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  • C++ Initialize array in constructor EXC_BAD_ACCESS

    - by user890395
    I'm creating a simple constructor and initializing an array: // Construtor Cinema::Cinema(){ // Initalize reservations for(int i = 0; i < 18; i++){ for(int j = 0; j < 12; j++){ setReservation(i, j, 0); } } // Set default name setMovieName("N/A"); // Set default price setPrice(8); } The setReservation function: void Cinema::setReservation(int row, int column, int reservation){ this->reservations[row][column] = reservation; } The setMovieName function: void Cinema::setMovieName(std::string movieName){ this->movieName = movieName; } For some odd reason when I run the program, the setMovieName function gives the following error: "Program Received Signal: EXC_BAD_ACCESS" If I take out the for-loop that initializes the array of reservations, the problem goes away and the movie name is set without any problems. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? This is the Cinema.h file: #ifndef Cinema_h #define Cinema_h class Cinema{ private: int reservations[17][11]; std::string movieName; float price; public: // Construtor Cinema(); // getters/setters int getReservation(int row, int column); int getNumReservations(); std::string getMovieName(); float getPrice(); void setReservation(int row, int column, int reservation); void setMovieName(std::string movieName); void setPrice(float price); }; #endif

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  • C/C++ I18N mbstowcs question

    - by bogertron
    I am working on internationalizing the input for a C/C++ application. I have currently hit an issue with converting from a multi-byte string to wide character string. The code needs to be cross platform compatible, so I am using mbstowcs and wcstombs as much as possible. I am currently working on a WIN32 machine and I have set the locale to a non-english locale (Japanese). When I attempt to convert a multibyte character string, I seem to be having some conversion issues. Here is an example of the code: int main(int argc, char** argv) { wchar_t *wcsVal = NULL; char *mbsVal = NULL; /* Get the current code page, in my case 932, runs only on windows */ TCHAR szCodePage[10]; int cch= GetLocaleInfo( GetSystemDefaultLCID(), LOCALE_IDEFAULTANSICODEPAGE, szCodePage, sizeof(szCodePage)); /* verify locale is set */ if (setlocale(LC_CTYPE, "") == 0) { fprintf(stderr, "Failed to set locale\n"); return 1; } mbsVal = argv[1]; /* validate multibyte string and convert to wide character */ int size = mbstowcs(NULL, mbsVal, 0); if (size == -1) { printf("Invalid multibyte\n"); return 1; } wcsVal = (wchar_t*) malloc(sizeof(wchar_t) * (size + 1)); if (wcsVal == NULL) { printf("memory issue \n"); return 1; } mbstowcs(wcsVal, szVal, size + 1); wprintf(L"%ls \n", wcsVal); return 0; } At the end of execution, the wide character string does not contain the converted data. I believe that there is an issue with the code page settings, because when i use MultiByteToWideChar and have the current code page sent in EX: MultiByteToWideChar( CP_ACP, 0, mbsVal, -1, wcsVal, size + 1 ); in place of the mbstowcs calls, the conversion succeeds. My question is, how do I use the generic mbstowcs call instead of teh MuliByteToWideChar call?

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  • Return value mapping on Stored Procedures in Entity Framework

    - by Yucel
    Hi, I am calling a stored procedure with EntityFramework. But custom property that i set in partial entity class is null. I have Entities in my edmx (I called edmx i dont know what to call for this). For example I have a "User" table in my database and so i have a "User" class on my Entity. I have a stored procedure called GetUserById(@userId) and in this stored procedure i am writing a basic sql statement like below "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE Id=@userId" in my edmx i make a function import to call this stored procedure and set its return value to Entities (also select User from dropdownlist). It works perfectly when i call my stored procedure like below User user = Context.SP_GetUserById(123456); But i add a custom new column to stored procedure to return one more column like below SELECT *, dbo.ConcatRoles(U.Id) AS RolesAsString FROM membership.[User] U WHERE Id = @id Now when i execute it from SSMS new column called RolesAsString appear in result. To work this on entity framework i added a new property called RolesAsString to my User class like below. public partial class User { public string RolesAsString{ get; set; } } But this field isnt filled by stored procedure when i call it. I look to the Mapping Detail windows of my SP_GetUserById there isnt a mapping on this window. I want to add but window is read only i cant map it. I looked to the source of edmx cant find anything about mapping of SP. How can i map this custom field?

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  • Convert charset in mysql query

    - by Yousf
    Hi, I have a question about converting charset from inside mysql query. I have a 2 databases. One for the website (joomla), the other for forum (IPB). I am doing query from inside joomla, which by default have "SET NAMES UTF8". I want to query a table inside the forum databases. A table called "ibf_topics". This table has latin1 encoding. I do the following to select anything from the not-utf8 table. //convert connection to handle latin1. $query = "SET NAMES latin1"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); $query = "select id, title from other_database.ibf_topics"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); //read result into an array. //return connection to handle UTF8. $query = "SET NAMES UTF8"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); After that, when I want to use the selected tile, I use the following: echo iconv("CP1256", "UTF-8", $topic['title']) The question is, is there anyway to avoid all this hassle? For now, I can't change forum database to UTF8 and I can't change joomla database to latin1 :S

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  • How can I abstract out the core functionality of several Rails applications?

    - by hornairs
    I'd like to develop a number of non-trivial Rails applications which all implement a core set of functionality but each have certain particular customizations, extensions, and aesthetic differences. How can I pull the core functionality (models, controllers, helpers, support classes, tests) common to all these systems out in such a way that updating the core will benefit every application based upon it? I've seen Rails Engines but they seem to be too detached, almost too abstracted to be built upon. I can seem them being useful for adding one component to an existing app, for example bolting on a blog engine to your existing e-commerce site. Since engines seem to be mostly self contained, it seems difficult and inconvenient to override their functionality and views while keeping DRY. I've also considered abstracting the code into a gem, but this seems a little odd. Do I make the gem depend on the Rails gems, and the define models & controllers inside it, and then subclass them in my various applications? Or do I define many modules inside the gem that I include in the different spots inside my various applications? How do I test the gem and then test the set of customizations and overridden functionality on top of it? I'm also concerned with how I'll develop the gem and the Rails apps in tandem, can I vendor a git repository of the gem into the app and push from that so I don't have to build a new gem every iteration? Also, are there private gem hosts/can I set my own gem source up? Also, any general suggestions for this kind of undertaking? Abstraction paradigms to adhere to? Required reading? Comments from the wise who have done this before? Thanks!

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  • In ArrayBlockingQueue, why copy into ReentrantLock field into local final variable?

    - by mjlee
    In ArrayBlockingQueue, any method that requires lock will get set 'final' local variable before calling 'lock()'. public boolean offer(E e) { if (e == null) throw new NullPointerException(); final ReentrantLock lock = this.lock; lock.lock(); try { if (count == items.length) return false; else { insert(e); return true; } } finally { lock.unlock(); } } Is there any reason to set a local variable 'lock' from 'this.lock' when field 'this.lock' is final also. Additionally, it also set local variable of E[] before acting on. private E extract() { final E[] items = this.items; E x = items[takeIndex]; items[takeIndex] = null; takeIndex = inc(takeIndex); --count; notFull.signal(); return x; } Is there any reason for copying to local final variable?

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  • Maven 3 plugin - How to programatically exclude a dependency and all its transitive dependencies?

    - by electrotype
    I'm developing a Maven 3 plugin and I want to exclude some dependencies, and their transitive dependencies, when a configuration is set to true in the plugin. I don't want to use <exclusions> in the POM itself, even in a profile. I want to exclude those dependencies programatically. In fact, what I want is to prevent the dependency jars to be included in the final war (I'm building a war), when a plugin configuration is set to true. I tried : @Mojo(requiresDependencyResolution=ResolutionScope.COMPILE, name="compileHook",defaultPhase=LifecyclePhase.COMPILE) public class compileHook extends AbstractMojo { @Override public void execute() throws MojoExecutionException, MojoFailureException { // ... Set<Artifact> artifacts = this.project.getArtifacts(); for(Artifact artifact : artifacts) { if("org.package.to.remove".equalsIgnoreCase(artifact.getGroupId())) { artifact.setScope("provided"); } } // ... } } Since this occures at the compile phase, it will indeed remove the artifacts with a group id "org.package.to.remove" from having their jars included in the war when packaged. But this doesn't remove the transitive artifacts those dependencies add! What is the best way to programatically remove some dependencies, and their transitive dependencies, from being included in a final .jar/.war?

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  • Specify Columntype in nhibernate

    - by Bipul
    I have a class CaptionItem public class CaptionItem { public virtual int SystemId { get; set; } public virtual int Version { get; set; } protected internal virtual IDictionary<string, string> CaptionValues {get; private set;} } I am using following code for nHibernate mapping Id(x => x.SystemId); Version(x => x.Version); Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.CaptionValues) .KeyColumn("CaptionItem_Id") .AsMap<string>(idx => idx.Column("CaptionSet_Name"), elem => elem.Column("Text")) .Not.LazyLoad() .Cascade.Delete() .Table("CaptionValue") .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); So in database two tables get created. One CaptionValue and other CaptionItem. In CaptionItem table has three columns 1. CaptionItem_Id int 2. Text nvarchar(255) 3. CaptionSet_Name nvarchar(255) Now, my question is how can I make the columnt type of Text to nvarchar(max)? Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I resize table view after resizing it's footer?

    - by Pedro
    I have a UITableView with header & footer added with code following the pattern shown in Apple's recipes example so the code for the footer is... if (tableFooterView == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"DetailFooterView" owner:self options:nil]; self.tableView.tableFooterView = tableFooterView; } The footer NIB contains nothing more than a UITextView & I set text & resize with... CGSize size = [footerText sizeWithFont:[footerTextView font] constrainedToSize:CGSizeMake(304.0, 500.0)]; CGRect frame = CGRectMake(8.0, 0.0, size.width, size.height + 24.0); footerTextView.frame = frame; footerTextView.text = footerText; [tableFooterView sizeToFit]; That all works however I can't get the UITableView to resize around the resized footer. If I set the original size of the footer for any possible text I have a big whitespace in most cases. If I set it smaller then I can push the view up to see the whole text but it bounces back on release. I've tried [[self view] sizeToFit]; but that doesn't work. Can anyone fill me in? Cheers & TIA, Pedro :)

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  • SQL Server race condition issue with range lock

    - by Freek
    I'm implementing a queue in SQL Server (please no discussions about this) and am running into a race condition issue. The T-SQL of interest is the following: set transaction isolation level serializable begin tran declare @RecordId int declare @CurrentTS datetime2 set @CurrentTS=CURRENT_TIMESTAMP select top 1 @RecordId=Id from QueuedImportJobs with (updlock) where Status=@Status and (LeaseTimeout is null or @CurrentTS>LeaseTimeout) order by Id asc if @@ROWCOUNT> 0 begin update QueuedImportJobs set LeaseTimeout = DATEADD(mi,5,@CurrentTS), LeaseTicket=newid() where Id=@RecordId select * from QueuedImportJobs where Id = @RecordId end commit tran RecordId is the PK and there is also an index on Status,LeaseTimeout. What I'm basically doing is select a record of which the lease happens to be expired, while simultaneously updating the lease time with 5 minutes and setting a new lease ticket. So the problem is that I'm getting deadlocks when I run this code in parallel using a couple of threads. I've debugged it up to the point where I found out that the update statement sometimes gets executing twice for the same record. Now, I was under the impression that the with (updlock) should prevent this (it also happens with xlock btw, not with tablockx). So it actually look like there is a RangeS-U and a RangeX-X lock on the same range of records, which ought to be impossible. So what am I missing? I'm thinking it might have something to do with the top 1 clause or that SQL Server does not know that where Id=@RecordId is actually in the locked range? Deadlock graph: Table schema (simplified):

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  • What does this model error says in asp.net mvc?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    My Html action link takes me to a view where i can see the details.. For Ex:http://localhost:1985/Materials/Details/4 But it shows error, The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'System.Data.Linq.DataQuery`1[CrMVC.Models.ConstructionRepository+Materials]' but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'CrMVC.Models.ConstructionRepository+Materials'. And my model is... public IQueryable<Materials> GetMaterial(int id) { return from m in db.Materials join Mt in db.MeasurementTypes on m.MeasurementTypeId equals Mt.Id where m.Mat_id == id select new Materials() { Id = Convert.ToInt64(m.Mat_id), Mat_Name = m.Mat_Name, Mes_Name = Mt.Name, }; } public class Materials { private Int64 id; public string mat_Name; public string mes_Name; public Int64 Id { get { return id; } set { id = value; } } public string Mat_Name { get { return mat_Name; } set { mat_Name = value; } } public string Mes_Name { get { return mes_Name; } set { mes_Name = value; } } } } and my controller method... public ActionResult Details(int id) { var material = consRepository.GetMaterial(id).AsQueryable(); return View("Details", material); } Any suggestion what am i missing here?

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  • javascript watching for variable change via a timer

    - by DA
    I have a slide show where every 10 seconds the next image loads. Once an image loads, it waits 10 seconds (setTimeout) and then calls a function which fades it out, then calls the function again to fade in the next image. It repeats indefinitely. This works. However, at times, I'm going to want to over-ride this "function1 call - pause - function2 call - function1 call" loop outside of this function (for instance, I may click on a slide # and want to jump directly to that slide and cancel the current pause). One solution seems to be to set up a variable, allow other events to change that variable and then in my original function chain, check for any changes before continuing the loop. I have this set up: var ping = 500; var pausetime = 10000; for(i=0; i<=pausetime; i=i+ping){ setTimeout(function(){ console.log(gocheckthevariable()); console.log(i); pseudoIf('the variable is true AND the timer is done then...do the next thing') },i) } The idea is that I'd like to pause for 10 seconds. During this pause, every half second I'll check to see if this should be stopped. The above will write out to the console the following every half second: true 10000 true 10000 true 10000 etc... But what I want/need is this: true 0 true 500 true 1000 etc... The basic problem is that the for loop executes before each of the set timeouts. While I can check the value of the variable every half second, I can't match that against the current loop index. I'm sure this is a common issue, but I'm at a loss what I should actually be searching for.

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  • Handle BACK key event in child view

    - by Mick Byrne
    In my app, users can tap on image thumbnails to see a full size version. When the thumbnail is tapped a bunch of new views are created in code (i.e. no XML), appended at the end of the view hierarchy and some scaling and rotating transitions happen, then the full size, high res version of the image is displayed. Tapping on the full size image reverses the transitions and removes the new views from the view hierarchy. I want users to also be able to press the BACK key to reverse the image transitions. However, I can't seem to catch the KeyEvent. This is what I'm trying at the moment: // Set a click listener on the image to reverse everything frameView.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View arg0) { zoomOut(); // This works fine } }); // Set the focus onto the frame and then set a key listener to catch the back buttons frameView.setFocusable(true); frameView.setFocusableInTouchMode(true); frameView.requestFocus(); frameView.setOnKeyListener(new OnKeyListener() { @Override public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { // The code never even gets here !!! if(keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK && event.getRepeatCount() == 0) { zoomOut(); return true; } return false; } });

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  • Debugging instance of another thread altering my data

    - by Mick
    I have a huge global array of structures. Some regions of the array are tied to individual threads and those threads can modify their regions of the array without having to use critical sections. But there is one special region of the array which all threads may have access to. The code that accesses these parts of the array needs to carefully use critical sections (each array element has its own critical section) to prevent any possibility of two threads writing to the structure simultaneously. Now I have a mysterious bug I am trying to chase, it is occurring unpredictably and very infrequently. It seems that one of the structures is being filled with some incorrect number. One obvious explanation is that another thread has accidentally been allowed to set this number when it should be excluded from doing so. Unfortunately it seems close to impossible to track this bug. The array element in which the bad data appears is different each time. What I would love to be able to do is set some kind of trap for the bug as follows: I would enter a critical section for array element N, then I know that no other thread should be able to touch the data, then (until I exit the critical section) set some kind of flag to a debugging tool saying "if any other thread attempts to change the data here please break and show me the offending patch of source code"... but I suspect no such tool exists... or does it? Or is there some completely different debugging methodology that I should be employing.

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  • How can I include DBNull as a value in my strongly typed dataset?

    - by Beska
    I've created a strongly typed dataset (MyDataSet) in my .NET app. For the sake of simplicity, we'll say it has one DataTable (MyDataTable), with one column (MyCol). MyCol has its DataType property set to "System.Int32", and its AllowDBNull property set to "true". I'd like to manually create a new row, and add it to this dataset. I create the row without a problem, with something like: MyDataSet.MyDataTableRow myRow = MySimpleDataSet.MyDataTable.NewItemRow(); Fine. However, when I try to set the value to DBNull: myRow.MyCol = DBNull.Value; I'm told that I can't do it...that it can't cast that to an int. This makes sense, in a way, since I've defined it to be an int...but then how can I get DBNull in there? Am I not supposed to be able to have DBNull in there? Isn't that what the AllowDBNull property is for? I'm obviously missing something fundemental. Can someone help explain what it is? EDIT: I also tried entering "int?" as the DataType, but Visual Studio throws an error when I enter it, saying that "Column requires a valid DataType."

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  • Auto Submitting a form (cURL)

    - by cast01
    Im writing a form to post data off to paypal, and this works fine, i create the form with hidden fields and then have a submit button that submits everything to paypal. However, when the user clicks that button, there is more that i want to do, for example change their cart status in the database. So, i want to be able to execute some code when they click submit and then post the data to paypal. I dont want to use javascript for this. My method at the moment is using cURL, the form posts back to the current page, i then check for $_POST data, do my other commands like updating the status of the cart, and then create a curl command, and post the form data to paypal. Now, it gets posted successfully, but the browser doesnt go off to paypal. At first i was just retirieving the result in a string and then echoing it out and i could see that the post was successful, then i set CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION to 1 assuming this would let the browser go off to paypal but it doesnt, what it seems to do is grab some stuff from paypal and put it on my page. Is using cURL the right thing for this? and if so, how do i get round this problem? I want to stay away from javascript for this as only users with javascript enabled would have their cart updated. The code im using for curl is below, the post_data is an array i created and then read key-value pairs into post_string. //Set cURL Options curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 30); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1)"); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, false); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_MAXREDIRS, 20); //Set Data to be Posted curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $post_string); //Execute Request curl_exec($curl_connection);

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  • Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

    - by Ahmed
    Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

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  • Web Reference Code generator template.

    - by Bluephlame
    I Have an internal SOAP Web service that is being called from an external REST service in .NET it works fine however I am simply passing through the SOAP objects of the REST Layer but the automatic generation of the WebReference Code in Visual Studio adds the 'field' to the end of every attribute. basically it makes my XML look all nasty. Everything works I just want to clean up my XML. Any ideas how i can change the template for the reference.cs or to make the XML generate nicely from the Web Service Objects. Here is an example of the reference.cs public int HeadLeft { get { return this.headLeftField; } set { this.headLeftField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadTop { get { return this.headTopField; } set { this.headTopField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadWidth { get { return this.headWidthField; } set { this.headWidthField = value; } } Here is an examle of the XML <a:headHeightField>208</a:headHeightField> <a:headLeftField>316</a:headLeftField> <a:headTopField>103</a:headTopField> <a:headWidthField>161</a:headWidthField>

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  • Removing dotted border without setting NoFocus in Windows PyQt

    - by Cryptite
    There are a few questions on SO about this, all of which seem to say that the only way to remove the dotted border is to set the focusPolicy on widget/item in question to NoFocus. While this works as a temporary fix, this prevents further interaction with said widget/item in the realm of other necessary focusEvents. Said border in question: Here's an example of why this doesn't work. I have a Non-Modal widget popup, think a lightbox for an image. I want to detect a mousePressEvent outside of the widget and close the widget as a result. To do this, I should catch the focusOutEvent. However, if a vast majority of widgets in my program are set as NoFocus (to remove the border issue), then I cannot catch the focusOutEvent because, you guessed it, they have no focus policy. Here's another example: I have a QTreeWidget that is subclassed so I can catch keyPressEvents for various reasons. The QTreeWidget is also set as NoFocus to prevent the border. Because of this, however, the widget never has focus and therefore no keyPressEvents can be caught. A workaround for this (kludgy, imo) is to use the widget's grabKeyboard class, which is dangerous if I forget to releaseKeyboard later. This is not optimal. So then the question is, is there a way to remove this weird (mostly just ugly) dotted border without turning off focus for everything in my app? Thanks in advance!

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  • ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

    - by Mortanis
    I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

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  • How do I break down an NSTimeInterval into year, months, days, hours, minutes and seconds on iPhone?

    - by willc2
    I have a time interval that spans years and I want all the time components from year down to seconds. My first thought is to integer divide the time interval by seconds in a year, subtract that from a running total of seconds, divide that by seconds in a month, subtract that from the running total and so on. That just seems convoluted and I've read that whenever you are doing something that looks convoluted, there is probably a built-in method. Is there? I integrated Alex's 2nd method into my code. It's in a method called by a UIDatePicker in my interface. NSDate *now = [NSDate date]; NSDate *then = self.datePicker.date; NSTimeInterval howLong = [now timeIntervalSinceDate:then]; NSDate *date = [NSDate dateWithTimeIntervalSince1970:howLong]; NSString *dateStr = [date description]; const char *dateStrPtr = [dateStr UTF8String]; int year, month, day, hour, minute, sec; sscanf(dateStrPtr, "%d-%d-%d %d:%d:%d", &year, &month, &day, &hour, &minute, &sec); year -= 1970; NSLog(@"%d years\n%d months\n%d days\n%d hours\n%d minutes\n%d seconds", year, month, day, hour, minute, sec); When I set the date picker to a date 1 year and 1 day in the past, I get: 1 years 1 months 1 days 16 hours 0 minutes 20 seconds which is 1 month and 16 hours off. If I set the date picker to 1 day in the past, I am off by the same amount. Update: I have an app that calculates your age in years, given your birthday (set from a UIDatePicker), yet it was often off. This proves there was an inaccuracy, but I can't figure out where it comes from, can you?

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  • Bad idea to have the same object, have a different side effect after method call.

    - by Nathan W
    Hi all, I'm having a bit of a gesign issue(again). Say I have this Buttonpad object: now this object is a wrapper object over one in a com object. At the moment it has a method on it called CreateInto(IComObject). Now to make a new button pad in the Com Object. You do: ButtonPad pad = new ButtonPad(); pad.Title = "Hello"; // Set some more properties. pad.CreateInto(Cominstance); The createinfo method will excute the right commands to buid the button pad in the com object. After it has been created it any calls against it are foward to the underlying object for change so: pad.Title = "New title"; will call the com object to set the title and also set the internal title variable. Basically any calls before the CreateInfo method only affect the .NET object anything after has the side effect of calling the com object also. I'm not very good at sequence diagrams but here is my attempt to explain whats going on: This doesn't feel good to me, it feels like I'm lying to the user about what the button pad does. I was going to have a object called WrappedButtonPad, which is returned from CreateInto and the user could make calls against that to make changes to the Com Object, but I feel having two objects that almost do the same thing but only differ by names might be even worse. Are these valid designs, or am I right to be worried? How else would you handle a object the can create and query a com object?

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  • .NET Web Serivce hydrate custom class

    - by row1
    I am consuming an external C# Web Service method which returns a simple calculation result object like this: [Serializable] public class CalculationResult { public string Name { get; set; } public string Unit { get; set; } public decimal? Value { get; set; } } When I add a Web Reference to this service in my ASP .NET project Visual Studio is kind enough to generate a matching class so I can easily consume and work with it. I am using Castle Windsor and I may want to plug in other method of getting a calculation result object, so I want a common class CalculationResult (or ICalculationResult) in my solution which all my objects can work with, this will always match the object returned from the external Web Service 1:1. Is there anyway I can tell my Web Service client to hydrate a particular class instead of its generated one? I would rather not do it manually: foreach(var fromService in calcuationResultsFromService) { ICalculationResult calculationResult = new CalculationResult() { Name = fromService.Name }; yield return calculationResult; } Edit: I am happy to use a Service Reference type instead of the older Web Reference.

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • How to generate a monotone MART ROC in R?

    - by user1521587
    I am using R and applying MART (Alg. for multiple additive regression trees) on a training set to build prediction models. When I look at the ROC curve, it is not monotone. I would be grateful if someone can help me with how I should fix this. I am guessing the issue is that initially, MART generates n trees and if these trees are not the same for all the models I am building, the results will not be comparable. Here are the steps I take: 1) Fix the false-negative cost, c_fn. Let cost = c(0, 1, c_fn, 0). 2) use the following line to build the mart model: mart(x, y, lx, martmode='class', niter=2000, cost.mtx=cost) where x is the matrix of training set variables, y is the observation matrix, lx is the matrix which specifies which of the variables in x is numerical, which one categorical. 3) I predict the test set observations using the mart model found in step 2 using this line: y_pred = martpred(x_test, probs=T) 4) I compute the false-positive and false-negative errors as follows: t = 1/(1+c_fn) %threshold based on Bayes optimal rule where c_fp=1 and c_fn. p_0 = length(which(y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_01 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==0))/dim(y_test)[1] p_11 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_fp = p_01/(1-p_0) p_tp = p_11/p_0 5) repeat step 1-4 for a new false-negative cost.

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