <ScaleTransform/> </StackPanel.RenderTransform> <Border Name="frontBorder" BorderBrush="Yellow" BorderThickness="2" Width="Auto" Height="Auto"> <Button Margin="0" Name="redButton" Height="75" Background="Red" Width="105" Click="FlipButton_Click"/> </Border> <Border Width="{Binding ElementName=frontBorder, Path=ActualWidth}" Height="{Binding ElementName=frontBorder, Path=ActualHeight}" Opacity="0.2" BorderBrush="Transparent"> <Border.OpacityMask> <LinearGradientBrush StartPoint="0,0" EndPoint="0,1"> <LinearGradientBrush.GradientStops> <GradientStop Offset="0" Color="Black"/> <GradientStop Offset=".6" Color="Transparent"/> </LinearGradientBrush.GradientStops> </LinearGradientBrush> </Border.OpacityMask> <Border.Background> <VisualBrush Visual="{Binding ElementName=frontBorder}"> <VisualBrush.Transform> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="1" ScaleY="-1" CenterX="52.5" CenterY="37.5" /> </VisualBrush.Transform> </VisualBrush> </Border.Background> </Border> </StackPanel> <StackPanel x:Name="back" RenderTransformOrigin="0.5,0.5"> <StackPanel.RenderTransform> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="0"/> </StackPanel.RenderTransform> <Border Name="backBorder" BorderBrush="Yellow" BorderThickness="2" Width="Auto" Height="Auto"> <Button Margin="0" Width="105" Background="Blue" Name="blueButton" Height="75" Click="FlipButton_Click"/> </Border> <Border Width="{Binding ElementName=backBorder, Path=ActualWidth}" Height="{Binding ElementName=backBorder, Path=ActualHeight}" Opacity="0.2" BorderBrush="Transparent"> <Border.OpacityMask> <LinearGradientBrush StartPoint="0,0" EndPoint="0,1"> <LinearGradientBrush.GradientStops> <GradientStop Offset="0" Color="Black"/> <GradientStop Offset=".6" Color="Transparent"/> </LinearGradientBrush.GradientStops> </LinearGradientBrush> </Border.OpacityMask> <Border.Background> <VisualBrush Visual="{Binding ElementName=backBorder}"> <VisualBrush.Transform> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="1" ScaleY="-1" CenterX="52.5" CenterY="37.5" /> </VisualBrush.Transform> </VisualBrush> </Border.Background> </Border> </StackPanel> <Button Grid.Row="1" Click="FlipButton_Click" Height="19.45" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="76">Flip</Button> <TextBlock Grid.Row="2" Grid.Column="0" Foreground="DarkRed" Height="19.45" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="76" Text="{Binding ElementName=front, Path=(UIElement.RenderTransform).(ScaleTransform.ScaleX)}"/> <TextBlock Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="0" Foreground="DarkBlue" Height="19.45" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="76" Text="{Binding ElementName=back, Path=(UIElement.RenderTransform).(ScaleTransform.ScaleX)}"/> </Grid> </Window> Code-behind: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Data; using System.Windows.Documents; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Imaging; using System.Windows.Navigation; using System.Windows.Shapes; using System.Windows.Media.Animation; namespace FlipTest { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); } bool flipped = false; private void FlipButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Storyboard sbFlip = (Storyboard)Resources["sbFlip"]; Storyboard sbFlipBack = (Storyboard)Resources["sbFlipBack"]; if (flipped) { sbFlipBack.Begin(); flipped = false; } else { sbFlip.Begin(); flipped = true; } } } }

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• .NET Web Service (asmx) Timeout Problem

  - by Barry Fandango

  I'm connecting to a vendor-supplied web ASMX service and sending a set of data over the wire. My first attempt hit the 1 minute timeout that Visual Studio throws in by default in the app.config file when you add a service reference to a project. I increased it to 10 minutes, another timeout. 1 hour, another timeout: Error: System.TimeoutException: The request channel timed out while waiting for a reply after 00:59:59.6874880. Increase the timeout value passed to the call to Request or increase the SendTimeout value on the Binding. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout. ---> System.TimeoutE xception: The HTTP request to 'http://servername/servicename.asmx' has exceeded the allotted timeout of 01:00:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout. ---> System.Net.WebExcept ion: The operation has timed out at System.Net.HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() [... lengthly stacktrace follows] I contacted the vendor. They confirmed the call may take over an hour (don't ask, they are the bane of my existence.) I increased the timeout to 10 hours to be on the safe side. However the web service call continues to time out at 1 hour. The relevant app.config section now looks like this: <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BindingName" closeTimeout="10:00:00" openTimeout="10:00:00" receiveTimeout="10:00:00" sendTimeout="10:00:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" proxyCredentialType="None" realm="" /> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" algorithmSuite="Default" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> Pretty absurd, but regardless the timeout is still kicking in at 1 hour. Unfortunately every change takes at least an additional hour to test. Is there some internal limit that I'm bumping into - another timeout setting to be changed somewhere? All changes to these settings up to one hour had the expected effect. Thanks for any help you can provide!

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• WPF Focus In Tab Control Content When New Tab is Created

  - by Phil Sandler

  I've done a lot of searching on SO and google around this problem, but can't seem to find anything else to try. I have a MainView (window) that contains a tab control. The tab control binds to an ObservableCollection of ChildViews (user controls). The MainView's ViewModel has a method that allows adding to the collection of ChildViews, which then creates a new tab. When a new tab is created, it becomes the active tab, and this works fine. This method on the MainView is called from another ViewModel (OtherViewModel). What I am trying to do is set the keyboard focus to the first control on the tab (an AutoCompleteBox from WPFToolkit*) when a new tab is created. I also need to set the focus the same way, but WITHOUT creating a new tab (so set the focus on the currently active tab). (*Note that there seem to be some focus problems with the AutoCompleteBox--even if it does have focus you need to send a MoveNext() to it to get the cursor in its window. I have worked around this already). So here's the problem. The focusing works when I don't create a new tab, but it doesn't work when I do create a new tab. Both functions use the same method to set focus, but the create logic first calls the method that creates a new tab and sets it to active. Code that sets the focus (in the ChildView's Codebehind): IInputElement element1 = Keyboard.Focus(autoCompleteBox); //plus code to deal with AutoCompleteBox as noted. In either case, the Keyboard.FocusedElement starts out as the MainView. After a create, calling Keyboard.Focus seems to do nothing (focused element is still the MainView). Calling this without creating a tab correctly sets the keyboard focus to autoCompleteBox. Any ideas? Update: Bender's suggestion half-worked. So now in both cases, the focused element is correctly the AutoCompleteBox. What I then do is MoveNext(), which sets the focus to a TextBox. I have been assuming that this Textbox is internal to the AutoCompleteBox, as the focus was correctly set on screen when this happened. Now I'm not so sure. This is still the behavior I see when this code gets hit when NOT doing a create. After a create, MoveNext() sets the focus to an element back in my MainView. The problem must still be along the lines of Bender's answer, where the state of the controls is not the same depending on whether a new tab was created or not. Any other thoughts?

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• Facebook connect displaying invite friends dialog and closing on completion

  - by Dougnukem

  I'm trying to create a Facebook Connect application that displays a friend invite dialog within the page using Facebook's Javascript API (through a FBMLPopupDialog). The trouble is to display a friend invite dialog you use a multi-friend form which requires an action="url" attribute that represents the URL to redirect your page to when the user completes or skips the form. The problem is that I want to just close the FBMLPopupDialog (the same behavior as if the user just hit the 'X' button on the popup dialog). The best I can do is redirect the user back to the page they were on basically a reload but they lose all AJAX/Flash application state. I'm wondering if any Facebook Connect developers have run into this issue and have a good way to simply display a friend invite "lightbox" dialog within their website where they don't want to "refresh" or "redirect" when the user finishes. The facebook connect JS API provides a FB.Connect.inviteConnectUsers, which provides a nice dialog but only connects existing users of your application who also have a Facebook account and haven't connected. http://bugs.developers.facebook.com/show%5Fbug.cgi?id=4916 function fb_inviteFriends() { //Invite users log("Inviting users..."); FB.Connect.requireSession( function() { //Connect succes var uid = FB.Facebook.apiClient.get_session().uid; log('FB CONNECT SUCCESS: ' + uid); //Invite users log("Inviting users..."); //Update server with connected account updateAccountFacebookUID(); var fbml = fb_getInviteFBML() ; var dialog = new FB.UI. FBMLPopupDialog("Weblings Invite", fbml) ; //dialog.setFBMLContent(fbml); dialog.setContentWidth(650); dialog.setContentHeight(450); dialog.show(); }, //Connect cancelled function() { //User cancelled the connect log("FB Connect cancelled:"); } ); } function fb_getInviteFBML() { var uid = FB.Facebook.apiClient.get_session().uid; var fbml = ""; fbml = '<fb:fbml>\n' + '<fb:request-form\n'+ //Redirect back to this page ' action="'+ document.location +'"\n'+ ' method="POST"\n'+ ' invite="true"\n'+ ' type="Weblings Invite"\n' + ' content="I need your help to discover all the Weblings and save the Internet! WebWars: Weblings is a cool new game where we can collect fantastic creatures while surfing our favorite websites. Come find the missing Weblings with me!'+ //Callback the server with the appropriate Webwars Account URL ' <fb:req-choice url=\''+ WebwarsFB.WebwarsAccountServer +'/SplashPage.aspx?action=ref&reftype=Facebook' label=\'Check out WebWars: Weblings\' />"\n'+ '>\n'+ ' <fb:multi-friend-selector\n'+ ' rows="2"\n'+ ' cols="4"\n'+ ' bypass="Cancel"\n'+ ' showborder="false"\n'+ ' actiontext="Use this form to invite your friends to connect with WebWars: Weblings."/>\n'+ ' </fb:request-form>'+ ' </fb:fbml>'; return fbml; }

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• Very slow compile times on Visual Studio

  - by johnc

  We are getting very slow compile times, which can take upwards of 20+ minutes on dual core 2GHz, 2G Ram machines. A lot of this is due to the size of our solution which has grown to 70+ projects, as well as VSS which is a bottle neck in itself when you have a lot of files. (swapping out VSS is not an option unfortunately, so I don't want this to descend into a VSS bash) We are looking at combing projects (not nice, as we like the separation of concerns, but is a good opportunity to refactor away some dead wood). We are also looking at having multiple solutions to achieve greater separation of concerns and quicker compile times for each element of the application. This I can see will become a dll hell as we try to keep things in synch. I am interested to know how other teams have dealt with this scaling issue, what do you do when your code base reaches a critical mass that you are wasting half the day watching the status bar deliver compile messages UPDATE Apologies, I neglected to mention this is a C# solution. Thanks for all the cpp suggestions, but it's been a few years since I've had to worry about headers. At a distance I say I miss C++, but I'm not sure I want to go back EDIT: Nice suggestions that have helped so far (not saying there aren't other nice suggestions below, just what has helped) New 3GHz laptop - the power of lost utilization works wonders when whinging to management Disable Anti Virus during compile 'Disconnecting' from VSS (actually the network) during compile - I may get us to remove VS-VSS integration altogether and stick to using the VSS UI Still not rip-snorting through a compile, but every bit helps. Orion did mention in a comment that generics may have a play also. From my tests there does appear to be a minimal performance hit, but not high enough to sure - compile times can be inconsistent due to disc activity. Due to time limitations, my tests didn't include as many Generics, or as much code, as would appear in live system, so that may accumulate. I wouldn't avoid using generics where they are supposed to be used, just for compile time performance WORKAROUND We are testing the practice of building new areas of the application in new solutions, importing in the latest dlls as required, them integrating them into the larger solution when we are happy with them. We may also do them same to existing code by creating temporary solutions that just encapsulate the areas we need to work on, and throwing them away after reintegrating the code. We need to weigh up the time it will take to reintegrate this code against the time we gain by not having Rip Van Winkle like experiences with rapid recompiling during development.

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• jQuery Validation plugin: disable validation for specified submit buttons

  - by Ted

  I have a form with multiple fields that I'm validating (some with methods added for custom validation) with Jörn Zaeffere's excellent jQuery Validation plugin. How do you circumvent validation with specified submit controls (in other words, fire validation with some submit inputs, but do not fire validation with others)? This would be similar to ValidationGroups with standard ASP.NET validator controls. My situation: It's with ASP.NET WebForms, but you can ignore that if you wish. However, I am using the validation more as a "recommendation": in other words, when the form is submitted, validation fires but instead of a "required" message displaying, a "recommendation" shows that says something along the line of "you missed the following fields.... do you wish to proceed anyways?" At that point in the error container there's another submit button now visible that can be pressed which would ignore the validation and submit anyways. How to circumvent the forms .validate() for this button control and still post? The Buy and Sell a House sample at http://jquery.bassistance.de/validate/demo/multipart/ allows for this in order to hit the previous links, but it does so through creating custom methods and adding it to the validator. I would prefer to not have to create custom methods duplicating functionality already in the validation plugin. The following is a shortened version of the immediately applicable script that I've got right now: var container = $("#<%= Form.ClientID %> div.validationSuggestion"); $('#<%= Form.ClientID %>').validate({ errorContainer: container, errorLabelContainer: $("ul",container), rules: { <%= YesNo.UniqueID %>: { required: true }, <%= ShortText.UniqueID %>: { required: true } // etc. }, messages: { <%= YesNo.UniqueID %>: 'A message.', <%= ShortText.UniqueID %>: 'Another message.' // etc. }, highlight: function(element, errorClass) { $(element).addClass(errorClass); $(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").addClass(errorClass); $(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").removeClass("valid"); }, unhighlight: function(element, errorClass) { $(element).removeClass(errorClass); $(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").removeClass(errorClass); $(element.form).find("label[for=" + element.id + "]").addClass("valid"); }, wrapper: 'li' }); Much thanks in advance for helpful pointers. [UPDATE] Thanks to redsquare I discovered it's as easy as adding class="cancel" to the submit button. So easy and yet I have no idea how I did not come across it in all my searching. And for those who say my my follow-up answer regarding "but requires a double-click": this was merely due to a leftover experiment line that was unbinding the event - again something I don't know how I overlooked when testing. Thanks!

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• C# MP3 Player using winmm.dll

  - by JoeBeez

  I'm trying to bash together a (very) rough MP3 player during my lunch hour, and so far I've got it to play the files, and I'm working on a way of building a list of filenames to enable random songs, but I think I've just hit a snag. Is there a way of knowing when the currently playing MP3 has finished? An event or some such? As it stands I don't think I'd be able to have playlists etc unless this was possible due to it stopping after every playback. I've attatched the whole source below, feel free to pick it apart and give me any feedback you may have, cheers. using System; using System.IO; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace X { public partial class Form1 : Form { List<string> Names = new List<string>(); StreamReader reader = File.OpenText(@"C:\X.txt"); string line; OpenFileDialog ofd = new OpenFileDialog(); StringBuilder buffer = new StringBuilder(128); string CommandString; [DllImport("winmm.dll")] private static extern long mciSendString(string lpstrCommand, StringBuilder lpstrReturnString, int uReturnLength, int hwndCallback); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); while ((line = reader.ReadLine()) != null) { if (line.Trim() != "") { Names.Add(line.Trim()); } } } private void btnplay_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (ofd.FileName == "") { if (ofd.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { ofd.Filter = "MP3 Files|*.mp3"; CommandString = "open " + "\"" + ofd.FileName + "\"" + " type MPEGVideo alias Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); CommandString = "play Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); } } else { CommandString = "play Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); } } private void btnpause_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { CommandString = "pause mp3file"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); } private void btnbrowse_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { ofd.Filter = "Mp3 files |*.mp3"; if (ofd.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { txtpath.Text = ofd.FileName; CommandString = "close Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); CommandString = "open " + "\"" + ofd.FileName + "\"" + " type MPEGVideo alias Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); } } } }

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• Switching DataSources on a ReportViewer in WinForms

  - by Mike Wills

  I have created a winform for the users to view view the many reports I am creating for them. I have a drop down list with the report name which triggers the appropriate fields to display the parameters. Once those are filled, they press Submit and the report appears. This works the first time they hit the screen. They can change the parameters and the ReportViewer works fine. Change to a different report, and the I get the following ReportViewer error: An error occurred during local report processing. An error has occurred during the report processing. A data source instance has not been supplied for the data source "CgTempData_BusMaintenance". As far as the process I use: I set reportName (string) the physical RDLC name. I set the dataSource (string) as the DataSource Name I fill a generic DataTable with the data for the report to run from. Make the ReportViewer visible Set the LocalReport.ReportPath = "Reports\\" = reportName; Clear the LocalReport.DataSources.Clear() Add the new LocalReport.DataSources.Add(new ReportDataSource(dataSource, dt)); RefreshReport() on the ReportViewer. Here is the portion of the code that setups up and displays the ReportViewer: /// <summary> /// Builds the report. /// </summary> private void BuildReport() { DataTable dt = null; ReportingCG rcg = new ReportingCG(); if (reportName == "GasUsedReport.rdlc") { dataSource = "CgTempData_FuelLog"; CgTempData.FuelLogDataTable DtFuelLog = rcg.BuildFuelUsedTable(fromDate, toDate); dt = DtFuelLog; } else if (reportName == "InventoryCost.rdlc") { CgTempData.InventoryUsedDataTable DtInventory; dataSource = "CgTempData_InventoryUsed"; DtInventory = rcg.BuildInventoryUsedTable(fromDate, toDate); dt = DtInventory; } else if (reportName == "VehicleMasterList.rdlc") { dataSource = "CgTempData_VehicleMaster"; CgTempData.VehicleMasterDataTable DtVehicleMaster = rcg.BuildVehicleMasterTable(); dt = DtVehicleMaster; } else if (reportName == "BusCosts.rdlc") { dataSource = "CgTempData_BusMaintenance"; dt = rcg.BuildBusCostsTable(fromDate, toDate); } // Setup the DataSource this.reportViewer1.Visible = true; this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.ReportPath = "Reports\\" + reportName; this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.DataSources.Clear(); this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.DataSources.Add(new ReportDataSource(dataSource, dt)); this.reportViewer1.RefreshReport(); } Any ideas how to remove all of the old remaining data? Do I dispose the object and recreate it?

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• Android sending lots of SMS messages

  - by Robert Parker

  I have a app, which sends a lot of SMS messages to a central server. Each user will probably send ~300 txts/day. SMS messages are being used as a networking layer, because SMS is almost everywhere and mobile internet is not. The app is intended for use in a lot of 3rd world countries where mobile internet is not ubiquitous. When I hit a limit of 100 messages, I get a prompt for each message sent. The prompt says "A large number of SMS messages are being sent". This is not ok for the user to get prompted each time to ask if the app can send a text message. The user doesn't want to get 30 consecutive prompts. I found this android source file with google. It could be out of date, I can't tell. It looks like there is a limit of 100 sms messages every 3600000ms(1 day) for each application. http://www.netmite.com/android/mydroid/frameworks/base/telephony/java/com/android/internal/telephony/gsm/SMSDispatcher.java /** Default checking period for SMS sent without uesr permit */ private static final int DEFAULT_SMS_CHECK_PERIOD = 3600000; /** Default number of SMS sent in checking period without uesr permit */ private static final int DEFAULT_SMS_MAX_ALLOWED = 100; and /** * Implement the per-application based SMS control, which only allows * a limit on the number of SMS/MMS messages an app can send in checking * period. */ private class SmsCounter { private int mCheckPeriod; private int mMaxAllowed; private HashMap<String, ArrayList<Long>> mSmsStamp; /** * Create SmsCounter * @param mMax is the number of SMS allowed without user permit * @param mPeriod is the checking period */ SmsCounter(int mMax, int mPeriod) { mMaxAllowed = mMax; mCheckPeriod = mPeriod; mSmsStamp = new HashMap<String, ArrayList<Long>> (); } boolean check(String appName) { if (!mSmsStamp.containsKey(appName)) { mSmsStamp.put(appName, new ArrayList<Long>()); } return isUnderLimit(mSmsStamp.get(appName)); } private boolean isUnderLimit(ArrayList<Long> sent) { Long ct = System.currentTimeMillis(); Log.d(TAG, "SMS send size=" + sent.size() + "time=" + ct); while (sent.size() > 0 && (ct - sent.get(0)) > mCheckPeriod ) { sent.remove(0); } if (sent.size() < mMaxAllowed) { sent.add(ct); return true; } return false; } } Is this even the real android code? It looks like it is in the package "com.android.internal.telephony.gsm", I can't find this package on the android website. How can I disable/modify this limit? I've been googling for solutions, but I haven't found anything.

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• How can you add a UIGestureRecognizer to a UIBarButtonItem as in the common undo/redo UIPopoverContr

  - by SG

  Problem In my iPad app, I cannot attach a popover to a button bar item only after press-and-hold events. But this seems to be standard for undo/redo. How do other apps do this? Background I have an undo button (UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo) in the toolbar of my UIKit (iPad) app. When I press the undo button, it fires it's action which is undo:, and that executes correctly. However, the "standard UE convention" for undo/redo on iPad is that pressing undo executes an undo but pressing and holding the button reveals a popover controller where the user selected either "undo" or "redo" until the controller is dismissed. The normal way to attach a popover controller is with presentPopoverFromBarButtonItem:, and I can configure this easily enough. To get this to show only after press-and-hold we have to set a view to respond to "long press" gesture events as in this snippet: UILongPressGestureRecognizer *longPressOnUndoGesture = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleLongPressOnUndoGesture:)]; //Broken because there is no customView in a UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo item [self.undoButtonItem.customView addGestureRecognizer:longPressOnUndoGesture]; [longPressOnUndoGesture release]; With this, after a press-and-hold on the view the method handleLongPressOnUndoGesture: will get called, and within this method I will configure and display the popover for undo/redo. So far, so good. The problem with this is that there is no view to attach to. self.undoButtonItem is a UIButtonBarItem, not a view. Possible solutions 1) [The ideal] Attach the gesture recognizer to the button bar item. It is possible to attach a gesture recognizer to a view, but UIButtonBarItem is not a view. It does have a property for .customView, but that property is nil when the buttonbaritem is a standard system type (in this case it is). 2) Use another view. I could use the UIToolbar but that would require some weird hit-testing and be an all around hack, if even possible in the first place. There is no other alternative view to use that I can think of. 3) Use the customView property. Standard types like UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo have no customView (it is nil). Setting the customView will erase the standard contents which it needs to have. This would amount to re-implementing all the look and function of UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo, again if even possible to do. Question How can I attach a gesture recognizer to this "button"? More specifically, how can I implement the standard press-and-hold-to-show-redo-popover in an iPad app? Ideas? Thank you very much, especially if someone actually has this working in their app (I'm thinking of you, omni) and wants to share...

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• Detect an Uninstall in a Launch Condition using Wix MSIs

  - by coxymla

  I've been playing around with Wix, making a little app with auto-generated installer and three versions to test the upgradability, 1.0, 1.1 and 2.0. 1.1 is meant to be able to upgrade from 1.0, and not to allow the user to install 1.1 if 1.1 is already present. <Upgrade Id="F30C4129-F14E-43ee-BD5E-03AA89AD8E07"> <UpgradeVersion Minimum="1.0.0" IncludeMinimum="yes" Maximum="1.0.0" IncludeMaximum="yes" Property="OLDERVERSIONBEINGUPGRADED" /> <UpgradeVersion Minimum="1.1.0" IncludeMinimum="yes" OnlyDetect="yes" Property="NEWERVERSIONDETECTED" /> </Upgrade> <Condition Message="A later version of [ProductName] is already installed. Setup will now exit."> NOT (NEWERVERSIONDETECTED OR Installed) </Condition> Problem #1: 1.1 can't be uninstalled, because the condition is set and checked during the uninstall. 2.0 is meant to be able to upgrade from 1.1, and not to upgrade from 1.0 ('too old'.) It shouldn't be able to install on top of itself either. <Upgrade Id="F30C4129-F14E-43ee-BD5E-03AA89AD8E07"> <UpgradeVersion Minimum="1.1.0" IncludeMinimum="yes" Maximum="1.1.0" IncludeMaximum="yes" Property="OLDERVERSIONBEINGUPGRADED" /> </Upgrade> <Upgrade Id="F30C4129-F14E-43ee-BD5E-03AA89AD8E07"> <UpgradeVersion Minimum="2.0.0" OnlyDetect="yes" Property="NEWERVERSIONDETECTED" /> </Upgrade> <Upgrade Id="F30C4129-F14E-43ee-BD5E-03AA89AD8E07"> <UpgradeVersion Minimum="1.0.0" IncludeMinimum="yes" Maximum="1.0.0" IncludeMaximum="yes" Property="TOOOLDVERSIONDETECTED" /> </Upgrade> <Condition Message="A later version of [ProductName] is already installed. Setup will now exit."> NOT NEWERVERSIONDETECTED OR Installed </Condition> <Condition Message="A version of [ProductName] that is already installed is too old to be upgraded. Setup will now exit."> NOT TOOOLDVERSIONDETECTED </Condition> Problem #2: If I try to upgrade from 1.1, I hit my modified later version condition. (Error: A later version of Main Application 1.1 is already installed. Setup will now exit.) Problem #3: The installer allows me to install 2.0 over the top of itself. What am I doing wrong with my Upgrade code and conditions to get these problems in my MSIs?

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• Intermittent PolicyException: Execution permission cannot be acquired.

  - by Aaron Maenpaa

  We are intermittently seeing the following exception shortly after an App Pool recycle in an ASP.NET application: System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException: Could not load file or assembly 'Microsoft.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. Failed to grant permission to execute. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131418) ---> System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'Microsoft.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. Failed to grant permission to execute. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131418) File name: 'Microsoft.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' ---> System.Security.Policy.PolicyException: Execution permission cannot be acquired. at System.Security.SecurityManager.ResolvePolicy(Evidence evidence, PermissionSet reqdPset, PermissionSet optPset, PermissionSet denyPset, PermissionSet& denied, Boolean checkExecutionPermission) at System.Security.SecurityManager.ResolvePolicy(Evidence evidence, PermissionSet reqdPset, PermissionSet optPset, PermissionSet denyPset, PermissionSet& denied, Int32& securitySpecialFlags, Boolean checkExecutionPermission) at System.Reflection.Assembly._nLoad(AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean throwOnFileNotFound, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad(AssemblyName assemblyRef, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad(String assemblyString, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.Load(String assemblyString) at System.Web.Configuration.CompilationSection.LoadAssemblyHelper(String assemblyName, Boolean starDirective) The specific DLL that fails to load varies from incident to incident, but is always one referenced by the main assembly. We're running on ASP.NET 3.5 on Windows Server 2008. This seems to happen in batches affecting some but not all of sites on the same App Pool. We have a large number of sites all running the same code. Once a site has failed to load a DLL it throws up a Yellow Screen of Death until the next App Pool recycle. We haven't been able to reproduce this behavior and the sites seem to work fine for days or weeks at a time (and many App Pool recycles) before failing. Has anybody else seen similar behavior? Update: We've tried reproducing the failure by setting up a few hundred sites and writing a script to hit them repeatedly while recycling the App Pool once every couple of minutes and were unable to accomplish much other than loading down the server's CPU for a few days straight. We then tried messing (locking one of the DLLs, changing the file permissions) with the copies of the DLLs that ASP.NET makes and managed to reproduce similar behavior but not the same exception. Does anybody have any ideas on how to adjust the security policy to get it to throw a System.Security.Policy.PolicyException: Execution permission cannot be acquired. when loading a specific DLL?

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