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  • Implicit Type Conversions in Reflection

    - by bradhe
    So I've written a quick bit of code to help quickly convert between business objects and view models. Not to pimp my own blog, but you can find the details here if you're interested or need to know. One issue I've run in to is that I have a custom collection type, ProductCollection, and I need to turn that in to a string[] in on my model. Obviously, since there is no default implicit cast, I'm getting an exception in my contract converter. So, I thought I would write the next little bit of code and that should solve the problem: public static implicit operator string[](ProductCollection collection) { var list = new List<string>(); foreach (var product in collection) { if (product.Id == null) { list.Add(null); } else { list.Add(product.Id.ToString()); } } return list.ToArray(); } However, it still fails with the same cast exception. I'm wondering if it has something to do with being in reflection? If so, is there anything that I can do here?? I'm open to architectural solutions, too!

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  • Using the same code in different (partial) views

    - by Danny Chen
    Maybe this question is quite simple because I'm new to MVC2. I have a simple demo MVC project. (1) A weak-typed view: Index.aspx <% Html.RenderPartial("ArticalList", ViewData["AllArticals"] as List<Artical>); %> (2) A strong-typed partical view: ArticalList.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<List<Artical>>" %> <% foreach (Artical a in Model) { %> <%= Html.ActionLink(a.Title, "About", new { id = a.ID })%><br /> <%} %> (3) Here is the HomeController.cs public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["AllArticals"] = Artical.GetArticals(); return View(); } public ActionResult ArticalList() { return PartialView(Artical.GetArticals()); } Sorry I'm using a Web-Form "angle", because if I'm using a Web-Form, when I visit Index.aspx, rendering ArticalList.ascx will call public ActionResult ArticalList(). But here I need to write Artical.GetArticals() twice in two actions. How can I put them in one?

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  • Java Play Mustache NPE Error

    - by zanedev
    We are getting a mustache play error in production (amazon linux EC2 AMI) but not in development (MACs) and we have tried upgrading the jvm, using the jdk instead, and changing from a tomcat deploy model to match our development environments as much as possible but nothing is working. Please any help would be greatly appreciated. We have lots of shared code in java and javascript using mustache and it would be a big deal to rewrite everything if we had to ditch mustache on the java side. 20:48:52,403 ERROR ~ @6al2dd0po Internal Server Error (500) for request GET /mystuff/people Execution exception (In {module:mustache-0.2}/app/play/modules/mustache/MustacheTags.java around line 32) NullPointerException occured : null play.exceptions.JavaExecutionException at play.templates.BaseTemplate.throwException(BaseTemplate.java:90) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.internalRender(GroovyTemplate.java:257) at play.templates.Template.render(Template.java:26) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.render(GroovyTemplate.java:187) at play.mvc.results.RenderTemplate.<init>(RenderTemplate.java:24) at play.mvc.Controller.renderTemplate(Controller.java:660) at play.mvc.Controller.renderTemplate(Controller.java:640) at play.mvc.Controller.render(Controller.java:695) at controllers.MyStuff.people(MyStuff.java:183) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeWithContinuation(ActionInvoker.java:548) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invoke(ActionInvoker.java:502) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeControllerMethod(ActionInvoker.java:478) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeControllerMethod(ActionInvoker.java:473) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invoke(ActionInvoker.java:161) at Invocation.HTTP Request(Play!) Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at play.modules.mustache.MustacheTags._template(MustacheTags.java:32) at play.modules.mustache.MustacheTags$_template.call(Unknown Source) at /app/views/User/people.html.(line:22) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.internalRender(GroovyTemplate.java:232) ... 13 more

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  • Validations for a has_many/belongs_to relationship

    - by Craig Walker
    I have a Recipe model which has_many Ingredients (which in turn belongs_to Recipe). I want Ingredient to be existent dependent on Recipe; an Ingredient should never exist without a Recipe. I'm trying to enforce the presence of a valid Recipe ID in the Ingredient. I've been doing this with a validates :recipe, :presence => true (Rails 3) statement in Ingredient. This works fine if I save the Recipe before adding an Ingredient to it's ingredients collection. However, if I don't have explicit control over the saving (such as when I'm creating a Recipe and its Ingredients from a nested form) then I get an error: Ingredients recipe can't be blank I can get around this simply by dropping the presence validation on Ingredient.recipe. However, I don't particularly like this, as it means I'm working without a safety net. What is the best way to enforce existence-dependence in Rails? Things I'm considering (please comment on the wisdom of each): Adding a not-null constraint on the ingredients.recipe_id database column, and letting the database do the checking for me. A custom validation that somehow checks whether the Ingredient is in an unsaved recipe's ingredient collection (and thus can't have a recipe_id but is still considered valid).

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  • Circular Reference exception with JSON Serialisation with MVC3 and EF4 CTP5w

    - by nakchak
    Hi I'm having problems with a circular reference when i try and serialise an object returned via EF4 CTP5. Im using the code first approach and simple poco's for my model. I have added [ScriptIgnore] attributes to any properties that provide a back references to an object and annoyingly every seems to work fine if i manually instantiate the poco's, i.e. they serialise to JSON fine, and the scriptignore attribute is acknowledged. However when i try and serialise an object returned from the DAL i get the circular reference exception "A circular reference was detected while serializing an object of type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.xxxx'" I have tried several ways of retreiving the data but they all get stuck with this error: public JsonResult GetTimeSlot(int id) { TimeSlotDao tsDao = new TimeSlotDao(); TimeSlot ts = tsDao.GetById(id); return Json(ts); } The method below works slightly better as rather than the timeslot dynamic proxied object causing the circular refference its the appointment object. public JsonResult GetTimeSlot(int id) { TimeSlotDao tsDao = new TimeSlotDao(); var ts = from t in tsDao.GetQueryable() where t.Id == id select new {t.Id, t.StartTime, t.Available, t.Appointment}; return Json(ts); } Any ideas or solutions to this problem? Update I would prefer to use the out of the box serialiser if possible although Json.Net via nuget is ok as an alternative i would hope its possible to use it as I intended as well...

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  • How do I get Asp.net MVC BeginForm to add closing tag correctly?

    - by Matt
    I seem to be missing something obvious here, but cannot see what it is. My problem is that the closing form tag for BeginForm is not being added to my markup. I am looping through a collection and creating a form for each item, but the forms arent closing properly. Any suggestions please? Thanks <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <% using (Html.BeginForm("EditUser","Users")) { %> <tr> <td> <input id="contactID" type="hidden" value="<%= item.ContactID %>" /> <%=item.Email %> </td> <td> <%=item.Market.MarketName%> </td> <td> <%=item.ContactType.ContactTypeName%> </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Edit" /> </td> </tr> <%} %> <% } %>

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  • Capture and handling the tab/Textchanged event in a textbox in asp.net MVC

    - by Icerman
    I have the following code th handle a user name validation on the server side. But the event seems not firing since break points in js or C# code didn't hit. Can anyone point out where I did wrong? Here is the user control which has a user name textbox: <%: Html.TextBox("UserName", Model.Username, new { maxlength = "40", size = "20", tabindex = "1", @onchange = "CheckAvailability()" })% CheckAvailability() is defined in the User.Validation.js and included in the above user control: $(document).ready(function () { function CheckAvailability() { $.post("/Home/Survey/CheckAvailability", { Username: $("#UserName").val() }, function (data) { var myObject = eval('(' + data + ')'); var newid = myObject; if (newid == 0) { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='green'>Available :-D</font>") } else { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='red'>Taken :-(</font>") } }); } }); Here is the survey controller function which will have server side validation: [HttpPost] public ActionResult CheckAvailability(string Username) { int Taken = 0; // This is where you add your database lookup if (Username == "abc") { Taken = 1; } return Json(Taken); }

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  • A question about entities, roles and interfaces in Entity Framework 4.

    - by mvole
    Hi, I am an experienced .NET developer but new to EF - so please bear with me. I will use an example of a college application to illustrate my problem. I have these user roles: Lecturer, Student, Administrator. In my code I envisage working with these entities as distinct classes so e.g. a Lecturer teaches a collection of Students. And work with 'is Student' 'TypeOf' etc. Each of these entities share lots of common properties/methods e.g. they can all log onto the system and do stuff related to their role. In EF designer I can create a base entity Person (or User...) and have Lecturer, Student and Administrator all inherit from that. The difficulty I have is that a Lecturer can be an Administrator - and in fact on occasion a Student can be a Lecturer. If I were to add other entities such as Employee and Warden then this gets even more of an issue. I could presumably work with Interfaces so a person could implement ILecturer and IStudent, however I do not see how this fits within EF. I would like to work within the EF designer if possible and I'm working model-first (coding in C#). So any help and advice/samples would be very welcome and much appreciated. Thanks

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  • Select ID in table ...

    - by Kris-I
    Hello, I have this code <% foreach (var item in Model.List) { %> <tr> <td><%: item.LastName %></td> <td><%: item.FirstName %></td> <td><%: item.IsEnable %></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerEdit">Edit</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDetail">Detail</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDelete">Delete</a></td> </tr> <% } %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".CustomerEdit").click(function () { alert("blabla"); //need id here }); }); </script> It's not in the code but I have an "Item.Id", it's not place anywhere because I don't know where place it ;-). I'd like when I click on the "Edit" hyperlink get the id (item.Id) of the current line. Any idea ? Thanks,

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  • Generating URLs when not using an integer as an id?

    - by Synthesezia
    So I'm building a blog engine which has /articles/then-the-article-permalink as it's URL structure. I need to have prev and next links which will jump to the next article by pub_date, my code looks like this: In my articles#show @article = Article.find_by_permalink(params[:id]) @prev_article = Article.find(:first, :conditions => [ "pub_date < ?", @article.pub_date]) @next_picture = Article.find(:first, :conditions => [ "pub_date > ?", @article.pub_date]) And in my show.html.erb <%= link_to "Next", article_path(@next_article) %> <%= link_to 'Prev', article_path(@prev_article) %> In my articles model I have this: def to_param self.permalink end The specific error message I get is: article_url failed to generate from {:action=>"show", :controller=>"articles", :id=>nil}, expected: {:action=>"show", :controller=>"articles"}, diff: {:id=>nil} Without the prev and next everything is working fine but I'm out of ideas as to why this isn't working. Anyone want to helo?

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  • Applying the Decorator Pattern to Forms

    - by devoured elysium
    I am trying to apply the Decorator Design Pattern to the following situation: I have 3 different kind of forms: Green, Yellow, Red. Now, each of those forms can have different set of attributes. They can have a minimize box disabled, a maximized box disabled and they can be always on top. I tried to model this the following way: Form <---------------------------------------FormDecorator /\ /\ |---------|-----------| |----------------------|-----------------| GreenForm YellowForm RedForm MinimizeButtonDisabled MaximizedButtonDisabled AlwaysOnTop Here is my GreenForm code: public class GreenForm : Form { public GreenForm() { this.BackColor = Color.GreenYellow; } public override sealed Color BackColor { get { return base.BackColor; } set { base.BackColor = value; } } } FormDecorator: public abstract class FormDecorator : Form { private Form _decoratorForm; protected FormDecorator(Form decoratorForm) { this._decoratorForm = decoratorForm; } } and finally NoMaximizeDecorator: public class NoMaximizeDecorator : FormDecorator { public NoMaximizeDecorator(Form decoratorForm) : base(decoratorForm) { this.MaximizeBox = false; } } So here is the running code: static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(CreateForm()); } static Form CreateForm() { Form form = new GreenForm(); form = new NoMaximizeDecorator(form); form = new NoMinimizeDecorator(form); return form; } The problem is that I get a form that isn't green and that still allows me to maximize it. It is only taking in consideration the NoMinimizeDecorator form. I do comprehend why this happens but I'm having trouble understanding how to make this work with this Pattern. I know probably there are better ways of achieving what I want. I made this example as an attempt to apply the Decorator Pattern to something. Maybe this wasn't the best pattern I could have used(if one, at all) to this kind of scenario. Is there any other pattern more suitable than the Decorator to accomplish this? Am I doing something wrong when trying to implement the Decorator Pattern? Thanks

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  • What could cause a PHP error on an include statement?

    - by J Jones
    I've got a bug in my PHP code that's been terrorizing me for several days now. I'm trying to clasp in a new module to an existing Magento (v1.4) site, though I'm very new to the Magento framework. I think I am pretty close to getting to "Hello, World" on a block that I want displayed in the backend, but I'm getting a 500 error when the menu item is selected. I managed to track it down (using echo stmts) to a line in the Layout.php file (app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Layout.php, line 472ish): if (class_exists($block, false) || mageFindClassFile($block)) { $temp = $block; echo "<p>before constructor: $temp</p>"; $block = new $block($attributes); echo "<p>after constructor: $temp</p>"; } For my block, this yields only "before constructor...", so I know this is what is failing. A little more debugging reveals that the class in $block (the new block I am trying to show) does not exist. I would have expected the __autoload function to take care of this, but none of my echos in __autoload are displaying. As a last ditch effort, I tried an include statement in Mage.php to the absolute location of the block class, but similar before and after echos reveal that that include statement becomes the breaking line. I'm tempted to start thinking "permissions", but I'm not well versed in the server management side of all this, and I have limited access to the test server (the test server belongs to the client). To anticipate the question: there are no errors reported in the PHP log file. I am actually not convinced that this site is reporting errors to the log file (I haven't seen anything from this site), though the client is certain that everything is turned on. IIS 7. Integrated mode, I'm pretty sure. Anyone know what could be causing this?

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  • App crashes every second time a tableview row is selected in navigation controller setup

    - by Thaurin
    Disclaimer first: I'm pretty new to Objective-C and the retain model. I've been developing in a garbage collected .NET environment for the last five years, so I've been spoiled. I'm still learning. I'm having my iPhone app crash with EXC_BAD_ACCESS. It happens in a navigtation controller/tableview setup. When I select a row the first time, no problems. It switches in the child controller without problems. I go back and select the same row again. Program then proceeds to crash. Every other row works fine, but every second time a row is accessed, it's a crash. I've pinpointed the location where this happens. The child controller (which is a class that I reuse for every row of the same type) that's being switched into has an array of NSString's representing the rows that will be displayed. I set it before pushing the child viewcontroller. It's there where this apparently happens. I'm having a hard time debugging this problem, still wrestling with xcode and all. I fear there may be some vital information missing here, but maybe there is something you recognize here.

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  • Out of memory while iterating through rowset

    - by Phliplip
    Hi All, I have a "small" table of 60400 rows with zipcode data. I wan't to iterate through them all, update a column value, and then save it. The following is part of my Zipcodes model which extends My_Db_Table that a totalRows function that - you guessed it.. returns the total number of rows in the table (60400 rows) public function normalizeTable() { $this->getAdapter()->setProfiler(false); $totalRows = $this->totalRows(); $rowsPerQuery = 5; for($i = 0; $i < $totalRows; $i = $i + $rowsPerQuery) { $select = $this->select()->limit($i, $rowsPerQuery); $rowset = $this->fetchAll($select); foreach ($rowset as $row) { $row->{self::$normalCityColumn} = $row->normalize($row->{self::$cityColumn}); $row->save(); } unset($rowset); } } My rowClass contains a normalize function (basicly a metaphone wrapper doing some extra magic). At first i tried a plain old $this-fetchAll(), but got a out of memory (128MB) right away. Then i tried splitting the rowset into chunks, only difference is that some rows actually gets updated. Any ideas on how i can acomplish this, or should i fallback to ye'olde mysql_query()

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  • How can I go through a Set in JSP? (Hibernate Associations)

    - by Parris
    Hi All, So I am pretty new to JSP. I have tried this a few ways. Ways that would make sense in PHP or automagicy frameworks... I am probably thinking too much in fact... I have a hibernate one to many association. That is class x has many of class y. In class x's view.jsp. I would like to grab all of class y, where the foreign key of y matches the primary key of x and display them. It seems that hibernate properly puts this stuff into a set. Now, the question is how can I iterate through this set and then output it's contents... I am kind of stumped here. I tried to write a scriptlet, <% java.util.Iterator iter = aBean.getYs().iter(); // aBeans is the bean name // getYs would return the set and iter would return an iterator for the set while(iter.hasNext) { model.X a = new iter.next() %> <h1><%=a.getTitle()%></h1> <% } %> It would seem that that sort of thing should work? Hmmmmmm

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  • ASP.NET MVC: Can't figure out what VirtualPath is?

    - by Ryan_Pitts
    I have a View that displays a list of images and i am now trying to get it to display the images as thumbnails. Well, i'm pretty sure i got most of it right using VirtualPath's from a custom ActionResult although i can't seem to figure out what it is making the VirtualPath url?? BTW, i'm using XML to store the data from the images instead of SQL. Here is my code: Code from my custom ActionResult: public class ThumbnailResult : ActionResult { public ThumbnailResult(string virtualPath) { this.VirtualPath = virtualPath; } public string VirtualPath { get; set; } public override void ExecuteResult(ControllerContext context) { context.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = "image/bmp"; string fullFileName = context.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/Galleries/WhereConfusionMeetsConcrete/" + VirtualPath); using (System.Drawing.Image photoImg = System.Drawing.Image.FromFile(fullFileName)) { using (System.Drawing.Image thumbPhoto = photoImg.GetThumbnailImage(100, 100, null, new System.IntPtr())) { using (System.IO.MemoryStream ms = new System.IO.MemoryStream()) { thumbPhoto.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); context.HttpContext.Response.BinaryWrite(ms.ToArray()); context.HttpContext.Response.End(); } } } } } Code for my Controller: public ActionResult Thumbnail(string id) { return new ThumbnailResult(id); } Code for my View: <% foreach (var image in ViewData.Model) { %> <a href="../Galleries/TestGallery1/<%= image.Path %>"><img src="../Galleries/TestGallery1/thumbnail/<%= image.Path %>" alt="<%= image.Caption %>" /></a> <br /><br /><%= image.Caption %><br /><br /><br /> <% } %> Any help would be greatly appreciated!! Let me know of any questions you have as well. :) Thanks!

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  • Going "behind Hibernate's back" to update foreign key values without an associated entity

    - by Alex Cruise
    Updated: I wound up "solving" the problem by doing the opposite! I now have the entity reference field set as read-only (insertable=false updatable=false), and the foreign key field read-write. This means I need to take special care when saving new entities, but on querying, the entity properties get resolved for me. I have a bidirectional one-to-many association in my domain model, where I'm using JPA annotations and Hibernate as the persistence provider. It's pretty much your bog-standard parent/child configuration, with one difference being that I want to expose the parent's foreign key as a separate property of the child alongside the reference to a parent instance, like so: @Entity public class Child { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @Column(name="parent_id", insertable=false, updatable=false) private Long parentId; @ManyToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="parent_id") private Parent parent; private long timestamp; } @Entity public class Parent { @Id @GeneratedValue Long id; @OrderBy("timestamp") @OneToMany(mappedBy="parent", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List<Child> children; } This works just fine most of the time, but there are many (legacy) cases when I'd like to put an invalid value in the parent_id column without having to create a bogus Parent first. Unfortunately, Hibernate won't save values assigned to the parentId field due to insertable=false, updatable=false, which it requires when the same column is mapped to multiple properties. Is there any nice way to "go behind Hibernate's back" and sneak values into that field without having to drop down to JDBC or implement an interceptor? Thanks!

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  • Rails - any fancy ways to handle 404s?

    - by jyoseph
    I have a rails app I built for an old site I converted from another cms (in a non-rails language, hehe). Most of the old pages are mapped to the new pages using routes.rb. But there are still a few 404s. I am a rails newb so I'm asking if there are any advanced ways to handle 404s. For example, if I was programming in my old language I'd do this: Get the URL (script_name) that was being accessed and parse it. Do a lookup in the database for any keywords, ids, etc found in the new URL. If found, redirect to the page (or if multiple records are found, show them all on a results page and let user choose). With rails I'd probably want to do :status = :moved_permanently I'm guessing? If not found, show a 404. Are there any gems/plugins or tutorials you know of that would handle such a thing, if it's even possible. Or can you explain on a high level how that can be done? I don't need a full code sample, just a push in the right direction. PS. It's a simple rails 3 app that uses a single Content model.

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  • Codeigniter achor producing dodgy link in email inbox.. what could the problem be?

    - by Psychonetics
    My application is emailing out fine but the email I receive displays incorrectly. Rather than have text and a simple "click here to activate" link it doesn't. it shows this instead: Hi user1, please click the following link to activate your account <a href="http://mysite.com/activation/fzyZuyxVAzZS2koVg5UFjfVjlcLNcrzp">ssss</a> Here is the code from my model that sends email to user when they request activation email. $this->load->library('email'); $this->email->from('[email protected]', 'my site'); $this->email->to($result[0]->email); $this->email->subject('my site - Activate your account'); $this->email->message('Hi ' . $result[0]->first_name . ', please click the following link to activate your account ' . anchor('http://mysite.com/activation/' . $new_activation_code, 'click here to activate')); $this->email->send(); Also the mail always ends up in my spam folder.

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  • How do I keep my DataService up to date with ObservableCollection?

    - by joebeazelman
    I have a class called CustomerService which simply reads a collection of customers from a file or creates one and passes it back to the Main Model View where it is turned into an ObservableCollection. What the best practice for making sure the items in the CustomerService and ObservableCollection are in sync. I'm guessing I could hookup the CustomerService object to respond to RaisePropertyChanged, but isn't this only for use with WPF controls? Is there a better way? using System; public class MainModelView { public MainModelView() { _customers = new ObservableCollection<CustomerViewModel>(new CustomerService().GetCustomers()); } public const string CustomersPropertyName = "Customers" private ObservableCollection<CustomerViewModel> _customers; public ObservableCollection<CustomerViewModel> Customers { get { return _customers; } set { if (_customers == value) { return; } var oldValue = _customers; _customers = value; // Update bindings and broadcast change using GalaSoft.MvvmLight.Messenging RaisePropertyChanged(CustomersPropertyName, oldValue, value, true); } } } public class CustomerService { /// <summary> /// Load all persons from file on disk. /// </summary> _customers = new List<CustomerViewModel> { new CustomerViewModel(new Customer("Bob", "" )), new CustomerViewModel(new Customer("Bob 2", "" )), new CustomerViewModel(new Customer("Bob 3", "" )), }; public IEnumerable<LinkViewModel> GetCustomers() { return _customers; } }

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  • Abstract factory pattern on top of IoC?

    - by Sergei
    I have decided to use IoC principles on a bigger project. However, i would like to get something straight that's been bothering me for a long time. The conclusion that i have come up with is that an IoC container is an architectural pattern, not a design pattern. In other words, no class should be aware of its presence and the container itself should be used at the application layer to stitch up all components. Essentially, it becomes an option, on top of a well designed object-oriented model. Having said that, how is it possible to access resolved types without sprinkling IoC containers all over the place (regardless of whether they are abstracted or not)? The only option i see here is to utilize abstract factories which use an IoC container to resolve concrete types. This should be easy enough to swap out for a set of standard factories. Is this a good approach? Has anyone on here used it and how well did it work for you? Is there anything else available? Thanks!

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  • How can I have 2 ADO access methods use the same Transaction?

    - by KevinDeus
    I'm writing a test to see if my LINQ to Entity statement works.. I'll be using this for others if I can get this concept going.. my intention here is to INSERT a record with ADO, then verify it can be queried with LINQ, and then ROLLBACK the whole thing at the end. I'm using ADO to insert because I don't want to use the object or the entity model that I am testing. I figure that a plain ADO INSERT should do fine. problem is.. they both use different types of connections. is it possible to have these 2 different data access methods use the same TRANSACTION so I can roll it back?? _conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); _conn.Open(); _trans = _conn.BeginTransaction(); var x = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO Table1(ID, LastName, FirstName, DateOfBirth) values('127', 'test2', 'user', '2-12-1939');", _conn); x.ExecuteNonQuery(); //So far, so good. Adding a record to the table. //at this point, we need to do **_trans.Commit()** here because our Entity code can't use the same connection. Then I have to manually delete in the TestHarness.TearDown.. I'd like to eliminate this step //(this code is in another object, I'll include it for brevity. Imagine that I passed the connection in) //check to see if it is there using (var ctx = new XEntities(_conn)) //can't do this.. _conn is not an EntityConnection! { var retVal = (from m in ctx.Table1 where m.first_name == "test2" where m.last_name == "user" where m.Date_of_Birth == "2-12-1939" where m.ID == 127 select m).FirstOrDefault(); return (retVal != null); } //Do test.. Assert.BlahBlah(); _trans.Rollback();

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  • EF/LINQ: Where() against a property of a subtype

    - by ladenedge
    I have a set of POCOs, all of which implement the following simple interface: interface IIdObject { int Id { get; set; } } A subset of these POCOs implement this additional interface: interface IDeletableObject : IIdObject { bool IsDeleted { get; set; } } I have a repository hierarchy that looks something like this: IRepository<T <: BasicRepository<T <: ValidatingRepository<T (where T is IIdObject) I'm trying to add a FilteringRepository to the hierarchy such that all of the POCOs that implement IDeletableObject have a Where(p => p.IsDeleted == false) filter applied before any other queries take place. My goal is to avoid duplicating the hierarchy solely for IDeletableObjects. My first attempt looked like this: public override IQueryable<T> Query() { return base.Query().Where(t => ((IDeletableObject)t).IsDeleted == false); } This works well with LINQ to Objects, but when I switch to an EF backend I get: "LINQ to Entities only supports casting Entity Data Model primitive types." I went on to try some fancier parameterized solutions, but they ultimately failed because I couldn't make T covariant in the following case for some reason I don't quite understand: interface IQueryFilter<out T> // error { Expression<Func<T, bool>> GetFilter(); } I'd be happy to go into more detail on my more complicated solutions if it would help, but I think I'll stop here for now in hope that someone might have an idea for me to try. Thanks very much in advance!

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  • Bind a ViewModel to a DropDownListFor with a third value besides dataValueField/dataTextField

    - by Elisa
    When I show a list of testplanViewModels in my View and the user selects one the SelectedTestplanId is returned to the Controller post action. What should also be returned is the TemplateId which belongs to the SelectedTestplanId. When the AutoMapper definition is run the Testplan.TestplanId is implicitly copied over to the TestplanViewModel.TestplanId. The same could be done by providing a TemplateId on the TestplanViewModel. When the user selects now a "TestplanViewModel" in the View, how can I attach the TemplateId to the controller action to access it there? The DropDownList does not allow 2 dataValueFields! CreateMap<Testplan, TestplanViewModel>().ForMember(dest => dest.Name, opt => opt.MapFrom(src => string.Format("{0}-{1}-{2}-{3}", src.Release.Name, src.Template.Name, src.CreatedAt, src.CreatedBy))); public ActionResult OpenTestplanViewModels() { IEnumerable<Testplan> testplans = _testplanDataProvider.GetTestplans(); var viewModel = new OpenTestplanViewModel { DisplayList = Mapper.Map<IEnumerable<Testplan>, IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel>>(testplans) }; return PartialView(viewModel); } public class TestplanViewModel { public int TestplanId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class OpenTestplanViewModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "No item selected.")] public int SelectedTestplanId { get; set; } public IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel> DisplayList { get; set; } } OpenTestplanViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm("Open", "Testplan")) { @Html.ValidationSummary(false) @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedTestplanId, new SelectList(Model.DisplayList, "TestplanId", "Name"), new { @class = "listviewmodel" }) }

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  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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