Search Results

Search found 13501 results on 541 pages for 'dimensional model'.

Page 480/541 | < Previous Page | 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487  | Next Page >

• How can I show print statements in debug mode of OPNET Modeler?

  - by Here now

  I'm writing C++ code in OPNET Modeler. I try to simulate my scenario in debugger mode & I need to trace the function that I wrote it. I need to show print statements which I put it in my code. I used in debugger mode: ***ltr function_name()*** then ***c*** But the result looks like: Type 'help' for Command Summary ODB> ltr enqueue_packet() Added trace #0: trace on label (enqueue_packet()) ODB> c |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 52 sec.); Events (500,002) | | Speed: Average (82,575 events/sec.); Current (82,575 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (6.1 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 55 sec.); Events (1,000,002) | | Speed: Average (69,027 events/sec.); Current (59,298 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (14 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Progress: Time (1 min. 59 sec.); Events (1,500,002) | | Speed: Average (51,464 events/sec.); Current (34,108 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (29 sec.) | | DES Log: 28 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Simulation Completed - Collating Results. | | Events: Total (1,591,301); Average Speed (48,803 events/sec.) | | Time : Elapsed (33 sec.); Simulated (2 min. 0 sec.) | | DES Log: 29 entries | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| | Reading network model. | |-----------------------------------------------------------------------------| I need to show the print statements in my code. Where it has to be appeared? Is there any step before run the simulation to insure that OPNET debugger using Visual Studio & go through my code??

  Read the article

• How do I keep my DataService up to date with ObservableCollection?

  - by joebeazelman

  I have a class called CustomerService which simply reads a collection of customers from a file or creates one and passes it back to the Main Model View where it is turned into an ObservableCollection. What the best practice for making sure the items in the CustomerService and ObservableCollection are in sync. I'm guessing I could hookup the CustomerService object to respond to RaisePropertyChanged, but isn't this only for use with WPF controls? Is there a better way? using System; public class MainModelView { public MainModelView() { _customers = new ObservableCollection<CustomerViewModel>(new CustomerService().GetCustomers()); } public const string CustomersPropertyName = "Customers" private ObservableCollection<CustomerViewModel> _customers; public ObservableCollection<CustomerViewModel> Customers { get { return _customers; } set { if (_customers == value) { return; } var oldValue = _customers; _customers = value; // Update bindings and broadcast change using GalaSoft.MvvmLight.Messenging RaisePropertyChanged(CustomersPropertyName, oldValue, value, true); } } } public class CustomerService { /// <summary> /// Load all persons from file on disk. /// </summary> _customers = new List<CustomerViewModel> { new CustomerViewModel(new Customer("Bob", "" )), new CustomerViewModel(new Customer("Bob 2", "" )), new CustomerViewModel(new Customer("Bob 3", "" )), }; public IEnumerable<LinkViewModel> GetCustomers() { return _customers; } }

  Read the article

• odd nullreference error at foreach when rendering view

  - by giddy

  This error is so weird I Just can't really figure out what is really wrong! In UserController I have public virtual ActionResult Index() { var usersmdl = from u in RepositoryFactory.GetUserRepo().GetAll() select new UserViewModel { ID = u.ID, UserName = u.Username, UserGroupName = u.UserGroupMain.GroupName, BranchName = u.Branch.BranchName, Password = u.Password, Ace = u.ACE, CIF = u.CIF, PF = u.PF }; if (usersmdl != null) { return View(usersmdl.AsEnumerable()); } return View(); } My view is of type @model IEnumerable<UserViewModel> on the top. This is what happens: Where and what exactly IS null!? I create the users from a fake repository with moq. I also wrote unit tests, which pass, to ensure the right amount of mocked users are returned. Maybe someone can point me in the right direction here? Top of the stack trace is : at lambda_method(Closure , User ) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectArrayIterator`2.MoveNext() at ASP.Index_cshtml.Execute() Is it something to do with linq here? Tell me If I should include the full stack trace.

  Read the article

• Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

  - by Issy

  Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

  Read the article

• How to check for a null object reference when validating forms in MVC

  - by quakkels

  Hello SO, I'm experimenting with validating forms in the asp.net MVC framework. I'm focusing on server side validation for the time being. I've come across an error that I'm not sure how to rectify. System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. The code that throws the error is: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create([Bind(Exclude="ID")] MembersCreate mc ) { mc.Modules = ModuleListDataContext.GetModuleList(); ViewData.Model = mc; //Validation using ModelState // // //line below errors when form field is empty // if ((string)mc.Member.Username.Trim() == "") ModelState.AddModelError("Member.Username", "Username is required."); if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here return RedirectToAction("Index","Home"); } catch { return View(); } } When I put spaces in the field it performs exactly as i want, but if I leave the field blank and press submit I get the error. What's the best way to avoid this error and still validate blank form fields? Thanks all -

  Read the article

• Codeigniter achor producing dodgy link in email inbox.. what could the problem be?

  - by Psychonetics

  My application is emailing out fine but the email I receive displays incorrectly. Rather than have text and a simple "click here to activate" link it doesn't. it shows this instead: Hi user1, please click the following link to activate your account <a href="http://mysite.com/activation/fzyZuyxVAzZS2koVg5UFjfVjlcLNcrzp">ssss</a> Here is the code from my model that sends email to user when they request activation email. $this->load->library('email'); $this->email->from('[email protected]', 'my site'); $this->email->to($result[0]->email); $this->email->subject('my site - Activate your account'); $this->email->message('Hi ' . $result[0]->first_name . ', please click the following link to activate your account ' . anchor('http://mysite.com/activation/' . $new_activation_code, 'click here to activate')); $this->email->send(); Also the mail always ends up in my spam folder.

  Read the article

• Enum exeeding the 65535 bytes limit of static initializer... what's best to do?

  - by Daniel Bleisteiner

  I've started a rather large Enum of so called Descriptors that I've wanted to use as a reference list in my model. But now I've come across a compiler/VM limit the first time and so I'm looking for the best solution to handle this. Here is my error : The code for the static initializer is exceeding the 65535 bytes limit It is clear where this comes from - my Enum simply has far to much elements. But I need those elements - there is no way to reduce that set. Initialy I've planed to use a single Enum because I want to make sure that all elements within the Enum are unique. It is used in a Hibernate persistence context where the reference to the Enum is stored as String value in the database. So this must be unique! The content of my Enum can be devided into several groups of elements belonging together. But splitting the Enum would remove the unique safety I get during compile time. Or can this be achieved with multiple Enums in some way? My only current idea is to define some Interface called Descriptor and code several Enums implementing it. This way I hope to be able to use the Hibernate Enum mapping as if it were a single Enum. But I'm not even sure if this will work. And I loose unique safety. Any ideas how to handle that case?

  Read the article

• Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

  - by Dann

  This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

  Read the article

• Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

  - by colinodell

  I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC: Can't figure out what VirtualPath is?

  - by Ryan_Pitts

  I have a View that displays a list of images and i am now trying to get it to display the images as thumbnails. Well, i'm pretty sure i got most of it right using VirtualPath's from a custom ActionResult although i can't seem to figure out what it is making the VirtualPath url?? BTW, i'm using XML to store the data from the images instead of SQL. Here is my code: Code from my custom ActionResult: public class ThumbnailResult : ActionResult { public ThumbnailResult(string virtualPath) { this.VirtualPath = virtualPath; } public string VirtualPath { get; set; } public override void ExecuteResult(ControllerContext context) { context.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = "image/bmp"; string fullFileName = context.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/Galleries/WhereConfusionMeetsConcrete/" + VirtualPath); using (System.Drawing.Image photoImg = System.Drawing.Image.FromFile(fullFileName)) { using (System.Drawing.Image thumbPhoto = photoImg.GetThumbnailImage(100, 100, null, new System.IntPtr())) { using (System.IO.MemoryStream ms = new System.IO.MemoryStream()) { thumbPhoto.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); context.HttpContext.Response.BinaryWrite(ms.ToArray()); context.HttpContext.Response.End(); } } } } } Code for my Controller: public ActionResult Thumbnail(string id) { return new ThumbnailResult(id); } Code for my View: <% foreach (var image in ViewData.Model) { %> <a href="../Galleries/TestGallery1/<%= image.Path %>"><img src="../Galleries/TestGallery1/thumbnail/<%= image.Path %>" alt="<%= image.Caption %>" /></a> <br /><br /><%= image.Caption %><br /><br /><br /> <% } %> Any help would be greatly appreciated!! Let me know of any questions you have as well. :) Thanks!

  Read the article

• Why doesn't the Java Collections API include a Graph implementation?

  - by dvanaria

  I’m currently learning the Java Collections API and feel I have a good understanding of the basics, but I’ve never understood why this standard API doesn’t include a Graph implementation. The three base classes are easily understandable (List, Set, and Map) and all their implementations in the API are mostly straightforward and consistent. Considering how often graphs come up as a potential way to model a given problem, this just doesn’t make sense to me (it’s possible it does exist in the API and I’m not looking in the right place of course). Steve Yegge suggests in one of his blog posts that a programmer should consider graphs first when attacking a problem, and if the problem domain doesn’t fit naturally into this data structure, only then consider the alternative structures. My first guess is that there is no universal way to represent graphs, or that their interfaces may not be generic enough for an API implementation to be useful? But if you strip down a graph to its basic components (vertices and a set of edges that connect some or all of the vertices) and consider the ways that graphs are commonly constructed (methods like addVertex(v) and insertEdge(v1, v2)) it seems that a generic Graph implementation would be possible and useful. Thanks for helping me understand this better.

  Read the article

• Lost Array After Validation Error

  - by Georges Kmeid

  I'm working on a CakePHP project and I have User, Post and Location models among others. User hasMany Location and Post belongsTo User so Location is not directly related to Post. This is my code in the Post controller: public function add() { if ($this->request->is('get')) { $this->loadModel('Location'); $this->set('locations', $this->Location->find('all', array('conditions' => array('user_id' => $this->Auth->user('id'))))); } ... } And this is my code in the posts/add view: <?php $i = 0; $j = 0; foreach ($locations as $location): $location_names[$i] = $location['Location']['name']; $i++; endforeach; echo "<select name=\"location\" onchange=\"select(this.value)\">"; echo "<option value=\"\">Select a saved location</option>"; foreach ($locations as $location): echo "<option value=\"" . $location['Location']['latitude'] . "," . $location['Location']['longitude'] . "\">" . $location_names[$j] . "</option>"; $j++; endforeach; ?> </select> If I enter a wrong value in one of the post inputs that has a validation rule in Post model, it redirects to the current add view, shows what is the validation error, but then the $locations array passed from controller to view disappears and can't use it in view and I get this error: Notice (8): Undefined variable: locations [APP\View\Posts\add.ctp, line 68]

  Read the article

• XForms relation of 'constraint' and 'required' properties

  - by Danny

  As a reference, the most similar question already asked is: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/8667849/making-xforms-enforce-the-constraint-and-type-model-item-properties-only-when-fi The difference is that I cannot use the relevant properties since I do want the field to be visible and accessible. I'm attempting to make a XForms form that has the following properties: It displays a text field named 'information'. (for the example) This field must not be required, since it may not be necessary to enter data. (Or this data will be entered at a later time.) However, if data is entered in this field, it must adhere to the specified constraint. I cannot mark the field as not relevant since this would hide the field and some data may need to be entered in it. The trouble now is that even though the field has no data in it, the constraint is still enforced (i.e. even though it is not marked as 'required'). I have taken a look at the XForms 1.1 specification, however it does not seem to describe how the properties 'required' and 'constraint' should interact. The only option I see, is to add a part to the constraint such that an empty value is allowed. e.g.: . = '' or <actual-constraint However, I don't like this. It feels like a workaround to add this to every such field. Is there any other way to express that non-required fields should not need to match the constraint for that field? (Am I missing something?)

  Read the article

• Non-normalized association with legacy tables in Rails and ActiveRecord

  - by Thomas Holmström

  I am building a Rails application accessing a legacy system. The data model contains Customers which can have one or more Subscriptions. A Subscription always belong to one and only one Customer. Though not needed, this association is represented through a join table "subscribes", which do not have an id column: Column | Type | Modifiers -----------------+---------+----------- customer_id | integer | not null subscription_id | integer | not null I have this coded as a has_and_belongs_to_many declarations in both Customer and Subscription class Customer < Activerecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :subscriptions, :join_table => "subscribes", :foreign_key => "customer_id", :association_foreign_key => "subscription_id" end class Subscription < Activerecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :customers, :join_table => "subscribes", :foreign_key => "subscription_id", :association_foreign_key => "customer_id" end The problem I have is that there can only ever be one customer for each subscription, not many, and the join table will always contain at most one row with a certain customer_id. And thus, I don't want the association "customers" on a Subscription which returns an array of (at most one) Customer, I really do want the relation "customer" which returns the Customer associated. Is there any way to force ActiveRecord to make this a 1-to-N relation even though the join table itself seems to make it an N-to-M relation? --Thomas

  Read the article

• How do I secure a .NET Web Service for use by an iPhone application?

  - by David A Gibson

  Hello, The title says it all, I have a Web Service written in .NET that provides data for an iPhone application. It will also allow the application make a "reservation." Currently it's all internal to the corporate network but obviously when the iPhone application is published I will need ensure the Web Service is available externally. How would I go about securing the Web Service? There are two aspects I'm looking into: Authentication for accessing the web service Protection for the data being transferred I'm no so bothered about the data being passed back and forth as it will be viewable in the application anyway (which will be free). The key issue for me is preventing users from accessing the Web Service and making reservations themselves. At the moment I am considering encrypting any strings in the XML data passed back and forth so only the client can effectively use the web service sidestepping the need for authentication and providing protection for the data. This is the only model I have seen but I think the overheads on the iPhone and even for the web service make for a poor user experience. Any solutions at all would be most welcome? Thanks

  Read the article

• How do I implement configurations and settings?

  - by Malvolio

  I'm writing a system that is deployed in several places and each site needs its own configurations and settings. A "configuration" is a named value that is necessary to a particular site (e.g., the database URL, S3 bucket name); every configuration is necessary, there is not usually a default, and it's typically string-valued. A setting is a named value but it just tweaks the behavior of the system; it's often numeric or Boolean, and there's usually some default. So far, I've been using property files or thing like them, but it's a terrible solution. Several times, a developer has added a requirement for a configuration but not added the value to file for the live configuration, so the new release passed all the tests, then failed when released to live. Better, of course, for every file to be compiled — so if there's a missing configuration, or one of the wrong type, it won't get past the compiler — and inject the site-specific class into the build for each site. As a bones, a Scala file can easy model more complex values, especially lists, but also maps and tuples. The downside is, the files are sometimes maintained by people who aren't developers, so it has to be pretty self-explanatory, which was the advantage of property files. (Someone explain XML configurations to me: all the complexity of a compilable file but the run-time risk of a property file.) What I'm looking for is an easy pattern for defining a group required names and allowable values. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• What can I do to get Mozilla Firefox to preload the eventual image result?

  - by Dalal

  I am attempting to preload images using JavaScript. I have declared an array as follows with image links from different places: var imageArray = new Array(); imageArray[0] = new Image(); imageArray[1] = new Image(); imageArray[2] = new Image(); imageArray[3] = new Image(); imageArray[0].src = "http://www.bollywoodhott.com/wp-content/uploads/2008/12/arjun-rampal.jpg"; imageArray[1].src = "http://labelleetleblog.files.wordpress.com/2009/06/josie-maran.jpg"; imageArray[2].src = "http://1.bp.blogspot.com/_22EXDJCJp3s/SxbIcZHTHTI/AAAAAAAAIXc/fkaDiOKjd-I/s400/black-male-model.jpg"; imageArray[3].src = "http://www.iill.net/wp-content/uploads/images/hot-chick.jpg"; The image fade and transformation effects that I am doing using this array work properly for the first 3 images, but for the last one, imageArray[3], the actual image data of the image does not get preloaded and it completely ruins the effect, since the actual image data loads AFTERWARDS, only at the time it needs to be displayed, it seems. This happens because the last link http://www.iill.net/wp-content/uploads/images/hot-chick.jpg is not a direct link to the image. If you go to that link, your browser will redirect you to the ACTUAL location. Now, my image preloading code in Chrome works perfectly well, and the effects look great. Because it seems that Chrome preloads the actual data - the EVENTUAL image that is to be shown. This means that in Chrome if I preloaded an image that will redirect to 'stop stealing my bandwidth', then the image that gets preloaded is 'stop stealing my bandwidth'. How can I modify my code to get Firefox to behave the same way?

  Read the article

• XSD, restrictions and code generation

  - by bob

  Hello, I'm working on some code generation for an existing project and I want to start from a xsd. So I can use tools as Xsd2Code / xsd.exe to generate the code and also the use the xsd to validate the xml. That part works without any problems. I also want to translate some of the restrictions to DataAnnotations (enrich Xsd2Code). For example xs:minInclusive / xs:maxInclusive I can translate to a RangeAttribute. But what to do with custom validation attributes that we created? Can I add custom facets / restrictions? And how? Or is there another solution / best practice. I would like to collect everything in a single (xsd) file so that one file contains the structure of the class (model) including the validation (attributes) that has to be added. <xs:element name="CertainValue"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:double"> <xs:minInclusive value="1" /> <xs:maxInclusive value="100" /> <xs_custom:customRule attribute="value" /> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element>

  Read the article

• Foreign key relationships in Entity Framework

  - by Anders Svensson

  I'm trying to add an object created from Entity Data Model classes. I have a table called Users, which has turned into a User EDM class. And I also have a table Pages, which has become a Page EDM class. These tables have a foreign key relationship, so that each page is associated with many users. Now I want to be able to add a page, but I can't get how to do it. I get a nullreference exception on Users below. I'm still rather confused by all this, so I'm sure it's a simple error, but I just can't see how to do it. Also, by the way, the compiler requires that I set PageID in the object initializer, even though this field is set to be an automatic id in the table. Am I doing it right just setting it to 0, expecting it to be updated automatically in the table when saved, or how should I do that? Any help appreciated! The method in question: private Page GetPage(User currentUser) { string url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(); var userPages = from p in _context.PageSet where p.Users.UserID == currentUser.UserID select p; var existingPage = userPages.FirstOrDefault(e => e.Url == url); //Could be combined with above, but hard to read? if (existingPage != null) return existingPage; Page page = new Page() { Count = 0, Url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(), PageID = 0, //Only initial value, changed later? }; _context.AddToPageSet(page); page.Users.UserID = currentUser.UserID; //Here's the problem... return page; }

  Read the article

• Is it poor design to create objects that only execute code during the constructor?

  - by Curtix

  In my design I am using objects that evaluate a data record. The constructor is called with the data record and type of evaluation as parameters and then the constructor calls all of the object's code necessary to evaluate the record. This includes using the type of evaluation to find additional parameter-like data in a text file. There are in the neighborhood of 250 unique evaluation types that use the same or similar code and unique parameters coming from the text file. Some of these evaluations use different code so I benefit a lot from this model because I can use inheritance and polymorphism. Once the object is created there isn't any need to execute additional code on the object (at least for now) and it is used more like a struct; its kept on a list and 3 properties are used later. I think this design is the easiest to understand, code, and read. A logical alternative I guess would be using functions that return score structs, but you can't inherit from methods so it would make it kind of sloppy imo. I am using vb.net and these classes will be used in an asp.net web app as well as in a distributed app. thanks for your input

  Read the article

• Move camera to fit 3D scene

  - by Burre

  Hi there. I'm looking for an algorithm to fit a bounding box inside a viewport (in my case a DirectX scene). I know about algorithms for centering a bounding sphere in a orthographic camera but would need the same for a bounding box and a perspective camera. I have most of the data: I have the up-vector for the camera I have the center point of the bounding box I have the look-at vector (direction and distance) from the camera point to the box center I have projected the points on a plane perpendicular to the camera and retrieved the coefficients describing how much the max/min X and Y coords are within or outside the viewing plane. Problems I have: Center of the bounding box isn't necessarily in the center of the viewport (that is, it's bounding rectangle after projection). Since the field of view "skew" the projection (see http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Perspective-foreshortening.svg) I cannot simply use the coefficients as a scale factor to move the camera because it will overshoot/undershoot the desired camera position How do I find the camera position so that it fills the viewport as pixel perfect as possible (exception being if the aspect ratio is far from 1.0, it only needs to fill one of the screen axis)? I've tried some other things: Using a bounding sphere and Tangent to find a scale factor to move the camera. This doesn't work well, because, it doesn't take into account the perspective projection, and secondly spheres are bad bounding volumes for my use because I have a lot of flat and long geometries. Iterating calls to the function to get a smaller and smaller error in the camera position. This has worked somewhat, but I can sometimes run into weird edge cases where the camera position overshoots too much and the error factor increases. Also, when doing this I didn't recenter the model based on the position of the bounding rectangle. I couldn't find a solid, robust way to do that reliably. Help please!

  Read the article

• Modelling in Agile Development

  - by bertzzie

  I'm writing a bachelor dissertation report where I'm developing a system with Agile methodology. Given that the development is an one man show, of course the "Agile" I did was not really agile at all (from my understanding at least). So I want some perspective from SO crowds, who is of course a professional, real world, developer with tons of experience. I think real world experience is better than the theory and experiments that I did. My question is: Do we model during development time when using Agile? UML? DFD? Or a Functional Specification is enough1? If modelling is not really necessary, what do we use to communicate to the user, as the user almost always won't understand UML or DFD? For my system, I use UI & UX Design with heavy prototyping, but then I don't have time to draw UML any more. Which one is better? 1 http://www.joelonsoftware.com/articles/fog0000000036.html I hope the question's not "subjective and argumentative" as I know this question exist because of my lack of understanding in the agile development. If it is, could someone just give me a pointer or reference about that? Possible duplicate: Do you use UML in Agile development practices?

  Read the article

• 2-Way databinding with Entity Framework and WPF DataGrid , is Possible ?

  - by Panindra

  i am working on POS application using SQL CE , WPF , Entity framework 3.5sp2 and iam trying to use data grid as my Order Entry Control for User to enter Products Order . Iam plannning to bind this to enitiy frmae work model , abd looking for 2 way updating ? private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { using (MasterEntities nwEntities = new MasterEntities()) { var users = from d in nwEntities.Companies select new { d.CompanyId, d.CompanyName, d.Place }; listBox1.DataContext = users; dataGrid1.DataContext = users; // foreach (String c in customers) // { // MessageBox.Show(c.ToString()); // } } } When try to double clikc on the datagrid it through s a error with Caption " Invalid Operation Execption was unhandled " and Message " A TwoWay or OneWayToSource binding cannot work on the read-only property 'CompanyId' of type '<f__AnonymousType0`3[System.Int32,System.String,System.String]'. whats wrong here and my xaml coding goes like this <Grid> <ListBox Name="listBox1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" /> <Button Content="Show " Name="button1" Click="button1_Click" /> <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" > <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header=" ID" Binding="{Binding CompanyId}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Company Name" Binding="{Binding CompanyName}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Place" Binding="{Binding Place}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </Grid> EDITED : i made the changes shown by @vorrtex, But, then i added another button to save the chages and in button click event i added follwing code , butit showing Updating error private void button2_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { nwEntities.SaveChanges(); }

  Read the article

• android: consume key press, bypassing framework processing

  - by user360024

  What I want android to do: when user presses a single key, have the view respond, but do so without opening a text area and displaying the character associated with the key that was pressed, and without requiring that the Enter key be pressed, and without requiring that the user press Esc to make the text area go away. For example, when user presses "u" (and doesn't press Enter), that means "undo the last action", so the controller and model immediately undo the last action, then the view does an invalidate() and user sees that their last action has been undone. In other words the "u" key press should be silently processed, such that the only visual result is that user's last action has been undone. I've implemented OnKeyListener and provided an onKey() method: the class: public class MyGameView extends View implements OnKeyListener{ in the constructor: //2010jun06, phj: With onKey(), helps let this View consume key presses // before the framework gets a chance to consume the key press. setOnKeyListener((View.OnKeyListener)this); the onKey() method: public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_R) { Log.d("BWA", "In onKey received keycode associated with R."); } return true; // meaning the event (key press) has been consumed, so // the framework should not handle this event. } but when user presses "u" key on the emulator keypad, a textarea is opened at the bottom of the screen, the "u" charater is displayed there, and the onKey() method doesn't execute until user presses the Enter key. Is there a way to make android do what I want? Thanks,

  Read the article

• How to properly implement the Strategy pattern in a web MVC framework?

  - by jboxer

  In my Django app, I have a model (lets call it Foo) with a field called "type". I'd like to use Foo.type to indicate what type the specific instance of Foo is (possible choices are "Number", "Date", "Single Line of Text", "Multiple Lines of Text", and a few others). There are two things I'd like the "type" field to end up affecting; the way a value is converted from its normal type to text (for example, in "Date", it may be str(the_date.isoformat())), and the way a value is converted from text to the specified type (in "Date", it may be datetime.date.fromtimestamp(the_text)). To me, this seems like the Strategy pattern (I may be completely wrong, and feel free to correct me if I am). My question is, what's the proper way to code this in a web MVC framework? In a client-side app, I'd create a Type class with abstract methods "serialize()" and "unserialize()", override those methods in subclasses of Type (such as NumberType and DateType), and dynamically set the "type" field of a newly-instantiated Foo to the appropriate Type subclass at runtime. In a web framework, it's not quite as straightforward for me. Right now, the way that makes the most sense is to define Foo.type as a Small Integer field and define a limited set of choices (0 = "Number", 1 = "Date", 2 = "Single Line of Text", etc.) in the code. Then, when a Foo object is instantiated, use a Factory method to look at the value of the instance's "type" field and plug in the correct Type subclass (as described in the paragraph above). Foo would also have serialize() and unserialize() methods, which would delegate directly to the plugged-in Type subclass. How does this design sound? I've never run into this issue before, so I'd really like to know if other people have, and how they've solved it.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487  | Next Page >